-
301. Drug not used in migraine :
a. Ergotamine b. Propranolol c. Verapamil d. Flunarizine
-
302. Drug of choice for acute attack of migraine is:
a. Sumatriptan b. Amitriptyline c. Methysergide d. Caffeine
-
303. Drug of choice is acute migraine not responding to aspirin is:
a. Ibuprofen b. Zolmitriptan c. Sumatriptan d. Ergotamine
-
304.Severe migraine is treated with:
a. Sodium valproate b. Amitriptyline c. Propranolol d. Ergotamine
-
305.Most common site of pyogenic liver abscess is:
a. Quardrate lobe b. Caudate lobe c. right side d. None of the above
-
306.s X-linked recessive disorder is:
a. Sickle cell anemia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hypophosphatemia rickets d. G6PD deficiency
-
307. G6PD deficiency is genetically :
a. X-linked b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Polygenic
-
308. Not an X-linked disease:
a. Color blindness b. G6PD deficiency c. Hemophilia A d. β-thalassemia
-
309.s Drug of choice for tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is:
- a. Chlorquine b. Montelukast c. Salbitamol d. Diethylcarbamazine
- 310. Not a feature of TPE:
- a. Bilateral chest mottling b. Wheezing c. Wuchereria bancrofti infestation d. Eosinophilia >3000
-
311. Ranson criterion isused in:
a. Gallstone ileus b. Acute appendicitis c Acute choledicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Acute pancreatitis
-
312. Not included in the Ranson criteria for the prognosis of acute pancreatitis:
a. Serum amylase>350 IU b. AST >250 IU/L c. Age >55Years d. WBC >16,000 cells/mm
-
313.Not a prognostic marker is acute pancreatitis:
a. Hypocalcemia b. Increased LDH c. Leukocytosis d. Decreased serum lipase
-
314. Acute pancreatitis cannot occur in:
a. Hyppocalcemia b. Alcoholism c. Hereditary pancreatitis d. Hypercalcemia
-
315. Not a cause of acute pancreatitis:
a. Hyperclacemia b. Hemochromatosis c. Gallstone d. Alcohol
-
316. Causes of pancreatitis are all the following except:
a. Cystic fibrosis b. Chronic alcoholism c. Hypocalcemia d. CBD stone
-
317.Organism which causes pancreatitis:
a. Measles b. Mumps c. Influenza d. Herpes
-
318. All are false regarding Klinefelter’s syndrome except:
a. Subnormal intelligence b. Subluxation of lens c. Cataract d. Short stature
-
319. Not a clinical feature of Klinefelter’s syndrome:
a. Oligospermia b. Gynecomastia c. diabetes mellitus d. 47 XXY
-
320. In klinefelter’s syndomre , the chromosomal pattern is:
a. XXY b. XXX c. XO d. Any of the above
-
321. Translocation from 8 to 14 is seen in:
a. Retinoblastoma b. Ewing’s sarcoma c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. All
-
322. Neisseria infection is characteristic of deficiency of;
a. C2 b. C4 c. C5 d. C3
-
323. Severe cyanosis with left axis deviation is seen in:
a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Malpositioning of heart c. Ebstein’s anomaly d. Tricuspid atresia
-
324. Cyanosis with left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by:
a. TGV b. Eisemenger complex c. Tricuspid atresia d . Tetralogy of Fallot
-
325. ‘possibility’ of right axis deviation is found in all except:
a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ventricular septal defect d. Atrial septal defect
-
326. False regarding tricuspid atresia is:
- a. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen inn PA view of CXR:
- b. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen in PA view of CXR b. Right ventricular hypoplasia
- c. Fixed split S2 d. Left axis deviation
-
327. Major criteria for AIDS does not includes:
a. Weight loss>10% b. Persistent diarrhea c. Persistent cough d. Persistent fever
-
328. Diameter of normal mitral valve orifice is:
a. 6-8 cm b. 4-6cm c. 1 cm d. 2-4 cm
-
329. Left ventricular dysfunction is seen in:
a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. mitral stenosis
-
330.Left ventricular hypertrophy is not seen in:
a. MS b. AS c. Aortic incompetence d. Essential hypertension
-
331.s Lung carcinoma with worst prognosis is:
a. Large cell carcinoma b. Small cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Epidermoid
-
332.False regarding Gaucher’s disease is:
a. Hepatomegaly b. Autosomal dominant inheritance c. no neurological symptoms in adult form d. β-glucosidase deficiency
-
333. False regarding Kawassaki’s disease is:
a. Generally benign and self limiting b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. Occurs >5 years of age d. Fever
-
334. Not a characteristic feature of Kawasaki’s disease :
a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Cervical lymphadenopathy c. Thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
-
335. Not a feature of Kawasaki’s disease:
a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
-
336. Kawasaki’s disease is treated with:
a. .Chemotherapy b. IV glucocorticoids c. Oral glucocorticoids d. Immunotherapy
-
337.Sudden pain in thyroid nodule indicates:
a. Malignant change b. Hemorrhage c. Infarction d. Necrosis
-
338.Kussmaul’s breathing is due to presence of:
a. Bicarbonate b. H+ ions(acidosis) c. Chloride ions d. k+ ions
-
339.Kussmaul’s breathing is seen in:
a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
-
340. Initial treatment of shy-drager syndrome is:
a. β-blockers b. Prazosin c. Fludrocortisone d. None of the above
-
341. Cardiomyopathy is seen in;
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Holt-Oram syndrome c. Friedreich’s ataxia d. Refsum’s disease
-
342. Most common cardiac anomaly in Friedreich’s ataxia is:
a. Cardiomyopathy b. Conduction defect c. Mitral stenosis d. Patent ductus arteriosus
-
343. Bilateral absent ankle jerk with extensor planter reflex is seen in:
a. Ataxia telangiectasia b. Syringomyelia c. Upper motor neuron lesion d. Friedreich’s ataxia
-
344.Tutubation is characteristic of lesion in:
a. Basal ganglia b. Motor cortex c. Cerebellum d. ARAS
-
345.Hallmark of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is:
a. Short QT interval b. Prolonged QT interval c. Short PR interval d. Prolonged PR interval
-
346. Torsades de pointes are seen in:
a. Metabolic acidosis b. Hypomagnesemia/hypokalemia c. Hypermagnesemia d. Metabolic alkalosis
-
347. In Torsades de points are seen in:
a. Short QT interval b. Short QRS interval c. Prolonged QT interval d. Prolonged QRS interval
-
348. Not a blood borne disease:
a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis D c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis B
-
349. False regarding hepatitis E is:
a. No carrier state b. High mortality in pregnant women c. May produce chronic hepatic disease d. Fecal-oral transmission
-
350.Most common route of spread in hepatitis E is:
a. IV injection b. Intercourse c. Fecal oral d. Blood transfusion
-
351. Most dangerous hepatitis in pregnancy is:
a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis B
-
352.True regarding hepatitis E is:
- a. Seen in post-transfusion cases b. Increases mortality in pregnancy
- c. Alpha interferon given for carries d. Associated with hepatitis B
-
353. Dane particle pertains to:
a. HAV b. HNAB c. HBV d. None
-
354. Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is:
a. Subcutaneous b. Intradermal c. Intramuscular gluteal d. Intramuscular deltoid
-
355. Incubation period of hepatitis B is:
a. 4 weeks to 6 months b. 6 days to 6 weeks c. 6 months to 6 years d. >6 years
-
356. Korsakoff’s psychosis is due to involvement of:
a. Nondominant cerebral hemispheres b. Dominant hemispheres c. Both A and B d. Either of temporal lobe
-
357. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all the following except:
a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome c. Breast milk jaundice d. Gilbert’s syndrome
-
358. Most severe hyperbilirubinemia occurs in:
a. Dubin-Johnson syndrome b. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I c. Crigler- Najjar syndrome type II d. Gilbert’s syndrome
-
359. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
a. Hemophilia b. Huntington’s chorea c. Hunter’s syndrome d. Hurler’s syndrome
-
360. Disorder genetically transmitted by single autosomal dominant gene is:
a. Huntington’s disease b. CJD c. PKU d. Catatonic schizophrenia
-
361. Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign is seen in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hypothyroidism
-
362.HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation:
a. Liver b. Bone marrow c. pancreas d. Kidney
-
363. Lyme disease is caused by:
a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Borrelia falciparum c. Borrelia turicatae d. borrelia recurrentis
-
364. All the following diseases are transmitted by flea bites except:
a. Plague b. Murine typhus c. Chiggerosis d. Lyme disease
-
365. In temporal lobe epilepsy treatment is:
a. Ethosuximide b. Carbamazepine c. Clobazam d. Valporic acid
-
366.Chronic Inflammatory bowel disease is associated with which of the following:
a. Primary sclerosing cholangitis b. Cholangiosarcoma c. Fibrosis d. Chronic hepatitis
-
367. Ulcerative colitis is not accompanied by:
a. Interstitial nephritis b. Pyoderma gangrenosum c. Iridis d. Arthritis
-
368. In diabetes mellitus ‘hypoglycemia unawareness’ is due to :
a. necrobiosis lipoidica b. Insulin resistance c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Switch over insulin to oral drugs
-
369. hypoglycemia unawareness in diabetes mellitus is because of:
a. Lipodystrophy b. Insulin resistance c. Autonomic neuropathy d. switch over insulin to oral hypoglycemic drugs
-
370. Insulin resistance is due to:
- a. IgD b. IgA c. IgG d. IgM
- 371. Weight loss is seen in:
- a. Hypothyridism b. Insulin secreting tumor c. Pheochromocytoma d. Cushing syndrome
-
372.Not a characteristic feature of Turner’s syndrome :
a. polycystic kidney b. Short neck c. Coarctation of aorta d. Ovarian dysgenesis
-
373. 45, Chromosomal anomaly, short stature and genital infantilism are seen in:
a. Gonadal agenesis b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome
-
374.HbA 1 is :
- a. A result of enzymatic degradation of glucose b. Indicative of level of glucose in diabetic patient
- c. Mutant of hemoglobin d. Absent in normal people
-
375. Significance of glycosylated hemoglobin is:
a. Useful in fetal damage b. Indicates abnormal hemoglobin c. Long-term measurement of blood sugar d. Useful in fetal lung maturity
-
376. Glycosylated hemoglobin which indicates good control of diabetes is:
a. 8% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
-
377. Increased cardiac silhouette is not seen in:
a. CHF b. Pericardial effusion c. Multi-valvular rheumatic heart disease d. Uncomplicated tetralogy of Fallot
-
378. Boot shaped heart with pulmonary oligemia is seen in:
a. TGA b. TOF c. ASD d. PDA
-
379. Drug essential in sheehan’s syndrome is:
a. gonadotropins b. Cortisone c. Thyroxin d. Estrogen
-
380.Poor prognostic factor in scleroderma is:
a. Telangiectasia b. Dysphagia c. Renal involvement d. Cutaneous calcification
-
381. Virus implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma is:
a. HCV b. HEV c. HDV d . HAV
-
382.Most common predisposing factor for hepatocellular carcinoma in india is:
a. Mixed micronodular cirrhosis b. Hepatitis B c. non A, Non B hepatitis d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
-
383. Small intestine biopsy is diagnostic in:
a. Whipple’s disease b. Tropical sprue c. Hirschsprung’s disease d. Amyloidosis
-
384. Electrical alternans in ECG Is seen in:
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Pericardial effusion c. Hypertrophiuc cardiomyopathy d. Hypertension
-
385. Electrical alternans is seen in:
a. COPD b. Left atrial myxoma c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy d. Cardiac tamponade
-
386. Most common age of presentation of gastric ulcer is:
a. 6th decade of life b. 3rd decade of life c. 4th decade of life d. 5th decade of life
-
387. Most common cardiac manifestation of sarcoidosis is:
a. PAT b. Atrial fibrillation c. Heart block d. Cor pulmonale
-
388.Romberg’s sign indicates dysfunction of:
a. Cerebellum b. Sensory cortex c. Lateral spinothalamic tracs d. Anteiror column
-
389. HLA B-27 is not associated with:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Psoriatic arthritis c. Reiter’s syndrome d. Ankylosing spondylitis
-
390. HLA B -27 is not associated with:
a. Psoriatic arthritis b. Behcet’s syndrome c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Reiter’s disease
-
391. Ankylosing spondyltis is associated with:
a. HLA B-27 b. HLA DR-4 c. HLA B-8 d. HLA A -3
-
392. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with:
a. DR -2 b. DR-3 c. DR-4 d. DR-5 e. HLA B-27
-
393. Palatal myoclonus is seen in:
a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. Cerebellar infarction c. Multiple sclerosis d. Epilepsy
-
394. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy is caused by:
a. HHV-8 b. Parvovirus c. JC virus d. Hanta virus
-
395.Malarial relapse is due to:
A Trophozoites b. Merozoites c. Hypnozoites d. Sporozoites
-
396. Not seen in Dressler’s syndrome:
a. Usually in 1st or subsequent week after infarction b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Fever d. Pericarditis
-
397. Herpes –Zoster most commonly affects:
a. Spinal cord medulla b. Dorsal root ganglia c. Sympathetic ganglia d. Anterior horn cells
-
398. Zoster recurrence occurs after infection with:
a. Smallpox b. HSV 1 c. Varicella d. HSV 2
-
399. Sezary syndrome is:
a. Locke’s disease b. merck’s disease c. T-cell lymphoma d. B-cell lymphoma
-
400. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is:
a. Rectosigmoid junction tear b. Duodenojejunal junction tear c. Gastroesophageal junction tear d. Gastroduodenal junction tear
-
401. In phenothiazines induced dystonia the drug of choice is:
- a. Metoclopramide b. Diphenhydramine c. Pimoxide d. Trifluoperazine
- 402. Metabolic alkalosis is not seen in:
- a. Cushing disease b. Ureterosigmoidostomy c. Prolonged vomiting d. Thiazide diuretic
-
403. Toxoplasmosis in pregnancy Is treated with:
a. Nifurtimox b. Pyrimethamine c. spiramycin d. Suramin
-
404. Drug of choice for ocular toxoplasmosis is:
a. Riboflavin b. Ganciclovir c. Tetracycline d. Pyrimethamine
-
405. In what percentage of patients with anorexia nervosa, amenorrhea is present:
a. 100% b. 50% c. 25% d. 80%
-
406. Not a feature of anorexia nervosa:
a. Avoidance of high caloric foods b. Amenorrhea is rare c. loss of weight at time of presentation d. Predominantly seen in females
-
407. Drug of choice in anorexia nervosa is:
a. FLuoxetine b. Phenytoin c. Haloperidol d. Cyproheptadine
-
408. Sturge-Weber syndrome is associated with:
a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Lymphagioma c. Cavernous hemangioma d. Port-wine stain
-
409. False regarding Sturge-Weber syndrome is:
a. Focal seizure on same side b. Capillary hemangioma c. Sensory motor paralysis d. Cerebral cortex atrophy
-
410. All of the following are anterior mediastinal masses except:
a. Thymomas b. Teratoma c. Thyroid masses d. Gastroenteric cysts
-
411. Most common anterior mediastinum tumor is:
a. Vascular cyst b. Neurogenic tumor c. Thymoma d. Lymphoma
-
412. Not an anterior mediastinal tumor:
a.Teratoma b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroama d. Thymoma
-
413. Not a middle mediastinal mass:
a. Pleuropericardial cyst b. Gastroenteric cyst c. Bronchogenic cyst d. Vascular masses
-
414. Most common lesion of middle mediastinum is:
a. Neurogneic tumor b. Aneurysm c. Congenital cyst d. Germ cell tumor
-
415. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum:
a. Teratoma b. Neurogenic c. Lymphoma d. Thymoma
-
416. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum is:
a. Cyst b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroma d. Thymoma
-
417.Inherited disorder of metabolism is:
a. Patau’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Maple syrup urine disease d. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
-
418. not associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia:
a. liver disease b. Thalassemia c. Pyridoxine deficiency d. ARF
-
419. Most common cause of death in acute poliomyelitis is:
a. Intercostal muscle paralysis b. Respiratory failure c. Convulsions d. cardiac arrest
-
420. Most common presentation of craniopharyngioma is:
a. Cardiac disturbance b. Endocrinal disturbance c. Visual complaints d. Nausea and vomiting
-
421. Most common clinical feature of craniopharyngioma is:
a. Headache b. Convulsions c. Field defect d. Optic atrophy
-
422. Not a clinical feature of Eaton-Lambert syndrome:
a. Associated with lung carcinoma b. Female predominant c. Affect pelvic muscle first d. Proximal muscle weakness
-
423. Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Vitamin D intoxication c. Medullary sponge kidney d. Cystic disease of kidney
-
424. False regarding hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
a. Positive coombs test b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hypofibrinogenemia d. Uremia
-
425. Not seen in hemolytic uremic syndrome
a. Coombs test positive b. Burr cells c. Thrombocytopenia d. Uremia
-
426.Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
a. Purpura b. Thrombocytopenia c. Liver cell abnormality d. Encephalopathy
-
427. Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
a. Segmented RBCs in Peripheral blood smear b. Thrombocytosis c.. Hematuria d. Uremia
-
428. Characteristic finding in peripheral blood smear of a patient of hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
a. Burr cells with fragmented RBCs b. Punctate basophilia c. ANisopoikilocytosis d. Burr cells
-
429. Minimum Pericardial fluid is best detected by:
a. Echocardiography b. ECG c. CT d. CXR
-
430. Most common site for amebiasis is :
a. Hepatic flexure b. Cecum c. Sigmoid colon d. Transverse colon
-
431. Most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:
a. Ectopic ACTH b. Latrogneic steroids c. Pituitary adenoma d. Motor neuron disease
-
432.Fasciculations are seen in:
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Polymyositis c. Poliomyelitis d. Motor neuron disease
-
433. Motor neuron disease is characterized by:
a. Sensory loss b. rigidity c. Fasciculation d. focal seizure
-
434. all are paraneoplastic syndrome except:
- a. Cerebellar degeneration b. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d.
- opsoclonus myoclonus
-
435. In cryptococcal meningitis the drug of choice is:
a. Zidovudine b. Clotrimazole c. Amphotericin B d. Pentostatin
-
436.Whihc of the following is not a feature of digitalis toxicity :
a. Xanthopsia b. Parozysmal atrial tachycardia c. ST depression d. Nausea
-
437. Not used in treatment of digitalis toxicity:
a. Lignocaine b. Fab paricle c. Atropine d. Peritoneal dialysis
-
438.Treatment of digoxin overdose does not include:
a. Hemodialysis b. Phenytoin c. Potassium d. Lignocaine
-
439. Lignocaine is not used in:
a. Digoxin toxicity b. AF c. Local anesthetics d. Ventricular tachycardia
-
440. Not a disease modifying antirheumatoid drug (DMARD):
a. Bal b. Gold c. Penicillamine d. Chloroquine
-
441. Gold salt can be used in:
a. Behcet’s syndrome b. Osteoarthritis c. Early progressive rheumatoid arthritis d. Ankylosing spondylitis
-
442.Not a disease modifying antirheumatic drug:
a. Glucocorticoids b. Sulfasalazine c. Methotrexate d. Antimalarials
-
443. In rheumatoid arthritis gold and penicillamine are used because:
- a. Not modifying drugs b. Decreasing severity and progression of disease on long-term use
- c. Useful in acute arthritis d. They bring about immediate relief
-
444. A patient has polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty and pigmentation, most likely
- diagnosis is:
- a. Systemic lupus erythematous b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. McCune –Albright syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
-
445.A patient has seizures with mental retardation and sebaceous adenoma. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Down syndrome b. Toxoplasmosis c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Hypothyroid
-
446. Not seen in tuberous sclerosis:
a. Renal cortical cyst b. Heart and lung rhabdomyosarcoma c. Adenoma sebaceum d. Iris nodules
-
447. Aspirin sensitive asthma is associated with:
a. Extrinsic asthma b. Nasal polyp c. Associated with urticaria d. Obesity
-
448. In prinzmetal’s angina, the drug of choice is:
a. Verapamil b. Propranolol c. Diltiazem d. Nitrates
-
449. drug not much useful in prinzmetal’s angina is:
a. Calcium channel blocker b. Propanolol c. Nifedipine d. Nitroglycerin
-
450.s Hyperparathyroidism is most commonly caused by:
a. Ectopic PTH production b. adrenal hyperplasia c. Solitary adenoma d. Multiple parathyroidism adenoma
-
451.Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism, :
a. Werner’s syndrome b. Multiple adenoma c. Chief cell hyperplasia d. Solitary adenoma
-
452. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
a. parathyroid carcinoma b. Parathyroid adenoma c. Chronic renal disease d. Hyperplasia of parathyroid glands
-
453. Retinopathy in diabetes mellitus depends upon:
a. Duration of disease b. Age of patient c. Blood sugar level d. Severity of disease
-
454. Tumor metastasis spread through CSF is:
a. Craniopharyngioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
-
455. Brain tumor associated with CSF invasion is:
a. Oligodendroglioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
-
456. Craniospinal irradiation is useful in which of the following conditions:
a. Astrocytoma b. Oligodendroglioma c. Medulloblastoma d. Oncocytoma
-
457. Sickle cell anemia Is due to:
a. Point mutation b. Translocation c. Trisomy d. Monosomy
-
458. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is;
a. Salmonella b. Staphylococci c. Pseudomonas d. Escherichia coli
-
459. most common tumor to metastasize in heart is:
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Bronchogenic carcinoma d. Malignant melanoma
-
460. In SABE diagnosis is made by:
a. Anti streptolysin b. ASLO titer c. Anti DNAase d. Serial blood culture
-
461. In anemia of chronic disease there is:
- a. Raised serum iron b. Low serum ferritin c. Low TIBC d. Low HBA
- 462.Prominent ‘V’ wave in JVP suggests:
- a. Mitral stenosis b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Tricuspid regurgitation d. Pulmonary stenosis
-
463. Bromocriptine is used to treat:
a. Myxedema b. parkinsonism c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid d. Obesity
-
464.Bromocriptine is not useful in:
a. Infertility b. endogenous depression c. Acromegaly d. Parkinsonism
-
465. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is seen in:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoparathyroidism
-
466. Acute aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
a. Trauma b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Infective endocarditis d. Aortic dissection
-
467.s A 25 year old basket ball player has height of 188cm and arm span 197 am weight 76kg and blood pressure 140/60mmHg . Auscultation revels long diastolic murmurs at 3rd ICS. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Coarctation of aorta b. Ebstein’s anomaly c. Aortic stenosis d. Aortic regurgitation
-
468. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
a. Acute MI b. Infective endocarditis c. Rheumatic heart disease d. Marfan’s syndrome
-
469. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Bacterial endocarditis c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Marfan’s syndrome
-
470. A 60 year old man presented with soft tissue tumor, vertebral collapse, bony pain and rib erosion. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Diabetic nephropathy b. Malignant hypertension c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Multiple myeloma
-
471. In multiple myeloma best indicator of prognosis is:
a. Serum alkaline phosphate b. Number of plasma cells in marrow c. Serum β microglobulin d. Serum level of CA++
-
472. best marker for prognosis of multiple myeloma is:
a. β1 microglobulin b. β2 microglobulin c. Serum Ca++ d. Bone marrow plasma cells
-
473. Serum alkaline phosphate is not raised in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. osteomalaica c. Paget’s disease d. Multiple myeloma
-
474. False regarding multiple myeloma is:
a. Increased alkaline phosphatase b. Casts c. Increased uric acid d. Multiple myeloma
-
475. In which of the following condition Ý glutamyl transpeeptidase is elevated:
a. Secondaries in liver b. Alcoholic liver disease c. Viral disease d. Liver disease
-
476. Specific enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
- a. Gamma glutamyl transferase b. Alkaline phosphate c. AST d. ALT
- 477. Alcoholism enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
- a. GGT b. Macrocytosis c. SGOT d. SGPT
-
478. Angina pectoris and syncope are most likely to be associated with:
a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral stenosis d. Aortic stenosis
-
479. Recurrent chest pain and syncope is commonly seen in:
a. Mitral stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. MVP d. Aortic stenosis
-
480. Sudden death is common in:
a. patent ductus arteriosus b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral stenosis d. Arterial VSD
-
481.Not a feature of Behchet’s syndrome:
a. Common in youngsters b. Seen only in tropics c. Multisystem
-
482. In Behcet’s syndrome:
- a. There is a strong association with HLAB-5 b. There may be recurrent deep venous thrombosis
- c. The skin may be hyperatice to minor injury d. All of the above
-
483. which of the following is a feature o behcet’s syndrome:
- a. A strong association with HLAB-5 b. Recurrent deep venous thrombosis
- c. skin may be hyperactive d. All of the above
-
484. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of area of distribution in… artery:
a. Anterior communicating artery b. posterior cerebral artery c. Middle cerebral artery d. Anterior cerebral artery
-
485. Normal portal venous pressure is:
a. 20-26 b. 22-25 c. 8-12 d. 3-5
-
486. Characteristic feature of frontal lobe tumor is:
a. Antisocial behavior b. Distractibility c. Abnormal gait d. Aphasia
-
487. Frontal lobe lesion causes:
a. Side determination b. Visual defect c. Urinary incontinence d. Personality change
-
488. most common manifestation of osteoporosis is:
a. loss of weight b. Bowing of legs c. Backache d. Compression fracture of spine
-
489. In thyrotoxicosis β blockers do not control:
a. Oxygen consumption b. Tachycardia c. Anxiety d. Tremors
-
490. Marker of acute hepatitis B is:
a. HBeAg b. HBcAG c. HBsAg d. IgM anti HBc
-
491. Acute infection of hepatitis B virus is characterized by:
a. anti HBeAg b. IgM anti-HBC +HBsAg c. Anti HBsAg d. HBsAg
-
492. A donor for blood transfusion is screned for hepatitis B. All are safe except:
a. anti HBeeAg positive b. HBsAg + IgM anti- HBc positive c. anti HBsAg + HBeAg d. anti HbsAg positive
-
493.Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by:
a. HbeAg _anti HBsAg b. HBsAg +HbeAg c. Anti HBcAG + Anti HbeAg d. HbeAg +Anti HBcAg
-
494. ‘a’ wave inJVP is absent in:
a. Sick sinus syndrome b. Tricuspid atresia c. Atrial fibrillation d. Mitral stenosis
-
495. not a feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
a. high arched foot b. High palate c. Arachnodactyly d. short stature
-
496.not a clinical feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
a. Aortic regurgitation b. Genu valgum c. Ectopia lentis d. Hyperelasticity of joints
-
497. Gas gangrene is most commonly due to:
a. clostridium tetani b. Clostridium welchii c. Clostridium difficile d. Clostridium botulinum
-
498.Food poisoning is caused by all except:
a. Bacillus anthrax b. Shigella c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
-
499. Food poisoning with incubation period of less than 6 hours and which is not fatal is:
a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Vibrio cholera d. bacillus
-
500. dose of mercaptopurine requires reduction with:
a. Allopurinol b. Thiazide c. Spironolactone d. Methotrexate
-
501. Most common enzyme deficiency is:
a. G6PD b. glucose 1, 6 diphosphatase c. Hexokinase d. Glucose -6-Phosphatase
-
502.Hemophilia is associated with all except:
a. Males more commonly affected b. Increased PT c. Increased aPTT d. X-linked recessive
-
503. Not a feature of hemophilia :
a. Decreased factor VIII level b. Bleeding into tissue and joints c. Increased aPTT d. Increased PT
-
504. Not a characteristic feature of hemophilia A:
a. Prolonged prothrombin VIII level b. Prolonged into thromboplastin time c. Low factor VIII level d. Bleeding into soft tissue, muscle and joints
-
505. Least likely cause of a prolonged bleeding time is:
a. Scurvy b. Hemophilia A c. Von Willebrand’s disease d. Thrombocytopenia
-
506.s A patient presented with ecchymoses and petechiae all over body with increased bleeding time and normal clotting time. All of the following points to the diagnosis except:
a. Decreased platelet in blood b. Bleeding into the joints and muscle c. Hypersplenism d. Increased megakaryocytes in marrow
-
507. Acute bronchiotitis is most commonly caused by:
a. Mycoplasma b . Parainfluenza type III c. RSV d. Adenovirus
-
508. For diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever, the essential feature is;
a. Erythema marginatum b. One major and two minor Jones’ criteria c. Recent sore throat infection d. Prior history f rheumatic fever
-
509. Most common cause of mediastinitis is:
a. idiopathic b. drugs c. Esophageal rupture d. Tracheal rupture
-
510. Not a malignant tumor:
a. Ependymoma b. Hemangioblastoma c. Astrocytoma d. Glioma
-
511. Coarctation of aorta is not associated with:
a. PDA b. Renal artery stenosis c. Turner syndrome d. Bicuspid aortic valve
-
512. Not a feature of coarctation of aorta:
a. Right ventricular failure b. Infective endocarditis c. Bicuspid aortic valve d. Cerebral aneurysm
-
513. In mitral stenosis:
a. QRS are widened b. Left axis deviation c. Left ventricular hypertrophy d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
-
514. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and noncaseating granuloma is seen in:
a. Stein leventhal syndrome b. Systemic lupus erythmatosus c. Sarcoidosis d. Scleroderma
-
515. Spinal segment in knee jerk is:
a. L1 b. L3 c. L4 d. B and C
-
516. Adult polycystic kidney is:
a. X-linked dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. X-linked recessive
-
517. In adult polycystic kidney, all are true except:
a. Cysts are seen in the liver, lung and the pancreas b. Hematuria occurs c. Hypertension is rare d. Autosomal dominant transmission is seen
-
518.Not a manifestation of polycystic kidney:
a. Hematuria b. Renal failure c. Acute retention d. Renal hypertension
-
519. False regarding clozapine is:
a. Extrapyramidal side effect b. agranulocytosis c. Precipitates seizure d. Used in schizophrenia
-
520. Most common cause of amebic lung abscess is:
a. Hematogenous spread from gut b. Hematogenous spread from liver c. Direct spread from liver d. Aspiration
-
521. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is not seen in:
a. Mycoplasma pneumonia b. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. α methyldopa therapy d. Systemic lupus erythmatous
-
522. Cold antibodies are seen in all except:
a. Syphilis b. Mycoplasma c. infectious mononucleosis d. Lymphoma
-
523.Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in which of the following conditions:
a. PNH b. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
-
524. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except:
a. Metoclopramide b. bromocriptine c. Methyldopa d. phenothiazines
-
525. Budd-Chiari syndrome is due to:
a. IVC obstruction . Congenital portal hypertension c. Acute portal hypertension d. hepatic vein obstruction
-
526. Most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is:
a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Valve in hepatic vein
-
527. Budd- chiari syndrome is not caused by:
a. Oral contraceptive b. PNH c. dilantin d. Polycythemia
-
528. False regarding Budd-Chiari syndrome:
a. Seen in hypercoagulable states b. Ascites is minimal c. liver transplantation may be required d. It is due to obstruction of hepatic venous outflow secondary to spontaneous thrombosis of hepatic veins
-
529. Drug not used in anthrax is:
a. Tetracycline b. Erythromycin c. Gentamicin d. Ciprofloxacin e. Penicilllin
-
530. Drug of choice for anthrax is:
a. Erythromycn b. streptomycin c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
-
531. Cysticercosis in brain is caused by:
a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Echinococcus c. Taenia solium d. Taenia saginata
-
532. Graham steel murmur is heard in:
a. aortic incompetence b. Aortic stenosis c. pulmonary incompetence d. Tricuspid stenosis
-
533. Austin flint murmur is seen in:
a. Mitral regurgitation b. Aortic regurgitation c. Tricuspid stenosis d. Pulmonary regurgitation
-
534. Murmur in Eisenmenger’s complex is:
a. Graham steel murmur b. Austin flint murmur c. Carey –Coombs murmur d. none
-
535. Not included in treatment of Helicobacter pylori:
- a. Cisapride b. Omeprazole c. Clarithromycin d. Metronidazole
- 536. drug not effective against Helicobacter pylori is:
- a. Erythromycin b. amoxicillin c. Metronidazole d. Colloidal bismuth
-
537. Which of the following drug is not used to eradicate Helicobacter pylori:
a. Bismuth b. Ranitidine c. Tetracycline d. metronidazole
-
538.s Not used for diagonosing Helocobacter pylori is:
a. SAFA test b. Gastric biopsy c. Rapid urease test d. Urea breath test
-
539. Correct statement regarding regarding Helicobacter pylori is:
- a. It invades the gastric mucosa b. serology differentiates between active and remote infection
- c. Indirect transmission d. Rapid urease test of gastric biopsy is diagnostic
-
540. Regimen used for eradication of Helicobacter pylori gastritis is:
- a. Metronidazole + bismuth +ranitidine b. Amoxycilllin +Omeprazole + clarithromycin
- c. CLarithromycin + ranitidine + metronidazole d. Ampicillin+ omeprazole + tinidazole
-
541.Not caused by Helicobacter pylori:
a. Fundal gastritis b. Gastric lymphoma c. Gastric ulcer d. Duodenal ulcer
-
542. Drug not used in management of acute attack of asthma is:
a. Sodium cromoglycate b. Inhaled salbutamol c. Injection hydrocortisone d. Subcutaneous adrenaline
-
543.All of the following are useful for treating acute bronchial asthma in children except:
a. 100% oxygen b. IV hydrocortisone c. Nebulization with salbutamol liquid d. Sodium cromoglycate inhalation
-
544. Smoking is not associated with malignancies of:
a. pancreas b. Kidney c. Liver d. Bladder
-
545. Smoking predisposes to all except:
a. Lymphoma b. carcinoma pancreas c. Larynx carcinoma d. Bladder carcinoma
-
546. Upper motor neuron lesion cause:
a. Localized muscle atrophy b. Rigidity c. Fasciculation d. Weakness and spasticity
-
547. Myotonic dystrophy gene iscoded at chromosome:
a. 24 b. 21 c. 19 d. 20S
-
548. Not seen in Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome:
a. Polydactyly b. Obesity c. Retinal detachment d. Retinitis pigmentosa e. hypogonadism
-
549.s Dethylcarbamazine citrate acts on:
a. Adult filarial parasite b. Microfilariae and kills them c. Does not allow multiplication of adult forms d. Paralyze adult worms
-
550. Hand-foot and mouth disease is caused by:
- a. Coxsackievirus A 16 b. CMV c. enterovirus d. Arbovirus
- 551. Hand-foot syndrome is seen in:
- a. sickle cell disease b. Thalassemia major c. ALL d. Fanconi’s anemia
-
552. Not a bactericidal drug:
a. Penicillins b. Cephalosporine c. Sulfonamides d. Quinolones
-
553.IgA induced vasculitis is seen in:
a. Glomerulonephritis b. Henoch-Scholein purpura c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
-
554. Digitalis is contraindicated in cardiac failure caused by following:
a. Valvular heart disease b. Myocardial infarction c. Thyrotoxicosis d. anemia
-
555. True regarding right ventricular infarction:
a. Volume expanders b. Digoxin c. Diuretics d . Pacing
-
556.s Acute right ventricular infarct is treated with:
a. IV fluids b. Diuretics c. Vasodilators d. Digoxin
-
557. Ascarbose used in diabetes mellitus acts by:
- a. Increasing secretion of insulin b. Increases sensitive of tissue to insulin
- c. Reduces blood glucose levels d. Reduces absorption of glucose from the gut wall
-
558. Prosopagnosia is:
a. Inability to speak b. Inability to read c. Inability to identify faces d. Inability to write
-
559. Hepatic encephalopathy is not precipitated by:
a. Superimposed acute liver disease b. GI bleeding c. barbiturates d. Hyperkalemia
-
560. Acute hepatocellular feature is most likely to be precipitated by:
a. Oral lactulose b. Upper GI bleeding c. Large carbohydrate meal d. Large IV albumin infusion
-
561. most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
a . Trauma b. Berry aneurysm c. AV malformation d. Hypertension
-
562. A 25 year old man develops sudden headache with loss of consciousness. CSF is blood stained most likely diagnosis is:
a. Encephalopathy b. Embolic stroke c. Thrombotic CVA d. Ruptured cerebral aneurysm
-
563. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by:
a. Dural sinuses b. Venae comitantes of corpus striatum c. Rupture of vertebral artery aneurysm d . Rupture of circle of willis aneurysm
-
564. LVH is seen in:
a. Carcinoid syndrome b. Aortic regurgitation c. ASD with fossa ovalis d. pure mitral stenosis
-
565. Primaquine causes hemolysis in:
- a. G6PD deficiency b. Malaria c. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency d. NADP deficiency
- 566. Splenectomy is most useful in:
- a. Sickle cell anemia b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia
-
567. In PSVT the drug of choice is:
a. Adenosine b. lignocaine c. Quinidine d. Amiodarone
-
568. Hypoglycemia is seen in:
a. Acromegaly b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Hypothyroidism d. Hypopituitarism
-
569. False regarding chronic bronchitis is:
a. Hemoptysis b. >2 consecutive years c. Productive cough d. Cough for 3 months
-
570. nasal allergy is most often due to:
a. Automobile dust b. Pollen grains c. animal dust d. House dust
-
571. loud s3 is a feature of :
a. Severe MR b. Mitral stenosis c. ASD d. Old age
-
572. Most common cause of organic amnestic syndrome is:
a. Vitmain deficiency b. Hypoxia c. Alzheimer’s disease d.. Concussion
-
573. Chemical transmitter in REM sleep is:
a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. GABA d. Dopamine
-
574. Leigonnaires’ disease causes:
a. Acute respiratory infection b. Congenital malformations c. neoplastic disease d. urinary tract infection
-
575. Pontiac fever is caused by:
a. Marburg virus b. Legionella c. Tuberculosis bacilli d. Sindbis virus
-
576.A 28 year old lady presented with diarrhea, confusion and high grade fever and headache with bilateral pneumonitis. The causative agent is:
a. Pseudomonas b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Legionella
-
577.In hepatic encephalopathy the antibiotic which retards NH3 formation and absorption is:
a. Ceftriaxone b. Chloramphenicol c. Cefixime d. neomycin
-
578. Drug not used in hepatic encephalopathy is:
a. Phenobarbitone b. Lactulose c. Mannito d. Metronidazole
-
579.A patient presents with hyperpigmented lesion on mucosa of lip and oral cavity. She has melena and her elder sister also has similar complains. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Familial polyposis coli b. Gardener’s syndrome c. Villous adenoma d. peutz-Jeghers syndrome
-
580. A female patient presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and colonic polyps. Her sister also has the same history. The diagnosis is:
- a. Peutz-jeghers syndrome b. Carcinoid c. Melanoma d. Villous adenoma
- 581.s Drug used in prophylaxis ofmeningococcal meningitis is:
- a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Rifampicin d. Erythromycin
-
582.s Drug not used in prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis:
a. Penicillin b. Ofloxacin c. Rifampicin d. Ceftriaxone
-
583.Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
a. ITP b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Polyarteritis nodesa d. Acute meningococcemia
-
584. Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
a. Drug induced vasculitis b. henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Essential mixed cryglobulinemia d. Giant cell arteritis
-
585. Non pappable purpura is seen in:
a. Temporal arteritis b. Drug Induced vasculitis c. Cryglobulinemia d. henoch-Schonlein purpura
-
586. A 35 year old man has carcinoma bronchus with decreased pulmonary functions. Which of the following drug shoud not be given to him:
a. Vinblastine b. Mithramycin c. bleomycin d. Adriamycin
-
587. Hepatitis C is associated with :
a. scleroderma b. Cryglobulinemia c. anti LKM antibodies d. Polyarteritis nodosa
-
588. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
a. Hemophilia b. bloom’s syndrome c. Retinoblastoma d. Ataxia telangiectasia
-
589. A 28 year old male comes with history of exposure 3 weeks back, having cervical lymphadenopathy. Hepatsplenomegaly. The early diagnosis of HIV is done bby:
a. Lymph node biopsy b. ELISHA c. p24 antigen d. Western blot
-
590. A 65 year old female meena gives the history of severe unilateral headache on the right side and complains of blindness since 2 days. On examination there Is a thick cord like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/hr in the first hour. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Temporal arteritis b. Migraine c. Cluster headache d. Sinusitis
-
591. False regarding temporal arteritis is:
a. Sudden blindness is a complication b. low ESR c . Anemia d. Polymyalgia rheumatic
-
592.A HIV positive patient has intractable seizures and cerebral calcification. Most likely organism is:
a. Isospora belli b. Neurocysticercosis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Cryptococcus neoformans
-
593.An 8 year old child suffering fro recurrent attacks of polyuria since childhood presents to the pediatric OPD. On examination , the child has short stature, vitals and BP is normal . serum creatinine is 6 mg% HCO3-- 16mEq. Na+ 134, K+ 4.2 on USG bilateral small kidneys are seen. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Medullary cystic kidney disease c. Nephronophthisis d. Reflux nephropathy
-
594. Right sided infective endocarditis cannot occur in:
a. Puerperal sepsis b. ASD c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. IV drug abusers
-
595. Infective endocarditis is least likely to occur in:
a. MVP b. Small VSD c. TOF d. ASD
-
596. Mycosis fungoides is best treated by:
a. Iv doxorubicin (Adriamycin ) b. Surgery c. 5GU cream d.. Electron beam therapy
-
597. Dopamine is preferred in shock because:
a. Rapid action b. Renal vasodilatation c. Cardiac stimulation d. Potent vasoconstriction
-
598. The most frequent cause of peripheral cyanosis is:
- a. Interatrial septal defect b. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis c. Slowed circulation through skin d.
- Methemoglobinemia
-
599. Cyanosis is not seen in patient with severe anemia because:
a. RBCs are defective b. Capillary dilation occurs c. Hypoxia is rare d. Minimum 5gm hemoglobin is required
-
600. Cyanosis is not caused by:
a. Cirrhosis with portal hypertension b. Carboxyhemoglobinemia c. sulfhemoglobinemia d. Methemoglobinemia
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