Mudit 2010

  1. 1. Gluteus medius is supplied by
    • A Superior Gluteal Nerve
    • B. Inferior Gluteal Nerve
    • C. Nerve to ObturatorInternus
    • D. Nerve to QuadratusFemoris
  2. 1b. Gluteusmedius is supplied by
    • A Superior Glutenl Artery
    • B. Inferior Gluteal Artery
    • C Obturator Artery
    • D. Ilio-inguinal Artery
  3. 2. Which of the following tendons passes below the sustenticulumtali
    • A. Tibialis Anterior
    • B. Tibialis Posterior
    • C. Flexor DiglorumLongus
    • D. Flexor Hallucislongus
  4. 2b. Which of the following tendons has attachments on sustenticulumTali
    • A. TibialisAnlcrior
    • B. Tibialis Posterior
    • C. Flexerdigitorumlongus
    • D. FlexcrHallucisLongus
  5. 3. Urogenital Diaphragm is made up of the following, Except
    • A. Decp transverse Perineus
    • B. Perinial membrane
    • C. Colle'sfasciu
    • D. Sphincter Urethre
  6. 4. Hypogastric Sheath is a condensation of
    • A. Scarpa's fascia
    • B. Colle's fascia
    • C. Pelvic lascia
    • D. Inferior layer of Urogenital diaphragm
  7. 5. Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into the following Lymph nodes
    • A. Superior inguinal nodes B. Intemal inguinal nodes
    • C. Deep inguinal nodes D. Sacral nodes
  8. 6. Which of the positions best describes the location of celiac plexus
    • A. Anterolateral to Aorta B. Posterolateral to Arola
    • C. Anterolateral to sympathetic chain D. Anteromedial to sympathetic chain
  9. 7. In post-ductal coarctation of aorta collaterals may be formed by all of the following, except
    • A Vertebral artery
    • B. Suprascapular artery
    • C. Subscapular artery
    • D. Posterior intercostal artery
  10. 8. Which of the following passes through the foramen magnum
    • A Vertebral Artery
    • B. Sympathetic chain
    • C. XIth cranial nerve
    • D. Internal carotid Artery
  11. 9. All of the following movements occur during abduction of shoulder except
    • А Elevation of humerus
    • B. Axial rotation of clavicle
    • Medial rotation of scapula
    • D. Acromioclavicular joint movement
  12. 10. All of the following are composite muscles, except:
    • A Flexor carpi Uinans
    • B. Flexor digitorumProfundus
    • C. Pectincus
    • D. Biceps femoris
  13. 11. Left sided superior vena cava drains into:
    • A Right Atrium
    • B Loft Atrium
    • C. Coronary sinus
    • D. Pericardial space
  14. 12. Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors include:
    • A. II and III
    • B. IX and X
    • C. III and V
    • D Vill and XII
  15. 13. During heavy exercise the cardiac output (CO) increases up to five fold while pulmonary arterial
    • pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by:
    • A. Increase in the number of open capillaries
    • B. Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels
    • C. Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary arterioles
    • D. Smalier surface area of pulmonary circulation
  16. 14. Venous return to heart during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors, except
    • A. Calf muscle contraction during standing
    • B Valves in perforators
    • C. Sleeves of deep fascia
    • D. Gravitational increase in arterial pressure
  17. 15. During cardiac imaging the phase of minimum motion of heart is
    • A. Late systole
    • B. Mid systole
    • C. Late diastole
    • D. Mid diastole
  18. 16. All of the following statements about bronchial circulation are true, Except
    • A Contribute 2% of systemic circulation
    • B. Contribute to gaseous exchange
    • C Cause venous admixing of blood
    • D Provide nutritive function to lung
  19. 17. An important non-respiratory function of Lungs is:
    • A. Anion balance
    • В. Sodium balance
    • C Potassium balance
    • D Calcium balance
  20. 18. Maximum water reabsorption in the Gastrointestinal tract occurs in
    • A. Stomach
    • B. Jejunum
    • C. lleum
    • D. Colon
  21. 19. The primary action of Nitric oxide (NO) in the gastrointestinal tract is
    • A Vasodilatation
    • B Vasoconstriction
    • C Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
    • D Gastrointestinal slow smooth muscle contraction
  22. 20. Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasm by
    • A Stimulation of adrenergic fibers
    • B. Stimulation of cholinergic fibers
    • C. Inhibition of cold receptors
    • D. Inhibition of heat receptors
  23. 21. Insulin secretion is inhibited by:
    • A. Socretin
    • B. Epinephrine
    • C. Growth bormone
    • D Gastrin
  24. 22. Which of the following is not seen in humans.
    • A. Estrous cycle
    • B. Menstrual cycle
    • C. Endometrial cycle
    • D. Ovarian cycle
  25. 23. Lesions of the lateral cercbellum cause all of the following. Except
    • A. Incoordination
    • B. Intention tremor
    • C. Resting tremor
    • D. Ataxia
  26. 24. Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the follow conditions. Except:
    • A Recurrent Lumbar Puncture
    • B. Hypothyroidism
    • C. Pseudotumorcerebri
    • D Infants
  27. 25. Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on:
    • A. Lean body mass
    • B. Body mass index
    • C. Obesity
    • D. Body surface area
  28. 26. Decreased Basal Metabolic Rate is seen in:
    • A. Obesity
    • B. Hyperthyroidism
    • C. Feeding
    • D. Exercise
  29. 27. Inulin like fructans are used as prebioties as they are non digestible. Resistance to digestion in the upper GI tract results from
    • A. Absence of digestive enzyme in the upper GIT
    • B. Beta configuration of anomcric C2
    • C. Low pH of the stomach
    • D. Presence of c-osidic linkages
    • 28. Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in
    • A Maple Syrup urine disease
    • B. Hartnup disease
    • C. Alkaptonuria
    • D. GMI Gangliosidosis
  30. 29. Sphingomyelinase Deficiency is seen in:
    • A Niemann-Pick disease
    • B. Farber's discase
    • C. TaySach's disease
    • D. Krabbe's disease
  31. 30. Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophoresis
    • A. VLDL
    • B. LDL
    • C. HDL
    • D. Chylomicrons
  32. 31. Method of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules in mobile phase is termed as:
    • A. Affinity chromatography
    • B. Ion - Exchange chromatography
    • C. Adsorbtion chromatography
    • D. Size - Exclusion chromatography
  33. 32. Rothera's test used for detection of
    • A. Proteins
    • B. Glucose
    • C. Fatty Acid
    • D. Ketones
  34. 33. Which of the following liver enzymes is predominantly mitochondrial
    • A. SGOT (AST)
    • B. SGPT (ALT)
    • C. GGT
    • D. 5 Nucleotidase
  35. 34. Which of following techniques is used for detection of variations in DNA sequence and Gene expression
    • A. Northem Blot
    • B. Southem Blot
    • C.. Western Blot
    • D. Microarray
    • 35. Which of the following tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy
    • A FISH
    • B. RT-PCR
    • С. QF-PCR
    • D. Microarray
  36. 36. Prenatal diagnosis of Hemophilia is best done by
    • A. PCR
    • B. Linkage analysis
    • C. Cytometry
    • D. Microarray
  37. 37. Narrow therapeutic index is seen with:
    • A Desipramine
    • B. Lithium
    • C Penicillin
    • D. Diazepam
  38. 38. Which of the following is a 'Protein Pump Inhibitor
    • A. Ranitidine
    • B Misoprostol
    • C. Omeprazole
    • D. Laxatidine
  39. 39. Mechanism of action of Theophylline in Bronchial Asthma include all of the following Except
    • A. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
    • B. Adenosine Receptor antagonism
    • C. Increased Histone Deactylation
    • D. Beta-2 Receptor stimulation
  40. 39b. Mechanism of action of Theophylline in Bronchial Asthma is:
    • A Phosphodiesterase Inhibition
    • B Mast cell stabilization
    • C. Leukotriene Antagonism
    • D. Brayonism
  41. 40. Methyldopa is primarily used in:
    • A Parkinsonism
    • B. Pregnancy Induced Hypertension
    • C. Hirsuitism
    • D. Refractory hypertension
  42. 41. Which of the following statements about Opioid Receptor Antagonists is false
    • A. Naloxone can be used to for treatment of opioid induced constipation
    • B. Naltrexone may be used for treatment of alcohol dependence
    • C. Nalmefine has a longer half life than Naloxone
    • D. Naloxone is more polent than Naltrexone
  43. 42. L- Dopa is combined with Carbidopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to:
    • A. Decrease the oflicacy of levodopa
    • B. Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa
    • C Increase the dose of levodopa required
    • D. Inhibit conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the CNS
  44. 43. Which of the following drugs should not be used with Rivastigmine in patients with Alzheimer's disease
    • A. SSRI
    • B. Tricyclic Antidepressant
    • C. RIMA
    • D. Atypical Antidepressants
  45. 44. Ethosuxamide is the drug of choice for
    • A Gencralized Tonic clonicscizures
    • B. Complex partial scizures
    • C. Absence seizures
    • D. Myoclonic scizures
  46. 45. All of the following statements about Phenytoin are true, Except
    • A Follows saturation kinetics
    • B. Is teratogenic
    • C. Is highly protein bound
    • D. Stimulates Insulin secretion
  47. 46. Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome is caused by
    • A Phenytoin
    • B. Alcohol
    • C. Tetracycline
    • D. Sodium valproate
  48. 47. Which of the following teratogenic effects inincorrectly matched
    • A Phenytoin - Cleft Lip/Palate
    • B. Zidovudine-Skull defects
    • C. Valproate Neural tube defects
    • D. Warfarin - Nasal Bone Dysplasia
  49. 48. All of the following drugs may cause Hirsutism.Except
    • A. Danazol
    • B. Phenytoin
    • C. Norethisterone
    • D. Flulamide
  50. 49. Most common congenital anomaly associated with Lithium
    • A Cardiac Malformations
    • B. Neural Tube Defects
    • C. Renal anomaly
    • D. Fetal Hydantoin syndrome
  51. 50. All of the following agents are used for prophylaxis of migraine, Except
    • A. Propanalol
    • B. Valproate
    • C. Topiramate
    • D. Ethosuxamide
  52. 51. Serotonin syndrome may be precipitated by all of the following medications. Except.
    • A. Chlorpromazine
    • B Pentazocine
    • C. Buspirone
    • D. Mcperidinc
  53. 52. MAO inhibitors should not bc used with
    • A. Pcthidinc
    • B. Pentazocine
    • C. Buprenorphinc
    • D. Morphine
  54. 53. A young male presents with meningococcal meningitis and allergy to penicillin. Which is the most suitable drug:
    • A. Chloramphenicol
    • B. Meropenem
    • C. Ciprofloxacin
    • D. Tricoplanin
  55. 54. Which of the following should be monitored in patient receiving linezolid therapy
    • A. Renal function
    • B. Liver function
    • C. Auditory function
    • D Platelet count
  56. 55. All of the following statements about thalidomide are true, Except
    • A. It has been re introduced for its activity in NL
    • B. Developed as anticmctic in pregnancy but withdrawn because of phacomclin
    • C. Used for new and relapsed cases of Multiplemyclumni
    • D. Most common side effects are diarrhea and euphoria
  57. 56. Pancreatitis occurs with:
    • A. Abacavir
    • B. Zidovudinc
    • C Lamivudine
    • D. Didanosine
  58. 57. Which of the following newer drugs has activity on both HER I and HER 2 neu Receptors
    • A. Erlotinib
    • B. Gefitinib
    • C. Canertinib
    • D. Lapatinib
  59. 58. Tyrosine kinase Inhibitors are used in the treatment of
    • A. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)
    • B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia
    • C. Neurofibromatosis
    • D. Small cell carcinoma Lung
  60. 59. Which of the following agents is recommended for treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIS
    • A. Sorafenib
    • B. Imatinib
    • C. Gefitinib
    • D. Erlotinib
  61. 60. Ampholcrecin B loxicity can be lowered by
    • A. Giving it with Glucose
    • B. Decreusing the dose
    • C. Using Liposomal delivery systems
    • D. Combining with flucytosinc
  62. 61. Which of the following statements about MycophenolateMofetil is not true
    • A Most common adverse effect is Nephrotoxicity
    • B. Used in Transplant Rejection
    • C. It is a prodrug and converted to Mycophenolic acid
    • D. Is not used with Azathioprine
  63. 62. Which of the following drugs is recommended for treatment of Heparin Induced thrombocytopenia
    • A. Abciximab
    • B. Lepirudin
    • C. Warfarin
    • D. Alteplase
  64. 63. All of the following statements about Trientine are true, Except
    • A. More potent than penicillamine and orally absorbed
    • B. Alternative to penicilliamino in non tolerant
    • C. Not given with iron within two hours of ingestion
    • D. May cause iron deficiency anemia
  65. 64. Allopurinol is used in the treatment of
    • A. Osteoanthritis
    • B. Gout
    • C. Rheumatoid Arthritis
    • D. Ankylosing spondylitis
  66. 65. In Equivalent concentrations, steroids are more potent in which form:
    • A Gel
    • B. Cream
    • C. Ointment
    • D. Lotion
  67. 66. The characteristic feature of apoptosis on light microscopy is
    • A Cellular swelling
    • B. Nuclear compaction
    • C. Intact cell membrane
    • D. Cytoplasmic cosinophlia
  68. 66. (b) All of the following are features of Apoptosis,Except
    • A. Cellular swelling
    • B. Nuclear compaction
    • C. Intact cell membrunc
    • D. Cytoplasmic cosiophiliu
  69. 67. Caspases are involved in:
    • A Cell division
    • B. Necrosis
    • C. Apoptosis
    • D. Inflammation
  70. 68. Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following,except
    • A. Vasodilatation
    • B. Bronchodilatation
    • C. Increased vascular permeability
    • D. Pain
  71. 68b. What is the most important role of Bradykinin inacute inflammation:
    • A. Increase in Vascular Permeability
    • B. Vasodilatation
    • C. Mediation of Pain
    • D. Bronchoconstriction
  72. 69. Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protectionagainst
    • A. G6PD
    • B. Malaria
    • C. Thalassemia
    • D. Dengue fever
  73. 70. PNH is associated with a deficiency of
    • A DAF
    • B. MIRL
    • C. GPI Anchored protein
    • D. All of the above
  74. 70. (b)PNH is associated with deficiency of
    • A. DAF (Decay accelerating factor)
    • B. MIRL (Membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis)
    • C. GPI Anchored Proteins (Glycosylphosphatidyl Inositol anchored proteins)
    • D. LFA (Lymphocyte function associated antigen)
  75. 71. Burkitt's Lymphoma is associated with:
    • A.1 (8:14)
    • B.t (11:14)
    • C. 1 (15:17)
    • D. 1(14:18)
  76. 72. Translocation (2:8)(p12:224) is associated with:
    • A. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
    • B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
    • C. T cell - ALL
    • D. Burkitt's Lymphoma
  77. 73. Plasmacytoid Lymphomas may be associated with:
    • A IgG
    • B. IgM
    • C. IgA
    • D. IgE
  78. 74. Which of the following have most friable vegetation:
    • A Infective endocarditis
    • B. Libman Sack's endocarditis
    • C. Rheumatic heart disease
    • D. SLE
  79. 75. Charachteristic pathological finding in carcinoid heart disease is
    • A. Fibrous endocardial thickening of Right ventricle Tricuspid valve & Pulmonary valve
    • B. Endocardial thickening of Tricuspid valve with severe Tricuspid Stenosis
    • C. Collagen rich, elastic deposits in endocardium of right ventricle and Pulmonary valve
    • D. Calcification of Tricuspid and Pulmonary valve
  80. 76. A female presents with history of progressive hreathlessness. Histology shows heterogenous patchy fibrosis with several fibroblastic foci. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia
    • B. Non Specific Interstitial pneumonia
    • C. Usual Interstitial Pneumonia
    • D. Desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia
  81. 77. Chromophobe variant of Renal cell carcinoma is associated with
    • A. VHL gene mutations
    • B. Trisomy of 7 and 17(+7, +17)
    • C. 3 p deletions (3p-)
    • D. Monosomy of I and Y (-1,-Y)
  82. 78. Hypercoagulation in Nephrotic syndrome is caused by.
    • A. Loss of Antithrombin III
    • B. Decreased Fibrinogen
    • C. Decreased Metabolism of Vitamin K
    • D. Increase in protein C
  83. 79. Which of the following markers is specific for Gastro intestinal stromal tumors (GIST)
    • A. CD 117
    • B CD 34
    • C. CD 23
    • D. S - 100
  84. 80. All of the following condition are associated with granulomatous pathology, except:
    • A. Wegner's Granulomatosis (WG)
    • B. Takayasu Arteritis (TA)
    • C. PolyarteritisNodosa (Classic PAN)
    • D. Giant Cell Arteritis (GCA)
  85. 81. Electron Microscopy is diagnostic in
    • A. Goodpasture's Syndrome
    • B. Alport's syndrome
    • C. Wegener's Granulomatosis
    • D. Churg Strauss syndrome
  86. 82. Which of the following is the most characteristic ultrastructural feature of paraganglioma on electron microscopy
    • A Shrunken mitochondria
    • B. Large Golgi apparatus
    • C. Frequent mitoses
    • D. Dense core neurocndocrinc granules
  87. 83. Which of the following is a market for Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    • A. CD la
    • B. CD 10
    • C. CD 30
    • D. CD56
  88. 84. Down's syndrome is most commonly caused by:
    • A. Matcral Nondisjunction
    • B. Paternal Nondisjunction
    • C. Translocation
    • D. Mosaicism
  89. 85. Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. A normal couple has one daughter affected with the disease. They are now planning to have another child. What is the chance of her sibling being affected by the disease
    • A. 0
    • B. 12
    • C. 14
    • D. 94
  90. 86. Males are more commonly affected than females in:
    • A. Autosomal Dominant
    • B. Autosomal Recessive
    • C. X. Linked Dominant
    • D. X-Linked recessive
  91. 87. Peptide binding site on class I MHC molecules for presenting processed antigens to CD8 T cells is
    • formed by
    • A. Proximal domain of a subunits
    • B. Distal domain of a subunit
    • C. Proximal domains of a and B subunit
    • D. Distal domains of a and B subunit
  92. 88. All of the following statements about Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBT) are truc, Except
    • A. PBP'S are localized on the outer face of cell wall
    • B. PBP's are essential for cell wall synthesis
    • C. PBP's act as carboxypeptidases and traspeptidases
    • D. Alteration in PBP's is the primary bases of resistance in MRSA
  93. 88. (b) All of the following statements about Penicillin Resistance are true, Except
    • A. B. Laclamase production is the most common mechanism of resistance
    • B. Alteration in target PBPs is an important resistance mechanism in Gram negative bacteria
    • C. Alteration in permeability/penetration of antibiotic causes resistance only in Gram negative bacteria
    • D. B-Lactamase production causes resistance in both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
  94. 89. All of the following statements about staphylococcus aureus are true. Except:
    • A Most common source of infection is cross infection from infected people
    • B. About 30% of general population is healthy nasal carners
    • C. Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigens
    • D. Methicillin Resistance is chromosomally mediated.
  95. 90. A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated showed beta hemolysis on blood agar, resistance to bacitracin, and a positive CAMP test. The most probable organism causing infection is:
    • A. Pyogenes
    • B. S. Agalacitas
    • C. Colerococcus
    • D. S. Pneumoniae
  96. 91. All of the following statements about El-Tor Vibrios are true. Except
    • A Humans are the only reservoir
    • B. Can survive in ice cold water for 2-4 weeks
    • C. Killed by boiling for 30 seconds
    • D. Enteroloxin can have direct effects on other tissues besides intestinal epithelial cells.
  97. 92. Isolation of Chlamydia from tissue specimen can be done by
    • A. ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immune Assay)
    • B. Yolk sac inoculation
    • C. Direct Immunofluorescence Antibody test (DFA)
    • D. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
  98. 93. Varicella Zoster remains latent in
    • A. Trigeminal Ganglion
    • B. T cells
    • C. B cells
    • D. Macrophages
  99. 94. Most common genital lesion in HIV patient is:
    • A. Chlamydia
    • B. Herpes
    • C. Syphilis
    • D. Candida
  100. 95. Which of the following may cause biliary obstruction
    • AAncylostoma
    • B. Entrobius
    • C Strongyloides
    • D. Clonorchis
  101. 96. A young woman complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She also had history of allergy and asthma. On examination, multiple polyps with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions are seen in nasal cavities. Biopsy was taken and the material on culture showed many hyphae will dichotomous branching typically at 45 degree. Which of the following is most likely organism responsible?
    • A. Rhizopus
    • B. Aspergilus
    • C. Mucor
    • D. Candida
  102. 97. A diabetic patient present with bloody nasal discharge, orbital swelling and pain. Culture of
    • periorbital pus showed branching septate hyphae. Which of the following is the most probable
    • organism involved
    • A. Mucor
    • B. Candida
    • C. Aspergillus
    • D. Rhizopus
  103. 98. Primary impact injuries are commonly seen on:
    • A. Chest
    • B. Abdomen
    • C. Legs
    • D. Head
  104. 99. Which of the following bullets leaves a visible mark. so that a person can see it:
    • A. Tandem Bullet
    • B. Tracer Bullet
    • C. Dum Dum Bullet
    • D. Incendiary bullet
  105. 100. Lightening flash can cause injury by all of the following, Except:
    • A. Direct effect of electric current
    • B. Super heated air
    • C. Expanded and repelled air
    • D. Compressed air pushed in front of the current
  106. 101. A woman died within 5 years of marriage under suspicious circumstances. Her parents complained that her in laws used to frequently demand for dowry Under which of the following sections can a magistrate authorize outopsy of the case:
    • A. Section 174 Cr Pc
    • B. Section 176 CrPc
    • C. Section 304 IPC
    • D. Section 302 IPC
  107. 102. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and loss of appetite. The most likely poisoning is:
    • A. Mercury
    • В. Lead
    • C. Arscnic
    • D. Phosphorus
  108. 103. Aconite poisoning causes all except:
    • A. Hypersalivation
    • B Tingling and numbness
    • C. Increased BP
    • D Chest pain
  109. 104. Which of the following drugs is used for Narcoanalysis
    • A Atropine
    • B. Phenobarbitone
    • C. Scopolamine
    • D Pethidine
  110. 105. Movement across socioeconomic levels is termed as:
    • A. Social Equality
    • B. Social Upliftment
    • C. Social Mobility
    • D Social Insurance
  111. 106. Which of the following is associated with emotional valence and is most likely to be influenced by motivation
    • A Attitude
    • B. Belief
    • C. Practice
    • D. Knowledge
  112. 107. ASHA is posted at:
    • A. Village level
    • B. Primary Health Centre
    • C. Community Health Centre
    • D. Subcentre
  113. 108. JSY' stands for
    • A. JananiSurakshaYojana
    • B. JeevanSwasthaYojna
    • C. Jan SewaYojna
    • D. Jan SurakshaYojna
  114. 109. Provision of Primary Health care was done by:
    • A. Bhore Committee
    • B. Alma-Ata Declaration
    • C. Shrivastava Committee
    • D National Health Policy
  115. 110. Which of the following is not an essential component of primary health care
    • A. Provision of Essential Drugs
    • B. Cost effectiveness
    • C Immunization against major infectious diseas
    • D. Healtacducation
  116. 111. Which of the following is the current trend in Health Care
    • A Qualiative enquiry
    • B. Community Paracpation
    • C Equitable distribution
    • D. Primary Hсalth care
  117. 112. Which of the following best reflects the highest level of community participation
    • A. Planning of intervention by community
    • B. Intervention based on assessment of community nocds
    • C. Provision of resources by community
    • D. Community supports and cooperates with workers
  118. 113. Which of the following regarding Material Mortality Rate (MMR) is not true
    • A. Numerator includes total number of female deaths within 42 days of delivery
    • B. Denominator includes still births and abortions
    • C. It is expressed as a ralc and not ratio
    • D. It is expressed per 1000
  119. 114. Perinatal Mortality rate includes
    • A. Still bors and death within 7 days of birth
    • B. Neonatal deaths within 30 days of birth
    • C. Abortions and Death within 7 days of birth
    • D. Deaths between 7 and 28 days of birth
  120. 115. IMNCI differs from IMCI in all of the following Except:
    • A. Malaria and anmeia are included
    • B. 0-7 days neonates are included
    • C. Emphasis on management of sick neonates over sick older children
    • D. Treatment is aimed at more than one disease at a time
  121. 116. Mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area is recommended for all of the following, except:
    • A. Yaws
    • B. Leprosy
    • C. Trachoma
    • D. Filaria
  122. 117. Rural and Urban difference in prevalence is seen in all of the following. Except:
    • A. Lung cancer
    • B Tuberculosis
    • C. Mental illness
    • D. Chronic Bronchitis
  123. 118. All of the following statements about Tuberculosis Annual Rate of infection (ARI) are true, Except:
    • A. The average estimated ARI for India is 1.7%.
    • B. 1% ARI corresponds 75 new cases of smear positive TB/100,000 population
    • C. ARI reflects the current trend and effectiveness control measures
    • D. ARI represents the percentage new infections
  124. 119. All of the following statements about scrub lyphus are true, Except
    • A. Caused by Tsutsugamushi
    • B. Mites act as reservoirs
    • C Transmitted when adult mites feed on hosts
    • D. Tetracycline is the drug of choice
  125. 120. All of the following factors contribute to Resurgend of malaria, Except:
    • A Drug Resistance in host
    • B. Drug Resistance in parasite
    • C. Drug Resistance in vectors
    • D. Antigenic variations in parasite
  126. 121. A case of Acute Flaccid paralysis must be observa for how many days for residual weakness.
    • A. 30 days
    • B 42 days
    • C. 60 days
    • D. 90 days
  127. 122. India aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015
    • A. Malaria
    • B Tuberculosis
    • C. Kala Azar
    • D. Filariasis
  128. 123. The screening strategy for prevention of blindness from diabetic retinopathy according to the NPCB involves
    • A. Opportunistic screening
    • B. High Risk Screening
    • C. Mass screening
    • D. Screening by Primary Care Physician
  129. 124. Which of the following statements about confidence limits/ interval is true:
    • A. Smaller the confidence level larger will be the confidence interval
    • B. Less variable the data, wider will be the confidence interval
    • c. Sample size does not affect the confidence interval
    • D. 95% confidence interval will cover 2 standard errors around the mean
  130. 125. A standard Z-score'is related to:
    • A. Binomial distribution
    • B. Normal distribution
    • C. Chi-square test
    • D. 1-CSI
  131. 126. A new test for diabetes was carried out of the 80people who were tested positive (+ve), it was foundthat actually 40 had diabetes and out of 9920 peoplewho were tested negative (-ve) only 9840 did nothave the disease actually. The sensitivity of this newTest is:
    • A. 33%
    • B. 50%
    • C. 65%
    • D 99%
  132. 127. The population of a community on the 1" of June wasrecorded as 1,65,000. Total no. of new cases ofTuberculosis, recorded from 1s January to 31 Junewere 22. Total Registered cases of tuberculosis in thecommunity were recorded as 220. What is theincidence of TB in this community per 10 lakhpopulation.
    • A 133
    • B.220
    • C. 13.3
    • D. 22
  133. 128. All of the following about 'Red Cross' emblem aretrue, Except
    • A Size of bars in the cross is equal horizontally andvertically
    • B. Can be used by personnel of United NationsOrganization (UNO)
    • C. Misuse of emblem is punishable offence underIndian Law
    • D. Was convened in Geneva
  134. 129. Which of the following is not a Synthetic PyrethyroidCompound
    • A. DDT
    • B. Permethrin
    • C. Proparthrin
    • D. Cypermethrin
  135. 130. A 16 year old young girl presents with a history of fatigability weakness and lethargy. Complete Blood picture (CBC) reveals Haemoglobin of 7.0, MCV of 70, MCH of 20 pg/cell and Red cell Distribution Width (RDW) of 20. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Iron Deficiency Anemia
    • B. Thalassemia Minor
    • C. Thalassemia Major
    • D. Sickle cell trait
  136. 131. Which of the following is a major criteria for diagnosis of poycythemiavera
    • A. Presence of JAK-2 mutation
    • B. Low Erythropoetin levels
    • C. High Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP score)
    • D. Thrombocytosis
  137. 132. All of the following statements about Fanconi's anemia are true, Except.
    • A Autosomal dominant inheritance
    • B. Hypocellular Bone Marrow
    • C. Congenital Anomalies
    • D. Usualynormocylic/macrocytic cell morphology
  138. 133. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately to best confirm a non matched blood transfusion reaction
    • A. Indirect Coomb's test
    • B. Direct Coomb's test
    • C. Antibody in patient's serum
    • D. Antibody in donor serum
  139. 134. Bence Jones proteinuria may be seen in
    • A. Alpha heavy chain disease
    • B. Gamma heavy chain disease
    • C. Mul heavy obain disease
    • D. Epsilon heavy chain disease
  140. 135. Bence Jones proteins are derived from:
    • A. Alpha Globulins
    • B. Beta Globulins
    • C Gamma Globulins
    • D. Delia Globulins
  141. 136. All of the following statements about third Heart sound (S3) are true, except
    • A. Occurs due to rapid filling of the ventricles during atrial systole
    • B Seen in in Constrictive Pericarditis
    • C. Seen in Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
    • D Seen in Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
  142. 137. A young asymptomatic female is observed to have a Midsystolic Click on routine examination. Valves are likely to show
    • A. Myxomatous degeneration
    • B. Aschoff bodies
    • C. Calcific degeneration
    • D. Ruptured chordae tendinac
  143. 138. Beck's Triad is seen in:
    • A. Constrictive Pericarditis
    • B. Cardiac tamponade
    • C. Right ventricular Myocardial infarction (RVMI)
    • D. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
  144. 139. Accelerated IdioventricularRhyllum (AIVR) is the most common arrhythmia associated with:
    • A Dilated cardiomyopathy
    • B. Myocardial Reperfusion
    • C. Digitalis Intoxication
    • D. Myocarditis
  145. 140. Streptokinase and Urokinase arc contraindicated in
    • A Intracranial malignancy
    • B. Pulmonary Embolism
    • C AV fistula
    • D. Thrombophlebitis
  146. 141. A patient presents with following parameters pH 7.5, PCO, 30 mmHg, po, 102 mmHg and HCO, 16 meq/1. Which of the following correctly describes the compensatory mechanism:
    • A. Respiratory Alkalosis
    • B. Metabolic Alkalosis
    • C. Respiratory Acidosis
    • D. Metabolic Acidosis
  147. 142. A 29 year old anxious lady presents with a history of progressive breathlessness and exercise intolerance since four months. Her FVC is 90% and FEV1/FVC is 86%. Oxygen saturation after exercise was observed to drop from 92% to 86% What is the likely diagnosis
    • A. Primary alveolar hypoventilation
    • B. Primary pulmonary hypertension
    • C. Anxiety disorder
    • D Interstitial lung disease
  148. 143. A truck driver presented with history of fever since four weeks, and dry cough. He also gives a history of weight loss of about 10 kg. X-ray shows bilateral reticulonodular infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Tuberculosis
    • B. Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia
    • C. Pneumococcal pneumonia
    • D. Interstitial Lung Disease
  149. 144. Cavitatory lesions in lung are seen in:
    • A. Primary pulmonary Tuberculosis
    • B. Staphylococcal pneumonia
    • C. Preumoconiosis
    • D. Interstitial Lung disease
  150. 145. Which of the following statements about lung carcinoma is true
    • A. Squammous cell variant accounts for 70% of all lung cancers
    • B. Oat cell variant typically present with cavitation
    • C. Oat cell variant is typically associated with hilaradenopathy
    • D. Adenocarcinoma variant is typically central in location
  151. 146. Pre-Renal Azotemia is characterized by all of the following. Except
    • A Fractional Excretion of Na < 1%
    • B. Urinary osmolality> 500 mosm/kg
    • C. Urinary sodium concentration > 40 meq/
    • D. Reversible with replacement fluids
  152. 147. Plasma urea / crcatinine ratio of 20-1 may be seen in
    • A Rhabdomyolysis
    • B. Ureteric calculi
    • C Pre-renal failure
    • D. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
  153. 148. A lady presented with non progressive dysphagia only for solids, Barium study showed proximal csophageal dilatation with distal constriction. The most likely diagnosis is.
    • A Peptic Stricture
    • B Carcinoma Esophagus
    • C. Achalasia Cardia
    • D. Lower Esophageal Ring
  154. 149. A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in stool. There is no associated blood in stool and symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is.
    • A. Irritable bowel syndrome
    • B. Ulcerative Colitis
    • C. Crohn'sdiscasc
    • D. Amebiasis
  155. 150. An elderly patient presents with a prolonged history of weakness and lethargy. On examination he is found to be anemic and stool is positive for occult blood. Which of the following is the investigationchoice:
    • A. Colonoscopy
    • B Banum meal
    • C. Barium enema
    • D. CT abdomen
  156. 151. A patient is found to be positive for TIBs Ag on routine laboratory evaluation. Other serological tests for hepatitis are unremarkable. He is clinically asymptomatic and liver enzymes are within the normal range. Which of the following best describes his diagnosis:
    • A. Inactive HBV carrier
    • B. Acute Hepatitis B
    • C. Chronic Hepatitis B
    • D. Active HBV carrier
  157. 152. A male patient is observed to be HBs Ag antigen positive HBe Ag antigen negative and anti-HBc antibody positive. HBV DNA copies are observed to be 100.000/ml while SGOT and SGPT are clevated to 6 times the upper limit of normal value. What is the likely diagnosis:
    • A. HBV surface mutant
    • B. HBV precorcmutunt
    • C. Wild HBs Ag
    • D. Inactive HBV carrier
  158. 153. A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and presence of urobilinogen in urine. Which amongst the following is the least likely diagnosis:
    • A Hemolytic jaundice
    • B. CriglerNajjar syndrome
    • C. Gilbert's syndrome
    • D. Dubin Johnson syndrome
  159. 153(b) A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and elevated urobilinogen levels in urine. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A Hemolytic Jaundice
    • B. CriglerNajjar syndrome
    • C. Gilbert's syndrome
    • D. Dubin Johnson syndrome
  160. 154. Which of the following statements about Wilson's disease is true
    • A Low serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper
    • B. Low serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper
    • C. High serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper
    • D. High serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper
  161. 155. Gout is a disorder of:
    • A Purine Metabolism
    • B. Pyrimidine Metabolism
    • C. Ketone Metabolism
    • D Protein metabolism
  162. 156. All of the following statements about primary Gouty Arthritis are true, Except:
    • A. 90% of cases are caused by over production of uric acid
    • B. Uric acid levels may be normal at the time of an acute attack
    • C. Men are more comunonly affected than women (Male > Females)
    • D. Definitive diagnosis requires aspiration of synovial fluid
  163. 157. Antiphospholipid Antibody (APLA) syndrome is associated with all of the following except
    • A. Bleeding disorders
    • B. Thrombotic disorders
    • C. Coagulation disorders
    • D. Recurrent fetal loss
  164. 158. All of the following statements about Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (APLAb) are true, Except:
    • A. Single titre of Anticardiolipin is diagnostic
    • B. Commonly presents with recurrent fetal loss
    • C. May cause pulmonary hypertension
    • D. Warfarin is given as treatment
  165. 159. Which of the following is recommended in a woman with Antiphospholipid Antibodies and history of prior abortions / still birth.
    • A. Aspirin only
    • B. Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin
    • C. Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin + Prednisolone.
    • D. No Treatment
  166. 160. All of the following may be associated with Thymoma, Except
    • A. SIADH
    • B. Myaesthenia Gravis
    • C. Hypogammaglobulinomia
    • D. Cushing's syndrome
  167. 161. Plasmapharesis is used in all of the following except:
    • A. Myaesthenic crisis
    • B. Cholinergic crisis
    • C.GullianBarre syndrome
    • D. Polymyositis
  168. 162. Low calciun and high phosphate is seen in:
    • A. Hyperparathyroidism
    • B. Hypoparathyroidism
    • C. Hyperthyroidism
    • D. Hypothyroidism
  169. 163. All of the following statements about Pscudohypoparathyroidism are true, except
    • A. Scrum PTH B. Scrum calclum
    • C. 1 Serum Phosphate D. Albreight's Hereditary ostcodystrophy
  170. 164. A patient presents with symptoms of Hypoglycemia. Investigations reveal decreased blood glucose and increased Insulin levels. C-peptide assay is donewhich shows normal levels of C-peptide. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Insulinama
    • B. Accidental sulfonylurea ingestion
    • C. Accidental exogenous Insulin administration
    • D. Accidental Metformin ingestion
  171. 165. All of the following are associated with hypergonadotrophichypogonadism in males, Except
    • A. Viral orchitisB. Klinefelter's syndrome
    • C. Kallman's syndrome D. Noonan syndrome
  172. 165b. Which of the following is the most common cause of hypergonadotrophichypogonadism in males:
    • A. Viral OrchitisB. Klinefelter's syndrome
    • C. Kallman's Syndrome D. Noonan Syndrome
    • 166. Which of the following is associated with peripheral artery disease, coronary heart disease and stroke
    • A. Insulin Deficiency B. Hyperestrogenemia
    • C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperprogesteronemia
  173. 167. All of the following statements about hyponatremia are true, Except
    • A. Pseudohyponatremia is associated with low plasma osmolality
    • B. Hyponatremia associated with hyperglycemia has high plasma osmolality
    • C. Hyponatremia associated with SIADH is normovolemic
    • D. NSAIDs increase the potency of vasopressin
  174. 168. A patient presents with ataxia, urinary incontinence and dementia. The likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Alzheimer's Disease B. Parkinson's disease
    • C. Steel Richardson syndrome D. Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
  175. 169. A patient known to have mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation, presents with acule onset of weakness in the left upper limb which recovered completely in Iwo weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Transient Ischemic Attack B. Ischemic stroke
    • C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Vasculitis
  176. 170. A 25 year old person presents with acute onset of fever and focal seizures. MRI scan shows hyperintensity in the temporal lobe and frontal lobe with enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Meningococcal Meningitis
    • B. Herpes simplex Encephalitis
    • C. Japanese Encephalitis
    • D.
  177. 171. In a patient with head injury damage in the brain is aggravated by
    • A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypothermia
    • C. HypocapniaD. Serum osmolality
  178. 172. Which of the following represents the site of lesion in Motor Neuron disease
    • A. Anterior Horn cells B. Peripheral Nerve
    • C. Spinothalamic Tract D. Spinocerebellar tract
  179. 173. All of the following are true about GuillainBarre Syndrome (GBS), Except:
    • A. Ascending paralysis B. Flaccid paralysis
    • C. Sensory level D. Albumino-Cytological Dissociation
  180. 174. Kayser-Fleischer rings (KF rings) are seen in:
    • A.PlerygiumB.Hematochromatosis
    • c. Wilson's discascD. Menke's kinked hair syndrome
  181. 175. Lord's Plication is done for
    • A. Inguinal HerninB. Testicular cancer
    • C. Hydrocele D. Testicular yanices
  182. 176. Which of the following stones is hard to break by ES WL
    • A. Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate B. Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate
    • C. Uric acid D. Struvit
  183. 177. A 50 year old female is admitted with abdominal pa and anuria Radiological studies revealed bilateral impacted ureteric stones with hydronephrosis. Uring analysis showed RBCs with pus cells in urine. Seru creatinine level was 16 mg/dl and urea level was 20 mmol/l which of the following should be the immediate treatment
    • A. Hemodialysis B. 'J' stent drainage
    • C. Lithotripsy D. Ureteroscopic removal of stones
  184. 178. What complication should one expect when PCNL is done through 11"intercostals space?
    • A. Hydrothorax B. Hematuria
    • C. Damage to colon D. Ramnants fragments
  185. 179. Which of the following is the most common renal vascular anomaly
    • A. Supernumerary renal arteries
    • B. Supernumerary renal veins
    • C. Double Renal arterires
    • D. Double Renal veins
  186. 180. First autologous renal transplantation was done by
    • A. Hardy B. Kavosis
    • C. Higgins D. Studor
  187. 181. Most common site of urethral carcinoma in men is:
    • A. Bulbomembranous urethra B. Penile urethra
    • C. Prostatic urethra D. Fossa Navicularis
  188. 182. Surgery for undescended testis is best performed before what age
    • A. Just after birth B. 6 months of age
    • C. 12 months of age D. 24 months of age
  189. 183. The Grayhack shunt is established between
    A. Corpora cavernoso and corporospongiosaB. Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein C. Corpora cavemosa and dorsal vein D. Corpora cavernosa and glans
  190. 184. An adult presented with hemelemesis and upper abdominal pain Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach CT scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At Laparotomy neoplastic growth was observed to involve the posterior wall of stomach and the pancreas extending 6cm up to tail of pancreas, What will be the most appropriate surgical management
    • A. Closure of the abdomen
    • B. Antrectomy and vagotomy
    • C. Partial Gastrectomy + Distal pancreatectomy
    • D. Partial Gastrectomy+Distalpancreatectomy + splenectomy
  191. 185. All of the following about Gastrointestinal Carcinoid tumors are true, Except
    • A. Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid.
    • B. Rectum is spared
    • C. 5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is -60%
    • D. Appendicial carcinoids are more commin in females than males.
  192. 186. A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse. The surgery of choice is: A. Abdominal Rectopexy B. Delerome's procedure
    C. Anterior resection D. Goodsall's procedure
  193. 187. Treatment of choice for annular pancreas is:
    • A. Division of pancreas B. Duodenoduodenostomy
    • C. DuodenojejunostomyD. Roux-en-Y loop
  194. 188. A lady presented with recurrent attacks of giddiness and abdominal pain since three months. Endoscopy was normal. Her fasting blood glucose was 40 mg % and insulin levels were clevated. CT abdomen showed a well defined 8 mm enhancing lesion in the head of pancreas, with no other abnormal findings. What should be the treatment plan for this patient
    • A. Whipple's operation B. Enucleation
    • C. Enucleation with radiotherapy D. Administration of streptozotocin
  195. 189. According to the Bismuth / Strasberg classification "Cystic blow out' is classified as:
    • A. Type A B. Type B
    • C. Type C D. Type D
  196. 190. In orthotropic liver transplantation, which is the best way to get bile drainage in donor liver?
    • A. Donor bile duct with recipient bile duct or Roux en Y choledochojejunostomy
    • B. Donor bile duct with duodenum of recipient
    • C. Donor bile duct with jejunum of recipient
    • D. External drainage for few days followed by choledochojejunostomy
  197. 191. Most common cysts of the spleen are
    • A. Hydatid cyst B. Dermatoid cyst
    • C. PseudocystD. Lymphangioma
  198. 192. A patient presents with fever for 3 weeks. On examination he is observed to have Splenomegaly. Ultrasonography reveals a hypoechoic shadow in spleen near the hilum. Gram negative bacilli are isolated on blood culture. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism:
    • A. Cytomegalovirus B. Toxoplasmosis
    • C. Salmonella D. Lymphoma virus
  199. 193. A patient with ITP has a platelet count of 50,000 and is being planned for splenectomy. What is the best time for platelet infusion in this patient?
    • A. 2 hours before surgery B. At the time of skin incision
    • C. After ligating the splenic artery D. Immediately after removal of spleen
  200. 194. Most common cause of Abdominal aortic Aneurysm IS:
    • A. Atherosclerosis B. Trauma
    • C. Syphilis D. Vasculitis
  201. 195. All of the following are primarily restrictive operations for morbid obesity, Except
    • A. Vertical band gastroplastyB. Switch duodenal operation
    • C. Roux on Y operation D. Laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding
  202. 196. Trauma and Injury Severity Score (TRISS) includes
    • A. GCS + BP + RR B. RTS + ISS + Age
    • C. RTS + ISS + GCS D. RTS + GCS + BP
  203. 197. A 27 year old patient presented with left sided abdominal pain to the emergency room; 6 hours after an RTA. He was hemodynamically stable and FAST positive. Contrast Enhanced CT (CECT) scan showed grade III splenic laceration. What will be the most appropriate treatment
    • A. SplenectomyB. Splenorthaphy
    • C. Splenic Artery Embolization D. Conservative Management
  204. 197. (b) A 27 year old patient presented with left sided abdominal pain to the emergency room, 6 hours after an RTA. He is hemodynamically stable and FAST positive, A CECT (contrast enhanced CT) scan shows a contrast blush along with a grade III laceration. What will be the most appropriate management?
    • A.SplenectomyB. Splenorrhaphy
    • C. Splenic Artery Embolization D. Conservative management
    • 198. A lady presented in the emergency department with a stab injury to the left side of the abdomen. She was hemodynamically stable and a contrast enhanced CT scan revealed a laceration in spleen. Laparoscopy was planned however the patient's po, suddenly
    • dropped as soon as the pneumoperitoneum was created. What is the most likely cause:
    • A. Gaseous Embolism through splenic vessels
    • B. Injury to the len lobe of the diaphragm
    • C. Inferior vena cava compression
    • D. Injury to colon
  205. 199. Which of the following grading methods is used to evalunto the prognosis/outcome after subarachnoid hemorrhage
    • A. Glasgow Coma ScaloB. Hoss and Hunt Sculo
    • C. Glasgow --Blatchford Bleeding score D. Introcorebral Hemorrhage score
  206. 200. Health status of a child under 5 years of age will be udversely affected by all of the following, Except
    • A. Malnutrition B. Low birth weight
    • C. Maternal Hb of Ilgm% D. Infections
  207. 201. Anconate presented with fever, lothargy, abdominal distension, vomiting and constipation. Clinically he was diagnosed as volvulus nconatarum with suspected perforation Best investigation would be
    • A. Plain X-ray B. Barium enemu
    • C. Upper Gl endoscopy D. Burium meal follow through
  208. 202. A Ten year old boy presents to the pediatric emergency unit with seizures. Blood pressure in the upper extremity measured as 200/140 mm Hg Femoral pulses were not palpable. The most likely diagnosis amongst the following is:
    • A.TukuyasuAortoartritisB. Renal parenchymal disease
    • C. GrandmalsciuresD. Coarctation of Aorta
  209. 203. A seven year old asymptomatic girl is found to have persistant hypertension. There is no significant history and urine examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause
    • A. Essential Hypertension B. Renal Parenchymal Disease
    • C. Polycystic Kidney DiseaseD.Coarctation of Aoria
  210. 204. A child presented with intermittent episodes of len sided flank pain Ultrasonography reveals a large hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis and cortical thinning with a normal urcler. Kidney differential function was observed to be 19% which of the following is the best management;
    • A. Nephrectomy
    • B. Pyeloplasty
    • C. External Drainage
    • D. Endopylostomy
  211. 205. A Child presents with hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia. There is no improvement in blood sugar even after administration of cpinephrine. What is the likely diagnosis:
    • A. Von Girke's Disease B. Anderson's Disease
    • C. Pompe's Disease D. Mc Ardle's Disease
  212. 206. All of the following factors are associated with a substantially greater risk of developing epilepsy after febrile seizures, Except
    • A. Complex Febrile seizures B. Early age of onset
    • C. Developmental abnormalities D. Positive family History of Epilepsy
  213. 207. A child presents with short episodes of vacant stare several times a day. The vacani episode begins abruptly and the child remains unresponsive during the episode. There is no associated history of aura or postictal confusion and the child is otherwise normal The likely diagnosis is
    A Grandmal seizures B. Absence seizures C. Complex partial seizures D Day dreaming
  214. 208. Which of the following drugs is not used in Juvenilo Myoclonic Epilepsy (ME)
    • A.Topiramate B. Zonisamide
    • C.CarbamezapinoD. Valproate
  215. 209. A child presents to the clinic with history of seizures and mental retardation. Clinical examination reveals multiple hypopigmented macules. What is the likely diagnosis
    • A. Tuberous Sclerosis B. Neurofibromatosis
    • C. Sturge Weber Syndrome D. Linear epidermal nevus syndrome
  216. 210. Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children
    • A. Mumps B.Aibovirus
    • C. HSV D.Enterovirus
  217. 211. Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks,
    • A. MeningococciB. Pneumococci
    • C. Hemophilus influenza D. E. Coli
  218. 212. A two year old child with a long history of purulent nasal discharge & fever now presents with conjunctival congestion and edema. His fever is 102/103°F and WBC count 12.000. The culture of eye discharge was negative. X-rays show opacification of cthmoid.sinus. Which of the following should be the next step in cvaluating this patient
    • A. CT Scan B. Urine Culture
    • C. Blood culture D. Repeat culture of eye discharge
  219. 213. A boy presented with weakness in lower limbs, calf hypertrophy, positive Gower's sign and an elevated CPK value of 10,000. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy B. Spinal Muscular Atrophy
    • C.Myotoniacongenita D. Myotonic Dystrophy
  220. 214. Primary metabolic bone disorder in scurvy is. A. Decreased mincralization B. Decreased osteoid matrix fomnation C. Increased bone resorption D. Decreased bone mass with normal mineralization and osteoid formation
  221. 215. Which of the following methods for assessment of female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation A Basal Body Temperature (BBT) B. Fem Test C. Spinnbarkeit phenomenon D. Hormonal study
  222. 216. Primary Amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scant pubic hair is seen in A. Mayer RokitanskiKuster Hauser syndrome B Turner's syndrome C. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome D. Noonan syndroine
  223. 216b. Primary Amenorrhea with normal ovaries normal extemal genitalia and normal breasts is seen in
    • A. Mayer-Rokitanski-Kuster - Hauser Syndrome
    • B. Tumer's syndrome
    • C. Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
    • D. Noonan syndrome
  224. 217. Which of the following condition present with absence of both Mullerian and Wolffian duct Structures
    • AAntimullerian Hormone deficiency B. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
    • C. FSH Receptor defect D. Ovotesticular syndrome
  225. 218. A lady presented with secondary amenorrhea 6 months after having an abortion. Her FSH levels were measured as 6 mlU/ml what is the most probable diagnosis
    • A. Pituitary failure B. Ovarian failure
    • C. Fresh pregnancy D. Uterine synechiae
  226. 219. Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix
    A. HPV 16 B. HPV 18 C. HPV 33 D. HPV 35
  227. 220. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful for which of the following gynecological malignancies
    • A. Carcinoma Endometrium B. Carcinoma cervix
    • C. Carcinoma vulva D. Carcinoma vagina
  228. 221. A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next, best step in managements:
    • A. Hysterectomy B. Colposcopy and LEEP
    • C. Colposcopy and CryotherapyD. Conization
  229. 222. A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is:
    A. Triple Swab Test B. Urine culture C. Cystoscopy D. IVP
  230. 222. (b) A 52 year old lady with a vesicovaginal fistula after abdominal hysterectomy is not responding to conservative management Most useful important next investigation is:
    A. Triple Swab Test B. Urine culture C. Cystoscopy D. IVP
  231. 223. Which of the following statements about partial mole is false;
    • A. Usually associated with Triploidy
    • B. Rarely causes Persistant Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia
    • C. Usually present as Missed Abortions
    • D. Can be reliably diagnosed by USG in early gestation
  232. 224. Conversion of a complete hydatiform mole into choriocarcinoma is indicated by all, except:
    • A. Plateau HCG levels B. Enlarged Uterine size
    • C. Persistance of theca Lutein cysts D. Suburethral Nodule
  233. 224. (b) Conversion of a complete hydaliform mole into invasive mole is indicated by all of the following except:
    • A. Plateau HCG B. Enlarged Uterine size
    • C. Persistance of Theca lutein cysts D. Suburcthral nodule
  234. 225. All of the following are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, Except
    • A. Ovarian carcinoma B. Endometrial carcinoma
    • C. Insulin Resistance D. Osteoporosis
  235. 226. Which of the following is the most specific marker for Neural Tube Defects
    • A. ActylcholinesteraseB. Pscudocholinesterase
    • C. Alpha feto protein (AFP) D. Human chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
  236. 227. AFP is raised in
    A. TcralomaB. Yolk sac tumor C. ChoriocarcinomaD. Dysgerminoma
  237. 228. Increased Nuchal Translucency at 14 weeks gestation is seen in:
    • A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndronic
    • C. Hydrocephalus D. Skeletal Dysplasia B
  238. 229. Non Immune HydropsFetalis is caused by:
    A. CMV B. Parvovirus C. TSV D. HIV
  239. 230. Weight gain in pregnancy depends on all of the following factors, Except
    • A. Socioeconomic status B. Prepregnancy weight
    • C. Smoking D. Ethinicity
  240. 231. Which of the following statements about Multilepregnancies is true
    • A. Fetuses of same gender excludes dichorionicity
    • B. Twin Peak it is seen in dichorionicity
    • C. Thick separating membrane is a feature of monochorionic twins
    • D. Chorionicity can be reliably detected only after 16 weeks of gestation
  241. 232. Treatment of choice for Intrahepatio Cholestasis in Pregnancy is
    • A. Cholestyramine
    • B. Ursodiol (Ursodeoxychotic acid)
    • C. Corticosteroids (Doxamethasono)
    • D. Antihistaminicis
  242. 233. All of the following are cardia contraindications to propancy, Execpt
    • A. Eisenmenger'ssyndrome
    • B. Pulmonary Hypertension
    • C. Coarctation of Aorta
    • D. WPW syndrome
  243. 234. The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection pregnancy is
    A.Tetracycling B. Daryosoting C. ErythronteinD. Azithromycin
  244. 234 (b) The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infotion in pregnancy is
    A.Tetracyclino B. DoxycyclingC. Erythromycin D. Penicillin
  245. 235. Which of the following conditions is associated with polyhydramnios
    • A. Posterior Urethral Valves B. Cleft palate
    • C. Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia D. Bladder Exstrophy
  246. 236. A lady presented with features of threatened abortion 211 32 weeks of pregnancy, Which of the following statements with regard to antibiotic usage is not correct
    • A. Antibiotic Prophylaxis even with unruptured membranes
    • B. Metronidazole if asymptomatic but significant bacterial vaginosis
    • C. Antibiotics if asymptomatic but significant bacloromia
    • D. Antibiotics for Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes
  247. 237. A woman presents with lenkage of Nuid per vaginum and meconium stained liquor at 34 weeks of gestation. The most likely organism causing infection would be
    • A. Listeria monocytogenesB. Toxoplasmosis
    • C. CMVD. Herpes
  248. 238. Which of the following interventions is not recommended in active management of third stage of Labour
    • A. Administration of Uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
    • В. Immdiate Clamping, Cutting and Ligation of cord
    • C. Gentle massage of Uterus
    • D. Controlled Cord Traction
  249. 238. (b) Active Management of Third Stage of Labor includes all of the following, Except:
    • A. Oxytocin Injection B. Ergometrine Injection
    • C. Controlled cord traction D. Gentle Massage of Uterus
  250. 239. All of the following maneuvers are used in shoulder dystocia, except
    • A. Woods Corkscrew MancuverB.Mc Roberts Maneuver
    • C. Suprapubic Pressure D. Mauriceau - SmellieVeitMancuyer
  251. 240. All of the following interventions are recommended to prevent mother to child transmission of HIV, Except
    • A. Avoid Ergometrinc in third stage of labow
    • B. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART)
    • C. Elective Cacsaran section
    • D. IntrapartumZidovudinc
  252. 241. Endophthalmitis involves inflammation of all of the following, Except
    A. Sclera B. UvcaC. Retina D. Vitreous
  253. 242. A person with prolonged usage of contact lenses presented with irritation of left eye. After examination a diagnosis of keratitis was made and corneal scrapings revealed growth of pseudomonas acroginosa. The bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant Which of the following best explains the mechanism of antimicrobial resistance in these isolated pseudomonas acroginosa strains
    • A. Ability to transfer resistance genes from adjacent commensal flora
    • B. Improper contact lens hygiene
    • C. Frequent and injudicious use of topical antibiotics
    • D. Ability of Pseudomonas to produce biofilms
  254. 243. Which of the following is the least common corneal dystrophy
    • A. Macular Dystrophy B. Lattice type 1
    • C. Lattice type III D. GranuluCarneal Dystrophy
  255. 244. Which of the following statements regarding corneal transplantation is true
    • A. Whole eye needs to be preserved in tissue culture
    • B. Donor not accepted if age > 60 years
    • c. Specular microscopy analysis is used to assess endothelial cell count
    • D. HLA matching is mandatory
  256. 245. Cherry red spot is seen in all except
    • A. Niemann Pick Disease
    • B. GMI Gangliosidosis
    • C. TaySach's disease
    • D. Gaucher's disease
  257. 246. Relative Afferent Pupillary defect (RAPD) is characteristically seen in damage to
    • A. Optic nerve B. Optic Tract
    • C. Lateral geniculate body D. Occulomotor Nerve
  258. 247. A patient with plosis presents with retraction of the plotic eye lid on chewing This represents
    • A. Marcus Gunn Jaw Winking Syndrome
    • B. Third nerve misdirection syndrome
    • C. Abducent palsy
    • D. Occulomotor palsy
  259. 248. A patient with known mulation in the 'Rbgenc' is 'disense free from Retinoblastoma, The patient is at highest risk of developing which of the following malignancies
    • A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Osteosarcoma
    • C. PinealoblastomaD. Chondrosarcoma
  260. 249. Arden Index is related to
    • A. ERG (Electroretinogram) B. EOG (Electrooculogram)
    • C. VER (Visual Evoked response) D. Perimetry
  261. 250. All of the following statements about sodium in otosclerosis are true, Except
    • A. Acts by inhibiting proteolytic enzymes in cochlea
    • B. Acts by inhibiting osteoblastic activity
    • C. Is contraindicated in chronic nephritis
    • D. Is indicated in patients with a positive Schwartze sign
  262. 251. Vestibular Schwannom arises most frequently from:
    • A. Superior Vestibular Nerve B. Inferior Vestibular Nerve
    • C. Cochlear Nerve D. Facial Nerve
  263. 252. Otoacousticcroissions arise from
    • A. Inner hair cells B.Outer hair cells
    • C. Organ of cortiD. Both outer and inner hair cells
  264. 253. All of the following statements about Nasopharyngeal carcinoma arc true, Except
    • A. Bimodal age distribution
    • B. Nasopharyngectomy with Radical Neck dissection is the treatment of choice
    • C. IgA antibody to EBV is observed
    • D.Squammous cell carcinoma is the most common histological subtype
  265. 254. All of the following statements about CSF Ieak are true, Except
    • A. Most common site of CSF leak is fovea ethmoidalis
    • B. Betais transferring estimation is highly specific for diagnosis of
    • C.Fluorescin Dye can be used intratheclly for diagnosis of site of leak
    • D. MRI (Gladilonium chanced) T1 images are best for diagnosis of site of Ieak
  266. 255. All of the following are Extrinsic Laryogeal Membranes/Ligaments, Except
    A. Hyocpiglottic B. CricothyroidC. CricotrachealD. Thyrohyoid
  267. 256. Which of the following structures is not seen on bronchoscopy
    • A. Trachea B. Vocal cords
    • C. Subcarinal lymph nodes D. First segmental division of bronchi
  268. 257. A child presents with stridor, barking cough and difficulty in breathing since 2-3 days. He has fever and elevated leukocyte count. All of the following statements about his condition are true. Except
    • A. Subglottis stenosis and hypopharyngeal dilatation may be seen on X-rays
    • B. Boys are more commonly affected than girls
    • C. Symptoms are predominantly caused by involvement of the subglottis
    • D. Antibiotics form the mainstay of treatment
  269. 258. Drug of choice in Laryngeal stenosis is:
    A. Cyclophosphamide B. Doxorubicin C. Adriamycin D. Mitomycin C
  270. 259. Which of the following Lasers is most commonly used in Laryngeal surgery
    A. CO, laser B. Nd YAG laser C. Argon laser D. KTP laser
  271. 260. Lift off test is done to assess the function of
    A. Supraspinatus B. InfraspinatusC.Teres Minor D. Subscapularis
  272. 261. Which of the following statements about 'Menisci is not true
    • A. Medial meniscus is more mobile than lateral
    • B.Latcral meniscus covers more tibial articular surface than lateral
    • c. Medial meniscus is more commonly injured than lateral
    • D. Menisci are predominantly made up of Type 1 Collagen
  273. 262. Median nerve lesion at the wrisi causes all of the following, Except:
    • A. Thenar Atrophy
    • B. Weakness of Adductor Pollicis
    • C. Weakness of 1 and 2 Lumbricals
    • D. Weakness of Flexor PollicisBrevis
  274. 263. Which of the following statements about changes in articular cartilage with aging is not true
    • A. Total proteoglycan content is decreased
    • B. Synthesis of proteoglycans is decreased
    • C. Enzymatic degradation of proteoglycans is increased
    • D. Total water content of cartilago is decreased
  275. 264. Metal on Metal articulation should be avoided in
    • A.OstconccrosisB. Young female
    • C. Inflammatory arthritis D. Revision surgery
  276. 265. A patient developed breathlessness and chest pain, on second postoperative day after a total hip replacement. Echo-cardiography showed right ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation. What is the most likely diagnosis:
    • A. Acute MI B. Pulmonary embolism
    • C. Hypotensive shock D. Cardiac tamponade
  277. 266. The characteristic triad of Klippel - Feil syndrome includes all of the following. Except
    • A. Short neck B. Low hair line
    • C. Limited neck movements D. Elevated scapula
  278. 267. Progression of congenital scoliosis is least likely in which of the following vertebra anomalies
    • A. Fully segmented HemivertebraB. Wedge vertebra
    • C. Block vertebra D. Unilateral unsegmented bar with Hemivertebra
  279. 268. A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, sensory level up to the upper border of sternum and a respiratory rate of 35/minute.The likely level of lesion is:
    A. CI-C2 B. C4-CS C. TI-T2 D. T3-T4
  280. 269. All of the following statements about synovial cell sarcoma, are true, Except
    • A. Originate from synovial lining
    • B. Occur more often al extra articular sites
    • C. Usually seen in patients less than 50 years of age
    • D. Knee and foot are common sites involved
  281. 270. Hyperglycemia is associated with
    • A. Multiple Myeloma B. Ewing's sarcoma
    • C. Osteosarcoma D. Chondrosarcoma
  282. 271. Brown Tumor is seen in
    • A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism
    • C. HypoparathyroidismD. Hyperparathyroidism SKIN
  283. 272. A young lady presents with white lacy lesions in oral cavity and her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed. What is the likely diagnosis
    • A. Psoriasis B. Geographic tongue
    • C. Lichen planusD. Candidiasis
  284. 273. An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. The probable diagnosis is
    A. Candidiasis B. HistoplasmosisC. Lichen PlanusD.Aspergillosis
  285. 274. A 17 year old girl with Acne has been taking a drug for the last two years. She now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails. The likely medication causing the above pigmentation is
    A. TetracyclincB.MinocyclingC. Doxycycline D. Azithromycin
  286. 275. Treatment of crythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is:
    A. Corticosteroids B. RetinoidsC. MethotrexalcD. Psoralen with PUVA
  287. 276. Which of the following stains is used to study fungal morphology in tissue sections
    A. PAS B. Von- kossaC. Alizarin Red D. Masson's Trichrome
  288. 277. A patient with bilirubin value of 8mg/dl and serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dl is planned for surgery. What is the muscle relaxant of choice in this patient
    A.VecuroniumB.PancuroniumC.AtracuriumD. Rocuronium
  289. 278. All of the following statements about neuromuscular blockage produced by succinylcholine are true, Except
    • A. No fade on Train four B. Fade on tclanic stimulation
    • C. No post tetanic facilitation D. Train of four ratio > 0.4
  290. 279. A 25 year old overweight female was given fentanyl- pancuronium anesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was conscious and alert butvoluntary respiratory tot was lima te bled pressure and heart rate were normal the likes diagnosis
    • A. Incomplete reversal of neuronium
    • B. Pulmonary embolism
    • C. Fentanyl Induced chest wall rigidity
    • D. Respiratory depression
  291. 280. A 27 year old female was brought to emergency department for acute abdominal pain following which she was shifted to the operation theatre for Laparotomy. A speedy intubation was perfomed but after the intubation, breath sounds were observed to be decreased on the left side and a high end tidal CO2 was recorded. The likely diagnosis is
    • A. Endotracheal tube blockage B. Bronchospasm
    • C. Esophageal intubation D. Endobronchial intubation
  292. 281. Walls of the CT scanner room are coated with
    A. Lead B. Glass C. Tungsten D. Iron
  293. 282. The major difference between X-Rays and Light is:
    A. Energy B. MassC. Speed D. Type of wave
  294. 283. Which of the following is the most ionizing radiation
    A. Alpha B. Beta C. X Rays D. Gamma
  295. 284. Which of the following statements best describes 'Background Radiation
    • A. Radiation in the background of nuclear reactors
    • B. Radiation in the background during radiological investigations
    • C. Radiation present constantly from natural sources
    • D. Radiation from nuclear fall out
  296. 285. Which of the following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ in the radiation field
    A. Absorbed dose B. Equivalent dose C. Effective dose D. Exposure dose
  297. 286. Which of the following statements about 'Stochastic eflects' of radiation is true
    • A. Severity of effect is a function of dose
    • B. Probability of effect is a function of dose
    • C. It has a threshold
    • D. Erytheme and cataract are common examples
  298. 287. Egg on Side Appearance is seen in
    • A. Tricuspid Atresia
    • B. Tetralogy of fallot
    • C. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)
    • D. Transposition of grcal arteries
  299. 288. All of the following statements about CT scan features of adrenal adenoma are true, Except
    • A. Calcification is Rare
    • B. Low Attenuation
    • C. Early enhancement with slow wash out of contrast
    • D. Regular margins
  300. 289. A patient presents with acute renal failure and anuria The USG is normal. Which of the following investigation will give best information regarding renal function.
    • A. Intravenous PyelogramB. Retrograde Pyelography
    • C. Ante grade Pyelography D. DTPA scan
  301. 290. A dense renogram is obtained by
    • A. Dehydrating the patient B. Increasing the dose of contrast media
    • C. Rapid (Bolus) injection of dye D. Using non ionic media
  302. 291. Autistic disorder is characterized by all of the following. Except
    • A. Visual impairment B. Lack of Social Interaction
    • C. Delayed development of Speech D. Stereotypic movements
  303. 292. Which of the following is not a cognitive error/dysfunction:
    • A. Catastrophic thinking B. Arbitrary inference
    • C. Overgeneralization D. Thought block
  304. 293. All of the following are done in behavior therapy to increase a behavior except:
    • A. Punishment B. Operant conditioning
    • C. Negative reinforcement D. Reward
  305. 294. All of the following are parts of cognitive behavior change technique except:
    • A. Pre-contemplation B. Consolidation
    • C. Action D. Contemplation
  306. 295. A 60 year man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he started forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis?
    • A. Depression B. Post traumatic psychosis
    • C. Cognitive dysfunction D. Alzheimer's disease
  307. 296. Alcoholic Paranoia is associated with:
    • A. Fixed delusions В. Hallucinations
    • C. Drowsiness D. Impulse Agitation
  308. 297. A 60 year male is brought by his wife. He thinks that he had committed sins all through his life. He is very much depressed and has considered committing suicide but has not through hot do go about it. He had also attached sessions with a spiritual guru. He is not convinced by his wife that he has lead a pious life. He does not want to hear anything on the contrary. How will you treat him?
    • A. Antipsychotic + Antidepressant
    • B. Antidepressant with cognitive behavioural therapy
    • C. Guidance &recounselling with guru + Anti depressant
    • D. Antidepressant alone
  309. 298. A 30 year old man since 2 months suspects that his wife is having an affair with his boss. He thinks his friend is also involved from abroad and is providing technology support. He thinks people talk ill about him. His friends tried to convince him but he is not convinced at all. Otherwise he is normal, he doesn't have any thought disorder or any other inappropriate behavior. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Paranoid Personality disorder B. Persistent delusion disorder
    • C. Schizophrenia D. Acute and Transient psychosis
  310. 299. A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is no complaint of hopelessness, suicidal thoughts and there is no past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of life. She is doing her office job normally and her social life is also normal. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?
    • A. GAD B. Mixed anxiety depression
    • C. Adjustment disorder D. Mild depressive episode
  311. 300. A patient presents to the emergency department with self harm and indicates suicidal intent. Which of the following conditions does not warrant an immediate specialist assessment A. Formal thought disorder
    • B. Acute Alcohol intoxication
    • C. Chronic Severe physical illness
    • D. Social isolation
Author
adarsha
ID
356017
Card Set
Mudit 2010
Description
mudit 2010
Updated