-
All of the following structures pass through the inguinal canal in females, Except:
- Inferior Epigastric Artery
- Round ligament of uterus
- Lymphatics from the uterus
- llioinguinal nerve
-
Which of the following statements about 'Valves of Houston' is true:
- Valves disappear after mobilization of Rectum
- The upper valve corresponds to peritoneal reflections
- The valves contain all three layers of muscle wall
- The middle valve corresponds to the middle convex
-
Predominant Blood supply to the supraduodenal bile duct is derived from
- Vessel that run upward along the bile duct from the duodenal end of the duct such as the retroduodenal and the gastroduodenal areteries
- Vessels that run downward along the bile duct from the hepatic end of the duct such as the right hepatic artery
- Vessels thet arises from the hepatic artery proper as it runs up along the common bile duct andsupllies it with twigs in a non-axial distribution
- Vessels that arises from the cystic artery
-
All of the following structures cross the Right Ureter Anteriorly, Except:
- Genitofemoral nerve
- Vas deferens
- Terminal ileum
- Right Colic and ileo colic vessels
-
Little finger of hand corresponds to which of the following dermatomes
-
All of the following statements regarding the spinal cord are true except
- Central canal lies in the white matter
- Efferents leaves from the anterior horn
- Spinal cord end at the lower border of L1 in adults
- Denticulate ligaments suspends spinal medulla in the subarachnoid space
-
Which of the following does not give sensory supply to the pinna
- Tympanic branch of Glossopharyngeal Nerve
- Great Auricular Nerve
- Lesser Occipital Nerve
- Auricotemporal Nerve
-
Dilator pupillae Indis supplied by:
- Postganglionic Sympathetic fibers from superior cervical ganglion
- Postganglionic Parasympathetic fibers from Ciliary Ganglion
- Postganglionic parasympathetic fiberes from Edinger-Westphal Nucleus
- Postganglionic Sympathetic fibers in the frontotemporal branch of CN V
-
All of the following are derrived from pharyngeal arches except
- Palatine Tonsils
- Levator Palpebre superioris
- Palatine Tensor
- Orbicularis Oculi
-
All of the following are derrived from pharyngeal arches except
- Palatine Tonsils
- Tensor Tympani
- Mylohyoid
- Tensor veli Palatini
-
Which of the following anticoagulants prevent cloting of blood in the normal vascular system:
- Antithrombin III
- Plasminogen
- Fibrinogen
- Heparin
-
Discharge from Baroreceptors causes inhibition of
- Rostral Ventrolateral Medulla
- Caudal Ventrolateral Medulla
- Nucleus ambiguous
- Nucleus tractus solitarus
-
Clamping of the carotid arteries below (proximal) the carotid sinus is likely to produce:
- Increase in blood pressure and increase in Heart Rate
- Decrease in Blood Pressure and decrease in Heart Rate
- Increase in Blood pressure and decrease in Heart Rate
- Decrease in Blood Pressure and increase in Heart Rate
-
Cardiac output decreases during
- Standing from lying position
- Anxiety and excitement
- Eating
- High Environmental temperature
-
Electromechanical Systole is best defined as the interval between
- Q wave and S2 (Q-S2 Interval)
- Q wave and S1 (Q-SI Interval)
- Q wave and beginning of T wave
- Q wave and R wave
-
The genotype of a person with blood group 'A' should be:
-
Negative Intrapleural pressure is maintained by:
- Lymphatic drainage of pleural cavity
- Cartilaginous rings in large airways
- Univorm distribution of surfactant over alveoli
- Negative intralveolar pressure
-
Normal Intrapleural Pressure is Negative because
- The chestwall and lungs recoil in opposite durections
- The surfactant prevents pulmonary collapse
- Intrapulmonary Pressure is Negative
- Tranpulmonary Pressure is Negative
-
Amount of dissolved oxygen transported in 100ml of plasma in a subject breathing 100% oxygen at 4 ATA (Atmospheric pressure) will be:
-
The additional amount of oxygen transported in 100ml of of blood in a subject breathing 100% oxygen under byperbaric condition of 4 ATA compared to normobaric condition (1ATA) will be:
-
Which of the following causes maximal cerebral vasodilation:
- Hypercarbia
- Hypoxia
- Lactic Acidosis
- Exercise
-
Which of the following statements about Carbon Monoxide poisoning is not true:
- Tissue joxicity plays an important role in clinical CO poisoning
- Partial measuresas low as 0.6 mm Hg can be lethal
- Carboxy haemoglobin (COHb) causes left shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve
- Hyperbaric oxygen is used for treatment
-
Which of the following events happens when a nerve impulse arrives at the Neuromuscular Junction:
- Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic sarcolemmal membrane
- Release of Calcium from the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
- Initiation of formation of cross bridges to allow music contraction
- Efflux of calcium through synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft
-
Which of the following statements about 'Sham Rage' is Not true:
- Abolished by Decortication
- Caused by Hypothalamic stimulation
- Pathological Rage Reaction
- Associated with sympathetic stimulation
-
Which of the following nucleus of Hypothalamus is most closely related to sexual activity in males
- Preoptic nucleus
- Supraotic nucleus
- Lateral hypothalamic nuclei
- Posterior hypothalamic nuclei
-
Which of the following is likely to happen to the 'Sleep-wake cycle' if all environmental/external cues are removed:
- Will be prolonged to greater than 24 hours
- Will temain unchanged at 24 hours
- Will be shortened to less than 24 hours
- Will become irregular
-
Which of the following basal gaoglia nucleus is primarily glutaminergic:
- Subthalamic Nucleus
- Putamen
- Globus Pallidus
- Substantia Nigra
-
Which of the following types of islet cells secrete amylin
- Beta Cells
- Alpha cells
- Delta cells
- F cells
-
Diurnall variation in Eosinophil count is related.
- Cortisol
- Thyroxine
- Grwth hormone
- Testesterone
-
An immunoglobulin molecule represents the following level of organized protein structure:
- Quartenary structure
- Secondary structure
- Tertiary structure
- Primary structure
-
All of the following metabolic functions occur in the mitochondria, Except:
- Biosynthesis of fatty acids
- Beta-oxidation of farty acids
- Protein synthesis
- Citric acid cycle
-
Which of the following events does not occur when concentration of glucose in the liver decreases:
- Increased levels of Fructose 2, 6-Bisphosphate
- Activation of Fructose Bisphosphatase-2 (Fructose 2, 6 Bisphosphatase)
- Inactivation of phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2)
- Increased levels of Glucagon
-
All of the following metabolic changes occur during prolonged fasting when compared with fasting for 12-24 hours, except:
- Liver gluoneogenesis increases
- Brain use of ketone bodies increases
- Muscle protein degradation decreases
- Brain use of glucose decreases
- 33b. Which of the following metabolic events will not occur following 12-24 hour of fasting:
- Decrease in Serum Proteins
- Increase in Ketone bodies
- Decrease in Glycogen
- Increase in Free Fatty Acids
-
Which of the following enzymes is common to the synthesis of cholesterol and ketone bodies:
- HMG-Co-A Synthase
- HMG-Co-A Lyase
- HMG-Co-A Reductase
- Thiokinase
-
Which of the following does not undergo phosphorylation by protein kinases in Eukaryotes
- Asparagine
- Tyrosine
- Serine
- Threonine
-
Which of the following antinoacids in a protein commonly acts as a potential O-glycosylation site for attachment of an oligosacharide unit:
- Serine
- Cysteine
- Glutamine
- Asparginine
-
Which of the following statements regarding mature cytoplasmic messenger RNA is true:
- Transcribed from Nuclear DNA
- Has Thiamine in place of Uracil
- Sugar is DeoxyRibose
- Its molecular weight is more than hn-RNA
-
Which of the following represents the most charactteristic function of Type II Restriction Enzymes:
- Cut DNA at palindromic sites
- Remove formed DNA
- Prevent supercoiling
- Prevent folding of proteins
-
Which of the following methods is most suited to assess function of a gene:
- Transgenic animals
- Northern blot
- Gene knockout animals
- Southern blot
-
All of the following assays are used for estimation of total serum protein, except:
- Bromocresol green
- Bradford
- Lowry's
- Biuret
-
A protein solution on heating forms a precipitate at abou 40ѣ which redissolves at higher temperature. This solution is likely to contain:
- Bence Jones Protein
- Cryoglobulins
- Complement
- Alpha-2-macroglobulins
-
Keratin in skin is softer than keratin in nail because keratin in skin has:
- Less number of disulphide bonds
- Less number of salt bridges
- High sodium content
- Different affinity for water
-
Which of the following is not a phase I Reaction:
- Conjugation
- Reduction
- Hydrolysis
- Oxidation
-
A 12 year old child presents with mental retardation and history of self mutilation. Which of the following rests will help in determing the diagnosis:
- Serum Uric Acid Levels
- Serum Alkaline Phosphatase Levels
- Serum Lactate Dehydrogenase Levels
- Serum Lead Levels
-
Which of the following calcium channel blockers is the most potent cerebral vasodilator
- Nimodipine
- Nifedipine
- Verepamil
- Diltiazem
-
All of the following are indications of thiazide diuretics, Except:
- Hyperlipidemia
- Heart Failure
- Nephrolithiasis from idiopathic hypercalciuria
- Hypertension
-
All the following diruetics are associated with increased risk of drug induced urinary calculi formation, except:
- Hypochlorthiazide
- Furrosemide
- Acetazolamid
- Triamterene
-
A patient with idiopathic hypercalciuria has renal calculi, which of the following diuretics is contraindicated.
- Furosemide
- Thiazide
- Spironolactone
- Amiloride
-
All of the following drugs cause sinus tachycardia, except:
- Clonidine
- Theophylline
- Nifedipine
- Atropine
-
Apixaban is a:
- Factor Xa inhibitor
- Antiplatelet agent
- TNF alpha Inhibitors
- Interferon Alpha Inhibitor
-
Antiplatelet therapy with clopidorgel is usually given for patients with stroke, myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular diseases. Proton pump inhibitors are usually administered along with clopidogrel to prevent the risk of increased gastrointestinal erosion and bleeding. The interaction between clopidogrel and PPI has recently been given much attention due to its clinical significance. Which of the following enzymes is the common pathway of metabolism of both drugs that plays an important role in their interaction?
- CYP2CI9
- CYP2C9
- CYP3A4
- CYP2D6
-
The long term use of which of the following .......... drugs is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency:
- Metformin
- Repaginide
- Gheazidi
- Vidagliptin
-
Drug with low therapeutic index whose blood levels need to be monitored include all of the following except:
- Warfarin
- Cyclosporine
- Gentamycin
- Lithium
-
Which of the following drugs on overdose may cause features of cyanide toxicity
- Sodium Nitroprusside
- Epinephrine
- Nitroglyceride
- Norepinephrine
-
Which o f the following agents is not a Serotonin Donamine Antagonist (SDA)
- Amisulpride
- Sertindole
- Zotepine
- Risperidone
-
All of the following statements about Clozapine are true, Except:
- Blood clozapine levels are maintained <350 ng/ml to prevent risk of agranulocytosis
- Clozapine should be discontinued if WBC count is <3000/mm
- Clozapine has a relatively lower potency to block D2 receptors in comparison to D1 receptors
- Combination of clozapine and carbamazepine should be avoided
-
After taking some mediciation for an acute attack of migraine, a female patient developed nausea, vomiting and ringling/numbness of her hands. The tip of her finger and nail bed was also observed to turn blue. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause the above features.
- Ergotamine
- Sumpatriptan
- Cyproheptadine
- Beta Blockers
-
An elderly male suffering from allergic conjunctivities uses a topical drug that prevents the release of chemical mediators from mast cells. Which of the following is the likely mechanism of action of this drug:
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of Leukotriene synthesis
- Inhibition of 5-Lipoxygenase
- Inhibition/Blockage of b2 receptors
-
All of the following agents are bactericidal. Except
- Tigecycline
- Isoniazid
- Moxifloxacin
- Daptomycin
-
Culture from Leg ulcer of a hospital-ridden patient shows growth of Methicillin-resisitant Staphylococcus Aureus. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be effective:
- Ciprofloxacin
- Cotrimoxazole
- Cefaclor
- Vancomycin
-
Which of the following fluoroquinolones has the longest half life:
- Moxifloxacin
- Levofloxacin
- Ciprofloxacin
- Lomefloxacin
-
A patient suffering from HIV infection is put on HAART therapy. He presents to the outpatient department with lipodystrophy. Laboratory investigations show hypertriglyceredemia and hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible:
- Ritonavir
- Zidovudine
- Nevirapine
- Lamivudine
-
Which of the following side effects is most likely to occur in slow acetylators on treatment with INH for Pulmoinary Tuberculosis?
- Peripheral Neuropathy
- Hepatotoxicity
- Thrombocytopenia
- Nephrotoxicity
-
A patient with diarrhea was prescribed a drug to inhibit pyruvate ferrodoxime oxidoreductase. Which of the following infections is the likely to be suffering from:
- Cryptosporidiasis
- Beef tape worm infection
- Trepanosomiasis
- Whip worm infection
-
All of the following are known adverse effects of Thalidomide, except.
- Mycarditis
- Sedation
- Peripheral Neuropathy
- Constipation
-
Temezolamide is classified as a/an:
- Alkylating agent
- Antitumor Antibody
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme
-
A drug 'A' is already in use and drug B needs to be introduced. The value of the new drug in relation to the old drug can be established by which phase of dug trial.
- Phase III
- Phase II
- Phase I
- Phase IV
-
The preferred method of drug designing is:
- Target-structure based
- Hit and Trial method
- Moclecular modeling
- High throughout method
-
Which amongst the following is a marker to carinoma:
- Cytokeratin
- Vimentin
- Calretinin
- CD45
-
Which of the following is a characteristic marker for Langerhans cell Histriocytosis:
-
All of the following are pyrogenic cytokines, Except:
- Interleuken 18 (IL – 18)
- Interleukin 6 (IL – 6)
- Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
- Interferon a (IFN-a)
-
All of the following stem cell populations are found within the bone marrow, except:
- Myoblast Progemitor cells
- Endothelial Progenitor cells
- Mesenchymal stem cells
- Hematopoetic stem cells
-
A young adolesant male presents with dyspnea and is observed to have a mediastinal mass. Which of the following lymphomas is the most likely cause:
- Precursos T cell ALL
- B cell rich T cell lymphoma
- Mediastinal Rich B cell Lymphoma
- Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma
-
Increased Reid Index is used to characterized:
- Bronchial Asthma
- Bronchiectasis
- Chronic Bronchitis
- Emphysema
-
Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS):
- Diffuse Alveolar Damage
- Hypoxemia and Hypoxia
- Surfactant Deficiency
- Hypocapnia
-
Which of the following amyloid forms is seen in secondary amyloidosis asocciated with chronic disease
- Amyloid Associated protein
- Amyloid Light Chain
- Beta 2 Amyloid
- ATTR
-
Which of the following statements about Rheumatoid Factor is true:
- It is an IgM antibody directed against IgG
- It is an IgG antibody directed against IgM
- It is more specific than Anti-CCP antibodies
- It is positive in all cases of Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
-
A 30 year old lady presents to the outpatient department with an Erythematous butterfly rash on her checks. Which of the following antibodies should be assayed initially for her suspected condition:
- Anti-Ds-DNA
- Anti-Ro-Antibody
- Anti-Centromere-Antibody
- Anti-mitochondiral-Antibody
-
A 40-year-old hypertensive male was admitted to the hospital with sudden onset of headache and altered sensorium. On Examination his Blood Pressure was observed to be 220/110mm Hg and the patient died four hours later. What is the likely pathological finding in his kidneys:
- Small kidney with peticheal haemorrhages
- Small kidney with granularsurface
- Large kidney with waxy appearance
- Large kidney with granular surface
-
All of the following statements about Hereditary AngioNeurotic Oedema (HANO) are true, except:
- Pitting oedema of face is common
- Most commonly caused by C1 esterase deficiency
- Associated with increase levels of Bradykinin
- Associated with decreased complement substrates C2 and C4
-
Which of the following immune hypersensitivity reaction is resonsible for Myasthenia Gravis:
- Type I Hypersensivity
- Type II Hypersensitivity
- Type III Hypersensitivity
- Type IV Hypersensitivity
-
All of the following are autosomal dominant disorders, except:
- Ataxia Telengisctasia
- Gardner's syndrome
- Neurofibromatosis
- Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
-
Which of the following porphyrias is not inherited as an Autosomal Dominant disorder
- Congenital Erythropoetis Porphyria
- Acute Intermittent Porphyria
- Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
- Hereditary Coproporphyria
-
Which of the following is the most common mutation in Ewing's sarcoma:
- Translocation 11:22
- Translocation X:18
- Activative mutation of G5alpha surface protein
- Missense mutation in EXTI
-
Which of the following is most resistant to antiseptics:
-
A five year old child presents with pustular lesions on the lower legs. The culture from the lesion showed hemolytic gram positive coccal pyoderma can be done by:
- Bacitracin sensitivity
- Optochicin Sensitivity
- Bile solubility
- Catalase positivity
-
Endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria have no part in pathogenesis of disease:
- Vibrio cholera
- Klebsiella
- E.coli
- Pseudomonas Aerogenosa
-
Cholera toxin effects are mediated by stimulation of which of the following second messengers:
- cAMP
- cGMP
- Ca** - calmodulin
- IP3/DAG
-
Which of following 'Vibrios' is most commonly associated with ear infections:
- alginolyticus
- V.Parahemolyticus
- Vulnifcus
- Vibrio fluvialis
-
Infective dose of Salmonella Typhi is
- One Bacili
- 1 to 10 Bacili
- 102 to 105 Bacilli
- 108 to 1010 bacilli
-
A characteristic infection of Nocardia Asteroids is
- Brain Abscess
- Secondary Dissemination to liver
- Diarrhea
- Colonic Diverticulosis
-
Gram stained periorbital exudates in severe panophthalmitus with cellulitis in an elderly diabetic shows irregular branching aseptate and broad hyphae which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
- Apophysomyces sp
- Aspergillus
- Pencillium
- Candida
-
A farmer from the sub-Himalayan region presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely catisative agent is:
- Sporothrix Schenkii
- Cladosporium species
- Trichophyton Rubrum
- Aspergillus
-
Which of the following features is not shared between 'T cells' and 'B cells':
- Positive Selection During Development
- Class I MHC Expression
- Antigen Specific Receptors
- All of the above
-
Epstein Barr virus causes autommunity by:
- Polyclonal B cell Activation
- Release of sequestrated Antigen
- Inappropriate Expression of MHC Class H Molecules
- Molecular Mimicry
-
A child presents with recurrent episodes of sinopulmonary infection by bacteria with polysaccharide rich capsules. Which of the following subsclass deficiency of immunoglobulins s likely in cause such infections:
- IgG2
- IgGI
- IgA
- IgA – lgGI
- 96b. A child presents with recurrent episodes of sinopulmonary infection by bacteria with polysacharide rich capsules. Deficiency of which of the following immunoglobulin subclasses should be specifically investigated.
- IgA + IgG2
- IgGI
- IgG2
- IgA
-
With Reference to antibiotic resistance all of the following statements are true, Except:
- Plasmid mediated resistance is exclusively transmitted vertically
- Most common mechanism is production of neutralizing enzymes by bacteria
- Complete elimination of target binding site may be the mechanism of reesistance in some enterococci against vancomycin
- Alteration of target binding site leads to development of resistance to antibiotics in streptococcus pneumonia
-
Vaccination is based on the principle of:
- Immunologic Memory
- Phagocytosis
- Agglutination
- Clonal detection
-
Which of the following statements regarding- Gamma-Release-Assays for diagnosis of Tuberculosis is true:
- Second Generation Quanti FERON-TB (Gold) assay used ESAT - 6 and CPF-10
- First Generation QuantiFERON - TB assay used ESAT-6
- These tests can distinguish between M tuberculosis and M.boyis
- None of the the non-tuberculosis mycobacteria give a positive reaction with the test
-
Anteroposterior diameter or skull is minimum in:
- Brachycephaly
- Mesaticephaly
- Dolicocephaly
- Trigonocephaly
-
Which of the following methods is used for demonstrating old washed up blood stains.
- Luminol stray
- Infrared photography
- Ultraviolet light
- Magnify lens
-
A person 'X' hits another person 'Y' with a wooden stick on provocation. This leads to formation of a bruise 3cm X #cm on the forearm. No other injuries are noted. Which of the following is true, regarding his punishment
- Imprisonment for one year and/or fine of Rs.1000
- Imprisonment for two years and/or fine of Rs. 5000
- Imprisonment for 1 month and/or fine of Rs. 500
- Rigorous Imprisonment for six month
-
Disclosure of Identity of Rape Victim is protected under which of the following sections of IPC:
- Section 298A
- Section 228A
- Section 226 A
- Section 225A
-
An accused in a case of sodomy is brought for Medical Examination. On detailed questioning he reveals that he is an active agent and is a regular participant. Which of the following will not be seen during examination of the accused:
- Presence of smegma
- Foecal smell
- Tear of Frenulum
- Relative Constriction of shaft of penis
-
For medical termination of pregnancy (MTP), consent is required from
- Wife
- Husband
- Both Wife and husband
- Either Wife or husband
-
Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine of rupture of hymen and whether rupture is recent or old:
- Glaister Keene Rods
- Gaba Rod
- Gram Rod
- Cylinder Rod
-
The 'Japanese Detergent Suicide Technique' involves mixing of common houschold chemical to produce:
- H2S and other poisonous gases
- Deadly foam
- Deadly Acidic Compond
- Deadly fluid cyanide compound
-
Which of the following statements about the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances ACT (NDPS) is true:
- Provides different punishment for drug users and drug peddlers
- Recommends treatment/rehabilitations of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers
- Consumption of Excessive alcohol is punishable under the act
- Farmers growing opium are permitted to grow and consume unlimited amounts of opium
-
Forced diuresis with acidification or alkalinization of urine is a common method for elimination of certain poisons/drugs from the body. The elimination of which of the following drugs is commonly enhanced by alkaline duresis.
- Phenobarbitone
- Amphetamines
- Phencylidine
- Theophyline
-
All of the following statements regarding case control and cohort studies are true, Except:
- Cohorts are chosen based on history of 'Exposure'
- Cohort studies require longer time frame than case control studies
- Cohort studies are suitable to investigate 'rare' disease
- Cohort studies yield information about more than one disease
-
In the Natural History of Disease, all of the following statements about the 'Period of Pathogeness' are true except:
- Occurs after agent enters the human host
- Tertiary prevention is possible at this stage
- Subclinical Phase may be present
- Screening has no role in his phase
-
If alternate of medicine were accepted as a modality of therapy, then 'Yoga' would be best described as a form of:
- Physiotherapy
- Preventive Medicine
- Emergency Medicine
- Caloric usurper
-
A state of disease endemicity in which disease transmission has been stopped but the agent persists is:
- Eradication
- Elimination
- Control
- Holoendemic
-
Given three genera of mosquitoes (Culex, Anopheles and Aedes) act as vectors for which of the following diseases world wide:
- Filariasis
- Dengue
- Malaria
- Yellow Fever
-
Recommended Larvicides for control of Malaria includes all of the following Except:
- Pyrethrum
- Abate
- Fenthian
- Copper Acetoarsenite
-
All of the following vaccines are recommended for elderly travelers. Except:
- Influenza
- Pneumococcal
- Tetanus
- Measles
-
DALY measures:
- Years lost due to premature ddeath and years lived with disability
- Years lost due to prematue death and years lived without disability
- Years lost due to disability
- Years lived without disability
-
Vision 2020 include all of the following: Except:
- Cataract
- Refractory Errors
- Vitamin A Deficiency
- Diabetic Retinopathy
-
All of the following 'Health Related Millennium Development Goals' in India are true, Except:
- Reduce under – 5 mortality rate by 2/3rd between 1990 to 2015
- Reduce Maternal Mortality ratio by 3/4th between 1990 to 2015
- Hault and begin to reverse the spread of HIV/AIDs by 2015
- Hault and begin to reverse the spread of Tuberculosis by 2015
-
Regular reporting of health information is used for all of the following. Except:
- For planning, administration and effective management of health services
- For epidemiological research
- For assessing attitudes and satisfactions of people reporting information
- For quantifying health problems and assessing health care needs.
-
Resource person for Training of ASHA are:
- AWW and MPW
- AWW and ANM
- MPW and ANM
- ANM and MO
-
Sex ratio of children population in the age group of 0-6 years according to the 2011 census is:
-
For the purpose of Intervention Trials. the preferred randomization unit is an individual for all of the following. except:
- Vaccine
- Drug
- Surgery
- Health Education
-
'Design Effect' is associated with which of the following sampling techniques:
- Cluster sampling
- Systemic sampling
- Stratified sampling
- Simple Random Sampling
-
Which of the following statistics should be adjusted for age to allow comparisons:
- Crude Mortality Rate
- Age Specific Fertility Rate
- Perinatal Mortality Rate
- Infant Mortality Rate
-
Median is the most appropriate measure of central tendency for all of the following except:
- Blood pressure
- Survival time
- Health Expenditure
- Incubation period
-
Fasting Blood Sugar (FBS) of a population is known to be normally distributed, with a mean of 105 mg% and standard deviation of 10mg%. Thus 95% of the population will have FBS within:
- 104 and 106
- 95 and 115
- 85 and 125
- 75 and 135
-
Estimated mean Heoglobin (Hb) of 100 women is 10g% Standard deviation (s) is 1gm%. Standard error of estimate will be:
-
'P' value stands for:
- Probability of concluding that a difference does not exist while in reality such a difference does exist.
- Probability to achieve an incorrect result
- Probability of concluding that a difference exists while in reality such a difference does not exist
- Probability to achieve a correct result
-
For the diagnosis of SLE 6 tests are done of which 4 came as positive and 2 negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, we need to know:
- Prtor probability, sensitivity and specificity.
- Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
- Incidence and prevalence of SLE
- Relative Risk of SLE
-
Amount of alcohol consumption amongst a group of Alcoholies, before and after intervention was recorded. The most appropriate statistical test to assess 'significant change' from the intervention programme would be:
- Paired t test
- Unpaired t test
- Chiquare Test
- McNemar Test
-
Which of the following types of anemia is associated with a Raised MCV and Normal MCHC:
- Sideroblastic anemia
- Vitamin B 12 and Folic acid deficiency
- Beta thalassemia
- Iron deficiency anemia
-
Which of the following causes of Anemia is associated with a Hypoplastic marrow:
- Fanconi's Anemia
- Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)
- Hypersplenism
- Myelofibrosis
-
Massive Splenomegaly is least likely to be associated with which of the following Myeloproliferative disorders:
- Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)
- Polycythemia Vera (PV)
- Chromic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
- Primary Myeloproliferative (PMF)
-
All of the following are associated with Secondary Hemochromatosis except:
- Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH)
- Sideroblastic Anemia
- Hereditary Spherocytosis
- Thalassemia Major
-
Which of the following is the least common feature of Multiple Myeloma:
- Hyperviscosity syndrome
- Normocytic Normochromic Anemia
- Susceptibility to bacterial infection
- Bone Pain
-
The following is the finding seen in DIVC:
- Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced Platelets
- Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
- Increased FDP, prolonged PT, decreased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
- Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin-antithrombin III complexes
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A 25 year-old pregnant lady presents with thrombocytopenia (Platelet count < 50,000) and fragmented RBC's in peripheral smear. Which of the following is the least likely differential diagnosis?
- Evan's syndrome
- Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
- HELLP syndrome
- Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
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All of the following are used in the initial management of acute life threatening cardiogenic pulmonary edema, except:
- Digoxin
- Morphine
- Furosemide
- Positive Pressure Ventilation
-
Which of the following is the preferred marker for detecting Acute STEMI in Atheletes:
- Troponin T/I
- CK-MB
- C-Reactive Protein
- LDH
-
Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Infective Endocarditis:
- Small ASD
- Small VSD
- Mild MR
- Mild MS
-
Which of the following drugs has been linked with increased cardiac mortality:
- Rofecoxib
- Metoprolol
- Losartan
- Nicorandil
-
A patient presents with sudden onset of breathlessness after a subclavian vein cannulation. On examination, breath sounds are absent while the chest is hyper resonant on percussion on one side. Most likely cause is:
- latrogenic Pheumothorax
- Subclavian Vein air embolus
- Malposition of cannula
- Cardiac Arrhythmia
-
All of the following statements about Non Small Cell Carcinoma of Lung (NSCCL) are true, Except:
- Gefitinib is most effective for female smokers with adenocarcinoma on histology
- Single Agent Chemotherapy is preferred for patient > 70 years with advanced disease
- Squammous Cell Carcinoma is the most common NSCCL amongst Asian population
- Contralateral mediastinal nodes are a contraindication to surgical resection
-
A 30 year old man presents with generalized edema and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic hematuria. Serum complement levels ae decreased and he is positive for anti-hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is:
- Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
- Cryoglobulinemia
- Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
- Focal Segmental Glomerular Sclerosis (FSGS)
- 145b. A 60 year-old woman presents with generalized edemia, skin ulceration and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic haematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased and she is positive for anti-hepatitis C antibodies. The likely diagnosis is:
- Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia
- Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
- Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
- focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS
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Which of the statements about Renal Tubular Acidosis type I (Type 1 RTA) is not true:
- Associated with Hyperkalemia
- Associated with increased risk of urinary stones
- Failure to acidify urine to a pH < 5
- Treatment involves alkali replacement as bicarbonate
-
A patient who has been diagnosed with bronchiectasis 5 years ago presents with edema on legs and proteinuria. The most likely finding in his kidney will be:
- Amyloid Nephropathy
- Minimal Change Disease
- Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
- Crescenteric Glomerulonephritis
-
Which of the following statements about Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is least correct:
- Serotoxin has no role in pathogenesis
- Often self-limited
- Fever is usually muld or absent
- Usually follows Haemorrhagic colitis
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A patient on treatment with ketoconazole for a fungal disease develops Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). Which of the following drugs should not be prescribed to him.
- Cisapride
- Itopride
- Metoclopramide
- Domperidone
-
Which of the following drugs is used for Irritable Bowel Syndrome of the constipating type:
- Lubiprostone
- Cholestyramine
- Alosetron
- Rifaximin
-
A 14-year-old girl with history of prolonged fever and abdominal discomfort is observed to have splenomegaly and leucopenia. In the course of the disease she develops acute abdominal event and died. Which of the following is the likely finding on autopsy:
- Longitudinal ulcers
- Transverse ulcers
- Pinpoint ulcers
- Pseudopolyps
-
Deficiency of which of the following vitamin is most commonly seen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection:
- Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamine)
- Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
- Folic Acid
- Vitamin K
- 152b. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is most commonly seen in short bowel syndrome.
- Vitamin B12
- Biotin
- Vitamin B1
- Vitamin K
-
A man presents with history of hemetemests of about 500 ml of blood. On examination, spleen is palpable 5 cms below the left costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is:
- Portal Hypertension
- Gastric ulcer
- Drug induced
- Mallory Weiss Tear
-
which of the following is a 'Small Vessel Vasculitis'
- Microscopic polyangitis
- Polyarteritis 'Nodosa (PAN)
- Giant cell vasculitis
- Takyasu's Disease
-
Type I Cryoglobulinerma is a associated with all of the following. Except
- Strongly posituse Rheumatoid factor
- Monoclonal IgM paraprotein
- Normal complement levels
- Hyperviscosity
-
Which of the following statements about Fibromyalgia is true:
- SPECT studies have reduced blood flow to the thalamus
- Sleep EEG studies have shown disruption in REM sleep
- Increased Cortisol response to stress
- More common in Males
-
The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as:
- Jod-Basedown effect
- Wolff-Chaokoff effect
- Thyrotoxicosis factitia
- De Quervain's thyroiditis
-
Which of the following most closely represents the lowest detection limit for Third generation TSH Assays:
- 0.04 mIU/L
- 0.4 mIU/L
- 0.004 mJU/L
- 0.0004mI/L
-
Which of the following is least likely to be associated with gynecomastia
- Prolactinoma
- Adrenal himors
- hCG secreting tumors
- Estrogen Secreting Tumors
-
All of the following agents may be used in the management of Chronic Hypocalcemia, except:
- Etidronate
- Thiazides
- Elemental calcium
- Vitamin D analogs
-
A 12 year old boy presents to the Outpatient department with history of progressively inccreasing difficulty in walking and frequent falls. Physical examination reveals an ataxic gait and nystagmus. All deep tendon reflexes were observed to be absent while the platar response was 'Extensor' what is the most likely diagnosis?
- Friedreich's Ataxia
- Subacute Combined Degeneration of Cord (SACD)
- Becker's Muscular Dystrophy
- TobesDorsalis
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