Digestive System Anatomy and Physiology

  1. Which layer of the digestive tract contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves?




    C) Submucosa
  2. Above the diaphragm, the outermost layer of the digestive tract is a connective tissue called serosa. Below the diaphragm, it is called adventitia.




    D) Both statements are false.

    Above the diaphragm, the outermost layer of the digestive tract is a connective tissue called adventitia. Below the diaphragm, it is called serosa.
  3. All of the following are major accessory organs that have a role in digestion, except:




    A) Stomach

    The stomach is part of the gastrointestinal or alimentary tract itself.
  4. In the mouth and anus, where thickness for protection against abrasion is needed, the epithelium is stratified squamous tissue. The stomach and intestines have a thin simple columnar epithelial layer for secretion and absorption.




    C) Both statements are true.
  5. What is the first part of the digestive tract?




    C) Mouth

    The mouth, or oral cavity, is the first part of the digestive tract.
  6. The hard palate is supported by bone, whereas the soft palate is made up of skeletal muscle and connective tissue. Posteriorly, the soft palate ends in a projection called gingiva.




    C) Only the first statement is true.

    Posteriorly, the soft palate ends in a projection called uvula.
  7. Which of the following does not occur during a swallowing reflex?




    A) None of these

    When food reaches the opening of the pharynx, sensory receptors around the fauces respond and initiate an involuntary swallowing reflex.
  8. Which of the following is not true about the esophagus?




    A) Its submucosa has glands that secrete mucus to keep the lining moist and well lubricated to ease the passage of food.

    The mucosa of the esophagus has glands that secrete mucus to keep the lining moist and well lubricated to ease the passage of food.
  9. Cardiac sphincter




    A) Lower esophageal sphincter

    The lower esophageal sphincter is sometimes called the cardiac sphincter and resides at the esophagogastric junction.
  10. The stomach is divided into the fundic, cardiac, body, and pyloric regions. The lesser and greater curvatures are on the left and right sides, respectively, of the stomach.




    B) Only the first statement is true.

    The lesser and greater curvatures are on the right and left sides, respectively, of the stomach.
  11. The mucosal lining of the stomach is simple squamous epithelium with numerous tubular gastric glands. The gastric glands open to the surface of the mucosa through tiny holes called gastric pits.




    B) Only the second statement is true.

    The mucosal lining of the stomach is simple columnar epithelium with numerous tubular gastric glands.
  12. Regulation of gastric secretions may be divided into cephalic, gastric, and intestinal phases. Which of the following statements below is incorrect?




    C) The presence of basic chyme in the small intestine begins the intestinal phase.

    The presence of acidic chyme in the small intestine begins the intestinal phase.
  13. Relaxation of the cardiac sphincter allows chyme to pass from the stomach into the small intestine. The rate of which this occurs depends on the nature of the chyme and the receptivity of the small intestine.




    D) Only the second statement is true.

    Relaxation of the pyloric sphincter allows chyme to pass from the stomach into the small intestine. Cardiac sphincter is synonymous with lower esophageal sphincter.
  14. The liver, gallbladder, and pancreas are accessory organs of the digestive system that are closely associated with the:




    A) Small intestine
  15. The absorptive surface area of the small intestine is increased by:




    C) All of these
  16. Exocrine cells in the mucosa of the small intestine secrete the following, except:




    D) Cholecystokinin

    Exocrine cells in the mucosa of the small intestine secrete mucus, peptidase, sucrase, maltase, lactase, lipase, and enterokinase. Endocrine cells secrete cholescystokinin and secretin.
  17. The most important factor for regulating secretions in the small intestine is the presence of chyme. This is largely a systemic reflex action in response to chemical and mechanical irritation from the chyme and in response to distention of the intestinal wall.




    D) Only the first statement is true.

    This is largely a local reflex action in response to chemical and mechanical irritation from the chyme and in response to distention of the intestinal wall.
  18. The wall of the large intestine has the same types of tissue that are found in other parts of the digestive tract but there are some distinguishing characteristics. Which of the following is not unique to the large intestine?




    C) Epiploic appendages, pieces of fat-filled connective tissue, are attached to the inner surface of the colon.

    Epiploic appendages, pieces of fat-filled connective tissue, are attached to the outer surface of the colon.
  19. The rectum continues from the sigmoid colon to the anal canal and has a thick muscular layer. It follows the curvature of the lumbar vertebra and is firmly attached to it by connective tissue.




    C) Only the first statement is true.

    The rectum follows the curvature of the sacrum and is firmly attached to it by connective tissue.
  20. The rectum ends about how many centimeters below the tip of the coccyx?




    D) Five
  21. The internal anal sphincter is found at the superior end of the anal canal. This sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is under involuntary control.




    A) Both statements are true

    Meanwhile, the external anal sphincter is found at the inferior end of the anal canal. This sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle and is under voluntary control.
  22. Which of the following is not a function of the saliva?




    A) It begins the chemical digestion of starches through the action of amylase, which breaks down polysaccharides into monosaccharides.

    The saliva begins the chemical digestion of starches through the action of amylase, which breaks down polysaccharides into disaccharides.
  23. Which of the following is not true about the liver?




    D) It is primarily located in the right hypochondriac and epigastric regions of the abdomen, just above the diaphragm.

    The liver is primarily located in the right hypochondriac and epigastric regions of the abdomen, just beneath the diaphragm.
  24. Blood that is rich in nutrients from the digestive tract is carried to the liver by the:




    D) Hepatic portal 

    Meanwhile, freshly oxygenated blood is brought to the liver by the common hepatic artery, a branch of the celiac trunk from the abdominal aorta.
  25. Which of the following is incorrect about bile?




    C) It is mainly composed of water, bile salts, bile pigments, and triglycerides.

    Bile is mainly composed of water, bile salts, bile pigments, and cholesterol.
  26. Besides the muscles of the soft palate, all of the following muscles are responsible for limiting superior movement of the bolus from the oropharynx to the nasopharynx, except:




    D) Stylopharyngeus
  27. The superior portion of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds form the posterolateral border of which structure?




    D) Soft palate
  28. During swallowing, which structure is tilted backwards to prevent aspiration of the food bolus?




    D) Epiglottis
  29. True or False: The digestive system functions to provide cells with proper amounts of proteins, carbohydrate or fats.
    False
  30. True or False: The so-called wisdom teeth are actually the four last molars.
    True
  31. True or False: The pyloric sphincter acts to prevent food from leaving the small intestine.
    False

    The pyloric sphincter acts to prevent food from leaving the stomach.
  32. The _____________ layer of the alimentary canal contains loose connective tissue, glands, blood and lymphatic vessels, and nerves.




    A) Submucosa
  33. Activities of the digestive system are generally increased by _________________ nervous stimulation.




    D) Parasympathetic
  34. The purpose of the soft palate is to:




    B) Close off the nasal cavity during swallowing
  35. Compared to the others listed below, which type of tooth is more likely to be involved in grinding food?




    B) Molar
  36. What mouth part helps to mix food with saliva, moves food toward the pharynx for swallowing, and houses taste receptor cells?




    A) Tongue
  37. Which salivary glands produce the most viscous saliva with lots of mucus?




    D) Sublingual
  38. What initiates the swallowing reflex?




    A) Sensory receptors detecting the bolus in the pharynx
  39. The main part of the stomach is the ___________ of the stomach.




    A) Body
  40. Intrinsic factor is secreted by which cells of the gastric glands?




    C) Parietal cells

    Parietal cells are also known as oxyntic cells.
  41. During which stage of gastric secretion do gastric glands actually begin secreting gastric juice?




    D) Cephalic phase
  42. The pancreas secretes enzymes that enter the small intestine and chemically digest chyme. Choose the enzyme that breaks down fats.




    D) Pancreatic lipase
  43. What hormone does the small intestine release in response to acidic chyme?




    D) Secretin
  44. What is the primary purpose of the liver in aiding digestion?




    A) Produces bile to emulsify fats in the small intestine
  45. How are the components of fats absorbed in the small intestine?




    C) Components of lipids diffuse through small intestinal cell membranes, are reconstructed in the cells, then carried off by lacteals as chylomicrons.
  46. What is the primary function of the large intestine?




    B) To compact, store, and eliminate feces
  47. Where does the greatest amount of digestion occur?




    A) Small intestine
  48. Which term does not belong with the others?




    B) Esophagus
  49. Which gland is closest to the joint between the mandible and temporal bone?




    C) Parotid
  50. The portion of a tooth below the gums is the:




    A) Root
  51. The enzyme salivary amylase begins to digest which molecules?




    D) Carbohydrates
  52. Where are the palatine tonsils located?




    C) Pharynx
  53. The surface area of the stomach is enhanced by the presence of folds called:




    B) Rugae
  54. Where would the least amount of bacteria be found?




    B) Stomach
  55. What normally holds the intestines in position within the abdominal cavity?




    B) Mesentery
  56. What does the pancreatic duct directly join to?




    B) Duodenum
  57. Which of these does not directly promote the hydrolysis of food?




    D) Submucosa
  58. The outer layer of the intestines is the:




    A) Serosa
  59. Where are the lacteals located?




    A) Small intestine
  60. Which structure does the appendix come off of?




    A) Ascending colon
  61. Which vitamin is mainly formed by Escherichia coli?




    B) K
  62. True or False: The area called the vermiform appendix apparently serves no function in humans.
    True

    Although a digestive role has not been elucidated for the appendix, this area does have numerous lymph nodes that play a role in defense against infection.
  63. True or False: The descending colon usually lies on the left abdominal wall area.
    True

    The descending colon is on the left abdominal area, while the ascending colon is on the right area.
  64. True or False: The external anal sphincter is under voluntary control.
    True

    The external anal sphincter is a skeletal muscle and is under voluntary control. Meanwhile, the internal anal sphincter is a smooth muscle and is under involuntary control.
  65. True or False: The Valsalva maneuver or defecation reflex, can aid defecation but could potentiate a heart attack.
    True

    Myocardial infarction is a possibility because the increase in thoracic pressure reduces blood flow to the heart. This maneuver will increase abdominal pressure and aid defecation.
  66. True or False: The visceral peritoneum is a fibrous membrane, which wraps around the outer layer of the intestines.
    True

    One purpose of the visceral peritoneum is to allow the free movement of the intestines. The parietal peritoneum is the membrane that lines the inner wall of the abdominal cavity.
  67. True or False: The mucous cells of the salivary glands secrete amylase which facilitates digestion of starches.
    False

    The enzyme amylase is produced by the serous cells of the salivary glands.
  68. True or False: Stensen's duct conveys saliva from the submandibular gland into the oral cavity.
    False

    The Stensen's duct carries saliva from the parotid gland into the oral cavity next to the second upper molar.

    The Wharton's duct carries saliva from the submandibular gland into the floor of the mouth.

    The duct of Rivinus carries saliva from the sublingual gland into the floor of the mouth. The largest is the major duct of the sublingual salivary gland called Bartholin duct.
  69. True or False: During swallowing, the soft palate is moved upward and the epiglottis is tilted downward.
    True

    Swallowing is a complicated series of events that must prevent food from entering the nasal cavity and larynx. The epiglottis covers the opening of the larynx called the glottis.
  70. True or False: Gastric intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.
    True

    The parietal (oxyntic) cells produce gastric intrinsic factor which is needed to absorb the vitamin B12 necessary for blood cell development.
  71. True or False: Emetics cause the vomiting center in the hypothalamus to propel food by contracting stomach muscles.
    False

    The vomiting center is in the medulla oblongata and causes the diaphragm to contract which increases pressure within the stomach by its external force. Vomiting involves respiratory reflexes.
  72. True or False: The enterogastric reflex normally inhibits the further contraction of the stomach as the duodenum fills.
    True

    There are a number of nerve reflexes that aid in the proper movement of food. The entero-gastric reflex occurs as the duodenum fills with chyme and stimulates stretch receptors, which send an impulse to the stomach muscle preventing further movement of food into the duodenum.
  73. True or False: Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease that affects digestion as well as respiration.
    True

    Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that causes the production of a thick, fibrinous mucus secretion from respiratory or digestive lining cells and may block the ducts associated with the pancreas.
  74. True or False: The portal veins drain blood from the liver and convey it to the inferior vena cava.
    False

    The hepatic portal veins drain the gastrointestinal areas and convey the blood to the liver. The hepatic veins then leave the liver.
  75. True or False: The liver has the ability to convert carbohydrates into amino acids.
    True

    The liver then converts these amino acids into glucose in a process known as gluconeogenesis.
  76. True or False: Hepatitis can be caused by viruses such as hepatitis A which can be transmitted by contaminated food.
    True

    Hepatitis A can be spread by oral or fecal sources, whereas hepatitis B is usually disseminated by way of the blood.
  77. True or False: Hepatitis is infection of the liver most commonly caused by hepatitis A viruses.
    False

    Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver and is most commonly caused by infection with hepatitis A viruses. Drugs or chemicals can also cause hepatitis.
  78. True or False: Hemolytic jaundice is a disease involving an excess production of erythrocytes.
    False

    Hemolytic jaundice is a symptom of a disease which causes the rapid breakdown of red blood cells.
  79. True or False: Without a gallbladder, a person will develop vitamin and lipid deficiencies because of the lack of bile.
    False

    The gallbladder only stores the bile. The liver will continue to secrete bile in sufficient amounts to meet nutritional needs.
  80. True or False: In the condition of lactose intolerance, the person develops problems because of the rapid digestion of lactose.
    False

    In lactose intolerance the person cannot digest lactose sufficiently and the combination of increased osmotic pressure and bacterial fermentation cause cramping to occur.
  81. True or False: Chylomicrons are lipoprotein aggregates that are absorbed into the intestinal villi.
    True

    The lipoprotein complexes represent methods of transporting fatty substances, including cholesterol and are manufactured in the intestines.
  82. Which gastrointestinal layer is characterized by having tough, fibrous connective tissue?




    C) Serosa

    The outermost layer in the gastrointestinal tract is the serosa which is comprised of fibrous connective tissue.
  83. Which intestinal layer accounts for the action of the peristaltic waves?




    C) Muscularis

    The muscularis has circular and longitudinal muscles that cause the food to move in peristaltic, forward waves.
  84. The alimentary tube is around _____ meters long.




    C) 9

    The alimentary tube is about 9 meters or 28 feet long on the average.
  85. The ______________ nervous system division usually stimulates and promotes digestion.




    D) Parasympathetic

    The impulses from the parasympathetic nervous division act to promote the forward movement of food and other digestive activities. The sympathetic pattern includes an inhibition of digestive activity such as constriction of a sphincter.
  86. The processes of chewing are referred to as:




    C) Mastication

    Mastication is the process of breaking food into smaller particles. Deglutition is the complex function involved in swallowing.
  87. The frenulum is the membrane attached to the inferior surface of the:




    D) Tongue

    The lingual frenulum is a membranous fold of the mucous membrane that surrounds the tongue and attaches to the midline of the floor of the oral cavity.
  88. The following are true of the tongue except which one?




    D) Attaches to the temporal bone
  89. The following areas contain tonsils except which one?




    D) Around the frenulum

    The tissue below the frenulum contains the sublingual salivary glands.
  90. Which lymphatic areas are most commonly the site of inflammation?




    C) Palatine tonsils

    The palatine tonsils are located in the fauces of the oral cavity and are frequent sites of tonsillitis and infection. Peyer's patches are in the wall of the ileum.
  91. How many teeth will be produced in an average lifetime?




    C) 52

    There are 20 primary deciduous teeth which are replaced by 32 secondary teeth, giving a total of 52.
  92. The term wisdom tooth refers to the ______________ tooth.




    B) Third molar

    The third molars erupt between 17 and 25 years of age and are therefore the last to appear. They do not erupt in all persons and may remain impacted.
  93. The portion of a tooth which lies within the mandible socket is called the:




    C) Root

    The crown is the portion above the surface, while the roots lies in the cavities of the mandible or maxillae.
  94. Which part of a tooth most closely resembles bone tissue?




    A) Dentin

    Cementum is a binding chemical substance.
  95. Which muscles constrict to prevent air from entering the esophagus during breathing?




    D) Inferior constrictor

    The inferior constrictor muscles of the pharynx originate from the larynx. Some remain in a state of constriction to prevent air from entering the esophagus during breathing.
  96. A hiatal hernia is a weakness in the ______________ muscle, which allows a portion of the digestive tract to enter the thoracic cavity.




    A) Diaphragm

    A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the stomach or other structure through the opening of the diaphragm called the esophageal hiatus.
  97. Which part of the stomach is the area the is connected to the esophagus.




    D) Cardia

    There is a functional sphincter at the entrance of the stomach called the cardiac region or cardia. The fundus is the portion that serves as a temporary storage area.
  98. The ________________ prevents food from entering the small intestine.




    C) Pyloric valve

    The pyloric sphincter constricts to prevent food from passing prematurely into the first part of the small intestine (duodenum).
  99. Gastric enzymes are secreted by the ____________ cells.




    C) Chief

    Chief (peptic) cells secrete enzymes, while the parietal (oxyntic) cells produce hydrochloric acid.
  100. Proteins are digested or broken down by the _____________ in the stomach.




    D) Pepsin

    Pepsinogen is the inactive form that is activated by acidity and converted to pepsin.
  101. Parasympathetic stomach impulses cause all of the following except which one?




    B) Secretion of somatostatin

    Somatostatin normally inhibits the production of hydrochloric acid and parasympathetic nerves promote digestion. Gastrin is a hormone which promotes gastric activity.
  102. Gastrin secretion will stop when the stomach pH reaches:




    B) 1.5

    One purpose of the hormone gastrin is to increase the acidity of the stomach. When the pH reaches 1.5 the gastrin is inhibited by negative feedback mechanisms.
  103. The alkaline tide occurs when ________________ is excreted into the urine.




    C) Bicarbonate ions

    As the body attempts to maintain a balance of ions, -HCO3 ions are absorbed into the blood as H+ ions enter the stomach lining from the blood. This exchange of bicarbonate for hydrogen following a meal is called the alkaline tide.
  104. What is the stimulus for cholecystokinin release?




    B) Lipids

    Chyme rich in fats will stimulate the secretion of cholecystokinin from the intestine which will then cause the gall bladder to constrict.
  105. What blocks pancreatic secretions from entering the duodenum?




    D) Sphincter of Oddi

    The hepatopancreatic sphincter prevents pancreatic and liver secretions from entering the small intestine at an inappropriate time.
  106. Which of the following triggers the formation of the others?




    C) Enterokinase

    Enterokinase from the small intestine catalyzes the conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin which then activates chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase.
  107. Proteins are split by all of the following pancreatic factors except which one?




    C) Zymogen

    Zymogen granules are the inactive forms of the proteolytic enzymes. Words that end with -ogen usually are in an inactive state.
  108. Pancreatitis is mainly the result of ___________ activity.




    C) Trypsin

    The activation of trypsin from its inactive trypsinogen state can be caused by many factors including blockage of the duct. Trypsin will hydrolyze the protein molecules comprising the substance of the pancreatic tissue if the pancreas is inflamed (pancreatitis).
  109. Which of the following are not active in the duodenum?




    C) Pepsin

    The alkaline pH conditions of the duodenum favor the activity of several enzymes except those from the stomach such as pepsin which operate under an optimal acidic pH.
  110. Secretin from the duodenum causes the pancreas to produce secretions rich in:




    B) Bicarbonate ions

    Acid in the duodenum causes the release of the hormone secretin which stimulates the pancreas to produce a bicarbonate rich solution for the purpose of neutralizing the acidity.
  111. Which of these is a hormone name?




    B) Cholecystokinin

    Cholecystokinin is the hormone that causes the gall bladder to constrict, while the others are enzyme terms.
  112. The hormone which causes the pancreas to secrete an enzyme rich fluid is:




    D) Cholecystokinin

    Cholecystokinin has several functions including the stimulation of the pancreatic acinar cells. Enterogastrone is an inhibitory hormone.
  113. Which organ has the most metabolically active cells?




    A) Liver

    The liver contains the greatest number of and most diverse array of enzymes in the body and is capable of multiple biomolecular conversions.
  114. Urea is synthesized by the liver following _________ metabolism.




    B) Protein

    Urea is formed by combining the amino groups from protein catabolism that otherwise would have the capability of causing pH imbalances such as from the creation of ammonia.
  115. Ferritin is a globular protein that transports and stores ___________ in the liver and blood.




    A) Iron

    Iron is carried in the form of ferritin and plays a role in the mobilization of the iron needed for hemoglobin synthesis.
  116. Which of the following vitamins is not stored in the liver?




    B) C

    The liver stores fat soluble vitamins such as A and D and some water soluble vitamins such as B12, but not ascorbic acid to any extent.
  117. The liver stores ____________ for energy.




    B) Glycogen

    Excess glucose is converted to glycogen in the liver by a process of glycogenesis, which also occurs in skeletal muscle.
  118. Which of the following is not a function of the adult liver?




    C) Erythropoiesis

    The synthesis of red blood cells is a function of the fetal liver; the adult liver however can serve as a blood storage area.
  119. The liver contains special blood channels termed _____________.




    C) Sinusoids

    Sinusoids are special blood channels that represent a merger of arteries and veins. These sinusoids can allow the permeability of proteins.
  120. The ___________ ligament separates the right and left lobes of the liver.




    B) Falciform

    The coronary ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm.

    Anatomically, the liver has four lobes: right, left, caudate, and quadrate.
  121. Which organ produces and secretes bile?




    A) Liver

    Bile is secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
  122. The Kupffer cells are phagocytic cells found in the ___________.




    C) Liver

    The liver Kupffer cells are phagocytic and also belong to as system of cells throughout the body called the reticuloendothelial system.
  123. The buildup of bile pigment in tissues that can be caused by gallstones is called:




    C) Obstructive jaundice

    Obstructive jaundice arises from disease that affects the flow of bile. Excess bile pigments in the blood is hyperbilirubinemia.
  124. Which of the following are liver waste products?




    B) Bilirubin

    Bilirubin and biliverdin are bile pigments that arise from hemoglobin decomposition and cannot be readily recycled.
  125. The ___________ duct directly receives the fluids from the gallbladder.




    C) Cystic

    Eventually, all ducts will merge to form the common bile duct.
  126. The common bile duct is formed by the merger of the hepatic and ___________ ducts.




    C) Cystic

    The common bile duct is formed as the cystic duct from the gallbladder joins the common hepatic duct. The common hepatic duct is the merger of the ducts from the four lobes of the liver.
  127. The ampulla of Water is the area that joins the common bile duct to the ___________ duct.




    C) Pancreatic

    The ampulla of Water or duodenal papilla is the area that joins the duodenum and is guarded by the hepatopancreatic sphincter (sphincter of Oddi).
  128. Gallbladder stones are medically referred to as:




    C) Cholelithiasis

    Cholelithiasis means gallstones. Cholesterol is present in many of the precipitates found in the gallbladder and some kidney stones (calculi).
  129. Bile facilitates digestion by causing the _____________ of fats.




    C) Emulsification

    Bile salts contain unique molecules that have polar and non polar regions that cause large fat globules to physically break up into smaller units.
  130. Bile salts combine with fatty acids to form complexes called ________________ that facilitate absorption.




    D) Micelles

    Micelles are aggregates of fatty acids surrounded by bile salts in such a way to make the fatty acids more soluble in water.
  131. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?




    A) C

    Vitamin C and most of the B complex vitamins are water soluble. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are lipid soluble.
  132. Which of the following acts to inhibit acid production?




    B) Somatostatin

    Somatostatin is secreted from the stomach and duodenum in response to acidity, and therefore controls acid production by negative feedback.
  133. Which area has the greatest amount of enzyme activity?




    B) Duodenum

    The first section of the small intestine has its own enzyme secretions as well as those coming from the liver and pancreas.
  134. The shortest section of the intestines is the:




    A) Duodenum

    The duodenum is only 10 to 12 inches long but is the most active and critical region of the small intestine.

    The jejunum is 8 to 10 feet long.

    The ileum is 8 to 10 feet long.

    The colon may be 6 feet long.
  135. The membrane that hangs over like an apron over the intestines is the:




    B) Greater momentum

    The mesentery acts to suspend the intestines to the body wall.

    The visceral peritoneum surrounds the intestines.

    The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall.

    The greater momentum is an extension of the peritoneum that is attached to the stomach.
  136. The finger-like extensions inside the small intestine are called ___________ and increase the surface area.




    D) Villi

    The microvilli are the cell processes on the columnar cells that line the intestines.

    The lumen is the space or opening.

    The villi are the projections that contains the microvilli.
  137. The ___________ are vessels that project into the villi and absorb fatty substances.




    B) Lacteals

    Lacteals enter the villi and convey their absorbed fats into the lymphatic vessels that return fluids to the circulation.
  138. The following belong together except which one?




    C) Large intestine

    The small intestine has glands in the crypts of Lieberkuhn and folds called plicae.
  139. Which of the following does not belong with the others?




    B) Lipase

    Lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of lipids, whereas the other listed enzymes are disaccharides that break down double sugars.
  140. Which is the only area that can digest a double sugar?




    C) Duodenum

    Only the duodenal lining has mucosal cells that secrete the disaccharides that can hydrolyze sugars such as sucrose.
  141. Amylase could be found in all of these except, except:




    A) Stomach

    The stomach does not have the pH or enzymes capable of starch digestion.
  142. Most of the absorption of nutrients occurs in the:




    B) Jejunum

    The jejunum is the site of most of the active absorption of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids.

    The duodenum is the site of active digestion.

    The ileum functions in some minor absorption.

    The colon only absorbs a few substances, such as water.
  143. Fatty acids and glycerol are released when ____________ are broken down by liver or muscle cells.




    C) Chylomicrons

    Chylomicrons are aggregates of lipids and lipoproteins. Liver and muscle cells contain lipoprotein lipases that hydrolyze the chylomicrons.
  144. Which of the following is not readily absorbed in the small intestine?




    D) Na+

    Ions with more than one charge such as magnesium, sulfates, and calcium are poorly absorbed. This is the reason why ocean water cannot be ingested without serious osmotic consequences.
  145. The ileocecal valve prevents chyme from entering the:




    A) Large intestine

    The ileocecal valve constricts to prevent food from leaving the small intestine and is under neurological reflex control.
  146. A peristaltic rush which results in failure to absorb enough water in the colon results in:




    D) Diarrhea

    Diarrhea is the elimination of a watery stool caused by poor absorption; Flatus is intestinal gas.
  147. True or False: Excess protein in the diet can cause obesity.
    True
  148. True or False: Excess proteins in the diet usually cause a state of nutritional edema.
    False

    Insufficient proteins in the diet usually cause a state of nutritional edema as seen in kwashiorkor.
  149. True or False: Vegetables are a good source of the vitamin A required for vision.
    False
  150. True or False: Fruits contain the citric acid needed to prevent bleeding gums and fragile bones.
    False
  151. Nutrients that the body needs but cannot synthesize on its own are called:




    B) Essential nutrients
  152. Which of these carbohydrates is not a good source of energy?




    A) Cellulose
  153. Choose the carbohydrate that is not absorbed as a monosaccharide in the digestive tract.




    D) Maltose
  154. Which cells of the body under normal circumstances, must have energy in the form of glucose in order to survive?




    C) Neurons
  155. How does the body make use of dietary cholesterol?




    A) It is used for structural material in cell membranes.
  156. The American Heart Association recommends that dietary fat should constitute no more than _______ of daily caloric intake.




    B) 30%
  157. Which of these is not one of the ways the body uses dietary protein?




    D) To synthesize bile
  158. Many proteins contain all the essential amino acids while others do not. Choose the protein source that provides incomplete protein.




    C) Corn
  159. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) measured the rate of energy expenditure when:




    B) The body is awake but resting
  160. Which vitamin is fat-soluble and has carotene as its precursor?




    A) A
  161. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of which vitamin?




    D) B12
  162. Neural tube defects are easily prevented by the adequate intake of _____________ by the pregnant mother.




    C) Folic acid

    Folic acid is also known as vitamin B9.
  163. Which mineral makes a major contribution to the solute concentration of extracellular fluids?




    D) Sodium
  164. The trace element ___________ is necessary for wound healing, and a deficiency of it results in depressed immunity.




    B) Zinc
  165. Looking like a skeleton, having greatly depressed immune system, and dying of childhood diseases are traits that characterize:




    C) Marasmus
  166. Which term would be used to describe the synthesis of cellular protein?




    C) Anabolism
  167. Which of the following cannot be hydrolyzed to glucose in humans?




    B) Cellulose
  168. Which of these is a disaccharide?




    B) Lactose
  169. The carbohydrate ___________ is critical for the function of genes.




    D) Deoxyribose
  170. Which carbohydrate can be found in a steak?




    B) Glycogen
  171. An essential compound not readily synthesized in the liver is the:




    B) Linoleic acid
  172. A diet that contains ______________ will have sufficient amino acids.




    A) Rice and beans
  173. How many calories are produced from 10g carbohydrate, 5g fat, and 2g protein.




    B) 96

    Each gram of carbohydrate or protein yields four calories, whereas each gram of fat yields nine calories.
  174. Of the following, which factors influence basal metabolic rate to the greatest extent?




    A) Thyroid hormone
  175. Which of these is the hormonally active form of vitamin D?




    D) Dihydroxycholecalciferol
  176. Hemorrhaging could occur because of lack of sufficient vitamin _____.




    C) K
  177. The most essential vitamin required to allow carbon to enter the citric acid cycle is the:




    A) Pantothenic acid

    Pantothenic acid is also known as vitamin B5.
  178. Pernicious anemia can result from the lack of vitamin _____.




    D) B12

    Vitamin B12 is also known as cyanocobalamin.
  179. The element ___________ is essential part of proteins.




    A) Sulfur
  180. True or False: Anorexia is a term that means loss of appetite.
    True

    Anorexia means loss of appetite and the major symptom of the psychological condition called anorexia nervosa, which has many causes.
  181. True or False: Beef and codfish are a source of complex carbohydrates.
    True

    Skeletal muscle stores the complex carbohydrate glycogen, which is a polymer of glucose.
  182. True or False: Since plant cellulose is not digestible, it has no nutritional value for humans.
    False

    Although humans lack the enzyme cellulase, the cellulose in plants such as lettuce has benefits as roughage which increases gastrointestinal motility.
  183. True or False: Excess carbohydrates in the diet can cause a person to gain excess fat in the tissues.
    True

    Excess carbohydrates can be converted to lipids which are then stored in the adipose tissue. Therefore, a fat weight gain can be carbohydrate-induced.
  184. True or False: In the process of gluconeogenesis , the amino acid leucine can be converted to glucose.
    True

    The liver has enzymes that can catalyze the conversion of lipids and proteins into glucose and related compounds.
  185. True or False: Illness will occur in persons who use carbohydrates as their main source of food.
    False

    The liver has the capability of converting carbohydrates into other compounds. It is not the excess carbohydrate that causes problems but the deficiency of compounds such as certain amino acids and vitamins that are essential and cannot be manufactured.
  186. True or False: A deficiency of carbohydrate in the diet can cause muscle tissue to degenerate.
    True

    A lack of adequate carbohydrate in the diet will cause the liver and skeletal muscles to break down their proteins and convert structures such as muscle proteins into glucose.
  187. True or False: Infants have higher probability of developing lipid deficiencies than adults.
    True

    Nutritionists recommend that 3% of the energy intake in the infant formula be in the form of the essential linoleum fatty acid. Recall the liver in an infant is immature and does not have the capabilities to synthesize all the needed compounds.
  188. True or False: Complete proteins are those that contain all of the amino acids required for an adult in the diet.
    False

    Complete proteins contain eight essential amino acids but may not contain all 20 that are used by humans.
  189. True or False: A child usually develops a positive nitrogen balance in comparison to an adult.
    True

    A positive nitrogen balance occurs whenever the body uses proteins to build tissues in excess of the amount that is oxidized or lost. Children have anabolic rates that exceed catabolic.
  190. True or False: Kwashiorkor is characterized by edema and retardation.
    True

    Protein deficiencies lead to mental retardation and bloated bellies or ascites. These are commonly seen in undeveloped countries.
  191. True or False: The average adult requires around 1,000 calories per hour per kg of body weight each day in the diet?
    True

    Adults require around 1,500 kcal or 1,500,000 calories each day.
  192. True or False: A bomb calorimeter is used to determine how many calories a person will obtain from their foods.
    False

    The food in a bomb calorimeter is burned completely to determine the total calories in a food sample. Foods are never completely oxidized in metabolism, therefore these values are actually higher than normal physiologic values.
  193. True or False: The basal metabolic rate is the average energy consumed by a person each day.
    False

    The BMR is the minimal energy expenditure assessed rest following a fast.
  194. True or False: Shivering during the cold is the result of lower metabolic rate of the body in response to lower temperature.
    False

    The greatest source of heat is from skeletal muscle contraction, which is brought about by the hypothalamus in response to temperature receptors.
  195. True or False: A gain in weight will occur if a person has a positive energy balance.
    True

    A positive energy balance occurs when the intake of calories exceeds the output. The excess nutrients are converted to fats stored in tissues such as the liver and adipose.
  196. True or False: Studies have shown that person who were over their desired weights by as much as 10 pounds actually live longer.
    True

    Current research has indicated that in reality people live longer when their weights are slightly higher than those found in desired weight tables.
  197. True or False: All persons who weigh 30% in excess of their body weight are considered obese.
    False

    People are obese if the excess is due to body adipose. However, they are not obese if the excess is due to muscle hypertrophy such as in athletes.
  198. True or False: A person could lose weight during exercise and still be considered obese even if their weight was normal.
    True

    Some forms of diet and exercise accomplish a weight reduction from loss of body water. Since the amount of adipose tissue remains the same, the person quickly returns to the original obese condition.
  199. True or False: A person with a deficient fat intake may also develop vitamin E deficiency.
    True

    Vitamins, especially the fat soluble, must be obtained at optimal levels. Maximal and minimal amounts will cause physiologic alterations.
  200. True or False: Infants may develop fatal hemorrhagic disease because of their deficiency of intestinal bacteria.
    True

    Intestinal organisms produce vitamin K, which is needed to clot properly. All infants are sterile and must be given a supplement.
  201. True or False: Biotin is most significant in promoting carbohydrate metabolic pathways.
    False

    Biotin is most important in the reactions of amino acids, fatty acids, and nucleic acids.
  202. True or False: Potassium is critically important for nerve and muscle conductivity and must be maintained at high blood levels.
    False

    Potassium is found in highest concentration within the cells because of the activity of the sodium-potassium membrane pump.
  203. True or False: Scurvy develops from vitamin C deficiency.
    True

    Scurvy causes bone, joint, and tooth abnormalities that manifest as bleeding gums and painful joints.
  204. Energy is derived mainly from the metabolism of:




    A) Carbohydrates

    Most of the energy used by the cells is obtained from the oxidation of glucose which is derived from larger carbohydrates.
  205. Which of the following does not belong with others?




    D) Glycogen

    All of these are complex carbohydrates, but glycogen is produced by animal sources and is the only one among these that is digestible by humans.
  206. Which of the following is most commonly oxidized for energy?




    A) Glucose

    Glucose is the monosaccharide that enters the cell and becomes oxidized. The others sugars must be converted to glucose.
  207. Which of the following is not utilized for energy?




    A) Ribose

    The pentoses ribose and deoxyribose are components of the nucleotides that do not enter the oxidation route but are used form macromolecules such as DNA and RNA.
  208. What tissue cannot store glycogen or lipids for energy?




    A) Nervous

    Nervous tissue, especially the brain, cannot store carbohydrates and must receive a constant supply of glucose.

    Skeletal muscle and liver are the main producers of glycogen, whereas cardiac muscle can store some glucose as glycogen.
  209. In order to prevent protein losses, an adult must consume at least _______ grams of carbohydrates daily.




    B) 125

    Estimates are around 100-125 grams of carbohydrates are required daily to prevent protein breakdown. Amounts over 300 grams are probably excessive and can become converted to fats.
  210. Which of the following is most likely used for energy?




    D) Triglycerides

    Of the lipids, the triglycerides are normally used for energy. Cholesterol is the precursor for steroid hormones, and along with phospholipids, is never burnt for energy.
  211. Which of the following is a good source of cholesterol?




    C) Egg yolk

    Of those listed, egg yolk has the highest amount of cholesterol. Cholesterol is not found in plant sources but is synthesized by animal tissues.
  212. Which of the following can be synthesized by the liver?




    D) Cholesterol

    Certain fatty acids such as linoleum acid cannot be synthesized in the liver and are called essential because they must be supplied in the diet. The liver plays an active role in cholesterol biosynthesis.
  213. Excess ______________ are stored in the adipose tissue and can be converted to fatty acids on demand.




    D) Triglycerides

    Triglycerides are hydrolyzed by the liver and intestines into three fatty acids and a molecule of glycerol.
  214. A diet that is ________% fat is considered healthy.




    B) Under 30

    The American Heart Association recommends less than 30% fat to reduce the risk of coronary disease, along with a preference of unsaturated over saturated fats.
  215. Which of the following is the usual precursor to the others?




    C) Triglycerides

    Tryglycerides provide the fatty acids and glycerol that can be used in the synthesis of other lipids.
  216. There are ______ essential amino acids that must be included in the diet of a child.




    D) 10

    There are 8 essential amino acids required for adults and 10 for children. There are 20 amino acids that are used to build human proteins.
  217. Which of the following is not an essential adult amino acid?




    C) Alanine

    The 8 essential adult amino acids are: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. Alanine can be converted from other compounds.
  218. Arginine and __________ are additional amino acids that must be provided to children.




    B) Histidine

    There are two essential amino acids that must be supplied to growing children because their livers have not yet attained the capability to manufacture them on demand.
  219. Which of the following is a source of incomplete protein?




    C) Corn

    Milk and fish are excellent sources of complete proteins. Foods such as corn are incomplete because the zein, a protamine protein in them lacks tryptophan and lysine.
  220. Which of these functions is the lest important for proteins?




    B) Utilization for energy

    The main source of energy is from carbohydrates but proteins and lipids are oxidized for some daily energy. It is more important the proteins become cell structures an enzymes.
  221. Which of the following is not a protein derivative?




    C) Cortisol

    Some hormones are protein or amino acid derivatives, but steroid is a steroid related to the lipid cholesterol.
  222. Nutritional edema will develop in a ___________ deficiency.




    A) Protein

    Nutritional edema refers to the increase in tissue fluids due to the lower blood osmotic pressure caused by blood protein deficiencies. Proteins are active osmotic molecules which remain within the capillaries.
  223. How many are needed to raise 10 grams of water from 27 to 37 Celsius?




    D) 100 calories

    The calorie is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
  224. Which of the following would yield the greatest number of calories?




    C) 10 gram cheese

    Theoretically, fats yield 9.5 calories per gram while carbohydrates and proteins each yield 4.1 calories per gram. Therefore 10 grams of cheese would have the greatest amount of fat calories.
  225. The average basal metabolic rate requires one calorie of energy per hour for each ______ of body weight.




    A) Kilogram

    Although body requirements vary greatly among the variables of age, sex, lifestyle, and hormone levels, 1 calorie per kilogram per hour is a reasonable estimate.
  226. Which of the following would be most accurate in the assessment of a basal metabolic rate?




    C) Oxygen consumption

    Since most energy reactions use oxygen and convert it to water, the consumption of oxygen would closely correlate with the total amount of energy being produced.
  227. Which of the following does not tend to decrease basal metabolic rate?




    B) Thyroxine levels

    Thyroxine (T4) is the most potent hormone which stimulates general cell metabolism. Females and genetically larger individuals have lower metabolic rates, females probably because of a reduced muscle mass and large persons because of their heat retention. Lower body temperatures directly correlates with lower metabolism.
  228. Which of the following activities has the higher caloric usage per hour?




    B) Walking up stairs

    Studies show that the stress used in walking up stairs uses more calories than running on a flat surface, partially because of the kinetics involved in the resistance of gravity.
  229. The desirable weight for a 26-year old female who is 5 feet and has a medium frame is around ______ pounds.




    A) 110

    Studies estimate that her desired weight should be from 110-113 pounds.
  230. Persons are considered obese if their weight is ____ over their desired weight.




    A) 21%

    The criterion for obesity is over 20% in excess of desired weight. Overweight has the criteria of 10%-20% over their weight.
  231. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?




    B) B

    Because of their structures, vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble, whereas vitamins B and C (polar molecules) are water-soluble.
  232. Which of the following does not contain vitamin A?




    B) Carrots

    Vitamin A is only found in animal cells. Its precursor beta-carotene is found in vegetables and fruits.
  233. Which of the following is derived from vitamin A?




    B) Rhodopsin

    Vitamin A is converted into compounds necessary for vision such as retinol pigment rhodopsin or visual purple. Beta-carotene converts into vitamin A in the liver. Bile salts and cholesterol are chemically unrelated to vitamin A.
  234. Which of these factors causes vitamin A destruction?




    C) Light

    Vitamin A is relatively stable under varying pH changes and food preparation, but is unstable under sunlight and oxidizing conditions.
  235. Which organ is the last to convert vitamin D to its most active form?




    A) Kidney

    The kidney converts hydroxycholecalciferol to dihydroxycholecalciferol by the enzyme alpha-hydroxylase.
  236. Which is the best source of vitamin D?




    B) Fortified milk

    To fortify means to add a nutrient; enriched means to partially replace a nutrient lost in processing, and steroids are only animal compounds.
  237. Vitamin D deficiency could result in poor:




    C) Bone growth

    Since vitamin D is needed to allow calcium mobilization, the most obvious disease might be rickets or soft, deformed bones.
  238. Which of these is a potent anti-oxidizing agent?




    D) Alpha-tocopherol

    The most active form of vitamin E is alpha tocopherol which can prevent the oxidation of compounds such as vitamin A.
  239. The most important vitamin which promotes normal blood clotting is vitamin ____.




    A) K

    Vitamin K (phytonadione or phylloquinone) is needed to synthesize the prothrombin by the liver, needed for blood clotting.
  240. A rich source of vitamin K is ________.




    C) Spinach

    Green leafy vegetables are the best sources of vitamin K.
  241. Which of the following is not a B complex vitamin?




    C) Phylloquinone

    Phylloquinone (phytomenadione) is vitamin K1.
  242. Which of the following is most important vitamin for carbohydrate metabolism?




    C) B-complex

    The most significant enzyme co-factors that are required for oxidation and energy production are found in the B vitamins.
  243. Cocarboxylase is an enzyme that utilizes the vitamin _________ as part of its structure.




    A) B1(Thiamine)

    All enzymes require a vitamin as part of their coenzyme activators. Thiamine is needed to oxidize carbohydrates.
  244. Alcoholics are particularly susceptible to develop a ___________ deficiency.




    D) Thiamine

    Since thiamine is needed to oxidize alcohol, alcoholics require more than the average amounts of thiamine.
  245. FAD is a metabolic coenzyme that requires ____________ in its structure.




    C) Riboflavin

    Riboflavin (vitamin B2) is part of flavoadenine dinucleotide (FAD).
  246. Tryptophan is an essential amino acid that can be used to synthesize the vitamin ______ in human cells.




    C) B3 (Niacin)

    Niacin (nicotinic acid) is found in plants and niacinamide is the animal form. Humans can synthesize niacin from tryptophan.
  247. Coenzymes I and II have ___________ as part of their structure.




    D) Niacin

    Niacin is part of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) or  coenzyme I, and of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) or coenzyme II.
  248. Which of these results from niacin deficiency?




    D) Pellagra

    Pellagra is a deficiency resulting in skin, digestive and neurological impairments. Beriberi results from thiamine deficiency.
  249. Pyridoxine is a chemical name for vitamin _____.




    A) B6

    Vitamin B6 is called pyridoxine, pyridoxal, or pyridoxamine.
  250. Acetyl coenzyme A has __________ in its structure.




    A) Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5)

     Pantothenic acid is absolutely essential because it is part of acetyl-coenzyme-A which enters the citric acid or Kreb's cycle.
  251. Pernicious anemia will develop in the absence of intrinsic factor or vitamin _____.




    C) B12

    Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) is essential for the production of red blood cells. Its absorption is facilitated by gastric intrinsic factor.
  252. Vitamin C is necessary for the synthesis of ___________.




    D) Collagen

    Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is required for the production of the collagen fibers in skin, bone and other tissues.
  253. Vitamin C is closely related to ___________ in structure.




    B) Glucose

    Vitamins are distinct and do not belong to any typical chemical group, but ascorbic acid is remarkably similar to glucose but does not arise from it apparently.
  254. The most abundant minerals in the body are calcium and ___________.




    A) Phosphate

    Because of their presence in bone and other tissues, calcium phosphate salts comprise about 75% of the minerals in the body.
  255. Phosphate is important for which of the following?




    D) All of these

    Phosphate is essential for cell structures, nerve conductivity, genetics, energy, and pH buffering as well as other functions.
  256. Methionine and cysteine are unique amino acids because they contain the element ___________.




    B) Sulfur

    All amino acids contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, but only two also contain sulfur, methionine and cysteine.
  257. The most abundant extracellular cation, conserved by aldosterone is ____________.




    B) Sodium

    Of the positive ions, sodium is pumped out of cells by the sodium-potassium pump. Blood levels are maintained by the action of aldosterone on the kidneys.
  258. Which ion is most important in oxygen transport?




    B) Iron

    Iron is the nucleus of the hemoglobin pigment in red blood cells that binds to oxygen.
  259. The trace mineral _____ is essential for hemoglobin and neurological functions.




    C) Cu

    Copper is required for red blood cell functioning, bone, melanin, and nerve functions although it is required in only small amounts.
  260. Which of the following gustatory papillae contain gustatory corpuscles on their apical side?




    C) Fungiform papillae

    With the exception of the filiform papillae, these types of papillae contain taste buds and are known as the gustatory papillae. Meanwhile, the circumvallate (vallate) and foliate papillae contain gustatory corpuscles on there lateral side.

  261. Which of the following lingual papillae have a purely mechanical role, since they do not possess taste buds?




    A) Filiform papillae

    Unlike the other kinds of papillae, filiform papillae do not contain taste buds. Instead, they are responsible for giving the tongue its texture and are responsible for the sensation of touch.
  262. Which papillae run parallel to the terminal sulcus of the tongue?




    C) Vallate papillae

  263. Which of the following glands empty at the bottom of the papillae vallatae?




    B) Gustatory glands
  264. Which lingual papillae are lined up like an upside down "V" shape?




    D) Vallate papillae
  265. Which of the following lingual papillae are the most numerous and are scattered all over the anterior two-thirds of the dorsal surface of the tongue?




    A) Filiform papillae

    Filiform papillae are the most numerous of the lingual papillae. They are fine, small, cone-shaped papillae covering most of the anterior two-thirds of the dorsum of the tongue.
  266. Which type of epithelium lines the upper (pharyngeal) side of the epiglottis?




    B) Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
  267. Tom is fond of eating fish. While swallowing , a bone accidentally got stuck and he went to an emergency room for its extraction. Which of the following is the most common area of the pharynx the bone could have lodged in?




    D) Epiglottis vallecula
  268. What is the name of the depression that runs down the tongue vertically?




    C) Median sulcus of tongue
  269. Which type of tissue is predominantly found in epiglottis?




    D) Elastic cartilage
  270. Which type of glands are the von Ebner's gustatory glands?




    D) Serous glands

    The von Ebner glands, also known as serous glands, are minor salivary glands located on both sides of your oral cavity toward the back of your tongue. Part of their role is to secrete lipase and amylase, which are digestive enzymes that start to break down food as you chew.
  271. Which lingual papillae are most concentrated at the tip and the margins of the tongue?




    D) Fungiform papillae
  272. Which lingual papillae are found on the posterior third of the tongue?




    A) Vallate papillae
  273. Which lingual papillae are found on the lateral margins of the tongue?




    D) Foliate papillae
  274. Which type of epithelium lines the lower (laryngeal) side of the epiglottis?




    D) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with kinocilia
  275. Which lingual papillae are located at the edges of the posterior one-third of the tongue?




    D) Foliate papillae
  276. Which type of tissue constitutes the capsule of the parotid gland?




    C) Dense irregular connective tissue
  277. Which of the following structures are surrounded by myoepithelial cells in exocrine glands?




    B) Intercalated duct and serous acinus
  278. Which of the following structures can be seen in some lobules of the parotid gland as clear white oval bodies?




    A) Adipocyte
  279. Which of the following cells are found between the epithelial cells and the basement membrane of the serous acini?




    D) Myoepithelial cells
  280. Which type of gland is the parotid gland?




    D) Serous
  281. A 70-year old man presents with a painful lump and reddened skin in the preauricular region. On physical examination, the doctor palpates an enlarged right parotid gland. A biopsy is taken, which shows an infiltrative malignant parotid gland tumor. Which of the following nerves passes through the parotid gland and might be damaged by the infiltration of the tumor?




    A) Facial nerve

    The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) gives rise to five terminal branches within the parotid gland.
  282. An unvaccinated 6-year old child is brought to the hospital with symptoms of fever, muscle pain, headache, and painful swelling of the right parotid gland. The pediatrician diagnosed mumps, an infectious disease caused by the mumps virus that affects the parotid gland. The parotid gland is closely related to the posterolateral side of which of the following structures?




    B) Masseter muscle

    The superficial part of the parotid gland covers the posterior part of the masseter muscle.
  283. Which of the following structures can be found in the connective tissue septa of the parotid gland?




    D) Interlobular duct
  284. Which type of granules are found in the apical part of the sera acing cells of the parotid gland?




    A) Zymogen granules
  285. Which of the following ducts is a continuation of the intercalated duct in exocrine glands?




    A) Striated duct
  286. Which of the following structures subdivide the parotid gland into lobes and lobules?




    D) Connective tissue septum
  287. Which of the following ducts are formed by the merger of striated ducts in exocrine glands?




    B) Interlobular duct
  288. Which type of epithelium lines the lumen of the striated duct in exocrine glands?




    B) Simple columnar epithelium
  289. Which of the following ducts lead the secreted products from the acing lumen of the parotid gland?




    A) Intercalated ducts
  290. Which of the following cells help to propel excretions into the lumen of the sera acini of the parotid gland?




    D) Myoepithelial cells
  291. Which of the following ducts lead the secreted products from the acinar lumen of the sublingual gland?




    C) Intercalated duct
  292. Which of the following structures subdivide the sublingual gland into lobes and lobules?




    C) Connective tissue septum
  293. What is the name of the cap-shaped structure located above the mucous cells in the seromucous acini of the sublingual gland?




    A) Serous demilune

    Serous demilunes are also known as Crescents of Giannuzzi or Demilunes of Heidenhain.
  294. Which component of the sublingual gland stains very poorly with H&E staining?




    D) Mucous acinus

    Mucous cells stain very poorly because they contain little rough endoplasmic reticulum and their mucin granules tend to react poorly with most stains.
  295. According to its predominant type of secretion, the sublingual gland is which type of gland?




    D) Mucous
  296. Which type of epithelium lines the interlobular excretory ducts in the sublingual gland?




    A) Simple cuboidal epithelium
  297. The ducts of the sublingual gland and the submandibular gland open at the level of which structure?




    C) Sublingual caruncle

    The sublingual caruncle is a site on either side of the frenulum linguae on the sublingual surface of the tongue. There it denotes the site at which the submandibular gland and the sublingual gland empty into the oral cavity.
  298. Which of the following structures can be found in the connective tissue septa of the sublingual gland?




    A) Interlobular duct
  299. Which type of granules are found on the apical part of the serous acing cells of the submandibular gland?




    B) Zymogen granules
  300. A 50-year old patient complains about a swelling in the oral cavity and dryness of the mouth. The otolaryngologist diagnoses a stone (sialolithiasis) in the submandibular gland. In order to remove the stone, he decides to partially open the excretory duct of the gland. Alongside which structure in the oral cavity do the excretory ducts open?




    A) Lingual frenulum
  301. Which type of gland is the submandibular gland?




    A) Seromucous (mixed)
  302. Which type of epithelium lines the interlobular excretory ducts of the submandibular gland?




    C) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
  303. Which of the following ducts lead the secreted products from the acinar lumen of the submandibular gland?




    A) Intercalated duct
  304. What is the name of the cap-shaped structure located above the mucous cells in the seromucous acini of the submandibular gland?




    B) Serous demilune

    Serous demilunes, also known as Crescents of Giannuzzi or Demilunes of Heidenhain.
  305. Which of the following structures can be found in the connective tissue septa of the submandibular gland?




    B) Interlobular duct
  306. In which layer of the esophagus are the esophageal glands located?




    B) Submucosa
  307. What is the name of the second part of the esophagus?




    D) Thoracic part of esophagus

    The esophagus is anatomically divided into three parts: cervical, thoracic, and abdominal.
  308. Which types of glands are the esophageal glands?




    B) Mucous

    The mucin secreted by the mucous glands in the esophagus aids in lubrication, as well as in neutralization of the acidic gastric juices at the esophagoscope-gastric junction.
  309. Which structure has an esophageal hiatus that provides the passage of the esophagus?




    A) Diaphragm

    The esophageal hiatus is the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes from the thoracic to abdominal cavity. It is one of three apertures in the diaphragm and is located in the right crus.
  310. Which of the following structures is found in the muscular layer of the esophagus?




    D) Myenteric plexus

    Myenteric plexus is also known as Auerbach's plexus.

    Hassal's corpuscles are found in the medulla of the thymus.
  311. What is the name of the first part of the esophagus?




    A) Cervical part of esophagus

    The esophagus is anatomically divided into three parts: cervical, thoracic, and abdominal.
  312. Which tissue is the external layer (tunica adventitia) of the esophagus made of?




    B) Loose connective tissue
  313. What is the outermost layer of the esophagus called?




    B) Adventitia
  314. Where does the acid fluid causing Barrett's esophagus come from?




    C) Stomach

    Barrett's esophagus is a condition in which the flat pink lining of the esophagus becomes damaged by acid reflux, which causes the lining to thicken and become red.
  315. A 55-year old man with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) arrives in the hospital with complains of heartburn, nausea, and vomiting. The attending physician decides to do an upper endoscopy with biopsy. He takes out a specimen of the patient's lower esophagus and sends it to pathology. The results come back positive for Barrett's esophagus, a precancerous lesion in which the normal epithelium of the esophagus transforms into simple columnar epithelium in a process called metaplasia. Which of the following is the normal epithelium of the esophagus?




    D) Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
  316. Which type of connective tissue is the submucosa of the esophagus made of?




    D) Loose connective tissue
  317. Tracheoesophageal fistula is a birth defect characterized by abnormal communication between the esophagus and the trachea. It occurs due to an incomplete development of the esophagus. If this communication contains a central cavity, food passes through the esophagus into the trachea and lungs. Which of the following structures does the esophagus normally connect?




    A) Pharynx and stomach
  318. Which types of tissue is the tunica muscular of the esophagus made of?




    D) Smooth and skeletal muscles
  319. Which of the following structures is found in the submucosa of the esophagus?




    C) Meissner's plexus

    Meissner's plexus is also known as submucosal plexus.
  320. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a condition characterized by lacerations of the inner lining of the esophagus. It is often caused by severe and prolonged vomiting. The lacerations are most commonly located at the junction of the stomach and the esophagus. What is this site called?




    D) Cardial orifice of esophagus
  321. Which type of granules contain the inactive form of the enzyme pepsin that, upon stimulation, gets secreted by the process of exocytosis?




    A) Zymogen granules
  322. Which of the following glands are located in the lamina proprietor of the funds and body of the stomach?




    A) Gastric gland (proper)
  323. Which of the following cells secrete hydrochloric acid?




    C) Parietal cells

    Parietal cells are also known as oxyntic cells.
  324. Which of the following types of epithelium constitutes the external layer (tunica serosa) of the stomach?




    B) Simple squamous epithelium
  325. All of the following layers compose the mucosa of the stomach, except:




    C) Simple squamous epithelium
  326. Pepsinogen is an inactive form of the enzyme pepsin, which gets activated in the acidic environment of the stomach. Pepsin is responsible for degradation of proteins found in ingested food, specifically collagen. Which of the following cells secrete pepsinogen?




    A) Chief cells

    Chief cells are also known as peptic cells.

    Paneth cells are highly specialized secretory epithelial cells located in the small intestinal crypts of Lieberkühn.

    Oxyphil cells are located in the parathyroid gland.
  327. Into which of the following structures do the gastric glands empty their secretions?




    C) Gastric pits
  328. In which part of the stomach is the gastric pit (foveola gastrica) deeper than in the rest of the stomach?




    B) Cardia and pylorus of stomach
  329. Which of the following structures are numerous all over the gastric mucosa and represent indentations of the gastric epithelium that invaginate the underlying lamina propria?




    B) Gastric pits
  330. In which parts of the stomach are the gastric pits (foveolae gastricae) more shallow than in the rest of the stomach?




    A) Fundus and body of stomach
  331. What are the coiled longitudinal folds of the mucosa and submucosa of the stomach collective called?




    B) Gastric folds
  332. Which types of cells do the gastric glands of all parts of the stomach contain?




    A) Enteroendocrine and mucous neck cells
  333. Which of the following cells are found in the fundus and corpus of the stomach?




    C) Parietal and chief cells

    Parietal cells are also known as oxyntic cells, whereas chief cells are also known as peptic cells.
  334. In which layer of the stomach is the Auerbach's nerve plexus found?




    C) Muscular coat

    Auerbach's plexus is also known as myenteric plexus.
  335. In which of the following layers of the pylorus of the stomach are the pyloric glands located?




    C) Lamina propria
  336. In which layer of the stomach is the Meissner's nerve plexus found?




    B) Submucosa

    Meissner's plexus is also known as submucosal plexus.
  337. Which type of epithelium lines the gastric mucosa?




    B) Simple columnar epithelium
  338. A 56-year old man comes to the neurology department complaining of trouble walking and loss of sensation in his right foot and calf. Upon taking the patient's history, the attending physician finds out that this patient has a surgical resection of his stomach. The doctor immediately suspects vitamin B12 deficiency. Which cells of the stomach secrete a glycoprotein called intrinsic factor that is needed for the proper absorption of vitamin B12?




    A) Parietal cells

    Parietal cells are also known as oxyntic cells.
  339. Which of the following cells secrete water with large amounts of bicarbonate and sodium ions that make the majority of the pancreatic fluid?




    B) Centroacinar cells
  340. Which of the following structures make up the majority of the pancreatic parenchyma?




    C) Serous acinus
  341. Which of the following cells line the lumen of the pancreatic acini?




    B) Centroacinar cells
  342. Which type of blood vessels is found between the cords of cells within the pancreatic islets of Langerhans?




    B) Fenestrated capillaries
  343. Which types of glands are the pancreatic acini?




    D) Serous
  344. Which cells of the pancreas produce insulin?




    B) Beta cels
  345. Which type of granules are found in the apical part of the pancreatic acinar cells?




    A) Zymogen granules
  346. Which cells of the pancreas produce glucagon?




    D) Alpha cells
  347. Which type of fibers comprises the thin capsule that surrounds the Langerhans islets and separates them from the exocrine acini of the pancreas?




    B) Reticular fibers
  348. A 58-year old man comes into the emergency department complaining about upper abdominal discomfort, recent weight loss, and a striking yellow discoloration of his skin. After analyzing the results of the patient's blood tests and abdominal ultrasound, the doctor concludes a diagnosis of pancreatic cancer, the doctor decides upon performing the Whipple surgery, in which the pancreas and its related structures are removed. Which structure surrounds the head of the pancreas (caput pancreatis)?




    C) Duodenum
  349. Which of the following cells make up about 70% of the cells in the Langerhans islets?




    C) Beta cells

    Hofbauer cells are macrophages found in the placenta.
  350. Which of the following cells secrete amylase, lipase, trypsinogen, and other proenzymes?




    C) Pancreatic acinar cells
  351. What is the name of the endocrine units of the pancreas which contain clusters of hormone-producing cells?




    A) Pancreatic islets (of Langerhans)
  352. Which of the following cells line the intercalated ducts of the pancreas?




    B) Duct cells
  353. What is the name of the cleft found in between the intestinal villi?




    B) Intestinal crypt (of Lieberkuhn)
  354. Which cells of the small intestine secrete antimicrobial peptides such as lysozyme and α-defensins?




    D) Paneth cell
  355. What is the name of a lymphatic capillary running down the center of each villus of the small intestine?




    C) Lacteal
  356. Which of the following cell types secrete mucus in the small intestine?




    D) Goblet cell

    Mucous neck cells are found in the stomach.
  357. What is the name of the cytoplasmic projections that cover the apex of the enterocytes giving them a "brush border"?




    A) Microvilli
  358. Which of the following glands secrete mucus in the duodenum?




    C) Gland of Brunner

    Gland of Brunner is also known as duodenal submucosal gland.
  359. Which of the following structures are characteristically found in the submucosal layer of the duodenum?




    D) Gland of Brunner
  360. What is the name of the valvular flaps formed by the mucosa projecting into the lumen of the small intestine?




    B) Circular folds (of Kerckring)

    The circular folds (of Kerckring), which is also known as plicae circulares, are most prominent in the distal duodenum and jejunum.
  361. Which of the following structures is found in between the circular and longitudinal layers of the muscular wall of the small intestine?




    D) Auerbach's plexus

    Auerbach's plexus is also known as myenteric plexus.
  362. Which of the following cells of the intestinal epithelium produce secretin, cholecystokinin, vasoactive inhibitory protein (VIP), and other hormones?




    B) Enteroendocrine cell
  363. Which of the following layers does not comprise the mucosa of the small intestine?




    C) Muscular coat
  364. Which cells of the small intestine function to absorb nutrients from ingested food?




    B) Enterocyte
  365. What is the name of the fingerlike projections of the lamina propria of the intestinal wall into the lumen?




    C) Villi
  366. Which of the following cells is not found in the epithelial layer of the small intestine?




    B) Parietal cell
  367. Which of the following glands is/are only found in the duodenum?




    C) Gland of Brunner

    Gland of Brunner is also known as duodenal submucosal gland.
  368. Which type of epithelium lines the mucosa of the small intestine?




    B) Simple columnar epithelium
  369. The gut is innervated by both extrinsic and intrinsic nerve supply. The intrinsic nervous system consists of two plexuses - Auerbach's plexus and Meissner's plexus. In which layer of the gut wall are cell bodies of the Meissner's plexus situated?




    D) Submucosa

    Meissner's plexus is also known as submucosal plexus.
  370. Which of the following cells increase in number toward the terminal end of large intestine?




    B) Goblet cell
  371. Which cells of the large intestine absorb water and minerals from chyme?




    A) Enterocytes
  372. Which of the following layers does not comprise the mucosa of the large intestine?




    A) Simple squamous epithelium
  373. What is the name of the three longitudinal bands of muscle found on the outside of the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon?




    B) Teniae coli

    The contractions of teniae coli facilitate the peristaltic action of the large intestine, propelling the fecal matter and forming the haus
  374. Which of the following cell types secretes mucus in the large intestine?




    B) Goblet cell

    Mucous neck cells are found in the stomach.
  375. Which type of epithelium does the simple columnar epithelium transition into below the anorectal junction?




    A) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
  376. Which of the following structures are found between the circular and longitudinal layers of the muscular wall of the large intestine?




    A) Auerbach's plexus


    Auerbach's plexus is also known as myenteric plexus.
  377. Which of the following structures are formed by the contractions of teniae coli?




    D) Haustra
  378. A 48-year old woman presents to the clinic with symptoms of fatigue, chronic epigastric pain for the past several years, and a 15-pound weight loss in the past two months. A colonoscopy was performed revealing a mass in the hepatic flexure of the colon. The histopathology of the mass shows evidence of MALT lymphoma, a malignant tumor of the lymphoid tissue. Which layer of the intestinal wall contains the lymphoid follicles?




    C) Submucosa
  379. Which type of epithelium constitutes the external layer (tunica serosa) of the large intestine?




    A) Simple squamous epithelium
  380. Which of the following structures of the large intestine forms the teniae coli?




    A) Outer longitudinal layer of muscular coat
  381. All of the following cells are found in the epithelial layer of the large intestine, except?




    B) Paneth cells

    Paneth cells are found in the small intestine.
  382. Which of the following structures are found in the lamina propria of the large intestine?




    A) Intestinal crypt (of Lieberkuhn)
  383. Which type of epithelium lines the mucosa of the large intestine?




    B) Simple columnar epithelium with microvilli
  384. What is the name of the aggregation of lymphatic nodules characteristically found in the submucosal layer of the ileum?




    B) Peyer's patches
  385. Which of the following structures receive intraluminal antigens via the M cells?





    D) Peyer's patches
  386. What type of cells is more numerous in the ileum than in the jejunum and duodenum?





    A) Goblet cells
  387. Which of the following best describes the mucosa of the stomach?





    B) Has a wrinkled surface, forming rugae

    The mucosa has a wrinkled surface, forming rugae that can help the stomach to expand during distension. It is made up of simple columnar epithelium covered in an alkaline mucous layer. 

    The submucosa is made up of loose connective tissue and contains blood vessels and nerves. 

    The middle circular layer of muscle is arranged concentrically around the stomach and forms the pyloric sphincter

    The external longitudinal layer is only found at the two curvatures, and functions to contract and shorten the stomach during gastric peristalsis. 

    The serosa is the layer that is made up of visceral peritoneum.
  388. Where do the connective tissue septa that separate the hepatic lobules stem from?





    C) Fibrous capsule of the liver
  389. Which of the following cells are specialized macrophages of the liver that belong to mononuclear phagocyte system?





    A) Kupffer cells

    Kupffer cells are also known as stellate macrophages.
  390. All of the following cells can be found in the liver, except:





    D) Satellite cells

    Satellite cells are found in the ganglia of peripheral nervous system.
  391. Which of the following is the basic functional unit of the liver supplied by one branch of the hepatic artery?





    A) Liver acinus
  392. Where is the central vein of the liver ultimately drained into?





    C) Inferior vena cava
  393. Which of the following cells are found in the perisinusoidal space (space of Disse)?





    B) Hepatic stellate cells
  394. Which of the following structures are located in the center of each liver lobule?





    C) Central vein
  395. Which of the following organelles of the hepatocytes are responsible for storing iron in the form of ferritin?





    D) Lysosomes
  396. Which of the following structures are found between two adjacent hepatocytes?





    B) Bile canaliculus
  397. Which of the following structures is a fibrous capsule that cover the entire liver?





    D) Fibrous capsule of liver
  398. Which type of capillaries are found in the hepatic lobules?





    B) Discontinuous

    Discontinuous capillaries have discontinuous endothelium that serves as a location for mixing of the oxygen-rich blood from the hepatic artery and the nutrient-rich blood from the portal vein.
  399. Which of the following is the basic histological unit of the liver which is mostly made up of hepatocytes?




    A) Hepatic lobule
  400. Which type of epithelium lines the interlobular bile ducts visible in the portal triads?





    D) Simple cuboidal epithelium
  401. Which of the following organelles of the hepatocytes is responsible for synthesizing albumins, globulins, prothrombin, and other proteins?





    A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  402. Which of the following cells are polyhedral in shape and make up 80% of the total cells of the liver?





    D) Hepatocytes
  403. Which of the following organelles play the main role in the detoxifying function of the liver?




    B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum and peroxisome
  404. What is the name of the space between the hepatic sinusoids and the hepatocytes?




    C) Space of Disse

    Space of Disse is also known as perisinusoidal space, whereas space of Mall is also known as periportal space.
  405. Which of the following are specialized capillaries of the liver found between the hepatic cords?





    D) Hepatic sinusoids
  406. Which of the following veins drains the hepatic sinusoids?





    B) Central vein
  407. The terminal branches of the following structures are found in the portal triads, except:




    C) Hepatic plexus
  408. What is the name of the artery present in the portal triad?





    A) Interlobular artery
  409. Which of the following cells store about 80% of the total vitamin A in the body?





    E) Hepatic stellate cells
  410. Which of the following structures are located n the center of each liver acinus?





    D) Connective tissue septum
  411. Which type of tissue constitutes the septa found between the hepatic lobules?





    A) Loose connective tissue
  412. Which of the following structures are built in two rows of hepatocytes outwards from a central vein?





    B) Hepatic cord
  413. What is the name of the space in which the lymph is produced, found between the connective tissue of the portal canal and the outermost hepatocytes of the hepatic lobules?





    D) Space of Mall

    Space of Mall is also known as periportal space.
  414. What is the name of the vein present in the portal triad?





    B) Interlobular vein
  415. Which of the following organelles is responsible for conjugation of bilirubin?





    A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  416. Which of the following cells are responsible for secreting large amounts of collagen after liver injury?





    C) Hepatic stellate cells
  417. Which of the following veins is formed by the merger of the central veins?





    A) Sublobular vein
  418. Which of the following structures constitute the muscular layer of the gallbladder?





    A) Smooth muscle
  419. Which of the following lines the external surface of the gallbladder that is not attached to the liver?





    B) Mesothelium
  420. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the stomach wall?





    WE) Mucosa
    A) Serosa

    • The layers of the stomach wall, from internal to external can be remembered using M.S.M.S
    • Mucosa
    • Submucosa
    • Muscularis externa
    • Serosa

    The muscularis mucosa is the innermost layer of the mucosa, after the epithelium and lamina propria.
  421. Which of the following contains the glands that secrete gastrin?





    B) Pylorus

    The pylorus contains the pyloric glands that secrete gastrin. 

    In the body and fundus of the stomach exist the gastric glands that secrete HCl and intrinsic factor

    The glands that secrete mucous are called the cardiac glands and exist at the cardia

    The esophagus contains mucous secreting glands.
  422. Which of the following layers is found in the stomach, but not in the duodenum?





    C) Inner oblique layer

    The stomach's muscularis externa is made up of the inner oblique layer, middle circular layer, and external longitudinal layer. The duodenum's muscularis externa is made up of the inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer.

    Therefore, the inner oblique muscle layer is unique to the stomach and is not found in the duodenum.

    The circular layer and longitudinal layer are found in both the duodenum and the stomach. 

    The transverse layer and outer oblique layer are not related to either the stomach or the duodenum.
  423. Which of the following best describes the serosa of the stomach?





    D) Made of visceral peritoneum

    The serosa layer is made up of visceral peritoneum.

    The inner oblique layer of muscle is the innermost layer of the muscularis externa. It is located throughout the whole stomach and works with the other muscles for gastric peristalsis. 

    The middle circular layer of muscle is arranged concentrically around the stomach and forms the pyloric sphincter

    The submucosa is made up of loose connective tissue and contains blood vessels and nerves. 

    The mucosa has a wrinkled surface, forming rugae that can help the stomach to expand during distension. It is made up of simple columnar epithelium covered in an alkaline mucous layer.
  424. Which of the following best describes the epithelium found in the mucosa of the stomach?





    C) Simple columnar epithelium

    Simple columnar epithelium lines the stomach wall.

    Transitional epithelium is found in the bladder and ureters.

    Simple squamous epithelium is found in capillaries, alveoli and glomeruli

    Simple cuboidal epithelium is found on the surface of ovaries and the lining of nephrons and renal tubules.

    Stratified squamous epithelium is found on the upper surface of the tongue and hard palate, as well as the esophagus.
  425. Which of the following best describes the inner oblique layer of muscle in the stomach?





    B) Innermost layer of the muscular externa

    The inner oblique layer of muscle is the innermost layer of the muscularis externa. It is located throughout the whole stomach and works with the other muscles for gastric peristalsis. 

    The middle circular layer of muscle is arranged concentrically around the stomach and forms the pyloric sphincter

    The submucosa is made up of loose connective tissue and contains blood vessels and nerves. 

    The mucosa has a wrinkled surface, forming rugae that can help the stomach to expand during distension. It is made up of simple columnar epithelium covered in an alkaline mucous layer. 

    The external longitudinal layer is only found at the two curvatures, and functions to contract and shorten the stomach during gastric peristalsis.
  426. Which of the following best describes the epithelium lining the esophagus?





    B) Stratified squamous epithelium

    Stratified squamous epithelium lines the esophagus in health.

    Simple columnar epithelium lines the stomach.

    Transitional epithelium is found in the bladder and ureters.

    Simple squamous epithelium is found in capillaries, alveoli and glomeruli. 

    Simple cuboidal epithelium is found on the surface of ovaries and the lining of nephrons and renal tubules.
  427. Where would you find the glands that secrete mucous in the stomach?





    A) Cardia

    The glands that secrete mucous are called the cardiac glands and exist at the cardia. 

    In the fundus and body of the stomach exist the gastric glands that secrete HCl and intrinsic factor

    The pyloric canal and pyloric antrum contain the pyloric glands that secrete gastrin.
  428. You are an FY1 working in General Practice. During your clinic last week you saw Mrs Willis, a 43-year-old female complaining of abdominal pain. She told you that she has been suffering from crampy abdominal pains for the last 7 months, which are often associated with bloating. Her bowel movements are quite irregular, and she often experiences episodes of diarrhoea. She notes that there is sometimes mucus in her stool, but never blood. 

    Her past medical history includes depression and endometrial cancer (successfully treated with hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy).

    You decided to run some blood tests for her which have now come back. Her faecal calprotectin is normal, and bloods are negative for anti-TTG antibodies. Her ESR and CRP are not raised.

    Given the most likely diagnosis, which first line management plan would be most appropriate?





    E) Diet and lifestyle advice

    The most likely diagnosis for this patient is irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a functional disorder of the bowel causing abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. It is a diagnosis of exclusion. In this case, other differential diagnoses have been excluded (negative anti-TTG excludes coeliac disease, low faecal calprotectin and inflammatory markers make IBD unlikely).

    The correct answer to this question is dietary and lifestyle advice, as this is the first-line treatment for IBS.

    • Key elements of this include:
    • Increased physical activity
    • Increased water consumption
    • Reduced caffeine, alcohol and fizzy drinks
    • Review fibre intake

    Appropriate drug management options for IBS treatment would include, antispasmodic drugs such as mebeverine hydrochloride and peppermint oil. Loperamide hydrochloride would also be appropriate for this patient to relieve her diarrhoea.

    The other answers are not appropriate in this patient.

    Linaclotide is a medication given to patients with IBS, who have had constipation for at least 12 months, having not responded to laxatives from the different classes. In this particular patient, this would not be appropriate, as she has not complained of constipation.

    A gluten-free diet is key in the management of coeliac disease. This diagnosis would be made if the patient had positive anti-TTG antibodies. A gluten-free diet is not used in the management of IBS.

    Mesalazine is a type of aminosalicylate. It is typically given as a suppository in the management of IBD (particularly ulcerative colitis). In IBD you would expect to see raised inflammatory markers, and raised faecal calprotectin.

    Surgical removal of ovarian carcinoma is not appropriate. Ovarian cancer should be considered in the differential diagnosis, particularly in a patient of this age, presenting with bloating and abdominal pain. However, the patient has already had her ovaries removed, which rules out this diagnosis, and therefore this management plan is not appropriate.
  429. A 56-year-old gentleman presents to the GP with painless rectal bleeding which started three months ago. He describes noticing bright red blood in the toilet after defecation several times a week. The blood is on the surface of the stools, rather than mixed in with the faecal content and his stools are normal consistency. He feels otherwise well and denies any recent changes to bowel habit or weight loss. He has a past medical history of hypertension and his only regular medication is Lisinopril. Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, there are no visible abnormalities of the external anal canal and digital rectal examination does not reveal any abnormality. 

    Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?





    A) Haemorrhoids

    The most likely diagnosis is internal haemorrhoids given the history of painless rectal bleeding that is bright red in colour and not mixed within the stool. In addition, he has no systemic features to suggest malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease such as changes in bowel habit, abdominal pain, reduced appetite or weight loss. Internal haemorrhoids are abnormally enlarged vascular cushions that are located within the anal canal above the dentate line and are therefore not externally visible. In addition, they are painless unless they become thrombosed. In comparison, external haemorrhoids are located below the dentate line and are externally visible. They also have sensory innervation, meaning they often cause itching and pain. Management of haemorrhoids initially involves increased fibre intake, laxatives and simple analgesia. If they remain problematic they may require band ligation, injection sclerotherapy or haemorrhoidectomy. 

    Anal cancer typically presents with perianal pain, bleeding, faecal incontinence, weight loss and a palpable mass on rectal examination. 

    Proctitis involves inflammation of the anus and lining of the rectum. It typically presents with anal discomfort, tenesmus and bleeding. The patient's symptoms and examination findings in this scenario would not fit with this diagnosis.

    Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory disease of the colon driven by an autoimmune process. It typically presents with bloody diarrhoea with other associated features including colicky abdominal pain, tenesmus, malaise and weight loss. These symptoms are not in keeping with the above scenario.

    Anal fissures typically present with pain on defecation with associated bright red bleeding on the surface of stools and on toilet paper. Anal fissures are commonly caused by constipation, so asking about the patient's recent bowel habit is important. Rectal examination usually reveals a linear split on the anal mucosa on inspection, however, the examination can sometimes be difficult due to pain induced anal spasm. The absence of pain and a normal rectal examination in this scenario rules out this diagnosis.
  430. A 12-year-old boy has arrived at A&E, complaining of sharp intense right iliac fossa (RIF) abdominal pain and a fever. He feels nauseous and has not had much of an appetite today. 

    On examination, he is very tender in his RIF and displays guarding and rebound tenderness. You notice when you palpate his left iliac fossa (LIF), this increases the pain on the opposing side in his RIF. 

    What is this sign known as?





    D) Rovsing's sign

    This is Rovsing's sign where palpation of LIF causes pain in RIF. It indicates appendicitis. Other symptoms of appendicitis include dull, poorly localised periumbilical pain that moves to RIF and becomes sharp, as well as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and constipation.

    Psoas sign (RIF pain with extension of the right hip or with flexion of the right hip against resistance), guarding, rebound tenderness, and percussion pain may also be present on examination - particularly at McBurney's point (located one third of the distance from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus).

    Kernig's sign: Severe stiffness of the hamstrings causes pain or an inability to straighten the leg (extend knee) when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees. It is indicative of meningitis or subarachnoid haemorrhage.

    Murphy's sign: Palpate the right subcostal area while the patient takes in and holds a deep breath. If the pain occurs on inspiration, when the inflamed gallbladder comes into contact with the examiner's hand, Murphy's sign is positive. It is indicative of acute cholecystitis.

    Psoas sign: Have the patient lie on their left side while their right hip is extended backward with their leg straight. Pain on passive extension may indicate an inflamed appendix overlying the psoas muscle. This is indicative of appendicitis.

    Brudzinki's sign: Severe neck stiffness causes a patient's hips and knees to flex when the neck is passively flexed with the patient lying supine. This is an involuntary reaction to lessen the stretch on the inflamed meninges and so is indicative of meningitis.
  431. Which of the following is specific to Crohn's disease rather than ulcerative colitis?





    A) Granulomata on histopathology

    Presence of granulomata on histopathological analysis is pathognomonic of Crohn's disease.

    Bloody diarrhea is a key part of the ulcerative colitis presentation.

    Erythema nodosum can be seen generally in inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) - i.e. in both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.

    Pyoderma gangrenosum can be seen in both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis, and indeed is more common in the latter group.

    Elevated faecal calprotectin levels following stool sample analysis indicate inflammation of the bowel (with a concomitant abundance of neutrophils in the intestinal mucosa and lumen) - this would, therefore, indicate diseases such as Crohn's, UC and coeliac disease, but could not be used to differentiate between them.
  432. A 32-year-old male presents to you with a tender abdomen and a fever of 2 days' duration.

    On examination you find that he has:
    Exquisite tenderness in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen 
    Pyrexia (temperature 39.5 degrees Celsius)
    A pulse rate of 97 beats per minute
    Scleral icterus
    Multiple ecchymoses on his thighs, bilaterally
    No shifting dullness
    No fluid thrill
    Resonance over Traube's space 

    You decide to order some blood tests, the results of which are listed below:
    ALP:  118 U/L
    AST: 1170 U/L
    ALT: 1060 U/L
    Bilirubin: 27 μmol/ L
    GGT: 57 U/L
    Albumin: 24 g/L

    What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

    A) Cholangiocarcinoma causing an obstructive liver injury
    B) Acute viral hepatitis
    C) Alcoholic fatty liver disease
    D) Primary Budd-Chiari syndrome
    B) Acute viral hepatitis

    This patient presents with stigmata suggestive of acute viral hepatitis -- as evidenced by the right upper quadrant tenderness, jaundice, deranged LFTs (specifically, the markedly elevated transaminases AST & ALT), and pyrexia.

    • The other options are incorrect as follows:
    • It is unlikely that the patient is presenting with an obstructive liver injury caused by a cholangiocarcinoma -- as this would lead to elevation of GGT and ALP in this patient, rather than elevated transaminases
    • Alcoholic fatty liver disease (AFLD) is insidious with respect to onset and will present with vague, generalized symptoms - rather than the acute presentation in this patient. In addition, the AST and ALT will be elevated to a level some 8 - 10 times higher than the upper limit of normal in AFLD - rather than the some 25 times the upper limit of normal you see in acute viral hepatitis.
    • In order to suspect Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS), a patient needs to present with a classic tetrad - namely: abdominal pain, ascites, liver enlargement, and splenomegaly. This patient was not found to have ascites, nor did he have a palpable spleen. In addition the patient would need to be in somewhat of a hypercoagulable state to rule in primary BCS (as it is caused by hepatic vein thrombi) - and this patient has evident synthetic liver dysfunction (as evidence by hypoalbuminaemia) thus leading to his ecchymoses (failure of the liver to synthesis clotting factors).
  433. The D cells of the stomach produces what substance?





    C) Somatostatin

    The are a number of ways in which acid production can be decreased in the stomach. One of which is via accumulation of acid in the empty stomach between meals. This increase in acid leads to a lower pH within the stomach, which inhibits the secretion of gastrin, via the production of somatostatin from D cells.
  434. Which cells in the neck of the gastric pits primarily secrete mucus?





    A) Foveolar cells

    Gastric mucus is a gel-mucous barrier secreted by epithelial cells and glandular cells in the stomach wall. It acts as part of a barrier that protects the stomach wall from the acid and digestive enzymes within the stomach lumen.This barrier is also made up of a bicarbonate secretion and the epithelial cells.

    Mucus is secreted by the stomach epithelial cells, but the mucus is mainly secreted from foveolar cells, found in the necks of the gastric pits. Mucus-secreting cells are the most abundant cell type in the stomach, giving indications of how important mucus is to the functioning stomach.
  435. Which of the following carbohydrate products is not absorbed by the small intestine?




    C) Sucrose
  436. True or False: Disaccharides occurring naturally in food do not require amylase to break them down.
    True
  437. Which cell type secretes histamine, causing gastric parietal cells to secrete acid?




    A) Enterochromaffin-like cell

    Enterochromaffin-like cells can be stimulated by either gastrin (from adjacent G-cells in the stomach) or acetylcholine (from autonomic nerves) to release histamine. Histamine stimulates the gastric parietal cells to secrete acid.

    Chief cells, are cells located in the stomach that secrete pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is a precursor to pepsin, which is an important proteolytic enzyme in digestion.

    K-cells are cells in the duodenum/stomach that secrete gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). GIP is a weak inhibitor of stomach acid secretion, but its more important role is to stimulate insulin secretion

    Delta cells of the pancreatic islets and D-cells in the stomach both secrete somatostatin, which is the most important inhibitor of gastric secretion.
  438. Gastrin is secreted from which cell type in the stomach?





    A) G cells

    The main regulation pathway of acid production involves the hormone gastrin which is secreted from G cells in the stomach. G cells are activated by the vagus nerve and gastrin related peptide.

    Activation of the G cells leads to the production of gastrin which is released into the blood and travels through the blood until it reaches the parietal cells. Gastrin binds to CCK receptors on the parietal cells which also elevates calcium levels causing increased vesicular fusion.
  439. Saliva helps the mouth to maintain which kind of environment?





    C) Alkaline

    • The role of saliva is varied but includes:
    •      1. Keeping mucosa moist
    •      2. Lubrication of wet food
    •      3. Washing teeth
    •      4. Maintaining an alkaline environment - contains bicarbonate which helps with this
    •      5. Contains a high concentration of calcium
    •      6. Starts digestion of carbohydrates
  440. Which cells in the stomach produce hydrochloric acid?





    B) Parietal cells

    To begin with, water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) combine within the parietal cell cytoplasm to produce carbonic acid (H2CO3).  An enzyme called carbonic anhydrase converts carbonic acid into its component ions a hydrogen ion (H+) and a bicarbonate ion (HCO3–).

    The bicarbonate ion is transported out of the cell into the blood via a transporter protein called anion exchanger which transports the bicarbonate ion out the cell in exchange for a chloride ion (Cl–). This chloride ion is then transported into the stomach lumen via a chloride channel.

    Prior to this, the hydrogen ion that was formed via the splitting of carbonic acid is transported into the stomach lumen via the H+– K+ ATPase. This channel uses ATP energy to exchange potassium ions in the stomach with hydrogen ions in the parietal cell.

    This results in both hydrogen and chloride ions being present within the stomach lumen which form hydrochloric acid.
  441. Which is the primary organ involved in carrying out the urea cycle?




    C) Liver

    Liver is the primary organ of the urea cycle. It converts toxic ammonia to urea through amino acid catabolism

    Kidneys also carry out urea cycle but to a much lesser extent. Urea produced by the liver is filtered and eventually excreted by the kidneys.

    Spleen is primarily a filtering organ for red blood cells and secondarily a lymphoid organ, which acts similar to a large lymph node.

    Pancreas is an endocrine (secretes insulin and glucagon) or exocrine (secretes digestive enzymes) organ.
  442. What percentage of the lipids is digested by the lingual and gastric lipases?




    D) 10%

    Digestion of lipids Is started by lingual and gastric lipases, but this only digests 10% of ingested lipids.

    The remainder of the lipids are digested in the small intestine where bile aids digestion by emulsifying the fat goblets into micelles, which have a much larger surface area.

    Pancreatic lipase, phospholipase A2 and cholesterol ester hydrolase (3 major enzymes involved in lipid digestion) hydrolyse the micelles, breaking them down into fatty acids, monoglycerides, cholesterol and lysolecithin.
  443. Cholecystokinin is released by the pancreas in response to the presence of fatty acids in its lumen. The release of this hormone causes contraction of the smooth muscle of the gallbladder which expels bile into the biliary tree, as well as relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi that allows bile to flow into the duodenum.




    D) Only the second statement is true.

    Cholecystokinin is released by the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids in its lumen.
  444. What is the function of enterochromaffin cells in the small intestine?





    E) Release of serotonin

    Enterochromaffin cells are mechanically stimulated by the presence of chyme in the small intestine. They release serotonin, which acts on the enteric nervous system to activate the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulators (CFTR). This ion channel secretes Cl–ions into the intestinal lumen, with Na+ ions and H2O following. Na+ is required in the lumen for the absorption of a number of nutrients.
  445. Which enzyme in the stomach primarily aids in breaking down protein from the diet into amino acids and oligopeptides?





    A) Pepsin

    Protein digestion begins in the stomach with the action of pepsin, which breaks protein into amino acids and oligopeptides.

    The process of digestion is completed in the small intestine with brush border and pancreatic enzymes. They split the oligopeptides into amino acids, dipeptides and tripeptides.
  446. In the stomach, which nerve directly stimulates the parietal cells to increase hydrochloric acid production?





    E) Vagus nerve

    Increasing acid production can be via acetylcholine (ACh), which is released from the vagus nerve.

    First released during cephalic phase of digestion, which is activated upon seeing or chewing food, leading to direct stimulation of parietal cells via the vagus nerve.

    It is also produced during the gastric phase of digestion when intrinsic nerves detect distension of the stomach, stimulating the production of ACh by the vagus nerve.
  447. Which proton pumps are primarily involved in the control of acid production in the stomach?





    B) H+/K+ ATPase

    At rest, the number of H+– K+ ATPases present within the parietal cell membrane is minimal. The rest are sequestered within tubulovesicles in the parietal cell.

    Upon stimulation, the vesicles fuse with the cell membrane which leads to the increased insertion of H+– K+ ATPase into the membrane.

    This leads to increased movement of hydrogen ions into the stomach thus increasing acid production.
  448. What is the normal pH of the stomach?





    E) 1.5-3.5

    The stomach is a gastrointestinal organ that is responsible for preliminary digestion and destroying any potential pathogenic microorganisms that may have been ingested.

    It is an acidic environment with a pH that can vary between 1.5-3.5.

    HCl is produced by the parietal cells of the stomach.
  449. Which cells of the small intestine contain brush border enzymes that are important for digestion?





    C) Enterocytes

    • The epithelium of the small intestine lines the luminal surface and contain:
    •      1. Enterocytes – tall columnar cells, which have an absorptive function; contain brush border enzymes on the surface which have an important digestive function
    •      2. Goblet cells – exocrine glands which secrete mucin
    •      3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn - contain enteroendocrine cells to synthesize and secrete hormones
    •      4. Paneth cells - secrete protective agents (such as defensins and lysozymes)
    •      5. Peyer’s patches - found in ilium and contain mucosal-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) which house white blood cells and lymphocytes
  450. Which gastrointestinal modulator plays an important hormonal role in neutralizing acidic stomach contents as they arrive in the intestine?





    B) Secretin

    Secretin is secreted by S cells in the duodenum in response to fatty acids and H+ ions. Secretin stimulates the secretion of biliary and pancreatic HCO3-, which results in neutralization of duodenal contents.

    Acetylcholine is also capable of stimulating release of HCO3- through the pancreatic duct, however its action is arises through a neurocrine mechanism and not hormonal.

    Somatostatin and GIP are inhibitors of stomach acid secretion, but they do not have important actions on the neutralization of duodenal contents.

    Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by I cells of the duodenal and jejunal mucosa, and its primary role is to promote fat digestion. Its main effects are stimulation of bile secretion and pancreatic enzyme secretion. It also does promote secretion of ductal HCO3-, but this effect is much weaker compared to that of secretin.
  451. In which phase of swallowing does the larynx lower back to its normal position and the cricopharyngeus muscle contract to prevent reflux?





    C) Esophageal phase

    At the beginning of the esophageal phase, the larynx lowers, returning to its normal position. The cricopharyngeus muscle then contracts to prevent reflux and respiration begins again.

    The bolus is moved down the esophagus via peristalsis, which is coordinated by extrinsic nerves. Each area of muscle systematically relaxes to allow food through and contracts afterwards to propel it further. The transit time to the stomach takes around 10-12 seconds.
  452. I cells in the small intestine secrete which substance?





    B) Cholecystokinin

    • In the small intestine, I Cells secrete Cholecystokinin (CCK) in response to the presence of fat in the small intestine. CCK stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder (which pushes bile out into the cystic duct) and the release of pancreatic enzymes.
    • Both bile and pancreatic enzymes have a key role in lipid digestion.

    Secretin is secreted by the S cells, while GIP is secreted by K cells.
  453. What is the best description of the vagovagal reflex?




    B) The vagus nerve uses the dorsal complex to initiate peristalsis.

    The vagovagal reflex uses the dorsal vagus complex in the brain to control the peristaltic contractions of the gastrointestinal tract. This reflex is activated when food enters the stomach causing an increase in gastric acid secretion via acetylcholine binding to M3 receptors (using the parasympathetic vagus nerve circuit).
  454. Glucose and galactose are absorbed across the apical membrane of the intestine by which transporter?





    E) SGLT1

    Disaccharides occurring naturally in food do not require amylase to break them down.

    Brush border enzymes (lactase, sucrase, trehalase) hydrolyze these compounds into molecules of glucose, galactose and fructose.

    Glucose and galactose are absorbed across the apical membrane by active transport through the Sodium-Glucose cotransporter (SGLT1).

    Both glucose and galactose exit the cell via GLUT2 receptors across the basolateral membrane into the blood.

    Fructose enters the cell by facilitated diffusion via GLUT5 and is transported into the blood via GLUT2 receptors.
  455. The intestinal mucosa is susceptible to invasion by pathogens due to its permeability and absorption of food. 

    GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue) is a part of the immune system which protects the GI tract.

    Which of the following is NOT a component of GALT?





    C) Enterochromaffin cells

    The walls of the large intestine contain gastrointestinal lymphoid tissue (GALT) that contributes to the body’s immune defenses.

    • The GALT is made up of:
    •      1. Waldeyers tonsillar ring - lymphoid tissue in the pharynx, swelling of which causes tonsilitis
    •      2. Peyer's patches - oval/round lymphoid follicles involved in immune surveillance of the gut
    •      3. Microfold (M cells) - make up Peyer's patches; their role is to sample antigen and present to antigen-presenting cells
    •      4. Paneth cells - located in the epithelium of the small intestine, their role is to secrete antimicrobial peptides and proteins such as toll-like receptors (TLRs) to kill pathogens.

    Enterochromaffin cells are located in the crypts between intestinal villi, and their function is to release serotonin in the enteric nervous system, therefore they are not involved in GALT or immune function.
  456. In which phase of swallowing is the tongue elevated and the soft palate pulled anteriorly against it?





    B) Voluntary phase

    • In the voluntary phase:
    •      - Mastication leads to a bolus of food produced
    •      - During this stage, the back of the tongue is elevated and the soft palate pulled anteriorly against it.
    •      - This keeps the food within the oral cavity and allows the airway to remain open. The duration of this stage varies.
    •      - Following this, inspiration is inhibited and the bolus of food is moved to the pharynx by the tongue. This leads to the stimulation of the swallowing reflex.
  457. What is the only essential secretion from the stomach?





    D) Intrinsic factor

    Intrinsic factor is the only essential (i.e. essential to life) secretion produced by parietal cells in the stomach. Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that allows the body to absorb vitamin B12.

    Hydrochloric acid activates pepsinogen produced by the stomach into its active form called pepsin. Pepsin is then involved in proteolysis which promotes digestion.

    Gastrin is a hormone produced by stomach g-cells that promote the production of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells.

    Cholecystokinin is produced by cells of the upper small intestine.
  458. Bile is secreted in response to which substance in the small intestine?





    E) Cholecystokinin

    Bile serves an important role in lipid digestion and is secreted from the gallbladder into the common bile duct, in response to CCK.

    Bile is made up of bile acids, cholesterol, phospholipids, bile pigments (such as bilirubin and biliverdin), electrolytes and water.

    • These are split into two main groups, known as the bile acid-dependent and bile acid-independent components:
    •      1. The bile acid-dependent component is produced by hepatocytes. The hepatocytes secrete bile acids, bile pigments and cholesterol into canaliculi, which are small channels that transport the bile acid-dependent portion towards the bile ducts.
    •      2. The bile acid-independent component is made by the ductal cells that line the bile ducts. These cells secrete an alkaline solution – similar to the fluid made by pancreatic duct cells. The hormone secretin stimulates this secretion.
  459. Which of the following blood markers classically rises with an upper gastrointestinal bleed?




    D) Urea

    Urea is formed when the blood is digested into protein and absorbed into the portal system, this is then metabolised into urea.
  460. Which of the following biopsy findings would be most likely in chronic peptic ulcer disease?





    B) Inflammatory infiltrate (predominantly macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells)

    Inflammatory infiltrate, predominantly macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells, is characteristic of non-specific chronic inflammation. Of the listed options, this is the most likely finding in a chronic peptic ulcer.

    Inflammatory infiltrate of predominantly neutrophils is characteristic of acute inflammation. Neutrophils may feature in chronic inflammation, but they do not predominate.

    Epithelioid macrophages are is associated with granulomatous inflammation, which is a form of specific chronic inflammation. Peptic ulcer disease is not characterized by granulomatous inflammation. Multinucleate giant cells are also associated with granulomatous inflammation.

    Eosinophils can feature in chronic inflammation, but they do not make up the majority of the inflammatory infiltrate. Eosinophilic infiltration is particularly associated with parasitic infections and allergies.
Author
carminaorlino
ID
356040
Card Set
Digestive System Anatomy and Physiology
Description
Updated