-
1. Which of the following is an intra-articular tendon?
- A. Sartorius
- B. Semitendinosus
- C. Anconeus
- D. Popliteus
-
2. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block:
- A. Meiosis
- B. Exophthalmus
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Conjunctival redness
-
3. A 43-year-old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. Th physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend he right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm?
- A. Damage to scalenus medius
- B. Injury to suprascapular nerve
- C. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve
- D. Spread of infection to shoulder joint
-
4. Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of
- A. External carotid artery
- B, Internal maxillary artery
- C. Superficial temporal artery
- D. Middle cerebral artery
-
5. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at
- A. Lower Border of L1
- B. Lower border of L3
- C. Lower border of Sl
- D. Lower border of L5
-
Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all following lymph nodes, excepr:
- A. Parameterial lymph nodes
- B. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
- C. Obturator lymph nodes
- D. Ext. iliac lymph nodes
-
7.All of the following are the components of the pulp of spleen, except
- A. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
- B. B cells
- C. Antigen presenting cells
- D. Vascular sinus
-
8. Polar bodies are formed during:
- A. Spermatogenesis
- B. Organogenesis
- C. Oogenesis
- D. Morphogenesis
-
9. The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsm/L) is:
- A. 270 to 285
- B. 300 to 320
- C. 350 to 375
- D. 200 to 250
-
10. Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate terminate in the primary visual cortex is:
- A. Layer1
- B. Layer 2 & 3
- C. Layer 4
- D. Layer 5 & 6
-
11. The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with:
- A. Ocular dominance
- B. Orientation
- C. Color processing
- D. Saccadic eye movements
-
12. The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signals for the detection of:
- A. Movement, depth and flicker
- B. Color vision, shape and fine details
- C. Temporal frequency
- D. Luminance contrast
-
13. The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon:
- A. Integrity of reflex are
- B. Muscle power
- C. Type of muscle fibers
- D. Joint movements in physiological range
-
14. The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans is:
- A. Tympanic reflex
- B. Withdrawal reflex
- C. Neck righting reflex
- D. Labyrinthine reflex
-
15. The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington's disease are due to the loss of
- A. Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
- B. Intrastriatal cholinergic systenm
- C. GABA-ergic and cholinergic system
- D. Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system
-
16. The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in
- A. Locus ceruleus
- B. Dorsal raphe
- C. Lateral hypothalamic area
- D. Hippocampus
-
17. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by
- A. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa
- B. Sensing of Cl+ concentration in macula densa
- C. Sensing NaCI concentration in the macula densa
- D. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels inafferent arteriole
-
18. The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is
- A. Medullary hyperosmolarity
- B. Reabsorption of Na+ in thick ascending limb
- C. Action of ADH via aquaporin channels
- D.Urea recycling
-
19. Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homcostasis?
- A. Kidneys
- B. Skin
- C. Intestines
- D. Lungs
-
20. Calcitonin is secreted by:
- A. Thyroid gland
- B. Parathyroid gland
- C. Adrenal glands
- D. Ovaries
-
21. Testosterone production is mainly contributed by
- A. Leydig cells
- B. Sertolie cells
- C. Seminiferous tubules
- D. Epididymis
-
22. Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge
- A. Estradiol
- B. Luteinizing hormone
- C. Progesterone
- D. Follicle stimulating hormone
-
23. All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except
- A. Induction of thymic involution
- B. Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells
- C. Functional thyroid
- D. Functional hypothalamopituitary axis
-
24. Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?
- A. Gastric juice
- B. Pancreatic juice
- C. Bile in gall bladder
- D. Salive
-
25.) A pilot in Sukhol aircraft is experiencing negative G
- Which of the following physiological events will
- manifest in such situation?
- A. The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increases
- B. The cardiac output decreases
- C. Black out occurs
- D. The cerebral arterial pressure rises
-
26. In human being, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is
- A. Shivering
- B. Vasoconstriction
- C. Release of thyroxine
- D. Piloerection
-
27. During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of:
- A. Oxidase
- B. Hydrolase
- C. Peroxidase
- D. Dehydrogenase
-
28. The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because:
- A. Of its large size
- B. The vesicle looses its clathrin cost
- C. Of the acidic pH of the vesicle
- D. Of the basic pH of the vesicle
-
29. The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel
- oxidation serves not to producc ATP but to generate heat is
- A. Adrenal gland
- B. Skeletal muscle
- C. Brown adipose tissue "
- D. Heart
-
30. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:
- A. VLDL
- B. Chylomicrons»
- C. HDL
- D. LDL
-
31. Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence?
- A. Methionine
- B. Aspartic acid
- C. Valine
- D. Arginine
-
32. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold
- into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded
- structures assóciate to form homo-or hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form?
- A. Denatured state
- B. Molecular aggregation
- C. Precipitation
- D. Quaternary structure
-
33. The comparison of the amino acid sequence of Cytochrome C from different species show many variations, Most of these variations are found:
- A. Randomly
- B. Only in helical regions
- c. Only in strand regions
- D. Mainly in loop regions
-
34. There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Among these only a few are fatal Hence, the mostimportant factor to be conserved in a protein for its function is the:
- A. Amino acid sequence
- B. Ligand binding residues
- C. Structure
- D. Environment
-
35. The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is:
- A. Globular
- B. Fibrous
- C. Stretch of beads
- D. Planar
-
36. All of the following amino acids are converted to succinyl-CoA, except
- A. Methionine
- B. Isoleucine
- C. Valine
- D. Histidine
-
37. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is:
- A. Alanine
- B. Methionine
- C. Arginine
- D. Glutamine
-
38. The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as:
- A. p and q arms
- B. m and q arms
- C q and p arms
- D. 1 and s arms
-
39. Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:
- A. Uncondensed
- B. Condensed
- C. Overcondensed
- D. Partially condensed
-
40. Microsatellite sequence is
- A. Small satellite
- B. Extra chromosomal DNA
- C. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA
- D. Looped-DNA
-
41. Mitochondrial DNA is:
- A. Closed circular
- B. Nicked circular
- C. Linear
- D. Open circular
-
42. Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?
- A. mRNA
- B. tRNA
- C. rRNA
- D. snRNA
-
43. "The sigma (G) subunit of prokaryotic RNA
- polymerase
- A. Binds the antibiotic rifampicin
- B. Is inhibited by o-amanitin
- C. Specifically recognizes the promoter site
- D. Is part of the core enzyme
-
44. Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of 5' TTAAGCTAC 3'?
- A. 5' GTACGCTTAA 3
- B. 5' AATTCGCATG 3'
- C. 5' CATGCGAATT 3
- D. 5 TTAAGCGTAC 3
-
45.During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki fragments?
- A. DNA Polymerase I
- B. DNA Polymerase Il
- C. DNA Polymerase II
- D. RNA Polymerase I
-
46. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telemerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, excepr:
- A. Germinal
- B. Somatic
- C. Hemopoietic
- D. Tumor
-
47. Base substitution mutations can have be following molecular consequence except
- A. Changes one codon for an amino acid into anothe codon for that same amino acid
- B. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid
- C. Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site
- D. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon
-
48. The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta (B)-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except
- A. Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization
- B. Southern blot analysis
- C. DNA sequencing
- D. Northem blot analysis
-
49. Vitamin Bi2 acts as co-enzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
- A. Isocitrate dchydrogenase
- B. Homocysteine methyl transferase
- C. Glycogen synthase
- D. G-6-P dehydrogenase
-
50 All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium
- or calmodulin, except:
- A. Adenylate cyclase
- B. Glycogen synthase
- C. Guanylyl cyclase
- D. Hexokinase
-
51. A common feature of all serine proteases is:
- A. Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor
- B. Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor
- C. Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine residues
- D. Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site
-
52. The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for the following functions, except:
- A. Promotion of cell cycle progression
- B. Inhibition of apoptosis
- C. Promotion of DNA repair
- D. Promotion of nuclear transcription
-
53. Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma?
- A. Paneth cell metaplasia
- B. Pyloric metaplasia
- C. Intestinal metaplasia
- D. Ciliated metaplasia
-
54.When carcinoma of stomach develops secondarily to pernicious anemia, it is usually situated in the:
- A. Prepyloric region
- B. Pylorus
- C. Body
- D. Fundus
-
55. Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the:
- A. Parotid salivary gland
- B. Minor salivary glands
- C. Submandibular salivary gland
- D. Sublingual salivary gland
-
56.. With regard to the malignant behavior of leiomyosarcoma, the most important criterion is:
- A. Blood vessel penetration by tumor cells
- B. Tumor cells in lymphatic channels
- C. Lymphocyte infiltration
- D. The number of mitoses per high power field
-
57. The type of mammary ductal careinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is:
- A. Apocrine DCIS
- B. Neuroendocrine DCIS
- C. Well differentiated DCIS
- D. Comedo DCIS
-
58. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplatic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except
- A. CD 45 RO
- B. CD 43
- C. Myeloperoxidase
- D. Lysozyme
-
59. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except:
- A. CD 23
- B. CD 20
- C. CD 5
- D. CD 43
-
60. Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of
- A. Endothelial cells
- B. Collagen fibers
- C. Smooth muscle cells
- D. Elastic fibers
-
61. All of the following statements regarding subendo cardinal infarction are true, except
- A. These are multifocal in nature
- B. These often result from hypotension or shock
- C. Epicarditis is not seen
- D. These may result in aneurysm
-
62. The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that procced to infraction, is approximately:
- A. 0-5%
- B. 5-15%
- C. 20-30%
- D. 30-40%
-
63. The finish type of congenital nephritic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations affecting the following protein
- A. Podocin
- B. Alpha-actinin
- C. Nephrin
- D. CD2 activated protein
-
64. A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram-negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture?
- A. Pasteurella spp
- B. Francisella spp
- C. Bartonella spp
- D. Brucella spp
-
65. A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat
- grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever and
- axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to
- the labarotory to perform a specific staining. Which the of the following staining method would help in the identification of the suspected
- A. Albert staining
- B. Zxihl-Neelson staining
- C. McFadyean's staining
- D. Wayson staining
-
66. Which one of the following statement is true regarding
- pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species?
- A. M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M. bovis to t he humans
- B. M. Kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis
- C. M. Africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source
- D.M. Marinum is responsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy
-
67. A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the following would help in determining the risk of transmission to the infant except
- A. TPHA test on the serum sample of the mother
- B. TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant
- C. VDRL on the paired serum sample of the infant and mother
- D. Time interval between the treatment of the mother and her delivery
-
68. A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeks before. He had rashes all over the body and was delirious at the time of presentation to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitis due to Rickettsial infection was made. Which one of the following can be causative agent:
- A. Rickettsia typhi
- B. Rickettsia rickettsiae
- C. Rickettsia prowazekii
- D. Rickettsia akarai
-
69. The following diseases are associated with Epstein- Barr virus infection, excepr:
- A. Infectious mononucleosis
- B. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
- C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- D. Oral hairy leukoplakia
-
70. Which of the following parasitic infestation can lead to malabsorption syndrome?
- A. Amoebiasis
- B. Ascariasis
- C. Hookworm infestation
- D. Giardiasis
-
71. A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram-positive round to oval cells, 12-14 m in size. The aspirate on Gram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely actiological agent?
- A. Aspergillus
- B. Rhizopus
- C. Candida
- D. Fusarium
-
72. When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying:
- A. Efficacy
- B. Effectiveness
- C. Efficiency
- D. Effect modification
-
73. Misoprostol is a:
- A. Prostaglandin E1 analogue
- B. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
- C. Prostaglandin antagonist
- D. Antiprogestin
-
74. Which enzyme is inhibited by aminophylline?
- A. Monoamine oxidase
- B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
- C. Phosphodiesterase
- D. Cytochrome P.450 7
-
75. Bisphosphonates act by
- A. Increasing the osteoid formation
- B. Increasing the mineralization of osteoid
- C. Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone
- D. Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion
-
76. Which one of the following drugs causes constipation?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Verapamil
- C. Nitroglycerin
- D. Captopril
-
77. The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with liver disease, except
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Oxazepam
- C. Temazepam
- D. Diazepam
-
78. The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except
- A. Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptors
- B. They have active metabolites
- C. Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human being
- D.Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes3
-
79. Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of:
- A. Tonic-clonic seizure
- B. Absence seizure
- C. Myoclonic seizure
- D. Simple partial seizure
-
80.Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence seizure?
- A. Sodium valproate
- B. Phenobarbitone
- C. Carbamazepine
- D. Phenytoin
-
81. Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism?
- A. Phenytoin
- B. Gabapentin
- C. Phenobarbitone
- D. Primidone
-
82.The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is:
- A. Seizure
- B. Anxiety
- C. Hypotension
- D. Loose stools
-
83. All are side effects of Clozapine, except:
- A. Granulocytopenia
- B. Seizures
- C. Sedation
- D. Extrapyramidal side effects
-
84.The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidol is:
- A. Hypotension
- B. Akathisia
- C. Dryness of mouth
- D. Tic disorder
-
85.All of the following antibacterial agents acts by
- inhibiting cell wall synthesis, except:
- A. Carbapenems
- B. Monobactams
- C. Cephamycins
- D. Nitrofurantoin
-
86. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
- A. Levobunolol
- B. Bimatoprost
- C. Brinzolamide
- D. Brimonidine
-
87. All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except:
- A. Bacterial Meningitis
- B. Rickettsial Infection
- C. Syphillis
- D. Anthrax
-
88. Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?
- A. Cephalexin
- B. Cloxacillin
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Dicloxacillin
-
89. A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except:
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Imipenem
- C. Teichoplanin
- D. Linezoiid
-
90. One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is incorrect:
- A. It is a prodrug
- B. It is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor
- C. It also inhibits calcineurin
- D. Selectivity inhibits lymphocyte proliferation
-
91. All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except:
- A. Nelfinavir
- B. Saquinavir
- C. Abacavir
- D. Ritonavir
-
92. Nevirapine is a:
- A. Protease inhibitor
- B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
- C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
- D. Fusion inhibitor
-
93. Pre-treatment evaluation for lithium therapy should include
- A. Fasting blood sugar
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Platelet count
-
94. All of the following are part of the treatment of lithium toxicity, except
- A. Treating dehydration
- B. Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate
- C. Hemodialysis
- D. Using an antagonist
-
95. Spalding's sign occurs after:
- A. Birth of live fetus
- B. Death of fetus in uterus
- C. Rigor mortis of infant
- D. Cadaveric spasm
-
96. Scab or crust of abrasion appears brown:
- A. Between 12-24 hours
- B. Between 2-3 days
- C. Between 4-5 days
- D. Between 5-7 days
-
97. Which of following tests in used to detect semen?
- A. Phenolphthalein test
- B. Reine's test
- C. Barberio's test
- D. Paraffin test
-
98. Medical qualifications awarded by institutions outside India and recognized by MCI are registered in
- A. First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
- B. Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
- C. Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
- D.Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
-
99. Fingerprint Bureau was first established in:
- A. England
- B. China
- C. India
- D. Singapore
-
100. Physical quality of life index is measured by all except:
- A. Infant mortality
- B. Life expectancy at age one
- C. Latency
- D. Per capita income
-
101. All the statements are true about standardization except
- A. Standardization allows comparison to be made between two different populations
- B. The national population is always taken as the standard population
- C.For direct standardization, age specific rates of the study population are applied to that of the standard population
- D. For indirect standardization, age specific rates of the standard population are applied to that of the study population
-
102. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trails is to
- A. Facilitate double blinding
- B. Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
- C. Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics
- D. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
-
103. The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to:
- A. Achieve comparability between study and control groups
- B. Avoid observer bias
- C. Avoid subject bias
- D. Avoid observer and subject bias
-
104. All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except:
- A.Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar
- B. Investigator's bias is minimized by double blinding
- C. The sample size required depends on the hypothesis
- D.The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis
-
105. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease and the results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are given below: Disease Test result Present
- Absent
- 180
- 400
- Which of the following is the positive predictive value
- of diagnostic test in that population?
- A. 45
- B. 31
- C. 95
- D. 50
-
106. Study the following table carefully and answer the
- following question
- Disease
- Absent
- 225
- 225
- Test result Present
- 40
- 10
- What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test?
- A. 45
- B. 20
- C. 80
- D. 50
-
107. Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease?
- A. Apolipoproteins
- B. VLDL
- C. HDL
- D. Total lipoproteins
-
108. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
- A. School teachers
- B. Medical officers of health centers
- C. Ophthalmologists
- D. Health assistants
-
109. According to the world Health Organization, the definition of blindness is
- A. Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with available correction
- B. Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with available correction
- C. Visual acuity 6160 in the better eye with best correction
- D. Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with best correction
-
110. As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of blindness in India (at visual acuity <6/60 in better cye)?
- A. 1.38%
- B. 1.49%
- C. 1.72%
- D. 1.8%
-
111. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India
- A. Cataract
- B. Conjunctivitis
- C. Refractive erron
- D. Trachoma
-
112. According to the World Health Report 2000, India's health expenditure is
- A. 4.8% ofG.D.P
- B. 5.2% of GDP
- C. 6.8% of GDP
- D. 7% of GDP
-
113. Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003
- A• 6.0
- B. 6.5
- C. 7.8
- D. 10.5
-
114. In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India?
- A. 1994
- B. 1996
- C. 2000
- D. 2002
-
115. The extra cnergy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is
- A. 150 KCals
- B. 200 Kcals
- C. 300 Kcals
- D. 550 Kcals
-
116. The premium of the "Community-based Universal Health Insurance Scheme" launched during 2003-04 ranges from
- A. Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven
- B. Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 3 per day fo a family of seven
- C. Rs. 2 per day poor and individual to Rs. 12 per day for a family of severn
- D. Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 7 per day for a family of seven
-
117 Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to.
- A. Inadequate dietary intake
- B. Defective intestinal absorption
- C. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum
- D. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine
-
118.In which of the following age group myelodysplastic syndromes MDS) are most common?
- A. 2-10
- B. 15-20
- C. 25-40
- D. > 50
-
119. A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gm/dl, serum calcium 12.6 mg/dl, phosphate-2.5 mg/dl, allka phosphatase-100 ul, serum Aburnin3 gm/dl,globulin -7.1 gm/dl and urea-178 mg/d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Lung cancer
- B. Disseminated tuberculosis
- C. Multiple mycloma
- D. Osteoporosis
-
120. Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
- A. Lytic bone lesions
- B. Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy
- C. Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30%
- D. " M' spike > 39% for Ig G, > 2g% for IgA
-
121. B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia in
- A. Presenting at a younger age
- B. Having a lower total leucocyte count
- C. Having prominent lymphadenopathy
- D. Having a shorter survival
-
122. All of the following statement regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except
- A. It generally presents in elderly patients
- B. There is often an association with HHV-8
- C. The proliferating cells are NK cells
- D. Patients are commonly HIV positive
-
123. A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia , thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of
- following is the clinical diagnosis?
- A. Appendictis
- B. Leukemic colitis
- C. Perforation peritonitis
- D. Neutropenic colitis
-
124. All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion, except
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypothermia
- c. Hyponagnesemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
-
125. All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis
- A. Increased waist-hip ratio
- B. Hyperhomocysteinemia
- C. Decreased fibrinogen levels
- D. Decreased HDL levels
-
126, All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia except
- A. Prolonged PR interval
- B. Prolonged QRS interval
- C. Prolonged QT interval
- D. Ventricular asystole
-
127: All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade except
- A. Kussmaul's sign
- B. Pulsus paradoxus
- C. Electrical alternans
- D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogram
-
128. All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse except
- A. Transmission may be as an autosomal dominant trait
- B. Majority of the case present with features of mitral regurgitation
- C. The value leaflets characteristically show myxomatous degeneration
- D. The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan's Syndrome
-
129. Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following except:
- A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- C. Eisenmenger's syndrome
- D. Ventricular septal defect
-
130. Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis?
- A. Staphylococcus albust
- B. Streptococcus facalis
- C. Salmonella typhi
- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
131. Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm inected because of
- A. Fungal infection
- B. Blood-borne infection (intravascular)
- C. Infection introduced from outside (extravascular)
- D. Both intravascular and extravascular infection
-
132. Myoctic abscesses are due to:
- A. Bacterial infection
- B. Fungal infection
- C. Viral infection
- D. Mixed infection
-
133. A 28 years old woman having limited cutaneous
- scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary function tests (PFT) are as follows:
- What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
- A. Interstitial lung disease
- B. Pulmonary artery hypertension
- C. Congestive heart failure-
- D. Bronchiectasis
-
134 Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor
- A. Small cell carcinoma
- B. Respiratory bronchiolitis
- C. Emphysema
- D. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia
-
135. Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa?
- A. Binge eating
- B. Amennorhea
- C. Self perception of being 'fat
- D. Under weight
-
136. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal hypertension?
- A. Chronic liver failure
- B. Ascites
- C. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
- D. Encephalopathy
-
137. Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre malignant?
- A. Juvenile polyps
- B. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz- Jeghers Syndrome
- C. Villous adenomas
- D. Tubular adenomas
-
138. Drug induced lupus can be identified by
- A. Anti-histone antibodies
- B. Double stranded DNA antibodies
- C. Antinuclear antibodies
- D. Anti-SM antibodies
-
139. Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with
- A. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
- B. Mixed connective tissue disease
- C. CREST syndrome
- D. Polymyositis
-
140. The presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibody is a surrogate marker of one of the tottowing
- A. Celiac disease
- B. Crohn's disease
- C. Ulcerative colitis
- D. Tropical sprue
-
141.Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following except:
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Fibromuscular dysplasia
- C. Takayasu's arteritiS
- D. Polyarteritis nodosa
-
142. Joint erosions are not a feature of
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Psoriasis
- C. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
-
143. All of the.following are the known causes of osteoporosis except:
- A. Fluorosis
- B. Hypogonadism
- C. Hyperthyroidism
- D. Hyperparathyroidism
-
144. Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia:
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Polyuria
- C. Depression
- D. Vomiting
-
145. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage is
- A. Subarachnoid space
- B. Basal ganglia
- C. Cerebellum
- D. Brainstem
-
146. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
- A. Arterio-venous malformation
- B. Cavernous angioma
- C. Aneurysm
- D. Hypertension
-
147.Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?
- A. Phenylpropanolamine
- B. Terfenadine
- C. Quinidine
- D. Fenfluramine
-
148. Which of the following is the most common ty Glial tumors?
- A. Astrocytomas
- B. Medulloblastomas
- C. Neurofibromas
- D. Ependymomas
-
149. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in
- A. Cerebellar hemisphere
- B. Thalamus
- C. Temporal lobe
- D. Parietal lobe
-
150. Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of polymyositis?
- A. Neck muscle involvement
- B. Extraocular muscle involvement
- C. Dysphagia
- D. Abdominal muscle involvement
-
151. A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte is:
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypomagnesemia
-
152. The most common malignancy found in Marjolin's ulcer is
- A. Basal cell carcinoma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
- D. Neurotrophic malignant melanoma
-
53. The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of the tumour is:
- A. Orbit
- B. Para testicular
- C. Extremity
- D. Urinary bladder
-
154. Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing
- A. Tubercular lymphadenitis
- B. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
- c. Plasmacytoma
- D. Aneurymal bone cyst
-
155 The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except:
- A. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life
- B. The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline
- C. Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice
- D. The swelling moves upwards on protrusion
- tongue
-
156. Mixed tumors of salivary gland, are
- A. Most common in submandibular gland
- B. Usually malignant
- C. Most common in parotid gland
- D. Associated with calculi
-
157. The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is
- A. Histological grade of the tumor
- B. Stage of the tumor at the time of diagnosis
- C. Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors
- D. Over expession of p-53 tumour suppressor gene
-
158. In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would you consider biopsy of opposite breast?
- A. Adenocarcinoma-poorly differentiated
- B. Medullary carcinoma
- C. Lobular carcinoma
- D. Comedo carcinoma
-
159. The tumor, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is
- A. Leiomyosarcoma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Basal cell carcinoma
- D. Angiosarcoma
-
160, Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the inner side of right thigh, except:
- A. Inflamed pelvic appendix
- B. Inflamed ovaries
- C. Stone in pelvic ureter
- D. Pelvic abscess
-
161 Apart from Escherichia coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is
- A. Bacteroides
- B. Klebsiella
- C. Peptostreptococcus
- D. Pseudomonas
-
162. A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. The most likely
- A. Escherichia colli
- B. Bacillus fragilis
- C. Streptococcus viridans
- D. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
-
163. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding stones in the common bile duct?
- A. Can present with Charcot's triad
- B. Are suggested by a bile duct diameter 6 mm of ultrasound
- C. ERCP, sphincterotomy and balloon clearance is now the standard treatment
- D. When removed by exploration of the common bile ducts the T-tube can be removed after 3 days
-
164. Biliary stricture developing after laparascopic choice cystectomy usually occurs at which part of the common bile duct?
- A. Upper
- B. Middle
- C. Lower
- D. All side with equal frequency
-
165 All of the following modalities can be used for in situ ablation of liver secondaries, except
- A. Ultrasonic waves
- B. Cryotherapy
- C. Alcohol
- D. Radio-frequency
-
166. The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India as:
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Cancer of stomach
- C. Duodenal lymphoma
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
-
167. The treatment of choice for the management of carcinoma of the anal canal is
- A. Abdominoperineal resection
- B. Primary radiotherapy
- C. Combined radio-and chemotherapy
- D. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and local excision
-
168. The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer
- A. Abdominoperennial resection
- B. Laser fulgaration
- C. Chemoradiotherapy
- D. Platinum-based chemotherapy
-
169. Which of the following drugs is not a part of the"Triple Therapy' immunosuppression for post-renal transplant patients?
- A. Cyclosporine
- B. Azathioprine
- C. FK 506
- D. Prednisolone
-
170 Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumors?
- A. Are embryonal cell carcinomas in 95% of cases
- B. Bilateral in up to 10% cases
- C. Teratomas are more common than seminomas
- D. Usually present after 50 years of age
-
171. Allen's test is useful in evaluating
- A. Thoracic outlet compression
- B. Presence of cervical rib
- C. Integrity of palmar arch
- D. Digital blood flow
-
172. The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistuala is
- A. Bacterial infection
- B. Fungal infection
- C. Blunt trauma
- D. Penetrating trauma
-
173. Dacron vascular graft is:
- A. Nontextile synthetic
- B. Textile synthetic
- C. Nontextile biologic
- D. Textile biologic
-
174. Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascular access for maintenance hemodialysis?
- A. Nondominant extremity
- B. Upper limb
- C. Radiocephalic AV fistula
- D. Saphenofemoral fistula
-
175. The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery as the present time is
- A. Transcranial
- B. Transethmoidal
- C. Trans-sphenoidal
- D. Transcallosal
-
176. Which of the following is not a component of Glasgow Coma Scale?
- A. Eye opening
- B. Motor response
- C. Pupil size
- D. Verbal response
-
177. Total score in Glasgow Coma Scale of a conscious person is:
-
178. The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome
- A. 17-OH progesterone
- B., Follicular stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
-
179.Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian diseasc?
- A. Elevated LH hormone
- B. Can cause infertility
- C. May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test
- D. Results in postdated pregnancy
-
180. A 15-ycar-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Turner's syndrome
- B. Mullerian agenesis
- C. Testicular feminization syndrome
- D. Premature ovarian failure
-
181. The treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is:
- Estrogens
- B. Antiandrogens
- C. ACTh
- D. Cortisone
-
182. In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of metastasis to ovary is the least?
- A. Carcinoma cervix
- B. Carcinoma endometrium
- C. Carcinoma fallopian tube
- D. Uterine sarcoma
-
183. The investigation of choice in a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman who has presented with
- postmenopausal bleeding is
- A. Pap smear
- B. Fractional curettage
- C. Transvaginal ultrasound
- D. Ca-125 estimation
-
184. In a suspected of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for all of the following information, except
- A. Defection of adenexal lesion
- B. Characterization of the lesion
- C. Staging
- D. Assess respectability
-
185. Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
- A Vaginal hysterectomy
- B Abdominal hysterectomy
- C. Wertheim's hysterectomy
- D. Anterior colporraphy
-
186 A 40-years-old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except
- A. Abundance of gram yariable coccobacilli
- B., Absence of Lactobacilli
- C. Presence of plymorph
- D. Presence of clue cell
-
187. The most common cause of tubal block in India is:
- A. Gonorrhea infection
- B. Chlamydia infection
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. Bacterial Vaginosis
-
188. All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are true, except
- A. Inhibition of ovulation
- B. Prevention of fertilization
- C. Interfernce with implantation of fertilized ovum
- D. Interference with placental functioning
-
189. Which of the following statements is incorrectn regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system:
- A. There is increased incidence of menorrhagia
- B. This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy
- C. This method is useful for the treatment of endometerial hyperplasia
- D. Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially
-
190. All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin -releasing IUDs, except
- A. Reduced retrograde menstruation
- B. Decreased ovulation
- C. Thickened cervical mucus
- D. Decidual changes in the endometrium
-
191. Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms, except:
- A. Delaying/inhibiting ovulation
- B. Inhibiting fertilization
- C. Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg
- D. Interrupting an early pregnancy
-
192. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except
- A. Amniotic fluid
- B. Maternal blood
- C. Chrionic villi
- D. Fetal Blood
-
193. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
- A. Anencephaly
- B. Inencephaly
- C. Microcephaly
- D. Holoprosencephaly
-
194. The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second trimester of pregnancy is
- A. Triple marker estimation
- B. Nuchal skin fold thickness measurement
- C. Chorionic villus sampling
- D. Amniocentesis
-
195. At what period does tuberculosis flare up commonly in a pregnant patient?
- A. First trimester
- B. Second trimester
- C. Third trimester
- Puerperiunm
-
196. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
- A. Serous cystadenoma
- B. Mucinous cystadenoma
- c, Dermoid cyst
- D. Theca lutein cyst
-
197. Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy?
- A. Glioma
- B. Pituitary adenoma
- C. Meningioma
- D. Neurofibroma
-
198. Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for
- epilepsy?
- A. Vitamin B
- B. Vitamin B12
- C. Vitamin A
- D. Folic acid
-
199. A primigravida presents to casually at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by
- A. Immediate cesarean section
- B. Immediate induction of labor
- C. Tocolytic therapy
- D. Magnesium sulphate therapy
-
200. The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) except
- A. ypertension
- B. Macrosomia
- C. Twin pregnancy
- D. Hydramnios
-
201. Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except:
- A. Fetal distress
- B. Hematuria
- C. Fresh bleeding per vaginum
- D. Passage of meconium
-
202. A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following except
- A. Stand alone
- B. Play peek a boo
- C. Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger
- D. Build a tower of 3-4 cubes
-
203. A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Constitutional delay in growth
- B. Genetic short stature
- C. Primordial dwarfisnm
- D. Hypopituitarism
-
204. All of the following are features of prematurity in a
- neonate, except:
- A. No creases on sole
- B. Abundant lanugo
- C. Thick ear cartilage
- D. Empty scrotum
-
205. Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in an infant incubator?
- A. Radiation
- B. Evaporation
- C. Convection
- D. Conduction
-
206. The following are characteristic of autism except:
- A. Onset after 6 years of age
- B. Repetitive behavior
- C. Delayed language development
- D. Severe deficit in social interaction
-
207. All of the following may occur in Down's syndrome except:
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Undescended testis
- C. Ventricular septal defect
- D. Brushfield's spots
-
208. Which of the following malformation in a newborn is
- specific for maternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitnus?
- A. Transposition of great arteries
- B. Caudal regression
- C. Holoprosencephaly
- D. Meningmyelocele
-
209. The requirement of potassium is a child is:
- A. 1-2 mEq/kg
- B. 4-7 mEq/kg
- C. 10-12 mEq/kg
- D. 13-14 mEq/kg
-
210 The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution)for malnourished children) is:
- A. 90 mmol/L.
- B. 60 mmol/L
- C. 45 mmol/L
- D. 30 mmol/L.
-
211. The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancy is:
- A. Influenza virus
- B. Para influenza virus
- C. Rhinovirus
- D. Respiratory syncytial virus
-
212. With reference to mumps which of the following is true
- A. Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis
- B. Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids
- C. The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement
- D. Mumps orchitis frequency leads to infertility
-
213. The carliest indicator of response after starting in a 6-year-old girl with iron deficiency is:
- A. Increased reticulocyte count
- B. Increased hemoglobin
- C. Increased ferritin
- D. Increased serum iron
-
214 Late onset hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all of the following features except:
- A. Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies
- B. Onset occurs at 4-12 week of age
- C. Intracranial hemorrhage can occur
- D. Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role
-
215. The following features are true for tetralogy of Fallot except
- A. Ventricular septal defect
- B. Right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Atrial septal defect
- D. Pulmonary stenosis
-
216. Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between
- A. Aorta to pulmonary artery
- B. Aorta to pulmonary vein
- C. Subclavian artery to pulmonary vein
- D.Subclavian vien to artery
-
217. In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged:
- A. Ventricular septal defect
- B. Atrial septal defect
- C. Aortopulmonary window
- D. Patent ductus arteriosus
-
218. A 1-month-old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows feature of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is
- A. Congenital aortic stenosis
- B. Coarctation of aorta
- C. Patent ductus arteriosus
- D. Congenital aortoiliac disease
-
219. The most important determinant of prognosis
- A. Stage of disease
- B. Loss of heterozygosity of chromsome 1p
- C. Histiology
- D. Age less than one year at presentation
-
220. A malignant tumor of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most often, is:
- A. Wilm's tumor
- B. Neuroblastoma
- C. Adrenal gland tumors
- D. Granulose cell tumor of ovary
-
221. The procecess underlying differences in expression of a gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called
- A. Anticipation
- B. Masaicism
- C. Non-penetrance
- D. Genomic imprinting
-
222. A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following
- A. A chromosomal syndrome
- B. A teratogenic syndrome
- C. A mendelian syndrome
- D. A polygenic syndrome
-
223. An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except:
- A. An Autosomal dominant disorder
- B. An Autosomal recessive disorder
- C. A polygenic disorder
- D. A vertically transmited disorder
-
224. In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the followingis most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?
- A. Autosomal dominant
- B. Autosomal recessive
- C. X-linked dominant
- D. X-linked recessive
-
225. The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot in a newborn is:
- A. Manipulation by mother
- B. Manipulation and Dennis Brown splint
- C. Manipulation and casts
- D. Surgical release
-
226 All of the following statements are true about developmental dysplasia (DDH) of hip, except
- A. It is more common in females
- B. Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH
- C. The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed reduction
- D. Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor
-
227. All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, except
- A. Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions
- B. Erb's palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the shoulder
- C. In Klumpke's palsy, Horner's syndrome may be present on the ipsilateral side
- D .Histamine test is useful to differentiate between the preganglionic and postganglionic lesions
-
228 "Rugger Jersey Spine" is seen in:
- A. Fluorosis
- B. Achondroplasia
- C. Renal osteodystrophy
- D. Marfan's syndrome
-
229. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion:
- A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
- B. Giant cell tumor
- C. Fibrous cortical defect
- D. Simple bone cyst
-
230. All the statements are true about exotosis, except:
- A. It occurs at the growing end of bone
- B. Growth continues after skeletal maturity
- C. It is covered by cartilaginous cap
- D. Malignant transformation may occur
-
231 Brown tumors are seen in:
- A. Hyperparathyroidisnm
- B. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
- C. Osteomalacia
- D. Neurofibromatosis
-
232. Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant?
- A.Ewing's sarcoma
- B. Retinoblastoma
- SC. Osteosarcoma
- D. Neuroblastoma
-
233. Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristics of primary malignancy of
- A. Kidney
- B. Bronchus
- C. Breast
- D. Prostate
-
234. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by
- A. Vagus nerve
- B. Facial nerve
- C. Trigeminal nerve
- D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
-
235. The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is:
- A. 1 disc diameter
- B. 2 disc diameter
- C. 3 disc diameter
- D. 4 disc diameter
-
236. The retina receives its blood supply from all, except:
- A. Posterior ciliary artery
- B. Central retinal artery
- C. Retinal arteries
- D. Plexus of Zinn and Haller arteries
-
237. The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is
- A. 5 times
- B. 10 times
- C. 15 times
- D. 20 times
-
238, SAFE strategy is recommended for the control of
- A. Trachoma
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Diabetic retinopathy
- D. Cataract
-
239. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?
- A. Itraconazole
- B. Natamycin
- C. Nystatin
- D. Fluconazole
-
240. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can
- ause drowsiness?
- A. Latanoprost
- B. Timolol
- C. Brimonidine
- D. Dorzolamide
-
241. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma
- A. Latanoprost
- B. Brimonidine
- C. Acetazolamide
- D. Dorzolamide
-
242. Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given
- intravitreally?
- A. Gentamicin
- B. Vancomycin
- C. Dexamethasone
- D. Ceftazidime
-
243. A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination?
- A. As early as feasible
- B. After 5 years
- C. After 10 years
- D. Only after visual symptoms develop
-
244. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is:
- A. Retinal hole
- B. Trauma
- C. Hypertension
- D. Diabetes
-
245. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxations of lens is seen in
- A. Marfan's syndrone
- B. Homocystinuria
- C. Hyperinsulinemia
- D. Ocular trauma
-
246. In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery?
- A. Fuch's heterochromic cyclitis
- B. Juvenile rheumatopid arthritis
- C. Psoriatic arthritis
- D. Reiter's syndrome
-
247. Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition?
- A. Lattice dystrophy
- B. Granular dystrophy
- C. Macular dystrophy
- D. Fleck dystrophy
-
248. Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi?
- A. The intraocular pressure is increased
- B. Calcification of the lens is common
- C. Sclera is thickened
- D. Size of the globe is reduced
-
249. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults
- A. Neurofibroma
- B. Meningioma
- C. Cavernous hemangioma
- D. Schwannoma
-
250. Which one of the following statements is incorredt about Optic glioma?
- A. Has a peak incidence in first decade
- B. Arises from oligodendrocytes
- C. Causes meningeal hyperplasia
- D. Is associated with type I neurofirbromatosis
-
251. The most common second malignant in survivors retinoblastoma is
- A. Thyroid cancer
- B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- C. Optic glioma
- D. Osteosarcoma
-
252. The posterior superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to:
- A. Sensori-neural hearing loss
- B. Secondary cholesteatoma
- C. Tympanoscelerosis
- D. Tertiary cholesteatoma
-
253. A 30- vear-old male is having Attic cholesteato ma of left ear with lateral sinus thrombophlebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice?
- A. Intact canal wall mastoidectomy
- B. Simple mastoidectomy with Tympanoplasty
- C. Canal wall down mastoidectomy
- D. Mastoidectomy with cavity obliteration
-
254. Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates?
- A. Impedance audiometry
- B. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)
- C. Free field audiometry
- D. Behavioral audioimetry
-
255. Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss?
- A.Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic
- B. Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic
- C. Partial fixation of the stapes footplate
- D. Ottitis media with effusion
-
256. Sensorineural deafness may be feature of all, ekcepr
- A. Nail-patella syndrome
- B. Distal renal tubular acidosis
- C. Bartter synd
- D. Alport syndrome
-
257. During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is through
- A. Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve
- B. Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in a parabolic curve
- C.Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatus
- D. Through olfactory area
-
258. A 5-year-old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy On the day of surgery he had running nose temperature 37.5°C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?
- A. Surgery should be cancelled
- B Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history at asthma
- C. Should get X-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
- D. Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be on antibiotic
-
259. Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrance
- A. Thyrohyoiod
- B. Cricothyroid
- C. Cricotracheal
- D. Crisosternal
-
260. A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?
- A. Slit-lamp examination of eye
- B. Measurement of intraocular tension
- C. Examination of fundus
- D. Retinal artery angiography
-
261. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in
- A. Lichen planus
- B. Psoriasis
- C. Tinea unguium
- D. Alopecia arcata
-
262. A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be:
- A. Acitretin
- B. Isotretinoin
- C. Doxycycline
- D. Azithromycin
-
263. A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous popular lesions on face, neck, 'V' area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:
- A. Skin biopsy
- B. Estimation of IgE levels in blood
- C. Patch test
- D. Intradermal prick test
-
264. A 6-month-old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudative lesions on the scalp, face, groins and axillae for one month. She also had vesicular lesions on the palms. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Congenital shypilis
- B. Seborrheic dermatitis
- C. Scabies
- D. Psoriasis
-
265. In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequently occurs?
- A. Actinic keratoses
- B. Seborrheic keratoses
- C. Molluscum contagiosum
- D. Basal cell carcinoma
-
266. Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
- A. Maintenance of a patent airway
- B. To provide positive pressure ventilation
- C. Pulmonary toilet
- D. Pneumothorax
-
267.Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
- A. Atracurium
- B. Vecuronium
- C. Rocuronium
- D. Doxacurium
-
268. Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure?
- A. Rapacurium
- B. Pancuronium
- C. Atracurium
- D. Rocuronium
-
269. Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
- A. Norfloxacin
- B. Streptomycin
- C. Doxycycline
- D. Cefotaxime
-
270. Which one of the following local anesthetics belongs to the ester group?
- A. Procaine
- B. Bupivacaine
- C. Lignocaine
- D. Mepivacaine
-
271. Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children
- A. Methoxyflurane
- B. Sevoflurane
- C. Desflurane
- D. Isoflurane
-
272. Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines?
- A. Isoflurane
- B. Ether
- C. Halothane
- D. Propofol
-
273. Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate?
- A. It is an intravenous anesthetic
- B. It precipitates coronary insufficiency
- C. It inhibits cortisol synthesis
- D. It causes pain at site of injection
-
274. Which of the following anesthetic agents doe trigger malignant hyperthermia?
- A. Halothane
- B. Isoflurane
- C. Suxamcthonium
- D. Thiopentone
-
275. Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery?
- A. Morphine
- B. Ketamine
- C. Propofol
- D. Diazepam
-
276. Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering?
- A. Thiopentone
- B. Suxamethoniunm
- C. Atropine
- D. Pethidine
-
277. Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?
- A. Sodium nitroprusside
- B. Hydralazine
- C. Mephentermine
- D. Esmolol
-
278. A two-month-old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended:
- A. No medication is needed as infant does not fool pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system
- B. Only paracetamol suppository is adequate
- C. Spinal narcotics via intrathecal route
- D. Intravenous narcotic infusion is lower dosage
-
279. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
- A. Electrorn
- B. Proton
- C. Helium ion
- D. Gamma - Photon
-
280. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except:
- A. Phosphorus 2
- B. Strontium 9
- C. Iridium192
- D. Samarium
-
281. Phosphorus 32 emits
- A. Beta particles
- B. Alfa Particles
- C. Neutrons
- D. X-rays
-
282. Which of the following is used in the treatment of
- differentiated thyroid cancer?
- A. 131 I
- B. 99m Tc
- C. 32 P
- D. 11-mIBG
-
283. All of them use non-ionizing radiation,except
- A. Ultrasonography
- B. Thermography
- C. MRI
- D. Radiography
-
284 Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. MRI
- C. CT scan
- D. Bone-scan
-
285. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms tumour after surgery is:
- A. Within 10 days
- B. Within 2 weeks
- C. Within 3 weeks
- D. Any time after surgery
-
286. The most radiosensitive tumor among the following is
- A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
- B. Carcinoma paroticd
- C. Dysgerminoma
- D. Osteogenic sarcoma
-
287. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph?
- A. Bidirectional Glem shunt
- B. Modified Blalock-Taussing shunt
- C. IVC occlusion
- D. Coarctation of aorta
-
288. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?
- A. Diameter of the main pulmonary artery > 16 mm
- B. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
- C. Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16 mm
- D. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery >16 mm
-
289. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is
- A. Ultrasonography
- B. Computed tomography
- C. Magnetic resonance imaging
- D. Arteriography
-
290. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:
- A. Intravenous urography
- B. Computed tomography
- C. Ultrasound
- D. Magnetic resonance imaging
-
291. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
- A. Multislice CT
- B. Echocardiography
- C. Nuclear scan
- D. MRI
-
292. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is
- A. A percentage diameter stenosis > 70%
- B. Presence of collaterals
- C. A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mm Hg across the lesion
- D. Post-stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
-
293. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:
- A. White matter
- B. Grey matter
- C. Thalamus
- D. Basal ganglia
-
294. Loosening of association is an example of:
- A. Formal thought disorder
- B. Schneiderian first rank symptoms
- C. Perseveration
- D. Concrete thinking
-
295. All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, except:
- A. Late onset
- B. Married
- C. Negative symptoms
- D. Acute onset
-
296. Intense nihilisim, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of
- A. Involutional melancholia
- B. Atypical depression
- C. Somatized depression
- D. Depressive stupor
-
297. Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake and even alert, is best described as:
- A. Twilight state
- B. Oneroid state
- C. Stupor
- D. Deliriurm
-
298. Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment of:
- A. Anorexia nervosa
- B. Seasonal affective disorder
- C. Schizophrenia
- D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
-
299. Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the management of:
- A. Depression
- B. Dissociation
- C. Delusions
- D. Dementia
-
300 Pavlov's experiment is an example of:
- A. Operant conditioning
- B. Classical conditioning
- C. Learned helplessness
- D. Modelling
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