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Medicine 901-1200

  1. 901. “ Giant cell’ pneumonia is seen in:
    a. Epstein-Barr virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. measles d. Vericella
  2. 902. Myoclonic jerk is typically seen in:
    a. Trycyclic antidepressant poisoning b. BSE c. SSPE d. Steele-Richardson syndrome
  3. 903. Not seen in histiocytosis X:
    • a. LAngerhans’ cells are pathognomic b. Letterer-Siwe disease
    • c. Hand-Schhuller-Christian disease d. Eosinophilic granuloma
  4. 904. The histologic hallmark of langerhans cels granulomatosis is:
    a. Dendritic cell processes b. Giant mitochondria c. birbeck granules d. Eosinophilic granules
  5. 905. Macrocytic anemia is seen in all except:
    a. Thalassemia b. Acute blood loss c. Alcoholism d. Aplastic anemia
  6. 906. Carey-Coombs murmur s found in:
    a. TAPVC b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. TR d. Acute rheumatic fever
  7. 907. Most common cause of death in adults due to PDA is:
    a. Rupture of the ductus b. Aneurysmal dilatation c. Infective endocarditis d. Cardiac failure
  8. 908. Most common cause of chronic recurrent diarrhea in HIV patient is:
    a. Campylobacter b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Cryptosporidium d. Giardia lamblia
  9. 909. Not used to treat raised ICT:
    a. Tetracycline b. Repeated lumber tapping c. Corticosteroids d. Diuretics
  10. 910.Msot common cause of dementia in people more than 65 years of age is:
    a. Turner syndrome b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Huntington’s chorea
  11. 911. Holiday heart syndrome is commonly associated with:
    a. PAT b. Ventricular premature complexes c. Atrial premature complexes d. Atrial fibrillation
  12. 912. which is not true regarding alcoholic cardiomyopathy:
    a. Low cardiac output b. Ventricular arrhythmias c. Systemic vasodilation d. Atrial fibrillation
  13. 913.Extradural hemorrhage is due to rupture of which of the following artery:
    a. Middle meningeal b. Anterior meningeal c. posterior meningeal d. Middle cerebral
  14. 914. In hemoptysis, blood usually comes from:
    a. Pulmonary arteries b. pulmonary veins c. bronchial arteries d. bronchial veins
  15. 915. Not seen in emphysema:
    • a. Damage to alveoli b. Rhonchi c. Decreased vital capacity d. Hyperinflation
    • 916. Best method for decreasing blood cholesterol level is:
    • a. High fiber diet with low cholesterol b. Unsaturated fatty acid with high fiber diet and low cholesterol diet c. High fiber diet with saturated fatty acids and low cholesterol diet d. Low fiber diet with restricted dietary cholesterol
  16. 917. diabetes mellitus is not seen in:
    a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Ataxia telangiectasia c. Noonan syndrome d. Acromegaly
  17. 918. Lasegue’s sign is seen in:
    a. Sciatica b. Myasthenia gravis c. Intracranial lesions d. Transaction of spinal cord
  18. 919.Neuropathic joint is not seen in:
    a. Fredrick’s ataxia b. Syringomyelia c. Tabes dorsalis d. Diabetes mellitus
  19. 920. Neuropathic joints are not seen in:
    a. Tabes dorsalis b. Leprosy c. diabetes mellitus d. Myopathy
  20. 921. True regarding Korsakoff’s psychosis is:
    a. Anterograde amnesia b. Delirium c. Coarse tremor d. Disorientation
  21. 922. Botulinum toxin is used in the treatment of:
    a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Torticollis c. Focal dystonia d. amytrophic lateral sclerosis
  22. 923. Pneumocytosis carinii pneumonia is:
    a. Interstitial b. hemorrhagic c. Eosinophilic d. Alveolar pneumonia
  23. 924.Not seen in diphtheria:
    a. Polyneuropathy b. Endotoxemia c. Cardiomyopathy d. Pseudomembrane formation
  24. 925. Wenckebach’s phenomenon is defined as:
    • a. Shortened ST interval b. Irregular heart rate and premature ventricular beats
    • c. Slurred QRS complex d. Progressive lengthening of PR interval till a beat is dropped
  25. 926. False regarding klebsiella pneumonia:
    • a. It is also known as Friedlander’s pneumonia b. ampicillin the drug of choice
    • c. bulging fissure sign d. Upper lobe involvement
  26. 927. which of the following is false regarding Klebsiella pneumonia:
    a. Chocolate colored sputum b. Seen in alcoholics c. Seen in older age group d. Penicillin is the drug of choice
  27. 928. Bulging fissure sign in X-ray is seen in infection with:
    a. Loeffler’s bacillus b. klebsiela pneumonia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Haemophilus influenza
  28. 929. which of the following drug causes diarrhea:
    a. Methyldopa b. Purgatives c. Cocaine d. all of the above
  29. 930. True regarding sickle cell anemia is:
    • a. In β chain valine is present in place of glutamic acid as 6th amino acid
    • b. In β chain glutamic acid is present in place valine of as 6th amino acid
    • c. In α chain valine is present in place of glutamic acid as 6th amino acid
    • d. In α chain glumatic acid is present in place of valine as 6th amino acid
  30. 931. Not a good risk factor in multiple myeloma:
    a. IgG spike < 5 gm/dl b. Hematocrit >40% c. Hypocalcemia d. Azotemia
  31. 932. Pigment gallstones are not seen in:
    a. Hemolytic anemia b. TPN c. Clonorchis infestation d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
  32. 933. In congenital erythropoietic porphyria the enzyme deficient is:
    a. UPG decarboxylase b. PBG deaminase c. Uroporphyrinogen III synthase d. Ferrochelatase
  33. 934. False regarding congenitall erythropoietic porphyria:
    a. Autosomal recessive b. BMT is the treatment of choice c. Due to deficiency of URO synthase d. Hypertrichosis of face and extremities are common
  34. 935. Differential cyanosis is seen in:
    a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. TGA c. PDA d. TAPVC
  35. 936. Pituitary tumor which is most responsive to medical therapy is:
    a. Thyrotropin secreting tumors b. Prolactinoma c. ACTH secreting tumor d. Growth hormone secreting tumor
  36. 937. HTLV-I is associated with:
    a. Huntington’s chorea b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. AIDS d. Tropical spastic paraparesis
  37. 938. SLE like syndrome is not caused by:
    a. Levamisole b. Oral contraceptives c. D-Penicillamine d. Methyldopa
  38. 939.SLE like syndrome may be caused by:
    Practolol b. Metoprolol c. Alprenolol d. Timolol
  39. 940. Not seen in Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia:
    a. IgM spike on SPE b. Hyperviscosity c. Hypercalcemia d. Positive coombs’ test
  40. 941. Erythema chronicum migrane is seen in:
    a. Glucagonoma b. Lyme disease c. diabetes mellitus d. Bronchus carcinoma
  41. 942. All of the following drugs precipitate hypertensive crisis in pheochromocytoma except:
    a. Opiates b.. Saralasin c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Methyldopa
  42. 943.Drug of choice for very high circulatory catecholamine in pheochromocytoma is:
    a. Propanolol b. Doxazosin c. Prazosin d. Phenoxybenzamine
  43. 944. Drug not used alone in pheochromocytoma is:
    a. Metyrosine b. Atenolol c. Calcium channel blockers d. Sodium nitroprusside
  44. 945. Lupus pernio is characteristic of:
    a. Amyloidosis b. Coccidioidomycosis c. Sarcoidosis d. Histoplasmosis
  45. 946.Not a characteristic lab finding of Wegener’s granulomatosis:
    a. reduced levels of hemoglobin b. Reduced levels of complement c. Elevated levels of IgA d. elevated ESR
  46. 947. Extraparenchymal restrictive lung disease does not occur in:
    a. Congenital hyphoscoliosis b. Emphysema c. Myasthenia gravis d. obesity
  47. 948.hand-foot syndrome is seen with the use of:
    a. Bleomycin b. Adriamycin c. Busulphan d. 5 FU
  48. 949. Human liver transplant was pioneered by;
    a. Halstead b. Christian barnard c. Starzl d. Alexis carrel
  49. 950.Gottron’s papule is seen in:
    a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Systemic sclerosis c. Dermatomyositis d. Dermatitis herpetiformis
  50. 951. penicillamine is not used in…… poisoning:
    a. Lead b. copper c. Arsenic d. Mercury
  51. 952.D-penicillamine is useful in all except :
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Mercury poisoning c. Wilson’s disease d. Hemochromatosis
  52. 953. D-penicillamine is used in treating:
    a. Systemic sclerosis b. Systmeic lupus erythematosus c. Systemic infection d. DLE
  53. 954.Wrist drop, punctuate basophilia and encephalopathy occur in:
    a. Lead poisoning b. Arsenic poisoning c. Iron poisoning d. Copper poisoning
  54. 955. A boy presents with ascending paralysis followed by increasing respiratory muscle involvement . CSF examination shows albuminocytologic dissociation. Which of the following is the best treatment:
    a. Prednisolone IV b. Immunoglobulins IV c. Corticosteroids d. Oral prednisolone
  55. 956.Not used in the treatment of Guillain-Barre syndrome:
    a. IV gamma globulin b. IV methyl prednisolone c. Plasmapheresis d. Ventilatory support
  56. 957. lesion of the Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation causes:
    a. Bitemporal heminopia b. Superior quardrantic heminipia c. Central scotoma d . Homonymous hemianopia
  57. 958. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to deficiency of:
    a. Thiamine b. riboflavin c. Pyridoxine d. niacin
  58. 959. Not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:
    • a. Dementia b. global confusion c. Ophthalmoplegia d. Ataxia
    • 960. An alcoholic patient presented with complaints of confusion. He was administered IV glucose and suddenly developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The treatment is:
    • a. IV vitamin B1 b. IV 5% dextrose c. IV 50% dextrose d. IV normal saline
  59. 961.ABG of a patient reveals PH 7.2 HCO3_36 mmol/L; pcO2 mmHg. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Repository alkalosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Repository acidosis
  60. 962. Blood examination of a patient with head injury reveals PH 7.2 PaCO2 65 mmHg and bicarbonate 30. He has:
    a. Metabolic alkalosis b. metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
  61. 963. Respiratory alkalosis is seen in:
    a. morphine poisoning b. ethanol poisoning c. Salicylate poisoning d. Barbiturate poisoning
  62. 964. Respiratory acidosis is caused by:
    a. Morphine b. Asthma c. Emphysema d. All of the above
  63. 965. Cataract, mental retardation and short 4th metacarpal are the feature of:
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Pseudohypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism
  64. 966.C-reactive protein is raised in:
    a. Infections b. Inflammatory arthritis c. Autoimmune disorders d. All of the above
  65. 967.C-reactive Protein is significantly increased in all the following except:
    a. Rheumatic fever b Rheumatoid arthritis c. Systemic vasculitis d. Systemic sclerosis
  66. 968. Most common mendelian disorder among the following is:
    a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant d. X-linked recessive
  67. 969. Which of the following is the most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism:
    a. PCOD b. CAH c. Ovarian agenesis d. Turner syndrome
  68. 970. Which of the following is the scale used in comparing the grade of pain:
    a. mcGill’s pain chart b. Visual Analogue scale c. numerical charts d. CHEOPES
  69. 971. ST depression is seen in all the following except:
    a. Coronary vasospasm b. Acute MI c. Ventricular aneurysm d. LBBB
  70. 972. The shape of RBC is maintained by:
    a. Spectrin b. Ankyrin c. Fibrin d. Alpha glycoprotein
  71. 973. Vitamin E deficiency is associated with:
    a. pseudotumor cerebri b. Hyperkeratosis c. Ataxia d. Cholestasis
  72. 974. Acute leukemia phase is seen in all except :
    a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. CLL c. CML d. PNH
  73. 975. Antihypertensive drug which should not be given to a truck driver is:
    a. propanolol b. aldomet c. Clonidine d. Hydralazine
  74. 976. not seen in SIADH:
    a. Hyperuricemia b. Concentrated urine c. Lethargy d. hyponatremia
  75. 977. Reactive arthritis is commonly caused by:
    a. shigella sonnei b. Shigella flexneri c. Shigella boydii d. Shigella dysenteriae
  76. 978. Virus most commonly causing aplastic crisis in hemolytic anemia is:
    a. HTLV b. Parvovirus c. HIV d. Herpes virus
  77. 979.s Dementia in a patient of CRF with chronic hemodialysis is due to:
    a. hypertensive encephalopathy b. Hypokalemia c. Uremia d. Aluminum toxicity
  78. 980. Calcification of basal ganglion is least likely in:
    a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Pseudohypparathyroidism c. Idiopathic d. Berry’s aneurysm
  79. 981. In morphine poisoning , type of respiration is:
    a. Diaphragmatic b. slow c. Deep rapid d. Rapid shallow
  80. 982. Kala azar is transmitted by:
    a. Droplet infection b. Sandflies c. anopheles d. Black fly
  81. 983. not a clinical manifestation of kala azar:
    a. Dysphagia and chest pain b. pancytopenia c. Fever and cough d. splenomegaly
  82. 984. If kala azar is not responding to the primary treatment , then which of the following should be used:
    a. Splenectomy b. Ketoconazole c. Amphetericin B d. Double dose of antimony
  83. 985. Drug not used in treatment of kala azar:
    a. Pentamidine b. Amphotericin c. clindamycin d. Sodium stibogluconate
  84. 986. A continuous machinery murmur is heard in:
    a. PDA b. VSD c. ASD d. TOF
  85. 987. Curschmann’s spirals in sputum are seen in:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Asthma c. Bronchitis d. Bronchiectasis
  86. 988.Enzyme deficient in diabetes mellitus is:
    a. Glucokinase b. Hexokinase c. Phosphorylase d. pyrophosphate dehydrogenase
  87. 989. Which of the following enzyme is deficient in MODY type 2:
    a. GLucokinase b. Hexokinase c. Phosphorylase d. Pyrophosphate dehydrogenase
  88. 990. Which antitubercular drug is used in a patient of renal failure:
    • a. Isoniazid b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d Pyrazinamide
    • 991.Which one of the following therapies would be safe in a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis having markedly abnormal liver function:
    • a. Streptomycin + isoniazid b. Streptomycin+ Ethambutol c. Ethambutol + isoniazid d. Rifampicin + isoniazid
  89. 992. Deposition in alkaptonuria is not seen in:
    a. pinna b. Eye c. Nose d. Cartilage
  90. 993.Drug not causing cholestatic liver injury is:
    a. Ciprofloxacin b. Erythromycin estolate c. Clavulanic acid/ amoxicillin d. Chlorpromazine
  91. 994. Drug very effective in renal involvement in scleroderma is:
    a.Nifedipine b. Captopril c. D-penicillamine d. Prednisolone
  92. 995. Treatment of choice of pseudomembranous colitis is:
    a. Amikacin b. Bacitracin c. Vancomycin d. Ampicillin
  93. 996. Not used in the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis:
    a. Vancomycin b. Cholestyramine c. Ampicillin d. Metronidazole
  94. 997.Idiopathic ulcerative colitis most commonly involves:
    a. Cecum and ascending colon b. Colon and rectum c. cecum and decending colon d. rectum
  95. 998. Heparin’ s major mode of action is;
    a. Inhibits synthesis of thrombin b. inhibits factor VII synthesis c. Not easily controlled d. Activities plasmin
  96. 999. Efficiency of anticoagulant heparin is best monitored by:
    a. Clotting time b. FDP c. PT d. APTT
  97. 1000. Late systolic murmur is seen in which of the following condition:
    a. Large VSD b. Small VSD c. MVP d. Tricuspid valve endocarditis
  98. 1001. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in drug addicts is:
    a. Haemophilus influenza b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Salmonella
  99. 1002.True regarding Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is:
    • a. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency b. Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency
    • c. Partial HPRT deficiency d. Total HPRT deficiency
  100. 1003. Most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus is:
    a. Antinuclear antibody b. Anti-Sm c. Anti-Ro d. Anti-RNA
  101. 1004. Most common cause of hemobilia except:
    a. Hepatoma b. liver hemangioma c. Liver trauma d. Portal infection
  102. 1005. All of the following suggest hemobilia except:
    • a. Lower GI bleeding b. Upper abdominal trauma c. Jaundice d. Intermittent colicky abdominal pain
    • 1006.Spastic paraplegia is seen in all except:
    • a. Lead poisoning b. Motor neuron disease c. Cervical spondylosis d. Lathyrism
  103. 1007. Not a recognized tumor marker:
    AFP b. Acid phosphate c. β hCG d. neuron-specific enolase
  104. 1008. Acanthosis is not associated with:
    a. GI malignancy b. Gout c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Diabetes mellitus
  105. 1009. Water bottle configuration of the heart on chest X-ray is seen in:
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Carcinoid syndrome c. Beriberi d. Obesity
  106. 1010. Radiation nephritis is characterized by all except:
    a. Mild hypertension b. Massive proteinuria c. Rapidly developing azotemia d. Anemia
  107. 1011. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by:
    a. Valporic acid b. Erythromycin c. Theophylline d. Vitamin K
  108. 1012. Monday chest tightness is a symptom classifically seen in:
    a. bagassosis b. silicosis c. Berylliosis d. Byssinosis
  109. 1013. normal mean Reid index is:
    a. 0.22 b. 0.35 c. 0.44 d. 0.66
  110. 1014. Which of the following is not a feature of Addison’s disease:
    a. Hypertension b. Weight loss c. Pigmentation of skin d. Weakness
  111. 1015.Drugs causing metabolic acidosis are all except:
    a. Metformin b. Spironlactone c. Phenformin d. Albendazole
  112. 1016. Digoxin toxicity is not accentuated by;
    a. Hepatic dysfunction b. Hypokalemia c. Renal disease d. Wuinidine
  113. 1017. Which of the following is not a feature of Felty’s syndrome :
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Splenomegaly c. Neutropenia d. Osteoarthritis
  114. 1018. In aortic regurgitation, the left ventricle is:
    a. Hypertrophic b. Dilated c. small d. Atrophic
  115. 1019. The human parathormone:
    a. Increases bone reabsorption b. Lowers serum calcium c. Increases renal tubular reabsorption of phosphate d. Causes reabsorption of calcium in the kidney
  116. 1020. True about Huntington’s disease is:
    a. Autosomal dominant b. usually onset is in childhood c. Associates with rheumatic fever d. Disappears with rest and sedation
  117. 1021. Broad cast in the urine are typically seen in:
    a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Acute renal failure c. chronic renal failure d. nephrotic syndrome
  118. 1022. RBC casts in urine are seen in:
    a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Renal amyloidosis c. CRF d. Acute nephritis
  119. 1023. Prophylactic dose of tetanus immune globulin is:
    a. 250 international units b. 500 international units c. 1000 international units d. 1500 international units
  120. 1024.The treatment of acute cardiac tamponade is:
    a. emergency paracentesis b. Emergency thoracotomy c. IV digitalis d. Wait and watch
  121. 1025. Amyl nitrate is used in the poisoning of:
    a. Carbon monoxide b. Cyanide c. Salicylates d. Morphine
  122. 1026. Zieve’s syndrome is seen in:
    a. Protal cirrhosis b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Chronic alcoholism
  123. 1027.Relatively specific test for pheochromocytoma is:
    a. Ultrasound b. Estimation of urinary metanephrines c. Estimation of urinary vanilylmandelic acid d. Phentolamine test
  124. 1028.Bloody mucoid diarrhea is not seen in infection with:
    a. Shigella spp b. Vibrio cholera c. Salmonella spp d. Campylobacter jejuni
  125. 1029. ASO titers are useful in the diagnosis of:
    a. Acute rheumatoid arthritis b. Acute rheumatic fever c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Osteoarthritis
  126. 1030.In the jones criteria for rheumatic heart disease the major criteria are all except :
    a. Carditis b. Fever c. Erythema marginatum d. Subacutaneous nodule
  127. 1031. The major criteria for rheumatic fever are the following except :
    a. Carditis b. Fever c. Erythema marginatum d. ESR above 20 mm/hour
  128. 1032.Migrating polyarthritis is characteristically seen in:
    a. Syphilitic arthritis b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Rheumatic fever
  129. 1033. Which of the following is false regarding rheumatic nodules:
    a. Found over extensor surface b. Tender on palpation c. Coincides with subsidence of rheumatic process d. Pea size nodules
  130. 1034. which of the following is not a feature of classical migraine:
    a. Hallucinations b. No aura c. Fortification spectrum d. Scotomas
  131. 1035. Differential diagnosis of mitral stenosis includes:
    a. left atrial myxoma b. Ebstein’s anomaly c. Aortico pulmonary window d. All of the above
  132. 1036.Differential diagnosis of aortic stenosis includes all except :
    a. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Congestive cardiomyopathy c. Left atrial myxoma d. Heart block
  133. 1037. Convulsions are commonly precipitated in chronic renal failure by:
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypomagnessemia
  134. 1038. In adults jaundice in clinically detachtable in the sclera when the serum bilirubin concentration exceeds:
    a. 1 mg% b. 2 mg% c. 5mg% d. 7mg%
  135. 1039. Hamman-Rich syndrome is treated with:
    a. Vitamin B6 b. Vitamin B12 c. Isoniazid d. Steroids
  136. 1040.Which of the following is the best diagnostic method of confirming tuberculous peritonitis:
    a. Culture of peritoneal fluid b. Mantoux c. Peritoneal biopsy d. upper GI contrast films
  137. 1041. Important toxicity of ethambutol is:
    a. Jaundice b. Epigastric pain c. Retrobular neuritis d. Skin rash
  138. 1042. Optic neuritis is a side effect of:
    a. Rifampicin b. Pyrazinamide c. Ethambutol d. PAS
  139. 1043. Metyrapone inhibits:
    a. 11b-hydroxylase b. 21B hydroxylase c. both d. none
  140. 1044. Which of the following drugs commonly cause aplastic anemia:
    a. Prednisolone b. Penicillin c. Minocycline d. Chloramphenicol
  141. 1045.Renal papillary necrosis can be caused by;
    a. Phenacetin b. Sulphonamides c. Gentamicin d. penicillin
  142. 1046. Which of the following is a form of dyskinesia:
    a. Torsion dystonia b. Tics c. Chorea d. all of the above
  143. 1047. Determination of FLGLU in urine demonstrates deficiency of:
    a. Iron b. Vitamin B12 c. Folic acid d. Pyridoxine
  144. 1048. niacin deficiency causes:
    a. Dementia b. Diarrhea c. Dermatitis d. All of the above
  145. 1049. Normal TIBC is….. microgram/dl:
    a. 50-100 b. 150-250 c. 100-150 d. 300-350
  146. 1050. Iron is transported by:
    a. Ferritin b. Apotransferrin c. Transferrin d. Apoferritin
  147. 1051. In a patient with internuclear opthlmoplegia, the lesion is most likely to be at the level of the :
    • a. median longitudinal fasciculus b. Third nerve nucleus c. Reticular activation system d. Lateral lemniscus
    • 1052.A patient has history of recurrent hemoptysis, truncal obesity and cushingoid habitus and has increased ACTH not suppressible by dexamethasone suppression test. Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis:
    • a. Adrenal adenoma b. Pituitary tumor c. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor d. Latrogenic cushing’s syndrome
  148. 1053. True regarding adult polygenic kidney disease I and II respectively is;
    • a. Chromosome 16 and 5 b. Chromosome 16 and 4 c. chromosome 11 and 5 d. chromosome 21 and
    • 18
  149. 1054. Anosmia is seen in:
    a. Kallmann’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. patau syndrome
  150. 1055.Kartagener’s syndrome all are seen except;
    a. Cystic fibrosis b. Dextrocardia c. Sinusitis d. All
  151. 1056. In kartagener’s syndrome all are seen except:
    a. cystic fibrosis b. Dextrocardia c. Sinusitis d. Absence of cilia
  152. 1057. ultrastructural abnormalities reported in immotile cilia syndrome are:
    a. Dynein deficiency b. Absence of radial spokes c. Absence of central microtubule d. all of the above
  153. 1058.Which of the following is seen in ITP:
    • a. Thrombocytosis b. Increased prothrombin time c. Increased bleeding time d. Increased clotting
    • time
  154. 1059. Treatment of acute gout includes all except:
    a. NSAID b. Colchicine c. allopurinol d. all of the above
  155. 1060. postural tremors are seen in all except :
    a. Benign essential familial tremor b. Heavy metal poisoning c. lithium toxicity d. Spinocerebellar degeneration
  156. 1061.Which of the following is not a feature of hypothyroidism:
    a. Myxedema b. Carpal tunnel syndrome c. Menorrhagia d. Increased appetite
  157. 1062. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in:
    a. Cardiac tamponade b. Chronic obstructive airways disease c. Chronic constrictive pericarditis d. Intermittent positive pressure ventilation
  158. 1063. Chronicity is least common in:
    • a. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
    • c. Minimal change glomerulonephritis d. Focal glomerulonephritis
  159. 1064. Wermer’s syndrome 9 multiple endocrine neoplasia type) is characterized by all of the following except:
    • a. Tumors of anterior pituitary b. Tumors of parathyroid c. Pancreatic adenomas d. pheochromocytoma
    • 1065. Treatment of choice in Taenia saginata and TAenia solium infestation is:
    • a. metronidazole b. niclosamide c. Praziquantel d. Albendazole
  160. 1066. Which of the following is not a feature of mumps:
    a. Caused by paramyxovirus b. Aseptic meningitis c. Orchitis d. Incubation period is less than 2 weeks
  161. 1067. Most common complication of mumps in adults is;
    a. otitis media b. Orchitis c. Myocarditis d. encephalitis
  162. 1068. Which is true regarding von Willebrand’s disease:
    a. prolonged bleeding time b. Rare inherited bleeding disorder c. Autosomal recessive disease d. all of the above
  163. 1069.Carbamazepine is the drug of choice in:
    a. Absence attacks b. Complex partial seizures c. myoclonus d. Infantile spasm
  164. 1070. When carbamazepine is administered one should avoid:
    a. Sulphamethoxazole b. Amoxycillin c. Ceftriaxone d. Erythromycin
  165. 1071.Which of the following is a highly emetic drug:
    a. Cisplatin b. methotrexate c. Vincristine d. 5 Fluorouracil
  166. 1072. Which of the following is seen in infectious mononucleosis:
    a. lymphocytosis b. thrombocytopenia c. Increased serum transaminase d. all of the above
  167. 1073. pernicious anemia is due to:
    a. Iron deficiency b. Atrophic gastritis c. low folic acid d. None
  168. 1074.Which of the following drug causes acute pancreatitis:
    a. Valproic acid b. furosemide c. 6-Mercaptopurine d. all of the above
  169. 1075.Staphylococcus aureus commonly inhabits:
    a. Nasopharynx b. Throat c. Ear d. Skin
  170. 1076.Daily requirement of Vitamin K in adult male is:
    a. 20 to 50 microgram b. 10 to 20 microgram c. 45 to 80 microgram d. more than 150 microgram
  171. 1077.Antidote of choice in methyl alcohol poisoning is:
    a. Atropine b. PAM c. Neostigmine d. Ethanol
  172. 1078. Thyroid dysfunction is caused by:
    a. Amiodarone b. Lithium c. Phenytoin d. all of the above
  173. 1079. Fungal meningitis is caused by:
    a. Cryptococcus b. Actinomycetes c. Sporotrichosis d. All of the above
  174. 1080.In a patient of fever, nausea and mild pain in right hypochondrium, the most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Viral hepatitis b. Acute cholecystitis c. Gastritis d. Pleurisy
  175. 1081. Treatment of choice for typhoid carriers;
    a. Chloramphenicol b. Ciprofoxacin c. Cholecystectomy d. Ampicillin
  176. 1082. hypomagnesemia is caused by which of the following :
    a. Alcoholism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Both d. none
  177. 1083. which is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome:
    a. Gaunidine gives relief b. neostigmine also effective c. Ptosis d. Associated with oat cell carcinoma
  178. 1084. True about Ludwig’s angina is:
    a. Caused by Anaerobic streptococci b. A severe form of cellulitis c. originates from an infected mandibular molar d. All of the above
  179. 1085. The treatment of eosinophilic myositis is:
    a. Steroids b. Aspirin c. Persantine d. Hydralazine
  180. 1086. Which is the diagnostic test in pancreatic insulfficiency:
    a. Schilling test b. Serum lipase c. Serum amylase d. Fecal fat estimation
  181. 1087.HLA linkage is seen in:
    a. IDDM b. NIDDM c. Secondary diabetes due to pancreatic disease d. Diabetes due to insulin antagonist
  182. 1088. Trace element not needed is:
    a. Chromium b. Molybdenum c. Magnesium d. Cesium
  183. 1089. Risk of development of atherosclerosis is inversely proportional to:
    a. LDL levels b. VLDL levels c. Chylomicron level d. HDL levels
  184. 1090. Which of the following decreases the risk of atherosclerosis:
    a. LDL b. VLDL c. HDL d. Hyperthriglyceridemia
  185. 1091.s Sinus bradycardia is seen in:
    a. Typhoid fever b. Hypothyroid state c. Athletes d. All of the above
  186. 1092.Hallucination of obnoxious smell occurs in lesion of… lobe:
    a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital
  187. 1093. The highest frequency wave in EEG is…. Wave:
    a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Theta
  188. 1094. External cardiac massage is usually done in the :
    a. Lower 1/3 of sternum b. Xiphisternum c. Middle of sternum d. Manubrium
  189. 1095. Features of rheumatic carditis are all except:
    • a. Aschoff bodies b. lymphatic infiltration c. Myocardial fibrosis d. Intramyocardial microemboli
    • 1096. Goldblatt hypertension is seen in:
    • a. Renovascular disease b. Drug induced c. Adrenal medullar tumor d. Children
  190. 1097.Air embolism is diagnosed by:
    a. Loud P2 b. Continuous murmur c. Mill-wheel sound d. Crescendodecrescendo murmur
  191. 1098.Hepatic granulomas are caused by:
    a. Sarcoidosis b. Sulfonamides c. Schistosomiasis d. all of the above
  192. 1099. Progressive dementia without focal motor signs is seen is:
    a. Motor neuron disease b. Alzhemer’s disease c. parkinson’s disease d. Huntington’s chorea
  193. 1100. Tubercular nephritis is characterized by:
    • a. Pus cells without organism in the acidic urine b. Pus cell with organism in the acidic urine
    • c. Pus cell without organism in the alkaline urine d. Pus cell with organism in the alkaline urine
  194. 1101.Which of the following combination is not synergistic :
    a. Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis b. amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis c. Penicillin and tetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis d. Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprin in UTI
  195. 1102. Which of the following is not a feature of bartter’s syndrome :
    a. Hypertension b. Hypokalemia c. polyuria d. Autosomal recessive inheritance
  196. 1103. Pericarditis in rheumatoid arthritis is:
    a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Serofibrinous d. Adhesive
  197. 1104. leonine facies is seen in which disease:
    a. Leprosy b. Syphilis c. Jaws d. Trypanosomiasis
  198. 1105. Chloroma is associated with:
    a. Dehydration b. Myelogenous leukemia c. Melanoma d. Wilm’s tumor
  199. 1106.black urine is seen in:
    a. porphyria b. Rifampicin c. Pyridium d. Alkaptonuria
  200. 1107. The treatment of geographic tongue is:
    a. Scrapping b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B12 d. Nothing
  201. 1108. Angular oral fissures are treated with:
    a. Riboflavin b. pyridoxine c. Cyanocobalamin d. Vitamin C
  202. 1109. Temperature regulation is mostly controlled by:
    a. pons b. Medulla c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus
  203. 1110. Progressive dysphagia is seen in :
    a. Carcinoma esophagus b. Globus hystericus c. Presbycusis d. Achalasia
  204. 1111. Hutchinson’s pupil is:
    a. Seen in syphilis b. Unilateral constricted pupil c. Irregular pupil d. Argyll Robertson pupil
  205. 1112. Echolalia is a disorder of:
    a. Speech b. Mood c. perception d. Personality
  206. 1113. Factor deficiency in Christmas disease is:
    a. II b. VII c. VIII d. IX
  207. 1114. Christmas disease is treated by:
    a. FF plasma b. FF blood c. Antibiotics d. Steroids
  208. 1115. Sweaty feet syndrome is associated with:
    a. G6PD deficiency b. Isovaleric acidemia c. Branchoid chain ketonuria d. Phenylalanine deficiency
  209. 1116. Dementia is seen in:
    a. Alzhemer’s disease b. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease c. Huntington’s disease d. All
  210. 1117. Recurrent painful orogenital ulcerations with arthritis are seen in:
    a. Gonorrhea b. Reiter’s disease c. syphilis d. Behcet’s syndrome
  211. 1118. Volume of air taken into the lungs in normal respiration is known as:
    a. Vital capacity b. Timed vital capacity c. Tidal volume d. Inspiratory reserve volume
  212. 1119. The drug not used in donovanosis is:
    a. Sulphonamide b. Tetracycline c. Penicillin d. Streptomycin
  213. 1120. Drug not used in herpes infection:
    a. Acyclovir b. VInblastine c. Vidarabine d. Idoxuridine
  214. 1121.The features of Weber’s syndrome include:
    a. 7th cranial nerve palsy b. 8th cranial nerve palsy c. 3rd cranial nerve palsy d. Paraplegia
  215. 1122. Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia with tremors is known as:
    a. Millard-Gubler syndrome b. Benedict’s syndrome c. Weber’s syndrome d. Foville’s syndrome
  216. 1123.AIDS is caused by…. Virus:
    a. CMV b. EBV c. Human T cell virus type I d. HTLV –III
  217. 1124. Which of the following is not predisposed to by contraceptive therapy:
    a. Carcinoma breast b. Hepatic adenomas c. Thromboembolism d. Budd-Chiari syndrome
  218. 1125. Most common presenting feature of bladder carcinoma is:
    a. Painless profuse intermittent hematuria b. Dysuria c. Clot colic d. Sterile acid pyuria
  219. 1126. Which of the following disease increase the risk of active tuberculosis:
    a. Sarcoidosis b. leprosy c. Silicosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
  220. 1127. the normal respiratory quotient of fat is:
    a. 0.5 b. 0.9 c. 0.7 d. 1.0
  221. 1128. HLA associated with hemochromatosis:
    a. B27 b. A c. DW 5 d. B14
  222. 1129. Bence jones proteins are excreted in the urine in:
    a. Multiple myeloma b. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia c. Both d. None
  223. 1130. parasites causing lung injury include:
    a. Strongyloides b. Paragonimus c. Both d. None
  224. 1131. Mad as a hatter refers to…. Poisoning:
    a. Arsenic b. Cadmium c. Mercury d. Selenium
  225. 1132.CLonidine is indicated in all except:
    a. morphine withdrawal b. Migraine c. Hypertension d. Cardiac arrhythmias
  226. 1133. ABO hemolytic disease of newborn occurs when the blood group of mother is:
    a. A b. B c. AB d. O
  227. 1134.Heel pad thickness is useful in:
    a. Hyperthyroidism b. Acromegaly c. PEM d. Hypogonadism
  228. 1135. Acromegaly is characterized by all except :
    a. diabetes b. enlarged nasal sinuses c. Muscular hypertrophy d. Increased hell pad thickness
  229. 1136. Diabetes insipidus is treated with:
    a. Thiazides b. Despopressin c. Both d. None
  230. 1137.Testosterone is secreated by:
    a. Leydig cells b. Germ cells c. Sertoli cells d. Adrenal medulla
  231. 1138. Raised platelet count may be found in:
    a. Postoperative period b. Acute hemorrhage c. Splenectomized patients d. All of the above
  232. 1139. Visceral have migrans is caused by:
    a. Toxocara canis b. Ancylostoma braziliensis c. Strongyloidiasis d. Filariasis
  233. 1140. Drug induced neutrophilia is not seen in:
    a. Glucocorticoids b. lithium c. NSAIDS d. Alpha methyl dopa
  234. 1141.Clot solubility in 5M urea is a test of:
    a. Factor 13 b. Factor 12 c. Platelet function d. Plasmin inhibitor
  235. 1142. Patients with lymphedema are prone to recurrent cellulitis with :
    a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Escherichia coli d. Proteus mirabilis
  236. 1143. Nonoliguric renal failure is commonly seen in:
    a. Snake bite b. Hypovolemic shock c. aminoglycoside toxicity d. Myeloma
  237. 1144. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) is characterized by:
    • a. Auer rods in blast cells b. Philadelphia chromosome c. High leukocyte phosphatase d. Peak
    • incidence in childhood
  238. 1145. Digitalis given to atrial flutter often produces :
    a. Atrial fibrillation b. Atrial tachycardia c. atrial asystole d. Atrial bigeminy
  239. 1146. a patient with spontaneous pheumothorax involving more than 50% of hemithorax is best treated with:
    a. needle aspiration b. Closed drainage by tube in underwater seal c. Let spontaneous remission occurs d. Open thoracotomy
  240. 1147. In a patient with liver cirrhosis factors pointing towards an alcoholic etiology include:
    a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Splenomegaly c. Hepatitis B surface antigen d. Macronodular cirrhosis
  241. 1148. Xylose absorption tests are good screening test for:
    a. Fat absorption b. Pernicious anemia c. Carbohydrate absorption d. Amino acid absorption
  242. 1149.The contraindications of amantadine include all except:
    a. heart failure b. Severe renal disease c. History of convulsion d. Pregnancy
  243. 1150. which of the following is not an adverse effect of phenytoin:
    a. Gum hyperplasia b. Osteomalacia c. Gyecomastia d. Megaloblastic anemia
  244. 1151. myasthenia gravis is characterized by all of the following except:
    a. Proximal muscle involvement b. Fatigue with exertion c. Spontaneous regression sometimes d. absent deep reflexes
  245. 1152. Myasthenia gravis is usually associated with:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. thymoma c. Thyroid adenoma d. Salmonella infection
  246. 1153.Myasthenia gravis is associated with:
    a. Thymoma b. Ca lung c. Red cell aplasia d. Glucagonoma
  247. 1154. Aggravation of myasthenia is a feature of all of the following drugs except :
    a. Gentamicin b. Neomycin c. edrophonium d. Succinylcholine
  248. 1155. lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment is seen in heart muscle:
    a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Infarction
  249. 1156. Mode of action of streptokinase:
    a. antiplatelet action b. Anticoagulant c. Vasodilator d. fibrinolytic
  250. 1157. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:
    • a. Fluconazole b. Furosemide c. Glucocorticoids d. phenytoin
    • 1158. Pulsating tinnitus is seen in:
    • a. Glomous jugulare tumor b. Glioma of frontal lobe c. tuberculoma in occipital lobe d. Lithium toxicity
  251. 1159. Grey baby syndrome is caused by:
    a. Tetracycline b. Cotrimoxazole c. Chloramphenicol d. Lithium toxicity
  252. 1160.Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by:
    a. Rage reaction b. Loss of recognition of people c. loss of fear d. All of the above
  253. 1161. Angiotensinogen is synthesized in the :
    a. Liver b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. Adrenals
  254. 1162. Deletion of chromosome 22 occurs in 90% of:
    a. Meningioma b. Retinobalstoma c. Neuroblastoma d. wilms’ tumor
  255. 1163.The antihypertensive which causes gingival hyperplasia is:
    a. metoprolol b. Hydralazine c. Nifedipine d. Sodium nitroprusside
  256. 1164. Deficiency of which vitamin is associated with hyposmia:
    a. Vitamin A b. vitamin B c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin B12
  257. 1165. Deficiency of which metal is associated with hyposmia:
    a. Zinc b. Iron c. chromium d. Magnesium
  258. 1166. Malabsorption of amino acids is seen in:
    a. Homocystinuria b. Alkaptonuria c. Phenylketonuria d. Cystinuria
  259. 1167. Calcium channel blocker with maximum peripheral actions:
    a. Verapamil b. Diltiazem c. Nifedipine d. lisinopril
  260. 1168. Intestinal parasitic disease in immunocompromised patient is:
    a. Strongyloides b. Ascaris c. Trichuris d. Hookworm
  261. 1169. Dysgeusia is seen with the use of:
    a. Cotrimoxazole b. clotrimazole c. Ciprofoxacin d. Captopril
  262. 1170.Treatmetn of traveler’s diarrhea ( watery diarrhea, no blood in stool or fever, 1-2 unformed stools per day with distressing enteric symptoms) is:
    a. Sulfamethoxazole b. Loperamide c. Metronidazole d. chloramphenicol and streptomycin
  263. 1171. there is no correlation between X-ray appearance and clinical state of the patient in… pneumonia:
    a. Mycoplasma b. Loperamide c. Friedlander’s d. Staphylococcal
  264. 1172. Hepatic enzyme inducers are all except :
    a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Valporic acid d. Carbamazepine
  265. 1173. mechanism of action of quinidine is:
    a. Potassium channel blocker b. sodium channel blocker c. Calcium channel blocker d. Chloride channel blocker
  266. 1174. The following is true of tetralogy of Fallot except :
    a. Increased lung vascularity b. Clubbing c. Cyanosis d. squatting
  267. 1175. pickwickian syndrome consists of:
    a. decreased pulmonary function b. polycythemia c. obesity d. all of the above
  268. 1176. Mode of action of viegabatrin is:
    a. GABA agonist b. GABA antagonist c. NMDA antagonist d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
  269. 1177. All predispose to ARDS except:
    a. FAT embolism b. Hypertransfusion c. Septicemia d. status asthmaticus
  270. 1178.Ampicillin is used in all except:
    a. UTI b. LRTI c. Typhoid d. Infectious mononucleosis
  271. 1179. which of the following steroid can be administered by inhalation :
    a. Hydrocortisone b. Dexamethasone c. Prednisolone d. Beclomethasone
  272. 1180. side effect of steroid inhalation is:
    a. Cushing syndrome b. Sedation c. Oropharyngeal candidiasis d. None
  273. 1181. prognosis is related to incubation period in:
    a. cholera b. diphtheria c. Rabies d. Tetanus
  274. 1182. Drug of choice in chloramphenicol resistant typhoid fever is:
    a. Ampicillin b. Septran c. Ceftazidime d. Ciprofloxacin
  275. 1183. hereditary hypoparathyroidism is characterized by:
    a. nephrocalcinosis b. Candidiasis c. Bilateral cataract d. Subcutaneous calcification
  276. 1184. Ipratropium bromide is an:
    a. Sympatholytic b. Antiemetic c. anticholinergic d. Antipsychotic
  277. 1185. Simvastatin acts by:
    • a. Dissolution of plasma cholesterol b. inhabitation of HMG Co A reductase
    • c. Decrease bile salt production d. Inhibition of LDL secretion
  278. 1186. melphalan is the drug of choice of:
    a. nephroblastoma b. Multiple myeloma c. Craniopharyngioma d. Retinoblastoma
  279. 1187. Hypersensitive cholestatic jaundice is caused by:
    a. Rifampicin b. Chlorpromazine c. Halothane d. Phenobarbitone
  280. 1188.sThe drug of choice in guinea worm infestation is:
    • a. Niridazole b. Albendazole c. Levamisole d. Mebandazole
    • 1189. Antihelmintic drug which acts by flaccid paralysis of worms:
    • a. Albendazole b. Piperazine c. Levamisole d. Pyrantel pamoate
  281. 1190. Drug of choice in heart block is:
    a. Nifedine b. Isosorbide c. Steroids d. Isoproterenol
  282. 1191.100% Oxygen improves cyanosis in all except:
    a. TOF b. Interstital lung disease c. Bronchial asthma d. Eosinophilic pneumonia
  283. 1192. Bronchopneumonia after measles occurs due to:
    a. Immunomodulation b. Sinusitis c. Aspiration d. bronchial obstruction
  284. 1193. Cells seen in M-5 type of leukemia:
    a. Lymphocytes b. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes
  285. 1194. Diuretic used in hypokalemic state is:
    a. Frusemide b. Thiazide c. Spironolactone d. BUmetanide
  286. 1195. neutropenia can be the feature of all except:
    a. ALL b. Felty’s syndrome c. AIDS d. Typhoid fever
  287. 1196. Antibiotic which is safe in renal failure :
    a. Kanamycin b. Penicillin c. Gentamicin d. Minocycline
  288. 1197. Russell bodies are found in:
    a. Plasma cell tumor b. Gonadal tumor c. Parkinson’s disease d. Ovarian tumor
  289. 1198. Nickel exposure is associated with which cancer:
    a. Larynx b. kidney c. Lung d. Pharynx
  290. 1199. Eclampsia differs from pre-eclampsia by the presence of:
    a. Pregnancy b. Convulsions c. albuminuria d. Hypertension
  291. 1200. all are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:
    a. Mydriasis b. Ptosis c. Outward deviation of eye d. Miosis
Author
adarsha
ID
356036
Card Set
Medicine 901-1200
Description
medicine 901-1200
Updated

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