Sharad Medicine

  1. 1501. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances except:
    • a. After 1 minute of arrest routinely b. Hypocalcemia
    • c. Calcium channel blocker toxicity d. Electromechanical dissociation
  2. 1502. Diagnosis of rotavirus diarrhea is confirmed by:
    a. Stool culture b. Antigen detection in blood by ELISHA c. Antigen detection in stool by ELISHA d. Antibody detection in blood by ELISHA
  3. 1503. The most specific investigation for rotavirus infection is:
    a. Stool antigen b. Serum ELISHA c. Microscopy d. Stool culture
  4. 1504. The ECG changes seen in hyperkalemia are all of the following except :
    a. Flat P waves b. Peaked P waves c. Tall T waves d. Progressive widening of QRS
  5. 1505.Polymyositis involves all of the following muscles except:
    a. Brachialis b. Ocular muscles c. Vastus medialis d. Shoulder gridle
  6. 1506. The drug of choice in the treatment of PSVT is:
    a. Amiodarone b. Adenosine c. Procainamide d. Propranolol
  7. 1507. The patent ductus arteriosus connects aorta and:
    a. Pulmonary trunk b. Left pulmonary artery c. Subclavian artery d. Descending aorta
  8. 1508. Neurological complications of meningitis include all of the following except :
    a. Seizures b. Increases intracranial pressure c. Cerebral hemantoma d. Subdural effusions
  9. 1509. Following cranial nerve is most commonly involved in patients with sarcoidosis:
    • a. II cranial nerve b. III cranial nerve c. VII cranial nerve d. IX cranial nerve
    • 1510. The most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is:
    • a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary thromboembolism c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Primary
    • spontaneous pneumothorax
  10. 1511. All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aortic regurgitation except:
    • a. High-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur b. Soft, low pitched mid-diastolic rumbling murmur
    • c. Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur d. pan-systolic murmur
  11. 1512. The most recent advance in non-invasive cardiac output monitoring is use of:
    a. PA catheter b. Thermodilution technique c. Echocardiography d.. Electrical impedance cardiograph technology
  12. 1513. ASD is seen in all except:
    a. Turner’s syndrome b. Ellis-van creveld syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Holt-Oram syndrome
  13. 1514. Selective media for TB bacilli is:
    a. NNN media b. Dorset media c. Lowenstein-Jensen media d. Nutrient agar
  14. 1515. Drug of choice in anaphylaxia:
    a. Epinephrine b. chlorpheniramine c. Wait and watch d. Nebulished salbutamol
  15. 1516. A 70 year old man was administered penicillin intravenously. Within 5 minutes, he developed generalized urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm. The first choice of treatment is to administer:
    a.Chlorpheniramine injection b. Epinephrine injection c. High-dose hydrocortisone tablet d. Nenulished salbutamol
  16. 1517. A 30 year old man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of5-days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubinof 6.7 mg/dl( conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST /ALT) of 123/900 IU/ml. the secrological tests showed presence of HBsAG, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg. The most likely diagnosis is;
    • a. chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity b. Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
    • c. chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity d. Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
  17. 1518. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of patients of pneumonic plague is:
    a. penicillin b. rifampicin c. Erythromycin d. Tetracycline
  18. 1519. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except :
    • a. T-wave inversions develops before ST elevations return to baseline
    • b. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis
    • c. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding
    • d. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients
  19. 1520. Troponin T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute MI in all of the following situations except:
    a. Bedside diagnosis of MI b. Postoperatively after CABG c. Re-infarction after 4 days d. Small infarcts
  20. 1521. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from legionnaire’s disease after he returns home from attending convention. He could have acquired it:
    • a. From a person suffering from the infection while traveling in the aeroplane
    • b. From a chronic carrier in the conversion center
    • c. From inhalation of the aerosol in the air-conditioned room at convention center
    • d. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention
  21. 1522. The following are true regarding lyme disease, except :
    • a. It is transmitted by ixodes tick b. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature
    • c. Borrelia recurrentis is the etiological agent d . Rodents act as natural hosts
  22. 1523. A 30 year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnea and non-productive cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray revelas bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Cryptococcosis c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia d. Toxoplasmosis
  23. 1524. True regarding methemoglobinemia is:
    • a. Oxygen saturation is normal b. Amyl nitrite is used in the treatment of symptomatic cases
    • c. Hemoglobin is in the ferrous form d. Levels greater than 5% are almost always fatal
  24. 1525. Reye’s syndrome is caused by:
    a. Ibuprofen b. Mefenamic acid c. Salicylates d. Naproxen
  25. 1526.All of the following are X-linked transmissions except :
    a. Down syndrome b. Duchenne muscle dystrophy c. Hemophilia d. G-6-PD deficiency
  26. 1527. All of the following autosomal recessive except :
    a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Wilson’s disease
  27. 1528. Turner’s syndrome karyotype is:
    a. 45, XXY b. 45 XO c. 45, XX d. 45, XY
  28. 1529. A 19 year old female with short stature wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhea most likely has a karyotype of:
    a. 47, XX +18 b. 46, XXY c. 47, XXY d. 45 X
  29. 1530. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis?
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Addison’s disease d. Hypoparathyroidism
  30. 1531.Normal value in blood analysis is:
    a. PaO2 of arterial blood 105 b. paO2 of arterial blood 110 c. SaO2 of 90 d. Sao2 of blood 97
  31. 1532. In a diabetic it was found that he was suffering from orbital mucormycosis. The treatment to be given to him would include:
    a. Amphotericin B b. itraconazole c. Fluconazole d. Ketoconazole
  32. 1533. Which of the following is an acquired stem cell defect as a cause of anemia:
    a. G-6-PD deficiency b. Pure red cell aplasia c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria d. Shwachman syndrome
  33. 1534. First abnormality of ALport’s syndrome is:
    a. Microscopic hematuria b. Proteinuria c. Sensorineural deafness d. Lenticonus
  34. 1535. Men II syndrome is associated with all of the following except :
    a. Pheochromocytoma b. Pituitary adenoma c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid d. Parathyroid hyperplasia
  35. 1536. True about sydenham’s chorea is all of the following except:
    • a. Usually occurs 6 months after rheumatic fever b. Occurs in 1/3 d of cases of rheumatic fever
    • c. The jerks are exaggerated on movement d. ALSO titer and other markers are not specific
  36. 1537. Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis is:
    a. Japanese B virus b. Herpes simplex virus c. Human immunodeficiency virus d. Rubeola virus
  37. 1538.All of the following are associated with SLE except:
    a. Thrombocytopenia b. Leukopenia c. Lymphocytosis d. Anemia
  38. 1539. all of the following parameters indicate prerenal azotemia except:
    • a. Urine sodium is less than 20 b. Urine to serum creatinine ratio is >20
    • c. FeNa is >1 d. Serum BUN to creatinine ratio is <20
  39. 1540. All of the following changes are seen in hemolytic anemia except :
    a. Increased reticulocyte count b. Increased hemoglobinuria c. Increased heptoglobin d. Iron deficiency
  40. 1541. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is:
    a. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin b. Replacement of glutamate by valine in β-chain of HbA c. A nonsense mutation in the β-chain of HbA d. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the α-chain of HbA
  41. 1542. de Quervain’s thyroiditis is characterized by all except :
    a. Tender enlargement of thyroid b. Increased ESR c. Increased RAIU d. Fever
  42. 1543. Metabolic acidosis occurs in all except:
    a. Diarrhea b. Renal tubular acidosis c. Pyloric stenosis d. CRF
  43. 1544. Recent studies show that relapses of P. vivax is due to:
    a. Exoerythrocytic stage b. Erythrocytic stage c. Liver hypnozoites d. Vivax stage in peripheral smears
  44. 1545.Erysipelas is caused by:
    a. Viruses b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pseudomonas d. Streptococcus
  45. 1546.Broca’s are is situated at:
    a. Inferior frontal gyrus b. Superior frontal gyrus c. Inferior temporal gyrus d. Superior temporal gyrus
  46. 1547. Mesna is used to treat :
    a. Nausea and vomiting b. Neuritis c. Hemorrhagic cystitis d. Drug fever
  47. 1548. Sodium -2-mercapto ethane sulfonte(Mensa) is used as a protective agent in:
    a. Radiotherapy b. cancer chemotherapy c. Lithotropsy d. Hepatic encephalopathy
  48. 1549. True about acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) are all except :
    a. Dark urine b. Acute abdominal pain c. Skin manifestation d. Neuropsychiatric features
  49. 1550. Resistance against anti-TB drug primarily starts from:
    a.INH b. Rifampicin c. PZM d. Streptomycin
  50. 1551. Cause of candidiasis all except :
    a. OC pills b. DM c. Hypertension d. Pregnancy
  51. 1552. Organism causing dental caries:
    a. Streptococcus mutans b. Streptococcus sanguis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. bacteroides
  52. 1553. Streptococci cause toxic shock syndrome due to:
    a. Streptolysin – S b. Pyrogenic exotoxin c. M protein d. Streptolysin – O
  53. 1554. Which of the following is false regarding Wiskott-aldrich syndrome?
    a. Increased IgE b. Decreased IgM c. Increased IgA d. Decreased CD4/CD8 ratio
  54. 1555. All of the following are associated with increased bone age except:
    a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Gonadal tumors c. Turner syndrome d. Polyostotic dysplasia
  55. 1556.A 62 year old man with carcinoma of lung presented to emergency department with respiratory distress His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Cardiac tamponade d. Constrictive pericarditis
  56. 1557.Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions except:
    a. Mitral stenosis b. Hypothyroidism c. Dilated cardiomyopathy d. Mitral regurgitation
  57. 1558.The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as:
    a. Jodbasedow effect b. wolff-Chaikoff effect c. Thyrotoxicosis factitia d. de Quervain’s thyroiditis
  58. 1559. Which of the following imaging modalities is ‘most sensitive’ for evaluation of extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma:
    a. Ultrasound b. CT c. MRI d. MIBG scan
  59. 1560. All are correct about potassium balance except :
    • a. Most of the potassium is intracellular
    • b. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found inn skeletal muscle
    • c. Intracellular potassium is released into extracellular space in response to severe injury or surgical stress
    • d. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment
    • 1561. Which of the following is not usual features of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct:
    • a. Aphasia b. Hemiparesis c. Facial weakness d. Dysarthria
  60. 1562. dystrophin-gene mutation leads to:
    a. Myasthenia gravis b. Motor neuron disease c. Poliomyelitis d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  61. 1563. hypocalcemia is characterized by all except :
    a. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek’s sign c. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG d. Carpopedal spasm
  62. 1564. The level of alpha-fetoprotein is raised in all of the following except :
    a. Cirrhosis of liver b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. yolk-sac tumor d. Dysgerminoma
  63. 1565. Which of the following conditions is associated with coombs positive hemolytic anemia:
    • a. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura b. Progressive systemic sclerosis
    • c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Polyarteritis nodosa
  64. 1566.The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by:
    • a. length of diastolic murmur b. Intensity of diastolic murmur
    • c. Loudness of first heart sound d. Split of second heart sound
  65. 1567. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is least in a patient with:
    • a. Small ventricular septal defect b. Severe aortic regurgitation
    • c. Severe mitral regurgitation d. Large atrial septal defect
  66. 1568.Kenny packs were used in the treatment of:
    a. Poliomyelitis b. Muscular dystrophy c. Polyneuropathies d. Nerve injury
  67. 1569.In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering from abnormality involving:
    a. Aldosterone b. ADH c. Insulin d. Growth hormone
  68. 1570. the immunological response giving protection to hepatitis A for long periods:
    a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgD
  69. 1571.Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as:
    a. Dyslexia b. Aphasia c. Disconnection syndrome d. Apraxia
  70. 1572. The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are:
    • a. directed against parietal cells b. prevents binding of IF and B12
    • c. Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex d. Are directed against enterocytes in ileum
  71. 1573. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the following lung carcinomas:
    a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. epidermoid carcinoma d. Oat cell carcinoma
  72. 1574. “pathyergy” test is specific for:
    • a. Caplan’s syndrome b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter’s arthritis
    • 1575. “Omychodystrophy” is found in:
    • a. Rheumatic arthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter’s arthritis
  73. 1576. All the following are characteristic of “right ventricular infarction” except:
    a. Jugular venous distension b. Basal crepitation of lung c. Tender palpable liver d. Volume expansion is the treatment
  74. 1577. A young female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion . on examination, she has a wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/IV) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ostium primum atrial septal defect d. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery hypertension
  75. 1578. Which of the following is not seen in cerebral malaria?
    a. Heavy parasitemia b. ARDS c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hyperglycemia
  76. 1579. Most common primary immunodeficiency is:
    a. AIDS b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome c. Isolated IgA immunodeficiency d. Common variable immunodeficiency
  77. 1580. Subdural effusion is a complication of which of the following parasite?
    a. Pseudomonas b. Haemophilus influenza c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumonia
  78. 1581. Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to:
    a. Complete heart block b. polymorphic ventricular tachycardia c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia
  79. 1582. most common organism causing septicemia in splenectomized patient is:
    a. Haemophilius influenza b. Pneumococci c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus
  80. 1583. Phlegmasia cerulean dolens in deep vein thrombosis denotes:
    a. Black leg b. Red leg c. Blue leg d. White leg
  81. 1584. All of the following are implicate in the causation of hepatocellular carcinoma except:
    a. Alcoholic cirrhosis b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis B d. Hepatitis A
  82. 1585.All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies except:
    a. Fenoldopam b. Urapidil c. enalapril d. nifedipine
  83. 1586. Father –to –so inheritance is never seen in case of:
    a. Autosomal dominant inheritance b. Autosomal recessive inheritance c. X-linked recessive inheritance d. Multifactorial inheritance
  84. 1587. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first:
    a. Pulmonary artery b. Bronchial artery c. pulmonary vein d. superior vena cava
  85. 1588. The syndrome management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:
    • a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis b. Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis
    • c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis d. Syphilis and chancroid
  86. 1589. A 60 year old hypertensive patient on angiotensin II receptor antagonists (losartan ) is posted for hernia repair surgery. The antihypertensive drug should be:
    • a. Continued till the day of operation b. discontinued 24 hrs preoperatively
    • c. Discontinued one week preoperatively d. Administered in an increased dosage on the day of operation
  87. 1590. Which of the following is not an oncologic emergency:
    a. spinal cord compression b. Superior vena caval syndrome c. Tumor lysis syndrome d. Carcinoma cervix stage III B with pyometria
  88. 1591. Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B infection :
    a. HBsAg b. IgG anti-HBs c. IgM anti-HBc d. IgM anti-Hbe
  89. 1592. Development of testes is dependent upon which of the following:
    a. X chromosome b. Y chromosome c. XY chromosomes d. XX chromosomes
  90. 1593. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except:
    • a. numbeness and tingling of circumoral region b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes
    • c. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG d. CArpopedal spasm
  91. 1594. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemia, except:
    • a. Age more than 60 years b. Leukocyte counts more than 1,000,000/micro liter
    • c. Secondary leukemia d. Presence of t (8, 21)
  92. 1595. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except:
    a. Peaked T waves b. Presence of U waves c. sine wave pattern d. Loss of p Waves
  93. 1596. A laborer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
    a. Weil-Felix test b. Paul-Bunnell test c. Microscopic agglutination test d. Microimmunofluorescence test
  94. 1597. Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except:
    a. Cogwheel rigidity b. spasticity c. Planter extensor response d. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
  95. 1598. Dressing apraxia is due to lesion of:
    a. dominant parietal lobe b. dominant frontal lobe c. Non-dominant parietal lobe d. Non dominant frontal lone
  96. 1599. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss( below the level of lesion ) of:
    • a. Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side b. proprioception on the contralateral side
    • c. Pain sensation on the contralateral side d. Proprioception on the ipsilateral side
  97. 1600. All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except:
    a. Hypotonia b. dysdiadochokinessia c. Resting tremors d. ataxia
  98. 1601. Past pointing, intension tremor, slurred speech and drunken gait are seen in the lesions of?
    a. pons b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Caudate nucleus
  99. 1602. All of the following are seen in cerebellar lesions except:
    a. Ataxia b. Dysarthria c. Spontaneous tremors d. Hypotonia
  100. 1603. which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct:
    a. Aphasia b. Hemiparesis c. Facial weakness d. Dysarthria
  101. 1604. Lesion in left inferior frontal gyrus leads to:
    a. Compromised language output b. difficulty in articulation c. inability to comprehended written language d. Inability to comprehended hearing
  102. 1605. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is useful in:
    a. Cardiac failure b. Bronchial asthma c. Hepatic failure d. Arthritis
  103. 1606. A 56 year old man has painful rashes over his right upper eyelid and forehead for the last 48 hours. He underwent chemotherapy for non-Hodkin’s lymphoma one year ago. His temperature is 98 F, blood pressure s 138/76 mmHg and pulse rate is 80 per minute. Examination shows no other
    • abnormalities which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
    • a. Impetigo b. Herpes Zoster c. Pyoderma gangrenosum d. Erysipelas
  104. 1607.A 25 year old female presented with mild pallor and moderate hepatosplenomegaly. Her hemoglobin was 9.2 gram per liter and fetal hemoglobin level was 65%. She has not received any blood transfusion till date. She is most likely to be suffering from:
    a. Thalassemia major b. Thalassemia intermedia c. Hereditary persistant fetal hemoglobin homozygous state d. Hemoglobin D, homozygous state
  105. 1608.A 41 year old patient presented with chronic diarrhea for 3 months. A D-xylose absorption test was
    • Ordered to look for:
    • a. Carbohydrate malabsorption due to mucosal disease b. Carbohydrate malaabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis c. Fat malabsorption due to mucosla disease d. FAT malabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis
  106. 1609. Which of the following statements is true regarding drug used in parkinsonism?
    • a. Amantadine causes ankle edema b. Levodopa is particularly effective in reducing tremor
    • c. Amantadine is more effective than levodopa d. Antimuscarinics are effective in drug induced parkinsonism
  107. 1610. All of the following are used in the treatment of parkinsonism except :
    a. Bromocriptine b. Rilluzole c. Ropinirole d. Pramipexole
  108. 1611. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with type-I neurofibromatosis:
    a. Optic nerve glioma b. Meningioma c. Acoustic neuroma d. Low grade astrocytoma
  109. 1612. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end-tidal CO2 has decreased abruptly by 15 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis:
    a. Hypothermia b. Pulmonary embolism c. Massive fluid deficit d. Myocardial depression due to anesthetic agents
  110. 1613.The most common cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is:
    a. Renal failure b. Cardiac involvement c. Bleeding diathesis d. Respiratory failure
  111. 1614. The most common infectious agent associated with chronic pyelonephritis is:
    a. Proteus vulgaris b. klebsiella pneumonia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Escherichia coli
  112. 1615. Iv bicarbonate is given in:
    a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Head injury d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
  113. 1616. Chlamydia is best treated by:
    a. Tetracycline b. Ampicillin c. Gentamicin d. Cephalexin
  114. 1617. A 23 year old woman has experience episode of myalgias effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test ot diagnose her disease would be:
    a. CD4 lymphocyte count b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate c. Antinuclear antibody d.. Assay for thyroid hormones
  115. 1618. A postoperative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulses paradoxus at the 4th postoperative hour. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Excessive mediastinal bleeding b. Ventricular dysfunction c. Congestive cardiac failure d. Cardiac tamponade
  116. 1619. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLco) id decreased in all of the following conditions except :
    a. Interstitial lung disease b. Goodpasture’s syndrome c. Emphysema d. Primary pulmonary hypertension
  117. 1620. prolactin secretion is inhibited by:
    a. Growth hormone b. Somatostatin c. Dopamine d. TSH
  118. 1621. prolactin secretion will be inhibited by:
    a. Haloperidol b. somatostain c. Neurophysin d. Dopamine
  119. 1622. Epidemics of poliomyelitis are most commonly caused by:
    a. TypeI b. Type II c. Type III d. Type II and III
  120. 1623.Which of the following Is associated with primary hemochromatosis?
    a. HLA DW5 b. HLA-A3 c. HLA DW6 d. HLA DW7
  121. 1624. A 6 year old child is brought with history of hemophilia, and swollen and painful right knee joint, factor VIII serum level is 10% . which of the following is the preferred treatment ?
    a. Cryoprecipitate b. Factor VIII concentrate c. Fresh frozen plasma d. Desmopressin acetate
  122. 1625. Most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is?
    a. Pulmonary thromboembolism b. Lung disease c. Aortic stenosis d. Pulmonary stenosis
  123. 1626.Which of the following is the best indicator of chronic renal failure?
    a. Red cell casts b. Hyaline casts c. Granular casts d. broad casts
  124. 1627. HLA B-27 is associated with all except:
    a. sjogren’s syndrome b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Ankylosing spondylitis
  125. 1628. Albendazle is effective against infection with all of the following except:
    a. Ascariasis b. Neurocysticercosis c. Echinococcus granulosus d. Schistosomiasis
  126. 1629. CD10 is a marker in:
    a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. CLL
  127. 1630. Takayasu’s arteritis most commonly involves:
    a. Abdominal aorta b. Subclavian artery c. Renal artery d. Common carotid artery
  128. 1631.Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion ?
    a. Cirrhosis b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Congestive heart failure d. Bronchogenic carcinoma
  129. 1632. A high amylse level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Malignancy c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Pulmonary infarction
  130. 1633. All of the following are causes of decreased glucose in pleural effusion except:
    a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Empyema d. Cirrhosis
  131. 1634. Decreased pleural fluid glucose is seen in all of the following except :
    a. Empyema b. Cirrhosis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Malignancy]
  132. 1635. all of the following are true statements regarding acid base balance except:
    • a. Diarrhea is associated with normal anion gap
    • b. Respiratory acidosis is associated with increased PaCO2
    • c. Lactic acidosis can produce an increase in anion gap
    • d. Hyperkalemia is associated with metabolic alkalosis
  133. 1636. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia:
    a. Coronary angiography b. MUGA scan c. Thallium scan d. Resting echocardiography
  134. 1637. the relevance of fibrin degradation products is in:
    a. Hemolytic uremic syndrome b. von Willebrnad’s disease c. TTP d. DIC
  135. 1638. Familial amloidotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of:
    a. Amyloid associated protein b. Mutant calcitonin c. Mutant transthyretin d. Normal transthyretin
  136. 1639. The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except :
    • a. Presence of mid-diastolic murmur across the mitral valve
    • b. Wide split of second heart sound
    • c. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop
    • d. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve
  137. 1640.All of the following type of lymphoma are commonly seen in the orbit except:
    • a. Non-Hodgkin’s syndrome lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic and histiocytic
    • b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymphocytic poorly differentiated
    • c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  138. 1641. The nephrotic syndrome with best prognosis is seen in which of the following nephropathies:
    a. Minimal change disease b. Focal segmental disease c. Membranoroliferative d. Mesangioproliferative
  139. 1642. Congenital transmission is seen in all of the following except:
    • a. Sturge-Weber syndrome b. Von Recklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis
    • c. MEN type II b d. Prader –Willi syndrome
  140. 1643. Congenital transmission is seen in all of the following except:
    a. Cryptococcus b. Herpes c. Toxoplasmosis d. Cytomegalovirus
  141. 1644. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except:
    a. opening snap b. pericardial knock c. Ejection click d. Tumor plop
  142. 1645.A patient with a mid-diastiolic murmur with loud S1 and S2 at the apex is most likely suffering from:
    a. Mitral incompetence b. Mitral stenosis c. Aortic regurgitation d. Pulmonary regurgitation
  143. 1646. In a patient presenting with episodic jaundice and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia had normal liver biopsy. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Rotor’s syndrome c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome d. Gilbert’s syndrome
  144. 1647. True regarding multiple respiratory papillomatosis is all of the following except:
    • a. Causative organism is HPV b. Usually seen in children
    • c. Mainstay of treatment is steroids d. Tracheostomy is avoided as it causes seeding further below
  145. 1648. a patient with CRF is having normocytic anemia. Which of the following drugs is most likely to correct it:
    a. Iron b. folic acid c. Erythroprotein d. Vitamin B12
  146. 1649.All of the following are associated with increased pigmentation except:
    a. Hypopituitarism b. Addison’s disease c. hemochromatosis d. biliary cirrhosis
  147. 1650. All of the following are true statements regarding diabetic ketoacidosis except:
    • a. The fluid deficit to be corrected within 6 hours
    • b. Usually associated with > 2-3 liters o fluid deficit
    • c. In most cases the blood sugar level is above 300 mg%
    • d. Potassium deficit may be present to the cells in spite of hyperkalemia
  148. 1651.True regarding primary hypothyroidism is:
    a. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerks b. T3 is best for replacement c. TSH levels are decreased d. none of the above
  149. 1652. the best drug in treatment of motion sickness among the following is;
    a. Domperidone b. Metoclopramide c. Ondansetron d. Promethazine
  150. 1653. lyme disease caused by:
    a. leptospira b. Borrelia c. Treponema d. Bordetella
  151. 1654. A patient presents with respiratory symptoms I.e. cough, hemoptysis and glomerulonephritis. His c-ANCA level in serum is raised. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Good pasture’s syndrome b. Classic polyarteritis nodosa c. Wegener’s granulomatosis d. Kawasaki syndrome
  152. 1655. The pathogenesis of hypochromic anemia in lead poisoning is due to:
    • a. Inhibition of enzymes involved in heme biosynthesis
    • b. binding of lead to transferring, inhibiting transport of iron
    • c. binding lead to cell membrane of erythroid precursors
    • d. Binding of lead to ferritin inhibiting their breakdown into hemosiderin
  153. 1656. Dystrophic calcification is seen in:
    • a. Rickets b. Hyperparathyroidism c. atheromatous plaque d. Vitamin A intoxication
    • 1657. Following is true regarding opening snap:
    • a. it is a high-pitched diastolic sound b. It is due to opening of stenosed aortic valve
    • c. It indicated pulmonary arterial hypertension d. It precedes the aortic component of second heart sound
  154. 1658. In type II respiratory failure, there is:
    • a. Low PaO2 and low PaCO2 b. Low PaO2 and high PaCO2
    • c. Normal PaO2 and high PaCO2 d. Low PaO2 and normal PacO2
  155. 1659. Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis:
    a. IV urography b. Ultrasound c. Computed tomography d. MRI
  156. 1660. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is seen in all except:
    a. HUS b. ITP c. malignant hypertension d. Prosthetic valves
  157. 1661. ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds to:
    a. Atrail systole b. Ventricular systole c. Atrial diastole d. Ventricular diastole
  158. 1662.s False about pyloric stenosis:
    a. Hypokalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Hypochloremia
  159. 1663. which of the following symbol represent adopted individuals:
  160. 1664.Choose the false statement regarding hepatitis G virus:
    • a. Also called GB virus b. Blood borne RNA virus c. Mostly infected with c virus d. Responds to lamivudine
    • 1665. A 35 year old non-smoker presents with 2 episodes of mild hemoptysis. There is no history of fever of any constitutional symptoms. A plain X-ray of chest is found to be normal. Which one of the following should be the next step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?
    • a. Bronchography b. High-resolution computed tomography
    • c. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography d. Fiber-optic bronchoscopy
  161. 1666. A 15 year old boy presents to you with history of fever, altered sensorium and purpuric rash for two days. On examination , the patient is found stuporous. He ahs a BP of 90/60 mmHg and extensive palpable purpura over the legs . which of the following would be the most appropriate initial choice of antibiotic?
    a. Vancomycin b. Penicillin G c. Ciprogloxacin d. Gentamicin
  162. 1667. A 55 year old man a chronic smoker is brought to emergency with history of polyuria, polydipsia, nausea and altered sensorium for last two days. He had been diagnosed as having squamous cell carcinoma of lung two months prior to this. On examination , he was lethargic and confused . an ECG was normal except for a narrowed QT interval. Which one of the following is the most likely metabolic abnormality?
    a. Hypernatremia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyponatremia
  163. 1668. Tumor lysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory features, except:
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hyperuricemia d. Hyperphosphatemia
  164. 1669. All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial asthma except :
    a. Ipratropium b. Salbutamol c . Montelukast d. Hydrocortisone
  165. 1670. A normal anion gap metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with:
    a. diarrhea b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Methyl alcohol poisoning d. Acute renal failure
  166. 1671. A 41 year old male patient presented with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhea for 5 years. Despite regular treatment with adequate doses of sulfasalazine, he has had several exarcerbations of his disease and required several weeks of steroids for the control of flares. What should be the next line of treatment for him:
    a. Methotrexate b. Azathioprine c. Cyclosporine d. Cyclophosphamide
  167. 1672. a 55 year old male patient was diagnosed to have chronic hepatitis C. he responded to treatment with interferon , however, after one year of follow up he showed a relapse of disease. Which of the following would be the next most appropriated choice?
    a. RIbavirin and interferon b. Lamivudine and interferon c. Nevirapine and lamivudine d. Indinavir and ribavirin
  168. 1673. In malignant hyperthermia the increased heat production is due to:
    • a. Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions b. Thermic effect of blood
    • c. Increased sympathetic discharge d. Mitochondrial thermogenesis
  169. 1674. Which of the following management procedures of acute upper gastrointestinal bleed should possible be avoided:
    a. Intravenous vasopressin b. Intravenous beta-blockers c. endoscopic sclerotherapy d. Balloon tamponade
  170. 1675.Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis B infection is made by:
    • a. Presence of HBeAg in serum b. Presence of IgM anti-HBc in serum
    • c. Presence of HBsAg in serum d. Presence of IgG anti- HBc in serum
  171. 1676. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is disease of:
    a. Neuromuscular junction b. Sarcolemmal proteins c. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness d. Muscle contractile proteins
  172. 1677. Which of the following is the drug of first choice for non-gonococcal urethritis?
    a. Ceftriaxone b. Doxycycline c. Ciprofloxacin d. Minocycline
  173. 1678. Ataxia telangiectasia is characterized by all of the following except:
    • a. Chronic sinopulmonary disease b. Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein
    • c. Chromosomal breakage d. IgA deficiency
  174. 1679.Hemoglobin A 1c level in blood explains:
    a. Chronic pancreatitis b. Hepato-renal syndrome c. Long term status of blood sugar d. Acute rise of sugar
  175. 1680.The first investigation of choice in patient with suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage should be:
    a. CSF examination b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography d. Non-contrast computed tomography
  176. 1681. Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferriin saturation are most consistent diagnosis of:
    a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Anemia of chronic disease c. Hemochromatosis d. Lead poisoning
  177. 1682. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia except :
    a. Testosterone b. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Estradiol
  178. 1683. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia, except:
    a. Testosterone b. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Estradiol
  179. 1684. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease?
    a. Cyclosporine b. Dapsone c. IV immunoglobulin d. Methotrexate
  180. 1685. Which one of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma?
    a. Hypercalcemia b. Anemia c. Hyperviscsity d . elevated alkaline phosphatase
  181. 1686. Which one of the following diseases is an autosomal dominant disorder?
    a. Hemochromatosis b. Phenylkenuria c. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young d. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
  182. 1687. Which one of the following lymphomas is associated with HTLV-I virus infection ?
    • a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b. B-cell lymphoma c. Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma d. Hodgkin’s disease
    • 1688. D-dimer is the most sensitive diagnostic test for:
    • a. Pulmonary embolism b. Acute pulmonary edema c. Cardiac tamponade d. Acute myocardial infarction
  183. 1689. The most appropriate drug for the treatment of bulimia nervosa is:
    a. Amitriptyline b. Lithium c. Fluoxetine d. Sertraline
  184. 1690.Carcinoid syndrome produces valvular disease primarily involving :
    a. Pulmonary valves b. Tricuspid valves c. Mitral valve d. Aortic vlave
  185. 1691. all of the following conditions are observed in marasmus, except:
    a. Heaptomegaly b. Muscle wasting c. Low insulin levels d. Extreme weakness
  186. 1692. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is tethal because:
    • a. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen b. The excess α chain form insoluble precipitates
    • c. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues d. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta
  187. 1693. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia :
    a. Subacute combined degeneration b . Picks disease c. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease d. Alzheimer’s disease
  188. 1694.Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following except :
    a. Myelopathy b. Optic atrophy c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Myopathy
  189. 1695. Which one of the following is used in therapy of toxoplasmosis?
    a. Artesunate b. Thiacentazone c. Ciprofloxacin d. Pyrimethamine
  190. 1696. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine ?
    a. Propranolol b. Sumatriptan c. Domperidone d. Ergotamine
  191. 1697. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonuism is treated by:
    a. Anticholinergics b. Levodopa c. Selegiline d. Amantadine
  192. 1698. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption ?
    a. Giadia lamblia b. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Necator americanus d. Ancylostoma duodenale
  193. 1699. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except:
    a. Hyperparahtyroidism b. Steroid use c. Flurosis d. Thyrotoxicosis
  194. 1700. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
    • a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
    • c. Interleukin -6 (IL-6) d. Calcitonin
  195. 1701. All of the following are the causes of ‘relative’ polycythemia, except:
    a. Dehydration b. Dengue hemorrhagic fever c. Gaisbock syndrome d. High altitude
  196. 1702. 5’ –nucleotidase activity is increased by:
    a. bone disease b. Prostate cancer c. Chronic renal failure d. Cholestatic disorders
  197. 1703. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:
    a. 20-40 mg/dl b. 40-70 mg/dl c. 70-90 mg/dl d. 90-110 mg/dl
  198. 1704. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on ECG , except:
    a. Early repolarization variant b. Constrictive pericardia c. Ventricular aneurysm d. Prinzmetal’s angina
  199. 1705. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
    • a. elevated serum Ach-receptor binding antibodies b. Repetitive nerve stimulation test
    • c. Positive edrophonium test d. Measurement of jitter by single fiber electromyography
  200. 1706. Not a neurologic channelopathy:
    a. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis b. Episodic atxias c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Huntigton’s disease
  201. 1707. all of the following are neurological channelopathies , except:
    a. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis b. Episodic ataxia type 1 c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1
  202. 1708.All of the following are calcium channelopathies except :
    a. Episodic ataxia type 1 b. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
  203. 1709.At what value of one hour glucose challenge test will you recommend a standard glucose tolerance test?
    a. 120 Mg/dl b. 140 mg/dl c. 150 mg/dl d. 160 mg/dl
  204. 1710. A 50 year old man alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3-hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and intercapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130 /min , and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal . all peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Acute aortic dissection b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Rupture of the esophagus d. Acute pulmonary embolism
  205. 1711. A 30 year old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers side and 5th finger in left side. On examinations, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed Hb-12 gm, TLC -12000 CU mm, platelets-4,30,000, ESR- 49 mm. urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10-15 per HPF with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Polyarteritis nodosa b. systemic lupus erythematosus c. Wegener’s granulomatosis d. Mixed cryoglobulinemia
  206. 1712. All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus, except:
    a. Multiple sclerosis b. Head injury c. Histiocytosis d. Viral encephalitis
  207. 1713. Increased susceptibility to breast cancer is likely to be associated with a mutation in the following gene:
    a. p53 b. BRCA-1 c. Retinoblastoma (Rb) d. H-Ras
  208. 1714. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
    a. Gram-positive organism b. Gram –negative organism c. Mycoplasma d. Virus infections
  209. 1715. Ropinirole’s is most useful for treatment of:
    a. Parkinson’s disease b. wilson’s disease c. Hoffman’s syndrome d. Carpal tunnel syndrome
  210. 1716.In which of the following arthritis erosions are not seen?
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Psoriasis d. Gout
  211. 1717. Flapping tremors are seen in the following conditions except:
    a. Uremic encephalopathy b. Parkinsonism c. Hepatic encephalopathy d. Carbon dioxide narcosis
  212. 1718. All of the following are true regarding tetralogy of fallot, except:
    • a. ejection systolic murmur in second intercostals space b. Single second heart sound
    • c. Predominantly left t right shunt d. Normal jugular venous pressure
  213. 1719. Which one of the following is not a feature of irritable bowel syndrome:
    a. abdominal pain b. Constipation c. Rectal bleeding d. bloating
  214. 1720. In which of the following conditions of malabsorption, an intestinal biopsy is diagnostic?
    a. Celiac disease b. Tropical sprue c. whipple’s disease d. Lactose intolerance
  215. 1721. Hemolytic anemia may be characterized by all of the following except:
    a. Hyperbilirubinemia b. Reticulocytosis c. Hemoglobinuria d. Increased plasma haptoglobin level
  216. 1722. Recurrent facial/oropharyngeal/ laryngeal edema in a patient having low C4 , normal C3 and normal factor B. The pathogenesis is most likely due to:
    a. Immune complex disease b. C 1 esterase inhibitor deficiency c. Hereditary deficiency of QI d. Classical pathway activation by IgM
  217. 1723. There is mutation of gene coding for the ryanodine receptors in malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following statements best explains the increased heat production in malignant hyperthermia?
    • a. Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions b. Thermic effect of food
    • c. Increased sympathetic discharge d. Mitochondrial thermogenesis
  218. 1724. All of the following conditions are observed in gout, except:
    • a. Uric acid nephrolithiasis b. deficiency of enzyme xanthine oxidase
    • c. Increase in serum urate concentration d. Renal disease involving interstitial tissues
  219. 1725. which of the following statement is false regarding Wilson’s disease?
    • a. It is an autosomal recessive disorder
    • b. Serum ceruloplasmin level is less than 20 microgram per day
    • c. Urinary copper excretion is less than 100 microgram per day
    • d. Zinc acetate is effective as maintenance therapy
  220. 1726. False regarding creutzfeldt-jakob disease:
    • a. It is a neurodegenerative disease b. It is caused by infectious proteins
    • c. Myoclonus is rarely seen d. Brain biopsy is specific for diagnosis
  221. 1727.Which of the following is not a feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
    • a. Myoclonus on awakening b. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
    • c. Automation d. Absence seizure
  222. 1728. A 20 year old female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion. On examination she has wide fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/Iv) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ostium primum atrial septal defect d. Tetralogy of Fallot
  223. 1729. The only thrombolytic agent approved for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke is:
    a. Tissue plasminogen activator b. streptokinase c. Urokinase d. Pro-urkinase
  224. 1730. The most common cause of sporadic viral encephalitis is:
    a. Japanese B encephalitis b. Herpes simplex encephalitis c. HIV encephalitis d. Rubeola encephalitis
  225. 1731. A 27 year old man is noted to have blood pressure of 170/100 mm Hg. He has prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs heard over the ribs on both sides anteriorly and over the back posteriorly. In addition , the pulses in the lower extremities are feeble and he complains of mild claudication with exertion . the most likely diagnosis is:
    a. ASD b. Aortic stenosis b. Coarctatiuon aorta d. Cardiomyopathy
  226. 1732. A 62 year old diabetic female patient presented with history of progressive right sided weakness of one-month duration . the patient was also having speech difficulty. Fundus examination showed papilledema. Two months ago, she also had a fall in her bathroom and struck her head against a wall. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:
    • a. Alzhemer’s disease b. Left parietal glioma c. Left MCA territory stroke d. Left chronic subdural
    • hematoma
  227. 1733. All of the following can cause hyeprcalcemia , except:
    a. Prolonged immunobilization b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Sarcoidosis d. Multiple melanoma
  228. 1734. Humoral immunodeficiency is suspected in a patient and he is under investigation. Which of the following infections would not be consistent with the diagnosis?
    a. Giardiasis b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia c. Recurrent sinusitis d. Recurrent subcutaneous abscesses
  229. 1735. In a ptient with listeria meningitis who is allergic to penicillin , the antimicrobial of choice is:
    a. Vancomycin b. Gentamicin c. Trimethoprin-Sulfamethoxazole d. Ceftriaxone
  230. 1736. Migratory thrombophlebitis is associated with the following malignancies except:
    a. Lung cancer b. Prostate cancer c. Pancreas cancer d. Gastrointestinal cancer
  231. 1737. Which of the following is the most common extra-renal involvement in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
    a. Mitral valve prolapse b. Hepatic cysts c. splenic cyst d. Colonic diverticulosis
  232. 1738. Which of the following is generally not seen in ITP?
    a. More common in females b. Petechiae, ecchymosis and bleeding c. Palpabe splenomegaly d. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
  233. 1739. Which of the following arbovirus diseases has not been reported in India?
    a. Japanese encephalitis b. Yellow fever c. Chikungunya fever d. KFD
Author
adarsha
ID
356043
Card Set
Sharad Medicine
Description
Sharad Medicine
Updated