-
1. All of the following muscles are composite muscles except:
- a. Pectineus
- b. Rectus femoris
- c. Adductor magnus
- d. Biceps femoris
-
2. All of the following are Digastric muscles except:
- a. Muscle fibers in the ligament of treitz
- b. Omohyoid
- c. Occipitofrontalis
- d. Sternocleidomastoid
-
3. In the lings bronchial arteries supply the bronchopulmonary tree:
- a. Till tertiary bronchi
- b. Till segmental bronchi
- c. Till respiratory bronchioles
- d. Till alveolar sacs
-
4. The skin overlying the region where a venous “cut down” is made to access the great saphenous vein is supplied by:
- a. Femoral nerve
- b. Sural nerve
- c. Tibial nerve
- d. Superficial peroneal nerve
-
5. Which of the following is the correct order of pathway for a sperm :
- a. Straight tubules- Rete testis –Efferent tubules
- b. Rete tubules- efferent tubules – straight tubules
- c. Efferent –tubule rete testis-straight tubules
- d. Straight tubule-efferent tubules-rete tubules
-
6. Which of the following veins is found in relation to the paraduodenal fossa:
- a. Inferior mesenteric vein
- b. Middle colic vein
- c. Left colic vein
- d. Splenic vein
- 7. The artery to the ductus dererens is branch of :
- a. Inferior epigastric artery
- b. Superior epigastric artery
- c. Superior vesical artery
- d. Cremasteric artery
-
8. Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following except:
- a. Superior petrosal sinus
- b. Inferior petrosal sinus
- c. Superficial middle cerebral vein
- d. Deep middle cerebral vein
-
9. All of the following statements about diploic veins are true except:
- a. Develop around 8th wks of gestation
- b. These have no valves (valveless)
- c. Present in cranial bones
- d. Have a thin wall lined by a single layer of endothelium
-
10. Which of the following bones do not contribute to the nasal septum?
- a. Sphenoid
- b. Lacrimal
- c. Palatine
- d. Ethmoid
-
11. All of the following cranial nerves contain somatic efferents, except :
- a. VII nerve (facial nerve)
- b. III nerve (occulomotor nerve )
- c. IV nerve (trochlear nerve )
- d. VI nerve (abducent nerve )
-
12. Facial colliculus is seen in:
- a. Midbrain
- b. Pons
- c. Medulla
- d. Interpenduncular foosa
-
13. Which is the nucleus of masseteric Reflex ?
- a. Superior sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve
- b. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
- c. Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve
- d. Dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve
-
14. Which of this part of vertebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards?
- a. Cervical
- b. Thoracic
- c. Sacral
- d. Coccyx
-
15. The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid because:
- a. Binding of one oxygen molecule increases the affinity of binding other O2 molecules
- b. Binding of one oxygen molecule decreases the affinity of binding other O2 molecules
- c. Oxygen affinity of Hemoglobin decreases when the PH of blood falls
- d. Binding of oxygen to Hemoglobin reduces the affinity of Hb for CO2
-
16. An increase in the concentration of 2-3 Biphosphoglycerate (2, 3 DPG) may be seen in all of the following except:
- a. Anemia
- b. Hypoxia
- c. Inosine
- d. Hypoxanthine
-
17. Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to following changes in blood:
- a. PCO2
- b. PCO2
- c. H+
- d. PO2
-
18. During diastole the arterial pressure is maintained of central chemoreceptors is:
- a. Elastic Recoil of aorta
- b. Musculature of capillaries
- c. Constriction of capillaries
- d. Contraction of left ventricle
-
19. Which of the following statements about vasomotor centre(VMC) is true:
- a. Independent of corticohypothalamic inputs
- b. Influenced by baroceptor signals but not by chemoreceptors
- c. Acts along with the cardiovagal cenre (CVC ) to maintain blood pressure
- d. Essentially silent in sleep
-
20. Which of the following statements about myocardial oxygen demand is true:
- a. Correlates with heart rate
- b. Is directly proportional to external cardiac work
- c. Is negligible when heart is at rest
- d. Depends upon duration of systole
-
21. Cyanosis does not occur in severe anemia because :
- a. Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production
- b. Oxygen carrying capacity of available Hb is increased
- c. Critical concentration of Hb required to produce cyanosis is reduced
- d. Oxygen hemoglobin curve shift to the right
-
22. Which of the following is not involved in intrinsic pathway?
- a. Factor XII
- b. Factor XI
- c. Factor IX
- d. Factor VII
-
22b. which of the following helps in bridging the fibrin in a clot and stabilizes the clot?
- a. Factor XIII
- b. Factor V
- c. Factor VIII
- d. Factor III
-
23. When a person changes position from standing to lying down, following change is seen :
- a. Heart rate increases
- b. Venous return to heart increases immediately
- c. Cerebral blood flow increases
- d. Blood flow at apices of lung decrease
-
24. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is:
- a. Raised blood pressure
- b. Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
- c. Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
- d. Increased Heart rate
-
25. All of the following statements about Renal physiology are true, except:
- a. Distal tubule always receives hyposmotic solution
- b. The kidneys receive 5% of the cardiac output
- c. GFR is controlled by resistance in afferent and efferent arterioles
- d. The Glomerulus receives capillaries from the afferent arteriole
-
26. Angiotensin II causes all of the following, except:
- a. Stimulation of Thirst
- b. Increased ADH secretion
- c. Vasodilatation
- d. Aldosterone secretion
-
27. Intrinsic factor of castle is secreted by which of the following cells in gastric glands:
- a. Chief cells
- b. Parietal cells
- c. Enterochromaffin cells
- d. B cells
-
28. Sertoli cells play a key role in which of the following process :
- a. Spermiogenensis
- b. Testosterone secretion
- c. Secretion of seminal fluid
- d. Production of germ cells
-
29. Action potential is initiated at the Axon Hillock-initial segment of the neuron because:
- a. Threshold for Excitation is lowest
- b. Neurotransmitter is released is lowest
- c. It is an unmyelinated segment
- d. Has lowest concentration of voltage gated sodium channels
-
30. Which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP ?
- A. Glycolysis
- B. TCA Cycle
- C. Fatty Acid Oxidation
- D. HMP Pathway
-
31. In which of the following tissues, is glycogen incapable of contributing directly to blood glucose?
- A. Liver
- B. Muscle
- C. Both
- D. None
-
32. Phosphorylase b is maintained in an inactivated state
- A. ATP
- B. c AMP
- C. Calcium
- D. Insulin
-
33. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
- A. Proteases
- B. Proteosomes
- C. Templates
- D. Chaperones
-
34. Proteins are sorted by
- A. Golgi Bodies
- B. Mitochondria
- C. Ribosomes
- D. Nuclear Membrane
-
35. All of the following are trypsin inhibitors, Except:
- A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin
- B. Alpha-1 - antiproteinase
- C. Enterokinase
- D. Egg-white
-
36. All of the following statements about apoproteins are true Except
- A. Apoprotein A-I activates LCAT
- B. Apoprotein C-I activates lipoprotein lipase
- C. Apoprotein C-II inhibits lipoprotein lipase
- D. Apoprotein C- II activates lipoprotein lipase
-
37. Which of the following types of hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an increase in chylomicron and VLDL remnants?
- A. TypeI
- B. Type lla
- C. Type III
- D. Type IV
-
38. Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of
- A. ds DNA
- B. ss DNA
- C. m RNA
- D. tRNA
-
39. Which of the following is a Water Soluble Vitamin?
- A. Folic Acid
- B. Vitamin A
- C. Vitamin K
- D. Linolenic Acid
-
40. Which Vitamin is required for carboxylation of clotting factors?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Vitamin E
- D. Vitamin K
-
41. Which of the following is considered the active form
- of calcium
- A. Ionised Calcium
- B. Albumin bound Calcium
- C. Phosphate bound Calcium
- D. Protein bound Calcium
-
42. Neutral molecules are transported by
- A. Porin channels
- B. Ionophores
- C. Simple Diffusion
- D. None of the above
-
43. Regarding HMP shunt all of the following are true except
- A. Occurs in the cytosol
- B. No ATP is produced in the cycle
- C. It is active in Adipose tissue, Liver and Gonads.
- D. The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the Non oxidative phase generates pyruvate.
-
44. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways?
- A. Hypoxia Stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2,3 DPG
- B. Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
- C. Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane
- D. Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH
-
45. Dinitrophenol causes
- A. Inhibition of ATP synthase
- B. Inhibition of electron transport
- C. Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation
- D. Accumulation of ATP
-
46. Regarding synthesis of triacyl glycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following are true except:
- A. Synthesis from Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
- B. Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important role
- C. Enzyme Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase plays an important role
- D. Phosphatidate is hydrolyzed
-
47. Most charachteristic feature of acute inflammation is
- A. Vasoconstriction
- B. Vascular stasis
- C. Vasodilatation and Increased vascular permeability
- D. Margination of Leucocytes
-
48. Most effective bactericidal system within phagocytes is
- A. Lysozyme mediated
- B. Lactoferrin mediated
- C. Reactive oxygen metabolite mediated
- D. Cationic basic protein mediated
-
49. Which of the following organelles plays a pivotal role in Apoptosis
- A. Mitochondria
- B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
- C. Nucleus
- D. Golgi Apparatus
-
50. Coagulative necrosis is commonly seen in:
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Fungal Infections
- C. Sarcoidosis
- D. Wet gangrene
-
51. Primary Structural defect of an organ is termed
- A. Malformation
- B. Disruption
- C. Deformation
- D. Association
-
52. All of the following are associated with increased Aging, Except
- A. Increased cross linkages in collagen
- B. Increased superoxide dismutase
- C. Increased accumulation of free radicals
- D. Accumulated Mutations in somatic cells
-
53. A 45 year old male had severe chest pain and was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute Myocardial Infarction. Four days later he died and autopsy showed Transmural coagulative necrosis Which of the following microscopic features will be seen on further examination
- A. Fibroblasts and collagen
- B. Granulation tissue
- C. Neutrophilic infiltration surrounding coagulative necrosis
- D. Granulomatous inflammation.
-
54. The Finnish type of congenital nephrotic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations the following protein:
- A. Podocin
- B. Alpha actinin
- C. Nephrin
- D. CD2 activated protein
-
55. Which of the following conditions are associated with pauci - immune crescenteric glomerulonephritis?
- A. Henoch-Schonlein Nephritis
- B. Lupus Nephritis (SLE)
- C. Microscopic polyangitis
- D. Nephritis in Alport's syndrome
-
56. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC are all of the following except
- A. Polycythemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Cushing syndrome
-
57. Commonest histoloical finding in Benign Hypertension is
- A. Proliferative endarteritis
- B. Necrotizing arteriolitis
- C. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
- D. Cystic Medial Necrosis
-
58. Which of the following is most resistant to
- A. Spore
- B. Prion
- C. Cyst
- D. Fungus
-
59. Which of the following statements about gram positive cocci is False
- A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes UTI in females
- B. Micrococci are oxidase positive
- C. Most Enterococci are sensitive to penicillin
- D. Pneumococci are capsulated
-
60. Which component of Strep. Pyogenes has cross reactivity to Synovium of Humans tissues?
- A. Capsular Hyaluronic Acid
- B. Cell wall protein
- C. Group A carbohydrate Antigen
- D. Peptidoglycan
-
61. Which of the following statement regarding Enteroccoccus facecium is False
- A. Common species are E. faecalis and E. faecium
- B. It is a cause for peritonitis
- C. It is universally susceptible to penicillin
- D. It is a cause for intra abdominal abscess
-
62. All the following statements about V. cholera 0139 are true Except:
- A. Clinical manifestations are similar 01 Eltor strain
- B. First discovered in Chennai
- C. Epidemiologically indistinguishable from 01 Eltor strain
- D. Produces O1 Lipo polysacchar
-
63 (a). All of the following statements about Pneumocystis Jiroveci are true Except
- A. Usually associated with CMV infection
- B. May be associated with Pneumatocele
- C. Usually diagnosed by sputum examination
- D. Causes disease only in the immunocompromised host
-
63 (b) True Statement about Pneumocystic Jiroveci is
- A. Often associated with CMV infection
- B. Usually diagnosed by sputum examination
- C. Infection occurs only in immunocompromised patients
- D. Always associated with Pneumatocele
-
64. Which of the following statements about Prions is
- A. They are infectious proteins
- B. They are made up of bacteria and virus
- C. They have rich nuclear material
- D.They can be cultured in cell free media
-
65.' H5 NI'may be best described as a:
- A. Bird flu virus
- B. Vaccine for HIV
- C. Agent for Japanese encephalitis
- D. New strain of plasmodium falciparum
-
66. All of the following are known to cause biliary obstruction, Except
- A. Clonorchis
- B. Ascaris
- C. Ankylostoma
- D. Fasciola
-
67. An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, Sputum culture showed growth on Charcol Yeast Extract Medium. The organism is
- A. H. influenza
- B. Moraxella cartarrhalis
- C. Legionella
- D. Burkholderia cepacia
-
68. Brucella is transmitted by all expect:
- A. Through the placenta of animals
- B. Aerosol transmission
- C. Person to person
- D. Eating uncooked food
-
69. Botulinum affects all except:
- A. Neuromuscular junction
- B. Preganglionic junction
- C. Post ganglionic nerves
- D. CNS
-
70. A person working in an abattoir presented with a
- papule on hand, which turned into an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis?
- A. Trichrome Methylene Blue
- B. Carbol Fuschin
- C. Acid Fast Stain
- D. Calcoflour White
-
71. With reference to bacteriodes fragilis, the following statements are true except
- A. Bacteriodes fragilis is a frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
- B. Bacteriodes fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
- C. The LPS formed by Bacteriodes fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
- D. Shock and DIC are common in bacteriodes bacterimia
-
72. Which of the following statement is not true regardin Chlamydia Trachomatis:
- A. Elementary body is metabolically active
- B. It is biphasic
- C. Reticulate body divides by binary fission
- D. Inside the cell it evades phagolysome
-
73. All statements are true for Chylamydia psittacosis except:
- A. Acquired from bird's dropings
- B. Causes urethreitis
- C. Causes pneumonia
- D. Treatment is tetracycline
-
74. Rabies is identified by
- A. Guarneri bodies
- B. Negri bodies
- C. Cowdry A bodies
- D. Cowdry B bodies
-
75. Use of Tamoxifen for Breast cancer can cause all of the following adverse effects, Except.
- A. Thromboembolism
- B. Endometrial carcinoma
- C. Carcinoma in contralateral breast
- D. Cataract
-
76. Effects of estrogen are all of the following, Except
- A. Reduces HDL
- B. Reduces LDL
- C. Increases Triglycerides
- D ---
-
76. Adverse effects of valproic acid derivatives include the following, Except
- A. Alopecia
- B. Liver Failure
- C. Weight gain
- D. Osteomalacia
-
77. Adverse effects of valporic acid derivatives include the following except
- A. Hypotension and Bradycardia
- B. Methamoglobinemia
- C. Hypotension and Tachycardia
- D. Vasodilatation
-
78. Nitroglycerine causes all except
- A. Hypotension and Bradycardia
- B. Methemoglobinemia
- C. Hypotension and Tachycardia
- D. Vasodilatation
-
79 (a) Which of the following cephalosporins does notneed dose modifications even in presence of raise levels of GFR
- A. Cefipime
- B. Cefoperazone
- C. Cefotaxim
- D. Cefuroxime
-
79(b). Which of the following antimicrobial agents do not
- require reduction in dose in patients with renal failure
- A. Rifampicin
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Vancomycin
- D. Imipenem
-
80(a). All of the following drugs can precipitate Tacrolimus toxicity, Except:
- A. Gentamycin
- B. Cisplatin
- C. Vancomycin
- D. Rifampicn
-
80(b). All of the following are side effects of tacrolimus except
- A. Nephrotoxicity
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Neurotoxicity
- D. Hepatotoxicity
-
81. Which of the following drugs will not precipitate folate deficiency
- A. Alcohol
- B. Chloroquine
- C. Sulfasalazine
- D. Phenytoin
-
82. Ifosfamide is an:
- A. Alkylating Agent
- B. Antimetabolite
- C. Folate antagonist
- D. Plant Alkaloid
-
83. Which of the following anticancer drugs in cell cycle phase specific
- A. Ifosfamide
- B. Bleomycin
- C. Cisplatin
- D. Chlorambucil
-
84. Bleomycin toxicity is characterized by Hyperplasia of
- A. Endothelial cells
- B. Type I Pneumocytes
- C. Type II Pneumocytes
- D. Alveolar macrophages
-
85. Hand Foot' syndrome can be caused by?
- A. Cisplatin
- B. Capecitabine
- C. Vincristine
- D. Azathioprine
-
86. Which of the following drugs is not used in Acute Angle closure Glaucoma
- A. Pilocarpine
- B. Clozapine
- C. Fluphenazine
- D. Duloxetine
-
87. Treatment of choice for severe falciparum malaria is
- A. Chloroquine
- B. Intravenous artesunate
- C. Intravenous quinine
- D. Intravenous quinidine
-
88. All of the following antiepileptic agents act via Sodium channel except
- A. Vigabatrin
- B. Phenytoin
- C. Valproate
- D. Lamotrigne
-
89. Nestritide is a:
- A. Brain natriuretic peptide analogue
- B. Endothelin R antagonist
- C. Gp IIb / IIIa antagonist
- D. TNF alpha antagonist
-
90. Prothombin Time (PT) of a patient is 26, Control PT is 13 seconds and Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient:
- A. 26/13
- B. (26/13) x 1.41
- C. (26/13) 141
- D. (26/13) 1141
-
91. Which of the following is a prodrug?
- A. Ticlopidine
- B. Aspirin
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Dipyridamole
-
92. All of the following statements about Heparin are true except
- A. Causes Alopecia
- B. Non Teratogenic
- C. Releases Lipoprotein Lipase
- D. Causes Hypokalemia.
-
93. All of the following are Gpllb/lIIa antagoniist except
- A. Abciximab
- B. Clopidogrel
- C. Tirofiban
- D. Epitifibatide
-
94. The following drug is not useful for MRSA.
- A. Cefaclor
- B. Cotrimoxazole
- C. Ciprofloxacin
- D. Vancomycin
-
95. Orange coloured urine is due to:
- A. Rifampicin
- B. INH
- c. Pyrazinamide
- D. Ethambutol
-
96. Nevirapine belongs to the following group
- A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibior (NNRTI)
- B. Protease inhibitor
- C. Fusion inhibitor
- D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
-
97. The following drug has maximum propensity to cause peripheral neuropathy
- A. Didanosine
- B. Zidovudine
- C. Stavudine
- D. Lamivudine
-
98. All are true about immunosuppressants except?
- A. Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway
- B. Steroids binds to cytosolic receptors and heat shock proteins
- C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenase
- D. Sirolimus will block kinase in the IL 2 receptor pathway
-
99.Which of the following is not an alkylating agent?
- A. Cyclophosphamide
- B. 5-FU
- C. Busulfan
- D. Chlorambucil
-
100. The following drug acts by hypomethylation
- A. Gemcitabine
- B. Capecitabin
- C. Decitabine
- D. Cytosine arabinoside
-
101. Drug causing hypercoagulability is:
- A. L asparginase
- B. Busulfan
- C. Melphalan
- D. 5-FU
-
102. Methotrexate is used in high doses in:
- A. Osteosarcoma
- B. Retinoblastoma
- C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
- D. Ewing's sarcoma
-
103. Filgrastim is used in treatment of:
- A. Anemia
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Malaria
- D. Filarial
-
104. Which of the following is not a cause of death due to suffocation
- A. Choking
- B. Gagging
- C. Smothering
- D. Throttling
-
105. Fracture of Hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage along with extensive bruising of neck muscles suggests a diagnosis of
- A. Manual strangulation
- B. Ligature strangulation
- C. Hanging
- D. Choking
-
106. Which of the following test is done for detecting vaginal cells from the accused in a case of rape?
- A. Lugol's iodine
- B. Phenolphthalein
- C. Toludine blue
- D. Methylene blue
-
107. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of induction of labor with use of abortion stick:
- A. Stimulation of uterine contraction
- B. Oxytocin present in the stick
- C. Uterine necrosis
- D. Menstrual bleeding
-
108. False Negative Hydrostatic test in a live born foetus may be seen in:
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Artificial Respiratiorn
- C. Emphysema
- D. Putrefaction
-
109. Corporobasal index is useful for determination of
- A. Race
- B. Age
- C. Stature
- D. Sex
-
110. Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of
- A. Primordial prevention
- B. Health promotion
- C. Specific protection
- D. Disability limitation
-
111. Which of the following is not a criteria suggest causality in non communicable diseases?
- A. Strength of association
- B. Dose response relationship
- C. Specificity of association
- D. Lack of temporal association
-
112. All of the following studies are 'analytical', Except:
- A. Field trials
- B. Case control studies
- C. Cohort studies
- D. Ecological studies
-
113. Incidence rates can be calculated by
- A. Case control study
- B. Cohort study
- C. Cross sectional study
- D. Cross over study
-
114. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of disease
- A. Immigration of healthy persons
- B. Increased cure rate of disease
- C. Longer duration of disease
- D. Increased death rate in disease
-
115. The most suitable method for presenting frequency distribution of data gathered from continuous variables is:
- A. Histogram
- B. Bar graph
- C. Line diagram
- D. Pictogram
-
116. Which of the following statements about Standard Distribution curve is true:
- A. Mean = 2 Median
- B. Mean = Median
- C. Median = Variance
- D. Standard Deviation = 2 Variance
-
117. Which of the following statements about "Simple Random sampling' is true
- A. Every element in the population has an equal probability of being included
- B. Sampling is based on similar characteristics
- C. Suitable for large heterogeneous population
- D. Complete list of items within the sampling frame is not required
-
118. On a given day a hospital had 50 admissions. 20 girls out of which 10 needed surgery and out of 30 boys that were admitted 20 needed surgeries. What is the probability of picking up a person requiring surgery?
-
119. Which of the following statements about Late Expanding Phase of Demographic Cycle
- A. Birth Rate is lower than Death Rate
- B. Death Rate begins to decline while Birth Rate remains unchanged
- C. Death Rate declines more than Birth rate
- D. High Death Rate and High Birth Rate
-
120. Regarding crude birth rate all are true except
- A. Unaffected by age-distribution
- B. Indicator of fertility
- C. Excludes the still births
- D. Better measure of fertility than the general fertility rate
-
121. Cut off weight' for Indian reference man (k) is
-
122. The guidelines according to Baby friendly hospital initiative includes all of the following except
- A. Mothers and infant to be together for 24 hrs a day
- B. Mothers to initiate breast- feeding in 4 hrs of normal delivery
- C. Giving newborn infants no food or drink other than breast milk
- D. Encouraging breast feeding on demand
-
123. The latest WHO protocol for classification and measurement of disability is:
- A. ICIDH
- B. ICF
- C. WHO DAS
- D. DALY
-
124. STEPS' is recommended by WHO as a method for
- A. Surveillance of risk factors for communicable diseases
- B. Surveillance of risk factors for non communicable diseases
- C. Surveillance of mortality from communicable diseases
- D. Surveillance of mortality from non communicable diseases
-
125. Components of IDEAS include all of the following. Except
- A. Self care
- B. Communication and Understanding
- C. Economic condition
- D. Performing in work
-
126. Integrated Management of Childhood IIness (IMCI) initiative was taken to prevent morbidity an
- from all of the following except
- A. Malaria
- B. Malnutrition
- C. Otitis Media
- D. Neonatal tetanus
-
127. Chemoprophylaxis an be done for the following except
- A. Meningitis
- B. Typhoid
- c. Cholera
- D. Diphtheria
-
128. Which of the following is not part of targeted intervention preventive strategy in spread of AIDS?
- A. Providing ART (Antiretroviral therapy)
- B. Treating Sexually Transmitted Disease
- C. Providing condoms
- D. Behavioural channge communciation
-
129. All of the following are true about Aedes mosquito
- Except
- A. Are Recurrent Day time biters
- B.Eggs can not survive more than one week without water
- C. Transmits Dengue fever
- D. Breed in stagnant water
-
130. Q Fever is transmitted by
- A. Ticks
- B. Mites
- C. Louse
- D. Flea
-
131. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:
- A. Infected DPT vaccine
- B. Infected Polio vaccine
- C. Infected measles vaccine
- D. Infected BCG vaccine
-
132. Which of the following exposure carries the maximum risk of transmission of HIV?
- A. Sexual Intercourse
- B. Blood Transfusion
- C. Trans- placental
- D. Needle prick
-
133. All of the following statements about purification of water are true, Except?
- A. Presence of clostridium spores indicates recent contamination
- B. Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
- C. Level of Residual chlorine should be 0.5 mg/L
- D. Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method and indole production
-
134. (a) During program planning which of the following terms most appropriately defines the desired end result that is rationally measurable
- A. Objective
- B. Target
- C. Goal
- D. Mission
-
134. (b) During Health Planning, assessment of final outcome of a predetermined objective is term
- A. Evaluation
- B. Monitoring
- C. Input Output Analysis
- D. Network Analysis
-
135. A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea played any role in prevention of common cold. Data was collected on the number of people who developed cold and those who did not develop cold and this data was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed
- Herbal tea or not
- Herbal tea
- Consumed Not consumed
- Had cold
- Did not have a cold
- 12
- 34
- 23
- 38
- The analytical test of choice to test this study is:
- A. Student -t test (unpaired)
- B. Student- t test (paired)
- C. Chi square test
- D. Z' test
-
136. You have diagnosed a Patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know
- A. Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
- B. Incidence of SLE and the predictive value of each test
- C. Incidence and prevalence of SLE
- D. Relative risk of SLE in the patient
-
137. A Patient presents with macroglossia and loss of tongue papilla. His Hb is 11.5 and MCV is 100. What should be the next step in investigating this patient?
- A. B12 estimation
- B. Brush biopsy of the lesion
- C. Fluconazole treatment
- D. Incision biopsy
-
138. Megaloblastic anemia should be treated with both folic acid vitamin B12 because:
- A. Folic acid alone causes improvement of hematologic symptoms but worsening of neurological symptoms
- B. It is a Co factor
- C. It is enzyme
- D. None of the above
-
139. What will be the most appropriate investigation for a 40 year female presenting with anemia, jaundice and spherocytosis
- A. Osmotic fragility
- B. Coomb's Test
- C. Electrophoresis
- D. RBC Enzyme Analysis
-
140. Hemolysis in G6PD may be caused by all Expect:
- A. Primaquine
- B. Chloroquine
- C. Pyrimethamine
- D. Quinine
-
141. Ring sideroblasts are characteristically seen in:
- A. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
- B. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)
- C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
- D. Anemia of chronic disease
-
142. Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in all Except
- A. Megaloblastic anemia
- B. Myelodysplasia
- C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
- D. G6PD deficiency
-
143. Which of the following is Cold agglutinin
- A. IgG antibody
- B. IgM antibody
- C. Donath landsteiner antibody
- D. IgA antibody
-
144. A patient with Renal cell carcinoma is on treatmentwith Erythropoctin. Erythropoetin use may be associated with all of the following Except
- A. Decreased reticulocytes
- B. Increased hemtocrit
- C. Increased hemoglobin
- D. Eliminates need for transfusion
-
145. Most common blood transfusion reaction is:
- A. Febrile non hemolytic reaction
- B. Hemolysis
- C. Malarial transmission
- D. Hypothermia
-
146. Poor prognosis in AML is indicated by:
- A. Inversion 16
- B. Translocation 15/17 (tl5; 17)
- C. Normal cytogenecity
- D. Monosomy 7
-
147. DIC is seen in which type of AML?
-
148. All- Trans- Retinoic Acid is used in the treatment for
- A. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (PML)
- B. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)
- C. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CMI
- D. Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL)
-
149. Drug of choice for chronic myeloid Leukemia(
- A. Hydroxyurea
- B. Imatinib
- C. Infliximab
- D. IFN
-
150. Torsades des pointes may be caused by which one of the following drugs:
- A. Quinidine
- B. Digoxirn
- C. Phenytoin
- D. Chlorthiazide
-
151. Drug of choice for Supraventricular tachycardia is
- A. Verapamil
- B. Diltiazem
- C. Digoxin
- D. Phenytoin
-
152. A young athlete died of sudden cardiac arrest after atheletic activity. Postmortem finding revealed interventricular septal hypertrophy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)
- B. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
- C. Aortic Stenosis (AS)
- D. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
-
153. Diffuse esophageal spasm is best diagnosed by
- A. Endoscopy
- B. Manaometry
- C. Barium swallow
- D. CT
-
154. A 30 year old female patient presents with non progressive dysphagia, for both solids and liquids. The charachteristic finding on baruim swallow that confirm the probable diagnosis is:
- A. Dilated esophagus with narrow lower end (Rat tail esophagus)
- B. Muliple saculations and pseudodivericalis
- C. Multiple sacculations and pseudodiverticulae (Corkscrew esophagus)
- D. Narrow and irregular esophageal lumen Stricture ulcer in the esophagus
-
155. A young male was found to be HBsAg positvity and HBe Ag negative. His liver enzymes were normal. The next step in management of this young male should be:
- A. Lamivudine therapy
- B. Lamivudine plus IFN therapy
- C. Start IFN therapy
- D. Serial monitoring
-
156. Acut pyelonephritis and uncomplicated UTI may be differentiated by all of the following Except
- A. WBC cast
- B. Concentrating defect
- C. Organisms in excess of 100.000 cfu/ml
- D. Antibody to Tomm Horsfall protein
-
157. Which of the following best methods of urine collection is associated with least contamination?
- A. Suprapubic aspiration
- B. Mid stream collection
- B. Urine Bag specimen
-
158. Coloured urine is not seen in
- A. Quinine
- B. Rifampcin
- C. Nitrofurantoin
- D. Pyridium
-
159. MEN I syndrome is most commonly associated with
- A. Gastrinoma
- B. Insulinoma
- C. Glucucagonoma
- D. Somatistatinoma
-
160. Cushing's disease is associated with
- A. Increased ACTH and increased cortisol
- B. Increased urinary Catecholamines
- C. Increased ADH
- D. Decreased ACTH and increased cortisol levels
-
161. Conn's syndrome is most commonly associated with
- A. Cortical adenoma
- B. Cortical hyperplasia
- C. Cortical carcinoma
- D. Pheochromocytoma
-
162. Causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is:
- A. Mycoplasma
- B. Mycobacaterium avium
- C. Yersinia
- D. Herpes virus
-
163. Anti Phospholipid Syndrome (APS) is associated with all of the following Except:
- A. Pancytopenia
- B. Recurrent abortions
- C. Venous thrombosis
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
-
164. All of the following statements about hereditary hemochromatosis are true except
- A. Arthropathy involving small joints of hands may be seen
- B. Skin pigmentation is a frequent presentation
- C. Desferroxamine is the treatment of choice
- D. Hypogonadism may be seen
-
165. A 24 year old male presents with abdominal p rashes, palpable purpura and, arthritis. The most probable diagnosis is
- A. Henoch Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
- B. Sweet syndrome
- C. Meningococcemia
- D. Hemochromatosis
-
166. Thymoma is associated with
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Hypergammaglobulinemia
- C. SLE
- D. Multiple sclerosis
-
167. Crohn's disease may be caused by which one of the following infectious agents:
- A. Clostridium difficle
- B. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
- C. Cytomegalo virus (CMV)
- D. Mycoplasma
-
168. A 25 year old male presents with a history of chronic diarrhea. Pathological examination reveals cryptitis and crypt abscesses. The likely diagnosis is
- A. Crohn's disease
- B. Ulcerative colitis
- C. Giardiasis
- D. Microscipic colitis
-
169. Histopathological findings in Whipple's disease include all of the following Except:
- A. Marked increase in the number of macrophages i the mucosa
- B. Marked increase in the number of intraepethelial lymphocytes
- C. Dilatation of Lymphatics in the mucosa
- D. Lipid deposition in the mucosa
-
170. Dying back neuropathy is seen in all except
- A. Diabetic Neutropathy
- B. Arsenic neuropathy
- C. Porphyria
- D. Gullian Bare syndrome (GBS)
-
171. Which of the following agent is least likely to cause Meningitis in the elderly
- A. Listeria Monocytogenes
- B. Streptococcus pneumonia
- C. Gram Negative bacteria
- D. Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV 2)
-
172. Pick's body in pick's disease is
- A. Tau protein
- B. Alpha synuclein
- C. Beta synuclein
- D. A ß amyloid
-
173. Biondi Ring Tangles (BRT) are found in:
- A. Choroidal plexus cells
- B. Golgi type II cells
- C. Basket cells
- D. Piamatter
-
174. Which of the following is not a feature of extramedullary tumour
- A. Early Corticospinal signs and paralysis
- B. Root pain or midine Back -pain
- C. Abnormal CSF
- D. Sacral sparing
-
175. Clinical features of Conus Medullaris syndrome include all of the following Except
- A. Plantar Extenson
- B. Absent knee & ankle jerks
- C. Sacral anesthesia
- D. Lower sacral & coccygeal involvement
-
176. All of the following statements about Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI) are true Except:
- A. Caused by shearing force
- B. Predominant white matter haemorrhages, in basal ganglion and corpus callosum
- C. Increased Intracranial tension is seen in all cases
- D. Most common at junction of grey and white matter
-
177. Which of the following is not seen in Chronic Regional Pain Syndrome?
- A. Anhydrosis
- B. Pain
- C. Swelling
- D. Osteoporosis
-
178. Treatment of severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is
- A. MDT only
- B. MDT + steroid
- C. Wait and watch
- D. MDT + thalidomide
-
179. A man with blunt injury abdomen after road side accident has a blood pressure of 100/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120 bpm. Airway has been established and respiration has been stabilized. Next best step in management is
- A. Immediate Blood Transfusion
- B. Blood for cross matching & IV fluids
- C. Ventilate the patient
- D. Rush the patient to the OT
-
180. All of the following statements about Necrotizing fascitis are true, except
- A. Infection of fascia and subcutaneous tissue
- B. Most commonly caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
- C. Most common site is perineum followed by trunk and extremities
- D. Surgical debridement is Mandatory
-
181. All of the following statements about Lymphoepethelioma of the parotid gland are Except
- A. Parotid gland is the most common site of lymphoepethelioma in the Head & Neck region
- B. It is associated with EBV infection
- C. It is highly radiosensitive
- D. It is a type of squammous cell carcinoma
-
182. Triple Assessment for CA Breast includes
- A. History, Clinical examination and mammogram
- B. History, Clinical examination and FNAC
- C. USG, Mammogram and FNAC
- D. Clinical Examination, Mammogram and FNAC
-
183. Moderately increased risk of invasive Breast carcinoma is associated with which of the following benign lesions of the breast:
- A. Sclerosing Adenosis
- B. Atypical lobular hyperplasia
- C. Apocrine metaplasia
- D. Squammous metaplasia
-
184. Which of the following would be the best treatment for a 2cm thyroid nodule in a 50 year old man with FNAC revealing it to be a papillary carcinoma
- A. Hemithyroidectomy
- B. Subtotal thyroidectomy with modified neck dissection
- C. Near total thyroidectomy with modified neck dissection
- D. Hemithyroidectomy with modified neck dissection
-
185. Thoracic outlet syndrome is primarily diagnosed by
- A. Clinical Evaluation
- B. CT scan
- C. MRI
- D. Angiography
-
186. Popliteal Artery Pulsations are difficult to feel becaue
- A. It is not superficial
- B. It does not cross prominent bone
- C. It is not superficial and does not cross prominent
- D. Its pulsations are weak
-
187. A well differentiated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best differentiated from a follicular adenoma
- A. Hurthle cell change
- B. Lining of tall columnar and cuboidal cells
- C. Vascular invasion
- D. Nuclear features
-
188. Intermittent Claudication is defined as
- A. Pain in muscle at rest only
- B. Pain in muscle on first step
- C. Pain in muscle on exercise only
- D. Pain in muscle on last step
-
189. A patient with critical lower limb ischemia presents with
- A. Intermittent Claudication
- B. Intermittent Claudication and gangrene
- C. Rest pain and Ischemic ulcers
- D. Intermittent claudication and ischemic ulcers
-
190(a). Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of
- A. Intermittent claudication
- Distal ischemia affecting the skin of the toes
- C. Arteriovenous Fistula
- D. Back pain
-
190(b). Sympathectomy is indicated in all following conditions except:
- A. Ischemic ulcers
- B. Intermittent claudication
- C. Anhidrosis
- D. Acrocyanosis
-
191. Pseudoclaudication is caused by
- A. Femoral Artery stenosis
- B. Popliteal Artery stenosis
- C. Lumbar canal stenosis
- D. Radial Artery stenosis
-
192. Best Material for below inguinal arterial graft is
- A. Saphenous vein graft (upside- down)
- B. PTFE
- C. Dacron
- D. Teflon
-
193. Commonest part of subclavian artery to be affected by stenosis iS:
- A. First part
- B. Second part
- C. Third part
- D. Equally affected
-
194. The most common site of rupture of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm is
- A. Laterally into the Left Retroperitoneum
- B. Laterally into the Right Retroperitoneum
- C. Posteriorly into the Posterior Retroperitoneum
- D.Anteriorly into the Peritoneum (Intraperitonial)
-
195. The most common cause for superficial Thrombophlebitis is
- A. Intravenous catheters / infusion
- B. DVT
- C. Varicose veins
- D. Trauma
-
196. In Complete mullerian duct aplasia all of the following are likely to be absent Except
- A. Ovaries
- B. Fallopian tubes
- C. Uterus
- D. Vagina
-
197. The first sign of puberty in girls is:
- A. Breast budding
- B. Growth spurt (Peak height velocity)
- C. Menarche
- D. Pubic and axillary hair growth
-
198. Which of the following statements about Calendar method (Rhythm method) is false
- A. Abstinence is needed for only a few days in a month
- B. It is associated with no costs
- C. Safe period can also be observed using temperature rhythm or mucous method
- D. Ectopic pregnancy is a reported complication of Calendar method
-
199. Least failure in sterilization occurs with
- A. Falope ring
- B. Bipolar cautery
- C. Unipolar cautery
- D. Hulka clip
-
200. Which of the following procedures is associated with maximum chance of re-canalization during surgery for reversal of tubal ligation
- A. Isthumo- isthmic anastomosis
- B. Isthumo- ampullary anastomosis
- C. Ampullo-ampullary anastomosis
- D. Cornual obstruction
-
201. Which of the following modalities have shown best result for Pre Menstrual Syndrome?
- A. SSRI
- B. Progesterone
- C. Oestrogen
- D. Anxiolyties
-
202. A woman presents with a fluctuant non tender swelling at the introitus. The best treatment is
- A. Marsupialisation
- B. Incision and drainage
- C. Surgical resection
- D. Aspiration
-
203. Salpingitis /Endosalpingitis is best confirmed by:
- A. Hysteroscopy+ Laparoscopy
- B. X-ray
- C. Hysterosalpingography
- D. Sonosalpingography
-
204. All of the following statements about Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome are true Except
- A. Patients have an XY genotype
- B. Pubic hair are abundant
- C. Short vagina may be present
- D. Ovaries are absent
-
205. Virus associated with cancer cervix is
- A. HPV
- B, HIV
- C. EBV
- D. HTLV
-
206. Which of the following statements about squamous cell carcinoma of cervix is False
- A. Common at squamocolumnar junction
- B. CT sean is mandatory for staging
- C. Post coitai bleeding is a commoni symptonm
- D. HPV 16 and 18 are associated with high risk of carcinogenesis
-
207. What is the ideal treatment for a 55 yr female with Simple Hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia?
- A. Simple hysterectomy
- B. Medroxy progesterone Acetate (MPA)
- C. Levonorgesterol (LNG)
- D. IUCD
-
208. Which of the following conditions is not diagnosed by Chorionic Villous Biopsy
- A. Neural tube defects
- B. Down's syndrome
- C. Phenylketonuria
- D. Sickle cell anemia
-
209. Which of the following is not correct regarding Doppler studies of the umbilical circulation?
- A. Changes in flow velocity waveforms of the umbilical artery may be important in clinical management of high -risk pregnancies
- B. Normal pregnancy shows a characteristic decrease in the Systolic / Diastolic (S/D) ratio with advancing gestational age
- C. Maternal smoking leads to an increase in S/D ratio
- D. Absence of end diastolic flow is normal at term
-
210. All of the following are known causes of recurrent abortion Except
- A. TORCH infections
- B. SLE
- C. Rh incompatibility
- D. Syphilis
-
211. Which of the following interventions is not recommended in active management of III" stage of labour?
- A. Administration of Uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
- B. Immediate clamping cutting and ligation of cord
- C. General massage of uterus.
- D. Controlled cord traction
-
212. Induction at term is indicated in all of the following except
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diabetes Mellitus
- C. Heart disease
- D. Renal disease
-
213. Which of the following is not a contraindication of vaginal delivery ater previous cesarean section?
- A. Previous Classical C/S
- B. No Vaginal delivery in the past
- C. Breech presentation
- D. Puerperial infection in previous pregnancy
-
214. Risk factors for Placenta Accreta include all of the following Except
- A. Previous LSCS scar
- B. Previous curettage
- C. Previous myomectomy
- D. Previous placenta praevia
-
215. All of the following agents are are tocolytics Except
- A. Ritodrine
- B. Salbutamol
- C. Isoxsuprine
- D. Misoprostol
-
216. Which of the following drugs is not useful in management of Postpartum Hemorrhage(PPH)?
- A. Mifepristone
- B. Misoprostol
- C. Oxytocin
- D. Ergotamine
-
217. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for severe preeclampsia?
- A. Labetalol
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Alpha-methyldopa
- D. Nifedipine
-
218. Which of the following dietary supplements is recommended for a pregnant lady on Heparin
- A. Folic acid
- B. Calcium
- C. Zinc
- D. Copper
-
219. Which of the following statements about breast infections during lactation is most correct
- A. Are caused by bacteria from infant's gastrointestinal tract
- B. The drug of choice for treatment is Amoxicilln
- C. The most common etiological organism is E. Coli
- D. Can lead to abscess formation for which I and D may be required
-
220. Which of the following congenital infection is associated with minimal teratogenic risk to the fetus?
- A. HIV
- B. Rubella
- C. Varicella
- D. CMV
-
221. Common fetal response to acute hypoxia is
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Ventricular Arrhythmia
-
222. Most Sensitive indicator of depletion of intravascular volume in infants is:
- A. Cardiac output
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Heart Rate
- D. Blood pressure
-
223. Which of the following intrauterine infections are associated with Limb reduction defects and scarring of skin
- A. Varicella virus
- B. Herpes virus
- C. Rubella
- D. Parvovirus
-
24 Which of the following agents is likely to cause cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has history of taking spiramycin but was not compliant with therapy?
- A. Rubella
- B. Toxoplasmosis
- C. CMV
- D. Herpes
-
225. Which of the following vaccines has maximum efficacy after a single dose
- A. Tetanus Toxoid
- B. DPT
- C. Measles
- D. Typhoid
-
226. All of the following nutritional assessment methods indicate inadequate nutrition, Except
- A. Hb < 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy
- B. Increased 1-4 year mortality rate
- C. Birth weight 2500 gm
- D. Decreased weight for height
-
227. A child with Acute myeloid Leukemia presents with Hyperleukocytosis. Treatment includes all of the following, Except:
- A. IV fluids
- B. Allopurinol
- C. Alkalinization
- D. Immediately start induction chemotherapy
-
228. Prophylaxsis of a neonate born to a HBsAg positive mother should include
- A. Vaccine
- B. Immunoglobulins
- C. Both Vaccine amdImmunoglobulin
- D. No Active treatment required
-
29. All of the following are true about Childhood Polycystic Kidney Disease, Except.
- A. Autosomal Dominant
- B. Pulmonary Hypoplasia may be seen
- C. Renal cysts are present at birth
- D. Congenital Hepatic fibrosis may be seen
-
230. A 7 year old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body. Urinary examination reveals Grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of Hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is true
- A. No IgG deposits or C3 deposition on Renal biopsy
- B. Her C3 levels will be low
- C. IgA Nephropathy is the likely diagnosis
- D. Alport's syndrome is the likely diagnosis
-
231. A five year old boy presents with Precocious Puberty and a Blood Pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. Estimation of which of the following will help in diagnosis
- A. Increase 17 Hydroxy progesterone
- B. Increase Cortisol
- C. Increase Aldosterone
- D. Increase 11 Deoxycortisol
-
232. Which of the following is not a feature of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
- A. Rheumatoid Nodules
- B. Spikes of high fever
- C. Uveitis
- D. Raynaud's phenomenon
-
233. Which of the following statements about neuroblastoma is not true
- A. Most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood
- B. > 50% present with metastasis at time of diagnosis
- C. Lung metastasis are common
- D. Often encase aorta and its branches at time of diagnosis
-
234. Which of the following is a marker for neural tube
- defects
- A. Increase Phosphatidylesterase
- B. Increasese Pseudocholinesterase
- C. Increase Acetylcholinesterase
- D. Increase Butyrylcholinesterase
-
235. The leukotriene receptor antagonist used in bronchial asthma is:
- A. Zafirleukast
- B. Zileuton
- C. Ketotifen
- D. Omalizumab
-
236. A child with three days history of upper respiratory tract infection presents with stridor, which decreases on lying down position. What is the most probable diagnosis
- A. Acute Epiglottitis
- B. Laryngotracheobronchitis
- C. Foreign body Aspiration
- D. Retropharyngeal Abscess
-
237. A newborn has congenital heart failure, which is not improving on treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelles with a bruit on auscultation. On trans fontanelle USG a hypoechoeic midline mass is seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis
- A. Vein of Galen malformation
- B. Arachnoid cyst
- C. Medulloblastoma
- D. Encephalocele
-
238. Most common organism causing meningitis in a 1 year old child,
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. H. influenza
- C. Listeria
- D. Neisseria meningitidis
-
239. Jitteriness can be distinguished from seizures by all of the following except
- A. Sensitivity to stimulus
- B. Frequency of movement
- C. Abnormality of Gaze
- D. Autonomic disturbance
-
240. A child has Microcephaly, Blue eyes, Fair skin, and Mental retardation, Ferric chloride test is positive What isthe likely diagnosis?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Homocystinuria
- C. Tyrosinosis
- D. Alkaptonuria
-
241. Darkening of urine on standing is associated with:
- A. Alkaptonuria
- B. Cystinuria
- C. Fabry's disease
- D. Tyrosinemia
-
242. Premature baby of 34 wks was delivered. Baby developed bullous lesion on the skin and X- ray shows periostitis. What should be the next investigation?
- A. VDRL for mother & baby
- B. ELISA for HIV
- C. PCR for TB
- D. Hepatitis surface antigen for mother
-
243. All of the following conditions have Autosomal Dominant Inheritance except:
- A. Fabry disease
- B. Marfan's syndrome
- C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
- D. Ehlers Danlos Syndrome
-
244. A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examinatjon the child has a line on gums. There is history of constipation. Which will be most approprnate drug that should be used in this child?
- A. EDTA
- B. DMSA
- C. BAL
- D. Pencillamine
-
245. Cat eye syndrome is
- A. Partial trisomy 18
- B. Partial trisomy 13
- C. Partial trisomy 21
- D. Partial trisomy 22
-
246. In an Autosomal Recessive (AR) disorder is normal and the other is carrier and the child is also affected. What is the reason?
- A. Germ line mosaicism
- B. Genomic imprinting
- C. Penetration
- D. Uniparental disomy
-
247. Pedigree analysis- Analyze the following pedigres and give the mode of inheritance
- A. Autosomal recessive
- B. Autosomal dominant
- C. Mitochondrial inheritance
- D. X linked dominant
-
248. A new born presents with bilateral microtia and external auditory canal atresia. Corrective surgery is usually performed at:
- A. < 1year of age
- B. 5-7 years of age
- C. Puberty
- D. Adulthood
-
249. In Cochlear implants electrodes are most commonly placed at:
- A. Oval window
- B. Round window
- C. Horizontal semicircular canal
- D. Cochlea
-
250. A 70 year old male presents with loss of sensation in external auditory meatus (Histelberg's sign positive). The likely diagnosis is
- A. Vestibular schwannoma
- B Mastoiditis
- C. Bells palsy
- D. Middle car cholesteatoma
-
251. A 70 vear old male presents with hearing loss and tinnitus. On examination he was observed to have a condcutive type of deafness and a dull tympanic membrane on the right side. Lymph nodal enlargement of 3x3 cm was noted in the posterior traingle of neck. Tympanogram revealed a type B wave. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Middle ear tumor
- B. Nasopharyngeal malignancy
- C. Acoustic neuroma
- D. T.B of middle ear
-
252. What is the type of joints between the ossicles of ear?
- A. Fibrous joints
- B. Primary cartilaginous
- C. Secondary cartilaginous joints
- D. Synovial joints
-
253. All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Allergic Fungal Sinusitis (AFS) Except:
- A. Areas of High Attenuation on CT scan
- B. Orbital invasion
- C. Allergic Eosinophilic mucin
- D. Type I Hypersensitivity
-
254. A 30 year old female with history of singing, vocal abuse and gastrooesophageal reflux developed nodules at junction of anterior 1/3"d & middle 3rd of her vocal cords. What is treatment of choice?
- A. Speech therapy and Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)
- B. Microlaryngascopic surgery & CO2 laser
- C. Microlaryngectomy
- D. Direct laryngoscopy and biopsy
-
255. All of the following statements about synovial fluid are true, Except
- A Secreted primarily by type A synovial cells
- B. Follows Non- Newtonian Fluid Kinetics
- C. Contains Hyaluronic acid
- D. Viscosity is variable
-
256. In a patient with gouty arthritis, synovial fluid aspiration will show
- A. Monosodium Urate crystals
- B. Calcium Pyrophosphate crystals
- C. Mononuclear Leucocytosis
- D. Polymorphonuclear Leukocytosis
-
257. Which of the following is not recommended in the treatment of Chronic Low Back Pain
- A. NSAIDs
- B. Bed Rest for 3 months
- C. Exercises
- D. Epidural steroid Injection
-
258. Recurrent dislocations are least commonly seen in
- A. Ankle
- B. Hip
- C. Shoulder
- D. Patella
-
259. The primary pathology in Athletic Pubalgia is
- A. Abdominal muscle strain
- B. Rectus femoris strair
- C. Gluteus medius strain
- D. Hamstring strain
-
260. Most common cause of death after Total Hip Replacement is
- A. Infection
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Anemia
- D. Thromboembolism
-
261. All of the following statements about High Tibial Osteotomy are true, Except
- A. Magnitude of correction achieved is greater than 30°
- B. Indicated in Unicompartmental osteoarthritis
- C. Performed through concellous bone
- D. Recurrence is a long term complication
-
262. Myodesis is employed in amputations for all of the following indications except:
- A. Trauma
- B. Tumor
- C. Children
- D. Ischemia
-
263. All the following nerves are involved in entrapment neuropathy except:
- A. Femoral nerve
- B. Median nerve
- C. Ulnar nerve
- D. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
-
264. Muscle most commonly affected by congenital absence i:s
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Semi membranosus
- C. Teres minor
- D. Gluteus maximus
-
265. T-10 Protocol' for treatment of osteosarcoma includes all of the following, Except
- A. High Dose Methotrexate
- B. Bleomycin, Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin (BCD)
- C. Vincristine
- D. Etoposide
-
266. Milkman's fracture is a type of
- A. Pseudofracture
- B. Clavicular fracture
- C. Humeral fracture
- D. Metacarpal fracture
-
267. Which of the following is a marker of new bonc formation
- A. Alkaline phosphatase
- B. Acid phosphatase
- C. Hydroxy proline
- D. Telopeptides
-
268. A patient presents with heterotopic ossification around the knee joint. The laboratory investigation of choice in him is
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum Alkaline Phosphatase
- C. Serum phosphorus
- D. Serum Acid phosphatase
-
69. Which of these muscles undergoes wasting first in osteoarthritis knee?
- A. Quadriceps only
- B. Hamstrings only
- C. Both quadriceps and Hamstrings
- D. Gastronemius
-
270. The WHO definition of low vision children:
- A. Visual acuity 6/60 to 3/60 in better eye with best correction
- B. Visual acuity 3/60 to 6/18 in better eye with best correction
- C. Visual acuity 6/18 to 6/60 in better eye with best correction
- D. Visual acuity <3/60 in better eye with best available correction
-
271. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India
- A. Cataract
- B. Refractive error
- C. Conjuctivitis
- D. Trachoma
-
272. The major function of Major Intrinsic Protein 26 (MIP-26) is:
- A. Glucose transport in lens
- B. Transport of water in lens
- C. Diffusion barrier
- D. Capsule of lens
-
273. Which of the following is not seen in the interphotoreceptor matrix.
- A. Metalloproteinase
- B. Sialoprotein Associated with Rods and Cones (SPARC)
- C. Tissue Inhibiuors of Metalloproteinases (TIMP)
- D, Memicane
-
274. Final common pathway for horizontal gaze involves:
- A. Vesitibular nucleus
- B. Oculomotor nucleus
- C. Abducent nucleus
- D. Trochlear nucleus
-
275. (a) Von Recklinghausen disease is associated with
- A. Glaucoma
- B. Optic Nerve glioma
- C. Neurofibroma of the lids
- D. All the above
-
275.(b)Von Recklinghausen disease is associated with
- A. Glaucoma
- B. Choroidal Hemangioma
- C. Sub-retinal Neovascularization
- D. Anterior chamber angle malformation
-
276. Sarcoidosis is associated with:
- A. Band keratopathy
- B. Systemic amylodosis
- C. Angioid streaks
- D. Cataracta nigra
-
277. Intractable secondary galucoma is seen in:
- A. Diffuse iris melanoma
- B. Nodular iris melanoma
- C. Melanocytic deposits in anterior part of iris
- D. Melanocyte proliferation in posterior uveal tissue
-
278. True about incontinenta pigmenti include the following except
- A. X-linked dominant
- B. Primary skin abnormality
- C. Avascularity of peripheral retina
- D. Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% and is typically unilateral
-
279. Scarring alopecia is seen in:
- A. T. capitis
- B. Androgenic alopecia
- C. Alopecia areata
- D. Lichen planus
-
280. All the following are primary cutaneous diseas except:
- A. Psoriasis
- B. Reiter's disease
- C. Lichen planus
- D. Icthiosis
-
281. Train of four fade is a characteristic feature of:
- a. Depolarizing block
- b. Non depolarizing block
- c. Both depolarizing and non depolarizing block
- d. Malignant hyperthermia
-
282. Which of the following statements about propofol is not true?
- a. It is contraindicated in porphyria
- b. It does not trigger malignant hyperthermia
- c. Commercial preparations contains egg
- d. It is a suitable agent for day care surgery
-
283. Which of the following statements about inhalation anesthetic agents is wrong ?
- a. Sevoflurane is more potent than isoflurane
- b. Sevoflurane is less cardiodepresant than isoflurane
- c. Desflurane has lower blood-gas partition coefficient than sevoflurane
- d. Sevoflurane has a higher MAC than isoflurane
-
284. Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally?
- a. Remifentanil
- b. Morphine
- c. Sufentanil
- d. Fentanyl
-
285. Centrineuraxial (spinal and epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in:
- a. Platelets <80,000
- b. Patient on aspirin
- c. Patient on oral anticoagulants
- d. Raised intracranial pressure
-
286. Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively:
- a. Propanolol/metoprolol
- b. Verapamil
- c. Esmolol
- d. Procainamide
-
287. A non ventilated preterm baby in incubator is under observation . which is the best way to monitor the baby’s breathing and detect apnea:
- a. Capnography
- b. Inpedence pulmonometry
- c. Chest movement monitoring
- d. Infrared END tidal CO2 mesurement
-
288. Focal and diffuse thickening of gall bladder wall with high amplitude reflections and comet tail artifacts on USG suggest the diagnosis of:
- a. Xanthogranulomatous cholecysitis
- b. Carcinoma of gall bladder
- c. Adenomyomatosis
- d. Cholesterolosis
-
289. Which of the following is not a CT feature of Adrenal adenoma?
- a. Low attenuation
- b. Homogenous density and well defined borders
- c. Enhances rapidly contrast stays in it for a relatively longer time and washes out late
- d. Calcification is rare
-
290. The sensitivity of mammography is low in young females because?
- a. Less glandular tissue and more fat
- b. Young females are less cooperative
- c. Young breast have dense tissue
- d. Because of less fat content
-
291. Which of the following does not contain fat on mammography?
- a. Post-traumatic cyst
- b. Hamartoma
- c. Seborrhic keratosis
- d. Galactocele
-
292. The most sensitive investigation for DCIS (ductal carcinoma in situ) of breast?
- a. Mammography
- b. Ultrasound
- c. MRI
- d. PET scan
-
293. Which of the following is not a MRI feature of Mesial temporal sclerosis?
- a. Atrophy sclerosis
- b. Atrophy of fornix
- c. Blurring of Grey white matter junction of ipsilateral temporal lobe
- d. Atrophy of hippocampus
-
294. The term dementia precox was coined by :
- a. Freud
- b. Bleuler
- c. Kraepelin
- d. Schineider
-
295. 25 yrs old female present to casualty with chest pain, sweating restlessness, dyspnoea, and palpitation. Enzyme analysis and X-ray are normal. She becomes asymptomatic with supportive measures. The probable diagnosis is:
- a. Angina pectoris
- b. Panic attack
- c. ANS instability
- d. Vasovagal attack
-
296. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of post-Traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- a. Flashbacks
- b. Hyperarousal
- c. Hallucinations
- d. Emotional numbing
-
297. Two months after knowing that his son is suffering from leukemia a 45 year old father presents with sleep deprivation, letharagy headache, and low mood. He interacts reasonably well with others, but has absented himself from work. The most probable diagnosis is:
- a. Somatisation disorder
- b. Depression
- c. Adjustment disorder
- d. Psychogenic headache
-
298. A 30 year old male presents to the OPD with Erectile dusfunction. Basic screening evaluation is unremarkable. The next step in the evaluation management should be?
- a. Oral sildenafil citrate trial
- b. Cavernosometry
- c. Doppler study
- d. Neurological testing
-
299. Most common substance of abuse in India is:
- a. Cannabis
- b. Tobacco
- c. Alcohol
- d. Opium
-
300. A 3 year old child presents with delayed speech and poor concentration. He has difficulty in communication and is not making any friends. The likely diagnosis is:
- a. Autism
- b. ADHD
- c. Specific learning disability
- d. Mental retardation
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