Medicine 300-600

  1. 301. Drug not used in migraine :
    a. Ergotamine b. Propranolol c. Verapamil d. Flunarizine
  2. 302. Drug of choice for acute attack of migraine is:
    a. Sumatriptan b. Amitriptyline c. Methysergide d. Caffeine
  3. 303. Drug of choice is acute migraine not responding to aspirin is:
    a. Ibuprofen b. Zolmitriptan c. Sumatriptan d. Ergotamine
  4. 304.Severe migraine is treated with:
    a. Sodium valproate b. Amitriptyline c. Propranolol d. Ergotamine
  5. 305.Most common site of pyogenic liver abscess is:
    a. Quardrate lobe b. Caudate lobe c. right side d. None of the above
  6. 306.s X-linked recessive disorder is:
    a. Sickle cell anemia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hypophosphatemia rickets d. G6PD deficiency
  7. 307. G6PD deficiency is genetically :
    a. X-linked b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Polygenic
  8. 308. Not an X-linked disease:
    a. Color blindness b. G6PD deficiency c. Hemophilia A d. β-thalassemia
  9. 309.s Drug of choice for tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is:
    • a. Chlorquine b. Montelukast c. Salbitamol d. Diethylcarbamazine
    • 310. Not a feature of TPE:
    • a. Bilateral chest mottling b. Wheezing c. Wuchereria bancrofti infestation d. Eosinophilia >3000
  10. 311. Ranson criterion isused in:
    a. Gallstone ileus b. Acute appendicitis c Acute choledicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Acute pancreatitis
  11. 312. Not included in the Ranson criteria for the prognosis of acute pancreatitis:
    a. Serum amylase>350 IU b. AST >250 IU/L c. Age >55Years d. WBC >16,000 cells/mm
  12. 313.Not a prognostic marker is acute pancreatitis:
    a. Hypocalcemia b. Increased LDH c. Leukocytosis d. Decreased serum lipase
  13. 314. Acute pancreatitis cannot occur in:
    a. Hyppocalcemia b. Alcoholism c. Hereditary pancreatitis d. Hypercalcemia
  14. 315. Not a cause of acute pancreatitis:
    a. Hyperclacemia b. Hemochromatosis c. Gallstone d. Alcohol
  15. 316. Causes of pancreatitis are all the following except:
    a. Cystic fibrosis b. Chronic alcoholism c. Hypocalcemia d. CBD stone
  16. 317.Organism which causes pancreatitis:
    a. Measles b. Mumps c. Influenza d. Herpes
  17. 318. All are false regarding Klinefelter’s syndrome except:
    a. Subnormal intelligence b. Subluxation of lens c. Cataract d. Short stature
  18. 319. Not a clinical feature of Klinefelter’s syndrome:
    a. Oligospermia b. Gynecomastia c. diabetes mellitus d. 47 XXY
  19. 320. In klinefelter’s syndomre , the chromosomal pattern is:
    a. XXY b. XXX c. XO d. Any of the above
  20. 321. Translocation from 8 to 14 is seen in:
    a. Retinoblastoma b. Ewing’s sarcoma c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. All
  21. 322. Neisseria infection is characteristic of deficiency of;
    a. C2 b. C4 c. C5 d. C3
  22. 323. Severe cyanosis with left axis deviation is seen in:
    a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Malpositioning of heart c. Ebstein’s anomaly d. Tricuspid atresia
  23. 324. Cyanosis with left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by:
    a. TGV b. Eisemenger complex c. Tricuspid atresia d . Tetralogy of Fallot
  24. 325. ‘possibility’ of right axis deviation is found in all except:
    a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ventricular septal defect d. Atrial septal defect
  25. 326. False regarding tricuspid atresia is:
    • a. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen inn PA view of CXR:
    • b. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen in PA view of CXR b. Right ventricular hypoplasia
    • c. Fixed split S2 d. Left axis deviation
  26. 327. Major criteria for AIDS does not includes:
    a. Weight loss>10% b. Persistent diarrhea c. Persistent cough d. Persistent fever
  27. 328. Diameter of normal mitral valve orifice is:
    a. 6-8 cm b. 4-6cm c. 1 cm d. 2-4 cm
  28. 329. Left ventricular dysfunction is seen in:
    a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. mitral stenosis
  29. 330.Left ventricular hypertrophy is not seen in:
    a. MS b. AS c. Aortic incompetence d. Essential hypertension
  30. 331.s Lung carcinoma with worst prognosis is:
    a. Large cell carcinoma b. Small cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Epidermoid
  31. 332.False regarding Gaucher’s disease is:
    a. Hepatomegaly b. Autosomal dominant inheritance c. no neurological symptoms in adult form d. β-glucosidase deficiency
  32. 333. False regarding Kawassaki’s disease is:
    a. Generally benign and self limiting b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. Occurs >5 years of age d. Fever
  33. 334. Not a characteristic feature of Kawasaki’s disease :
    a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Cervical lymphadenopathy c. Thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
  34. 335. Not a feature of Kawasaki’s disease:
    a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
  35. 336. Kawasaki’s disease is treated with:
    a. .Chemotherapy b. IV glucocorticoids c. Oral glucocorticoids d. Immunotherapy
  36. 337.Sudden pain in thyroid nodule indicates:
    a. Malignant change b. Hemorrhage c. Infarction d. Necrosis
  37. 338.Kussmaul’s breathing is due to presence of:
    a. Bicarbonate b. H+ ions(acidosis) c. Chloride ions d. k+ ions
  38. 339.Kussmaul’s breathing is seen in:
    a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
  39. 340. Initial treatment of shy-drager syndrome is:
    a. β-blockers b. Prazosin c. Fludrocortisone d. None of the above
  40. 341. Cardiomyopathy is seen in;
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Holt-Oram syndrome c. Friedreich’s ataxia d. Refsum’s disease
  41. 342. Most common cardiac anomaly in Friedreich’s ataxia is:
    a. Cardiomyopathy b. Conduction defect c. Mitral stenosis d. Patent ductus arteriosus
  42. 343. Bilateral absent ankle jerk with extensor planter reflex is seen in:
    a. Ataxia telangiectasia b. Syringomyelia c. Upper motor neuron lesion d. Friedreich’s ataxia
  43. 344.Tutubation is characteristic of lesion in:
    a. Basal ganglia b. Motor cortex c. Cerebellum d. ARAS
  44. 345.Hallmark of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is:
    a. Short QT interval b. Prolonged QT interval c. Short PR interval d. Prolonged PR interval
  45. 346. Torsades de pointes are seen in:
    a. Metabolic acidosis b. Hypomagnesemia/hypokalemia c. Hypermagnesemia d. Metabolic alkalosis
  46. 347. In Torsades de points are seen in:
    a. Short QT interval b. Short QRS interval c. Prolonged QT interval d. Prolonged QRS interval
  47. 348. Not a blood borne disease:
    a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis D c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis B
  48. 349. False regarding hepatitis E is:
    a. No carrier state b. High mortality in pregnant women c. May produce chronic hepatic disease d. Fecal-oral transmission
  49. 350.Most common route of spread in hepatitis E is:
    a. IV injection b. Intercourse c. Fecal oral d. Blood transfusion
  50. 351. Most dangerous hepatitis in pregnancy is:
    a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis B
  51. 352.True regarding hepatitis E is:
    • a. Seen in post-transfusion cases b. Increases mortality in pregnancy
    • c. Alpha interferon given for carries d. Associated with hepatitis B
  52. 353. Dane particle pertains to:
    a. HAV b. HNAB c. HBV d. None
  53. 354. Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is:
    a. Subcutaneous b. Intradermal c. Intramuscular gluteal d. Intramuscular deltoid
  54. 355. Incubation period of hepatitis B is:
    a. 4 weeks to 6 months b. 6 days to 6 weeks c. 6 months to 6 years d. >6 years
  55. 356. Korsakoff’s psychosis is due to involvement of:
    a. Nondominant cerebral hemispheres b. Dominant hemispheres c. Both A and B d. Either of temporal lobe
  56. 357. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all the following except:
    a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome c. Breast milk jaundice d. Gilbert’s syndrome
  57. 358. Most severe hyperbilirubinemia occurs in:
    a. Dubin-Johnson syndrome b. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I c. Crigler- Najjar syndrome type II d. Gilbert’s syndrome
  58. 359. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
    a. Hemophilia b. Huntington’s chorea c. Hunter’s syndrome d. Hurler’s syndrome
  59. 360. Disorder genetically transmitted by single autosomal dominant gene is:
    a. Huntington’s disease b. CJD c. PKU d. Catatonic schizophrenia
  60. 361. Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign is seen in:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hypothyroidism
  61. 362.HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation:
    a. Liver b. Bone marrow c. pancreas d. Kidney
  62. 363. Lyme disease is caused by:
    a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Borrelia falciparum c. Borrelia turicatae d. borrelia recurrentis
  63. 364. All the following diseases are transmitted by flea bites except:
    a. Plague b. Murine typhus c. Chiggerosis d. Lyme disease
  64. 365. In temporal lobe epilepsy treatment is:
    a. Ethosuximide b. Carbamazepine c. Clobazam d. Valporic acid
  65. 366.Chronic Inflammatory bowel disease is associated with which of the following:
    a. Primary sclerosing cholangitis b. Cholangiosarcoma c. Fibrosis d. Chronic hepatitis
  66. 367. Ulcerative colitis is not accompanied by:
    a. Interstitial nephritis b. Pyoderma gangrenosum c. Iridis d. Arthritis
  67. 368. In diabetes mellitus ‘hypoglycemia unawareness’ is due to :
    a. necrobiosis lipoidica b. Insulin resistance c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Switch over insulin to oral drugs
  68. 369. hypoglycemia unawareness in diabetes mellitus is because of:
    a. Lipodystrophy b. Insulin resistance c. Autonomic neuropathy d. switch over insulin to oral hypoglycemic drugs
  69. 370. Insulin resistance is due to:
    • a. IgD b. IgA c. IgG d. IgM
    • 371. Weight loss is seen in:
    • a. Hypothyridism b. Insulin secreting tumor c. Pheochromocytoma d. Cushing syndrome
  70. 372.Not a characteristic feature of Turner’s syndrome :
    a. polycystic kidney b. Short neck c. Coarctation of aorta d. Ovarian dysgenesis
  71. 373. 45, Chromosomal anomaly, short stature and genital infantilism are seen in:
    a. Gonadal agenesis b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome
  72. 374.HbA 1 is :
    • a. A result of enzymatic degradation of glucose b. Indicative of level of glucose in diabetic patient
    • c. Mutant of hemoglobin d. Absent in normal people
  73. 375. Significance of glycosylated hemoglobin is:
    a. Useful in fetal damage b. Indicates abnormal hemoglobin c. Long-term measurement of blood sugar d. Useful in fetal lung maturity
  74. 376. Glycosylated hemoglobin which indicates good control of diabetes is:
    a. 8% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
  75. 377. Increased cardiac silhouette is not seen in:
    a. CHF b. Pericardial effusion c. Multi-valvular rheumatic heart disease d. Uncomplicated tetralogy of Fallot
  76. 378. Boot shaped heart with pulmonary oligemia is seen in:
    a. TGA b. TOF c. ASD d. PDA
  77. 379. Drug essential in sheehan’s syndrome is:
    a. gonadotropins b. Cortisone c. Thyroxin d. Estrogen
  78. 380.Poor prognostic factor in scleroderma is:
    a. Telangiectasia b. Dysphagia c. Renal involvement d. Cutaneous calcification
  79. 381. Virus implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma is:
    a. HCV b. HEV c. HDV d . HAV
  80. 382.Most common predisposing factor for hepatocellular carcinoma in india is:
    a. Mixed micronodular cirrhosis b. Hepatitis B c. non A, Non B hepatitis d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
  81. 383. Small intestine biopsy is diagnostic in:
    a. Whipple’s disease b. Tropical sprue c. Hirschsprung’s disease d. Amyloidosis
  82. 384. Electrical alternans in ECG Is seen in:
    a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Pericardial effusion c. Hypertrophiuc cardiomyopathy d. Hypertension
  83. 385. Electrical alternans is seen in:
    a. COPD b. Left atrial myxoma c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy d. Cardiac tamponade
  84. 386. Most common age of presentation of gastric ulcer is:
    a. 6th decade of life b. 3rd decade of life c. 4th decade of life d. 5th decade of life
  85. 387. Most common cardiac manifestation of sarcoidosis is:
    a. PAT b. Atrial fibrillation c. Heart block d. Cor pulmonale
  86. 388.Romberg’s sign indicates dysfunction of:
    a. Cerebellum b. Sensory cortex c. Lateral spinothalamic tracs d. Anteiror column
  87. 389. HLA B-27 is not associated with:
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Psoriatic arthritis c. Reiter’s syndrome d. Ankylosing spondylitis
  88. 390. HLA B -27 is not associated with:
    a. Psoriatic arthritis b. Behcet’s syndrome c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Reiter’s disease
  89. 391. Ankylosing spondyltis is associated with:
    a. HLA B-27 b. HLA DR-4 c. HLA B-8 d. HLA A -3
  90. 392. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with:
    a. DR -2 b. DR-3 c. DR-4 d. DR-5 e. HLA B-27
  91. 393. Palatal myoclonus is seen in:
    a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. Cerebellar infarction c. Multiple sclerosis d. Epilepsy
  92. 394. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy is caused by:
    a. HHV-8 b. Parvovirus c. JC virus d. Hanta virus
  93. 395.Malarial relapse is due to:
    A Trophozoites b. Merozoites c. Hypnozoites d. Sporozoites
  94. 396. Not seen in Dressler’s syndrome:
    a. Usually in 1st or subsequent week after infarction b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Fever d. Pericarditis
  95. 397. Herpes –Zoster most commonly affects:
    a. Spinal cord medulla b. Dorsal root ganglia c. Sympathetic ganglia d. Anterior horn cells
  96. 398. Zoster recurrence occurs after infection with:
    a. Smallpox b. HSV 1 c. Varicella d. HSV 2
  97. 399. Sezary syndrome is:
    a. Locke’s disease b. merck’s disease c. T-cell lymphoma d. B-cell lymphoma
  98. 400. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is:
    a. Rectosigmoid junction tear b. Duodenojejunal junction tear c. Gastroesophageal junction tear d. Gastroduodenal junction tear
  99. 401. In phenothiazines induced dystonia the drug of choice is:
    • a. Metoclopramide b. Diphenhydramine c. Pimoxide d. Trifluoperazine
    • 402. Metabolic alkalosis is not seen in:
    • a. Cushing disease b. Ureterosigmoidostomy c. Prolonged vomiting d. Thiazide diuretic
  100. 403. Toxoplasmosis in pregnancy Is treated with:
    a. Nifurtimox b. Pyrimethamine c. spiramycin d. Suramin
  101. 404. Drug of choice for ocular toxoplasmosis is:
    a. Riboflavin b. Ganciclovir c. Tetracycline d. Pyrimethamine
  102. 405. In what percentage of patients with anorexia nervosa, amenorrhea is present:
    a. 100% b. 50% c. 25% d. 80%
  103. 406. Not a feature of anorexia nervosa:
    a. Avoidance of high caloric foods b. Amenorrhea is rare c. loss of weight at time of presentation d. Predominantly seen in females
  104. 407. Drug of choice in anorexia nervosa is:
    a. FLuoxetine b. Phenytoin c. Haloperidol d. Cyproheptadine
  105. 408. Sturge-Weber syndrome is associated with:
    a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Lymphagioma c. Cavernous hemangioma d. Port-wine stain
  106. 409. False regarding Sturge-Weber syndrome is:
    a. Focal seizure on same side b. Capillary hemangioma c. Sensory motor paralysis d. Cerebral cortex atrophy
  107. 410. All of the following are anterior mediastinal masses except:
    a. Thymomas b. Teratoma c. Thyroid masses d. Gastroenteric cysts
  108. 411. Most common anterior mediastinum tumor is:
    a. Vascular cyst b. Neurogenic tumor c. Thymoma d. Lymphoma
  109. 412. Not an anterior mediastinal tumor:
    a.Teratoma b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroama d. Thymoma
  110. 413. Not a middle mediastinal mass:
    a. Pleuropericardial cyst b. Gastroenteric cyst c. Bronchogenic cyst d. Vascular masses
  111. 414. Most common lesion of middle mediastinum is:
    a. Neurogneic tumor b. Aneurysm c. Congenital cyst d. Germ cell tumor
  112. 415. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum:
    a. Teratoma b. Neurogenic c. Lymphoma d. Thymoma
  113. 416. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum is:
    a. Cyst b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroma d. Thymoma
  114. 417.Inherited disorder of metabolism is:
    a. Patau’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Maple syrup urine disease d. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
  115. 418. not associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia:
    a. liver disease b. Thalassemia c. Pyridoxine deficiency d. ARF
  116. 419. Most common cause of death in acute poliomyelitis is:
    a. Intercostal muscle paralysis b. Respiratory failure c. Convulsions d. cardiac arrest
  117. 420. Most common presentation of craniopharyngioma is:
    a. Cardiac disturbance b. Endocrinal disturbance c. Visual complaints d. Nausea and vomiting
  118. 421. Most common clinical feature of craniopharyngioma is:
    a. Headache b. Convulsions c. Field defect d. Optic atrophy
  119. 422. Not a clinical feature of Eaton-Lambert syndrome:
    a. Associated with lung carcinoma b. Female predominant c. Affect pelvic muscle first d. Proximal muscle weakness
  120. 423. Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Vitamin D intoxication c. Medullary sponge kidney d. Cystic disease of kidney
  121. 424. False regarding hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
    a. Positive coombs test b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hypofibrinogenemia d. Uremia
  122. 425. Not seen in hemolytic uremic syndrome
    a. Coombs test positive b. Burr cells c. Thrombocytopenia d. Uremia
  123. 426.Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
    a. Purpura b. Thrombocytopenia c. Liver cell abnormality d. Encephalopathy
  124. 427. Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
    a. Segmented RBCs in Peripheral blood smear b. Thrombocytosis c.. Hematuria d. Uremia
  125. 428. Characteristic finding in peripheral blood smear of a patient of hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
    a. Burr cells with fragmented RBCs b. Punctate basophilia c. ANisopoikilocytosis d. Burr cells
  126. 429. Minimum Pericardial fluid is best detected by:
    a. Echocardiography b. ECG c. CT d. CXR
  127. 430. Most common site for amebiasis is :
    a. Hepatic flexure b. Cecum c. Sigmoid colon d. Transverse colon
  128. 431. Most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:
    a. Ectopic ACTH b. Latrogneic steroids c. Pituitary adenoma d. Motor neuron disease
  129. 432.Fasciculations are seen in:
    a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Polymyositis c. Poliomyelitis d. Motor neuron disease
  130. 433. Motor neuron disease is characterized by:
    a. Sensory loss b. rigidity c. Fasciculation d. focal seizure
  131. 434. all are paraneoplastic syndrome except:
    • a. Cerebellar degeneration b. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d.
    • opsoclonus myoclonus
  132. 435. In cryptococcal meningitis the drug of choice is:
    a. Zidovudine b. Clotrimazole c. Amphotericin B d. Pentostatin
  133. 436.Whihc of the following is not a feature of digitalis toxicity :
    a. Xanthopsia b. Parozysmal atrial tachycardia c. ST depression d. Nausea
  134. 437. Not used in treatment of digitalis toxicity:
    a. Lignocaine b. Fab paricle c. Atropine d. Peritoneal dialysis
  135. 438.Treatment of digoxin overdose does not include:
    a. Hemodialysis b. Phenytoin c. Potassium d. Lignocaine
  136. 439. Lignocaine is not used in:
    a. Digoxin toxicity b. AF c. Local anesthetics d. Ventricular tachycardia
  137. 440. Not a disease modifying antirheumatoid drug (DMARD):
    a. Bal b. Gold c. Penicillamine d. Chloroquine
  138. 441. Gold salt can be used in:
    a. Behcet’s syndrome b. Osteoarthritis c. Early progressive rheumatoid arthritis d. Ankylosing spondylitis
  139. 442.Not a disease modifying antirheumatic drug:
    a. Glucocorticoids b. Sulfasalazine c. Methotrexate d. Antimalarials
  140. 443. In rheumatoid arthritis gold and penicillamine are used because:
    • a. Not modifying drugs b. Decreasing severity and progression of disease on long-term use
    • c. Useful in acute arthritis d. They bring about immediate relief
  141. 444. A patient has polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty and pigmentation, most likely
    • diagnosis is:
    • a. Systemic lupus erythematous b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. McCune –Albright syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
  142. 445.A patient has seizures with mental retardation and sebaceous adenoma. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Down syndrome b. Toxoplasmosis c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Hypothyroid
  143. 446. Not seen in tuberous sclerosis:
    a. Renal cortical cyst b. Heart and lung rhabdomyosarcoma c. Adenoma sebaceum d. Iris nodules
  144. 447. Aspirin sensitive asthma is associated with:
    a. Extrinsic asthma b. Nasal polyp c. Associated with urticaria d. Obesity
  145. 448. In prinzmetal’s angina, the drug of choice is:
    a. Verapamil b. Propranolol c. Diltiazem d. Nitrates
  146. 449. drug not much useful in prinzmetal’s angina is:
    a. Calcium channel blocker b. Propanolol c. Nifedipine d. Nitroglycerin
  147. 450.s Hyperparathyroidism is most commonly caused by:
    a. Ectopic PTH production b. adrenal hyperplasia c. Solitary adenoma d. Multiple parathyroidism adenoma
  148. 451.Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism, :
    a. Werner’s syndrome b. Multiple adenoma c. Chief cell hyperplasia d. Solitary adenoma
  149. 452. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
    a. parathyroid carcinoma b. Parathyroid adenoma c. Chronic renal disease d. Hyperplasia of parathyroid glands
  150. 453. Retinopathy in diabetes mellitus depends upon:
    a. Duration of disease b. Age of patient c. Blood sugar level d. Severity of disease
  151. 454. Tumor metastasis spread through CSF is:
    a. Craniopharyngioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
  152. 455. Brain tumor associated with CSF invasion is:
    a. Oligodendroglioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
  153. 456. Craniospinal irradiation is useful in which of the following conditions:
    a. Astrocytoma b. Oligodendroglioma c. Medulloblastoma d. Oncocytoma
  154. 457. Sickle cell anemia Is due to:
    a. Point mutation b. Translocation c. Trisomy d. Monosomy
  155. 458. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is;
    a. Salmonella b. Staphylococci c. Pseudomonas d. Escherichia coli
  156. 459. most common tumor to metastasize in heart is:
    a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Bronchogenic carcinoma d. Malignant melanoma
  157. 460. In SABE diagnosis is made by:
    a. Anti streptolysin b. ASLO titer c. Anti DNAase d. Serial blood culture
  158. 461. In anemia of chronic disease there is:
    • a. Raised serum iron b. Low serum ferritin c. Low TIBC d. Low HBA
    • 462.Prominent ‘V’ wave in JVP suggests:
    • a. Mitral stenosis b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Tricuspid regurgitation d. Pulmonary stenosis
  159. 463. Bromocriptine is used to treat:
    a. Myxedema b. parkinsonism c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid d. Obesity
  160. 464.Bromocriptine is not useful in:
    a. Infertility b. endogenous depression c. Acromegaly d. Parkinsonism
  161. 465. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is seen in:
    a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoparathyroidism
  162. 466. Acute aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
    a. Trauma b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Infective endocarditis d. Aortic dissection
  163. 467.s A 25 year old basket ball player has height of 188cm and arm span 197 am weight 76kg and blood pressure 140/60mmHg . Auscultation revels long diastolic murmurs at 3rd ICS. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Coarctation of aorta b. Ebstein’s anomaly c. Aortic stenosis d. Aortic regurgitation
  164. 468. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
    a. Acute MI b. Infective endocarditis c. Rheumatic heart disease d. Marfan’s syndrome
  165. 469. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
    a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Bacterial endocarditis c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Marfan’s syndrome
  166. 470. A 60 year old man presented with soft tissue tumor, vertebral collapse, bony pain and rib erosion. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Diabetic nephropathy b. Malignant hypertension c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Multiple myeloma
  167. 471. In multiple myeloma best indicator of prognosis is:
    a. Serum alkaline phosphate b. Number of plasma cells in marrow c. Serum β microglobulin d. Serum level of CA++
  168. 472. best marker for prognosis of multiple myeloma is:
    a. β1 microglobulin b. β2 microglobulin c. Serum Ca++ d. Bone marrow plasma cells
  169. 473. Serum alkaline phosphate is not raised in:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. osteomalaica c. Paget’s disease d. Multiple myeloma
  170. 474. False regarding multiple myeloma is:
    a. Increased alkaline phosphatase b. Casts c. Increased uric acid d. Multiple myeloma
  171. 475. In which of the following condition Ý glutamyl transpeeptidase is elevated:
    a. Secondaries in liver b. Alcoholic liver disease c. Viral disease d. Liver disease
  172. 476. Specific enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
    • a. Gamma glutamyl transferase b. Alkaline phosphate c. AST d. ALT
    • 477. Alcoholism enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
    • a. GGT b. Macrocytosis c. SGOT d. SGPT
  173. 478. Angina pectoris and syncope are most likely to be associated with:
    a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral stenosis d. Aortic stenosis
  174. 479. Recurrent chest pain and syncope is commonly seen in:
    a. Mitral stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. MVP d. Aortic stenosis
  175. 480. Sudden death is common in:
    a. patent ductus arteriosus b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral stenosis d. Arterial VSD
  176. 481.Not a feature of Behchet’s syndrome:
    a. Common in youngsters b. Seen only in tropics c. Multisystem
  177. 482. In Behcet’s syndrome:
    • a. There is a strong association with HLAB-5 b. There may be recurrent deep venous thrombosis
    • c. The skin may be hyperatice to minor injury d. All of the above
  178. 483. which of the following is a feature o behcet’s syndrome:
    • a. A strong association with HLAB-5 b. Recurrent deep venous thrombosis
    • c. skin may be hyperactive d. All of the above
  179. 484. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of area of distribution in… artery:
    a. Anterior communicating artery b. posterior cerebral artery c. Middle cerebral artery d. Anterior cerebral artery
  180. 485. Normal portal venous pressure is:
    a. 20-26 b. 22-25 c. 8-12 d. 3-5
  181. 486. Characteristic feature of frontal lobe tumor is:
    a. Antisocial behavior b. Distractibility c. Abnormal gait d. Aphasia
  182. 487. Frontal lobe lesion causes:
    a. Side determination b. Visual defect c. Urinary incontinence d. Personality change
  183. 488. most common manifestation of osteoporosis is:
    a. loss of weight b. Bowing of legs c. Backache d. Compression fracture of spine
  184. 489. In thyrotoxicosis β blockers do not control:
    a. Oxygen consumption b. Tachycardia c. Anxiety d. Tremors
  185. 490. Marker of acute hepatitis B is:
    a. HBeAg b. HBcAG c. HBsAg d. IgM anti HBc
  186. 491. Acute infection of hepatitis B virus is characterized by:
    a. anti HBeAg b. IgM anti-HBC +HBsAg c. Anti HBsAg d. HBsAg
  187. 492. A donor for blood transfusion is screned for hepatitis B. All are safe except:
    a. anti HBeeAg positive b. HBsAg + IgM anti- HBc positive c. anti HBsAg + HBeAg d. anti HbsAg positive
  188. 493.Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by:
    a. HbeAg _anti HBsAg b. HBsAg +HbeAg c. Anti HBcAG + Anti HbeAg d. HbeAg +Anti HBcAg
  189. 494. ‘a’ wave inJVP is absent in:
    a. Sick sinus syndrome b. Tricuspid atresia c. Atrial fibrillation d. Mitral stenosis
  190. 495. not a feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
    a. high arched foot b. High palate c. Arachnodactyly d. short stature
  191. 496.not a clinical feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
    a. Aortic regurgitation b. Genu valgum c. Ectopia lentis d. Hyperelasticity of joints
  192. 497. Gas gangrene is most commonly due to:
    a. clostridium tetani b. Clostridium welchii c. Clostridium difficile d. Clostridium botulinum
  193. 498.Food poisoning is caused by all except:
    a. Bacillus anthrax b. Shigella c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  194. 499. Food poisoning with incubation period of less than 6 hours and which is not fatal is:
    a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Vibrio cholera d. bacillus
  195. 500. dose of mercaptopurine requires reduction with:
    a. Allopurinol b. Thiazide c. Spironolactone d. Methotrexate
  196. 501. Most common enzyme deficiency is:
    a. G6PD b. glucose 1, 6 diphosphatase c. Hexokinase d. Glucose -6-Phosphatase
  197. 502.Hemophilia is associated with all except:
    a. Males more commonly affected b. Increased PT c. Increased aPTT d. X-linked recessive
  198. 503. Not a feature of hemophilia :
    a. Decreased factor VIII level b. Bleeding into tissue and joints c. Increased aPTT d. Increased PT
  199. 504. Not a characteristic feature of hemophilia A:
    a. Prolonged prothrombin VIII level b. Prolonged into thromboplastin time c. Low factor VIII level d. Bleeding into soft tissue, muscle and joints
  200. 505. Least likely cause of a prolonged bleeding time is:
    a. Scurvy b. Hemophilia A c. Von Willebrand’s disease d. Thrombocytopenia
  201. 506.s A patient presented with ecchymoses and petechiae all over body with increased bleeding time and normal clotting time. All of the following points to the diagnosis except:
    a. Decreased platelet in blood b. Bleeding into the joints and muscle c. Hypersplenism d. Increased megakaryocytes in marrow
  202. 507. Acute bronchiotitis is most commonly caused by:
    a. Mycoplasma b . Parainfluenza type III c. RSV d. Adenovirus
  203. 508. For diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever, the essential feature is;
    a. Erythema marginatum b. One major and two minor Jones’ criteria c. Recent sore throat infection d. Prior history f rheumatic fever
  204. 509. Most common cause of mediastinitis is:
    a. idiopathic b. drugs c. Esophageal rupture d. Tracheal rupture
  205. 510. Not a malignant tumor:
    a. Ependymoma b. Hemangioblastoma c. Astrocytoma d. Glioma
  206. 511. Coarctation of aorta is not associated with:
    a. PDA b. Renal artery stenosis c. Turner syndrome d. Bicuspid aortic valve
  207. 512. Not a feature of coarctation of aorta:
    a. Right ventricular failure b. Infective endocarditis c. Bicuspid aortic valve d. Cerebral aneurysm
  208. 513. In mitral stenosis:
    a. QRS are widened b. Left axis deviation c. Left ventricular hypertrophy d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  209. 514. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and noncaseating granuloma is seen in:
    a. Stein leventhal syndrome b. Systemic lupus erythmatosus c. Sarcoidosis d. Scleroderma
  210. 515. Spinal segment in knee jerk is:
    a. L1 b. L3 c. L4 d. B and C
  211. 516. Adult polycystic kidney is:
    a. X-linked dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. X-linked recessive
  212. 517. In adult polycystic kidney, all are true except:
    a. Cysts are seen in the liver, lung and the pancreas b. Hematuria occurs c. Hypertension is rare d. Autosomal dominant transmission is seen
  213. 518.Not a manifestation of polycystic kidney:
    a. Hematuria b. Renal failure c. Acute retention d. Renal hypertension
  214. 519. False regarding clozapine is:
    a. Extrapyramidal side effect b. agranulocytosis c. Precipitates seizure d. Used in schizophrenia
  215. 520. Most common cause of amebic lung abscess is:
    a. Hematogenous spread from gut b. Hematogenous spread from liver c. Direct spread from liver d. Aspiration
  216. 521. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is not seen in:
    a. Mycoplasma pneumonia b. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. α methyldopa therapy d. Systemic lupus erythmatous
  217. 522. Cold antibodies are seen in all except:
    a. Syphilis b. Mycoplasma c. infectious mononucleosis d. Lymphoma
  218. 523.Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in which of the following conditions:
    a. PNH b. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
  219. 524. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except:
    a. Metoclopramide b. bromocriptine c. Methyldopa d. phenothiazines
  220. 525. Budd-Chiari syndrome is due to:
    a. IVC obstruction . Congenital portal hypertension c. Acute portal hypertension d. hepatic vein obstruction
  221. 526. Most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is:
    a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Valve in hepatic vein
  222. 527. Budd- chiari syndrome is not caused by:
    a. Oral contraceptive b. PNH c. dilantin d. Polycythemia
  223. 528. False regarding Budd-Chiari syndrome:
    a. Seen in hypercoagulable states b. Ascites is minimal c. liver transplantation may be required d. It is due to obstruction of hepatic venous outflow secondary to spontaneous thrombosis of hepatic veins
  224. 529. Drug not used in anthrax is:
    a. Tetracycline b. Erythromycin c. Gentamicin d. Ciprofloxacin e. Penicilllin
  225. 530. Drug of choice for anthrax is:
    a. Erythromycn b. streptomycin c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
  226. 531. Cysticercosis in brain is caused by:
    a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Echinococcus c. Taenia solium d. Taenia saginata
  227. 532. Graham steel murmur is heard in:
    a. aortic incompetence b. Aortic stenosis c. pulmonary incompetence d. Tricuspid stenosis
  228. 533. Austin flint murmur is seen in:
    a. Mitral regurgitation b. Aortic regurgitation c. Tricuspid stenosis d. Pulmonary regurgitation
  229. 534. Murmur in Eisenmenger’s complex is:
    a. Graham steel murmur b. Austin flint murmur c. Carey –Coombs murmur d. none
  230. 535. Not included in treatment of Helicobacter pylori:
    • a. Cisapride b. Omeprazole c. Clarithromycin d. Metronidazole
    • 536. drug not effective against Helicobacter pylori is:
    • a. Erythromycin b. amoxicillin c. Metronidazole d. Colloidal bismuth
  231. 537. Which of the following drug is not used to eradicate Helicobacter pylori:
    a. Bismuth b. Ranitidine c. Tetracycline d. metronidazole
  232. 538.s Not used for diagonosing Helocobacter pylori is:
    a. SAFA test b. Gastric biopsy c. Rapid urease test d. Urea breath test
  233. 539. Correct statement regarding regarding Helicobacter pylori is:
    • a. It invades the gastric mucosa b. serology differentiates between active and remote infection
    • c. Indirect transmission d. Rapid urease test of gastric biopsy is diagnostic
  234. 540. Regimen used for eradication of Helicobacter pylori gastritis is:
    • a. Metronidazole + bismuth +ranitidine b. Amoxycilllin +Omeprazole + clarithromycin
    • c. CLarithromycin + ranitidine + metronidazole d. Ampicillin+ omeprazole + tinidazole
  235. 541.Not caused by Helicobacter pylori:
    a. Fundal gastritis b. Gastric lymphoma c. Gastric ulcer d. Duodenal ulcer
  236. 542. Drug not used in management of acute attack of asthma is:
    a. Sodium cromoglycate b. Inhaled salbutamol c. Injection hydrocortisone d. Subcutaneous adrenaline
  237. 543.All of the following are useful for treating acute bronchial asthma in children except:
    a. 100% oxygen b. IV hydrocortisone c. Nebulization with salbutamol liquid d. Sodium cromoglycate inhalation
  238. 544. Smoking is not associated with malignancies of:
    a. pancreas b. Kidney c. Liver d. Bladder
  239. 545. Smoking predisposes to all except:
    a. Lymphoma b. carcinoma pancreas c. Larynx carcinoma d. Bladder carcinoma
  240. 546. Upper motor neuron lesion cause:
    a. Localized muscle atrophy b. Rigidity c. Fasciculation d. Weakness and spasticity
  241. 547. Myotonic dystrophy gene iscoded at chromosome:
    a. 24 b. 21 c. 19 d. 20S
  242. 548. Not seen in Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome:
    a. Polydactyly b. Obesity c. Retinal detachment d. Retinitis pigmentosa e. hypogonadism
  243. 549.s Dethylcarbamazine citrate acts on:
    a. Adult filarial parasite b. Microfilariae and kills them c. Does not allow multiplication of adult forms d. Paralyze adult worms
  244. 550. Hand-foot and mouth disease is caused by:
    • a. Coxsackievirus A 16 b. CMV c. enterovirus d. Arbovirus
    • 551. Hand-foot syndrome is seen in:
    • a. sickle cell disease b. Thalassemia major c. ALL d. Fanconi’s anemia
  245. 552. Not a bactericidal drug:
    a. Penicillins b. Cephalosporine c. Sulfonamides d. Quinolones
  246. 553.IgA induced vasculitis is seen in:
    a. Glomerulonephritis b. Henoch-Scholein purpura c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  247. 554. Digitalis is contraindicated in cardiac failure caused by following:
    a. Valvular heart disease b. Myocardial infarction c. Thyrotoxicosis d. anemia
  248. 555. True regarding right ventricular infarction:
    a. Volume expanders b. Digoxin c. Diuretics d . Pacing
  249. 556.s Acute right ventricular infarct is treated with:
    a. IV fluids b. Diuretics c. Vasodilators d. Digoxin
  250. 557. Ascarbose used in diabetes mellitus acts by:
    • a. Increasing secretion of insulin b. Increases sensitive of tissue to insulin
    • c. Reduces blood glucose levels d. Reduces absorption of glucose from the gut wall
  251. 558. Prosopagnosia is:
    a. Inability to speak b. Inability to read c. Inability to identify faces d. Inability to write
  252. 559. Hepatic encephalopathy is not precipitated by:
    a. Superimposed acute liver disease b. GI bleeding c. barbiturates d. Hyperkalemia
  253. 560. Acute hepatocellular feature is most likely to be precipitated by:
    a. Oral lactulose b. Upper GI bleeding c. Large carbohydrate meal d. Large IV albumin infusion
  254. 561. most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
    a . Trauma b. Berry aneurysm c. AV malformation d. Hypertension
  255. 562. A 25 year old man develops sudden headache with loss of consciousness. CSF is blood stained most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Encephalopathy b. Embolic stroke c. Thrombotic CVA d. Ruptured cerebral aneurysm
  256. 563. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by:
    a. Dural sinuses b. Venae comitantes of corpus striatum c. Rupture of vertebral artery aneurysm d . Rupture of circle of willis aneurysm
  257. 564. LVH is seen in:
    a. Carcinoid syndrome b. Aortic regurgitation c. ASD with fossa ovalis d. pure mitral stenosis
  258. 565. Primaquine causes hemolysis in:
    • a. G6PD deficiency b. Malaria c. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency d. NADP deficiency
    • 566. Splenectomy is most useful in:
    • a. Sickle cell anemia b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia
  259. 567. In PSVT the drug of choice is:
    a. Adenosine b. lignocaine c. Quinidine d. Amiodarone
  260. 568. Hypoglycemia is seen in:
    a. Acromegaly b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Hypothyroidism d. Hypopituitarism
  261. 569. False regarding chronic bronchitis is:
    a. Hemoptysis b. >2 consecutive years c. Productive cough d. Cough for 3 months
  262. 570. nasal allergy is most often due to:
    a. Automobile dust b. Pollen grains c. animal dust d. House dust
  263. 571. loud s3 is a feature of :
    a. Severe MR b. Mitral stenosis c. ASD d. Old age
  264. 572. Most common cause of organic amnestic syndrome is:
    a. Vitmain deficiency b. Hypoxia c. Alzheimer’s disease d.. Concussion
  265. 573. Chemical transmitter in REM sleep is:
    a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. GABA d. Dopamine
  266. 574. Leigonnaires’ disease causes:
    a. Acute respiratory infection b. Congenital malformations c. neoplastic disease d. urinary tract infection
  267. 575. Pontiac fever is caused by:
    a. Marburg virus b. Legionella c. Tuberculosis bacilli d. Sindbis virus
  268. 576.A 28 year old lady presented with diarrhea, confusion and high grade fever and headache with bilateral pneumonitis. The causative agent is:
    a. Pseudomonas b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Legionella
  269. 577.In hepatic encephalopathy the antibiotic which retards NH3 formation and absorption is:
    a. Ceftriaxone b. Chloramphenicol c. Cefixime d. neomycin
  270. 578. Drug not used in hepatic encephalopathy is:
    a. Phenobarbitone b. Lactulose c. Mannito d. Metronidazole
  271. 579.A patient presents with hyperpigmented lesion on mucosa of lip and oral cavity. She has melena and her elder sister also has similar complains. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Familial polyposis coli b. Gardener’s syndrome c. Villous adenoma d. peutz-Jeghers syndrome
  272. 580. A female patient presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and colonic polyps. Her sister also has the same history. The diagnosis is:
    • a. Peutz-jeghers syndrome b. Carcinoid c. Melanoma d. Villous adenoma
    • 581.s Drug used in prophylaxis ofmeningococcal meningitis is:
    • a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Rifampicin d. Erythromycin
  273. 582.s Drug not used in prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis:
    a. Penicillin b. Ofloxacin c. Rifampicin d. Ceftriaxone
  274. 583.Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
    a. ITP b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Polyarteritis nodesa d. Acute meningococcemia
  275. 584. Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
    a. Drug induced vasculitis b. henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Essential mixed cryglobulinemia d. Giant cell arteritis
  276. 585. Non pappable purpura is seen in:
    a. Temporal arteritis b. Drug Induced vasculitis c. Cryglobulinemia d. henoch-Schonlein purpura
  277. 586. A 35 year old man has carcinoma bronchus with decreased pulmonary functions. Which of the following drug shoud not be given to him:
    a. Vinblastine b. Mithramycin c. bleomycin d. Adriamycin
  278. 587. Hepatitis C is associated with :
    a. scleroderma b. Cryglobulinemia c. anti LKM antibodies d. Polyarteritis nodosa
  279. 588. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
    a. Hemophilia b. bloom’s syndrome c. Retinoblastoma d. Ataxia telangiectasia
  280. 589. A 28 year old male comes with history of exposure 3 weeks back, having cervical lymphadenopathy. Hepatsplenomegaly. The early diagnosis of HIV is done bby:
    a. Lymph node biopsy b. ELISHA c. p24 antigen d. Western blot
  281. 590. A 65 year old female meena gives the history of severe unilateral headache on the right side and complains of blindness since 2 days. On examination there Is a thick cord like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/hr in the first hour. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Temporal arteritis b. Migraine c. Cluster headache d. Sinusitis
  282. 591. False regarding temporal arteritis is:
    a. Sudden blindness is a complication b. low ESR c . Anemia d. Polymyalgia rheumatic
  283. 592.A HIV positive patient has intractable seizures and cerebral calcification. Most likely organism is:
    a. Isospora belli b. Neurocysticercosis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Cryptococcus neoformans
  284. 593.An 8 year old child suffering fro recurrent attacks of polyuria since childhood presents to the pediatric OPD. On examination , the child has short stature, vitals and BP is normal . serum creatinine is 6 mg% HCO3-- 16mEq. Na+ 134, K+ 4.2 on USG bilateral small kidneys are seen. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Medullary cystic kidney disease c. Nephronophthisis d. Reflux nephropathy
  285. 594. Right sided infective endocarditis cannot occur in:
    a. Puerperal sepsis b. ASD c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. IV drug abusers
  286. 595. Infective endocarditis is least likely to occur in:
    a. MVP b. Small VSD c. TOF d. ASD
  287. 596. Mycosis fungoides is best treated by:
    a. Iv doxorubicin (Adriamycin ) b. Surgery c. 5GU cream d.. Electron beam therapy
  288. 597. Dopamine is preferred in shock because:
    a. Rapid action b. Renal vasodilatation c. Cardiac stimulation d. Potent vasoconstriction
  289. 598. The most frequent cause of peripheral cyanosis is:
    • a. Interatrial septal defect b. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis c. Slowed circulation through skin d.
    • Methemoglobinemia
  290. 599. Cyanosis is not seen in patient with severe anemia because:
    a. RBCs are defective b. Capillary dilation occurs c. Hypoxia is rare d. Minimum 5gm hemoglobin is required
  291. 600. Cyanosis is not caused by:
    a. Cirrhosis with portal hypertension b. Carboxyhemoglobinemia c. sulfhemoglobinemia d. Methemoglobinemia
Author
adarsha
ID
356023
Card Set
Medicine 300-600
Description
Medicine 300-600
Updated