Mudit 2006

  1. 1. Which of the following is an intra-articular tendon?
    • A. Sartorius
    • B. Semitendinosus
    • C. Anconeus
    • D. Popliteus
  2. 2. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block:
    • A. Meiosis
    • B. Exophthalmus
    • C. Nasal congestion
    • D. Conjunctival redness
  3. 3. A 43-year-old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. Th physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend he right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm?
    • A. Damage to scalenus medius
    • B. Injury to suprascapular nerve
    • C. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve
    • D. Spread of infection to shoulder joint
  4. 4. Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of
    • A. External carotid artery
    • B, Internal maxillary artery
    • C. Superficial temporal artery
    • D. Middle cerebral artery
  5. 5. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at
    • A. Lower Border of L1
    • B. Lower border of L3
    • C. Lower border of Sl
    • D. Lower border of L5
  6. Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all following lymph nodes, excepr:
    • A. Parameterial lymph nodes
    • B. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
    • C. Obturator lymph nodes
    • D. Ext. iliac lymph nodes
  7. 7.All of the following are the components of the pulp of spleen, except
    • A. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
    • B. B cells
    • C. Antigen presenting cells
    • D. Vascular sinus
  8. 8. Polar bodies are formed during:
    • A. Spermatogenesis
    • B. Organogenesis
    • C. Oogenesis
    • D. Morphogenesis
  9. 9. The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsm/L) is:
    • A. 270 to 285
    • B. 300 to 320
    • C. 350 to 375
    • D. 200 to 250
  10. 10. Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate terminate in the primary visual cortex is:
    • A. Layer1
    • B. Layer 2 & 3
    • C. Layer 4
    • D. Layer 5 & 6
  11. 11. The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with:
    • A. Ocular dominance
    • B. Orientation
    • C. Color processing
    • D. Saccadic eye movements
  12. 12. The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signals for the detection of:
    • A. Movement, depth and flicker
    • B. Color vision, shape and fine details
    • C. Temporal frequency
    • D. Luminance contrast
  13. 13. The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon:
    • A. Integrity of reflex are
    • B. Muscle power
    • C. Type of muscle fibers
    • D. Joint movements in physiological range
  14. 14. The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans is:
    • A. Tympanic reflex
    • B. Withdrawal reflex
    • C. Neck righting reflex
    • D. Labyrinthine reflex
  15. 15. The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington's disease are due to the loss of
    • A. Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
    • B. Intrastriatal cholinergic systenm
    • C. GABA-ergic and cholinergic system
    • D. Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system
  16. 16. The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in
    • A. Locus ceruleus
    • B. Dorsal raphe
    • C. Lateral hypothalamic area
    • D. Hippocampus
  17. 17. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by
    • A. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa
    • B. Sensing of Cl+ concentration in macula densa
    • C. Sensing NaCI concentration in the macula densa
    • D. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels inafferent arteriole
  18. 18. The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is
    • A. Medullary hyperosmolarity
    • B. Reabsorption of Na+ in thick ascending limb
    • C. Action of ADH via aquaporin channels
    • D.Urea recycling
  19. 19. Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homcostasis?
    • A. Kidneys
    • B. Skin
    • C. Intestines
    • D. Lungs
  20. 20. Calcitonin is secreted by:
    • A. Thyroid gland
    • B. Parathyroid gland
    • C. Adrenal glands
    • D. Ovaries
  21. 21. Testosterone production is mainly contributed by
    • A. Leydig cells
    • B. Sertolie cells
    • C. Seminiferous tubules
    • D. Epididymis
  22. 22. Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge
    • A. Estradiol
    • B. Luteinizing hormone
    • C. Progesterone
    • D. Follicle stimulating hormone
  23. 23. All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except
    • A. Induction of thymic involution
    • B. Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells
    • C. Functional thyroid
    • D. Functional hypothalamopituitary axis
  24. 24. Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?
    • A. Gastric juice
    • B. Pancreatic juice
    • C. Bile in gall bladder
    • D. Salive
  25. 25.) A pilot in Sukhol aircraft is experiencing negative G
    • Which of the following physiological events will
    • manifest in such situation?
    • A. The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increases
    • B. The cardiac output decreases
    • C. Black out occurs
    • D. The cerebral arterial pressure rises
  26. 26. In human being, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is
    • A. Shivering
    • B. Vasoconstriction
    • C. Release of thyroxine
    • D. Piloerection
  27. 27. During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of:
    • A. Oxidase
    • B. Hydrolase
    • C. Peroxidase
    • D. Dehydrogenase
  28. 28. The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because:
    • A. Of its large size
    • B. The vesicle looses its clathrin cost
    • C. Of the acidic pH of the vesicle
    • D. Of the basic pH of the vesicle
  29. 29. The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel
    • oxidation serves not to producc ATP but to generate heat is
    • A. Adrenal gland
    • B. Skeletal muscle
    • C. Brown adipose tissue "
    • D. Heart
  30. 30. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:
    • A. VLDL
    • B. Chylomicrons»
    • C. HDL
    • D. LDL
  31. 31. Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence?
    • A. Methionine
    • B. Aspartic acid
    • C. Valine
    • D. Arginine
  32. 32. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold
    • into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded
    • structures assóciate to form homo-or hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form?
    • A. Denatured state
    • B. Molecular aggregation
    • C. Precipitation
    • D. Quaternary structure
  33. 33. The comparison of the amino acid sequence of Cytochrome C from different species show many variations, Most of these variations are found:
    • A. Randomly
    • B. Only in helical regions
    • c. Only in strand regions
    • D. Mainly in loop regions
  34. 34. There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Among these only a few are fatal Hence, the mostimportant factor to be conserved in a protein for its function is the:
    • A. Amino acid sequence
    • B. Ligand binding residues
    • C. Structure
    • D. Environment
  35. 35. The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is:
    • A. Globular
    • B. Fibrous
    • C. Stretch of beads
    • D. Planar
  36. 36. All of the following amino acids are converted to succinyl-CoA, except
    • A. Methionine
    • B. Isoleucine
    • C. Valine
    • D. Histidine
  37. 37. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is:
    • A. Alanine
    • B. Methionine
    • C. Arginine
    • D. Glutamine
  38. 38. The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as:
    • A. p and q arms
    • B. m and q arms
    • C q and p arms
    • D. 1 and s arms
  39. 39. Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:
    • A. Uncondensed
    • B. Condensed
    • C. Overcondensed
    • D. Partially condensed
  40. 40. Microsatellite sequence is
    • A. Small satellite
    • B. Extra chromosomal DNA
    • C. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA
    • D. Looped-DNA
  41. 41. Mitochondrial DNA is:
    • A. Closed circular
    • B. Nicked circular
    • C. Linear
    • D. Open circular
  42. 42. Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?
    • A. mRNA
    • B. tRNA
    • C. rRNA
    • D. snRNA
  43. 43. "The sigma (G) subunit of prokaryotic RNA
    • polymerase
    • A. Binds the antibiotic rifampicin
    • B. Is inhibited by o-amanitin
    • C. Specifically recognizes the promoter site
    • D. Is part of the core enzyme
  44. 44. Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of 5' TTAAGCTAC 3'?
    • A. 5' GTACGCTTAA 3
    • B. 5' AATTCGCATG 3'
    • C. 5' CATGCGAATT 3
    • D. 5 TTAAGCGTAC 3
  45. 45.During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki fragments?
    • A. DNA Polymerase I
    • B. DNA Polymerase Il
    • C. DNA Polymerase II
    • D. RNA Polymerase I
  46. 46. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telemerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, excepr:
    • A. Germinal
    • B. Somatic
    • C. Hemopoietic
    • D. Tumor
  47. 47. Base substitution mutations can have be following molecular consequence except
    • A. Changes one codon for an amino acid into anothe codon for that same amino acid
    • B. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid
    • C. Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site
    • D. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon
  48. 48. The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta (B)-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except
    • A. Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization
    • B. Southern blot analysis
    • C. DNA sequencing
    • D. Northem blot analysis
  49. 49. Vitamin Bi2 acts as co-enzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
    • A. Isocitrate dchydrogenase
    • B. Homocysteine methyl transferase
    • C. Glycogen synthase
    • D. G-6-P dehydrogenase
  50. 50 All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium
    • or calmodulin, except:
    • A. Adenylate cyclase
    • B. Glycogen synthase
    • C. Guanylyl cyclase
    • D. Hexokinase
  51. 51. A common feature of all serine proteases is:
    • A. Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor
    • B. Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor
    • C. Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine residues
    • D. Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site
  52. 52. The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for the following functions, except:
    • A. Promotion of cell cycle progression
    • B. Inhibition of apoptosis
    • C. Promotion of DNA repair
    • D. Promotion of nuclear transcription
  53. 53. Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma?
    • A. Paneth cell metaplasia
    • B. Pyloric metaplasia
    • C. Intestinal metaplasia
    • D. Ciliated metaplasia
  54. 54.When carcinoma of stomach develops secondarily to pernicious anemia, it is usually situated in the:
    • A. Prepyloric region
    • B. Pylorus
    • C. Body
    • D. Fundus
  55. 55. Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the:
    • A. Parotid salivary gland
    • B. Minor salivary glands
    • C. Submandibular salivary gland
    • D. Sublingual salivary gland
  56. 56.. With regard to the malignant behavior of leiomyosarcoma, the most important criterion is:
    • A. Blood vessel penetration by tumor cells
    • B. Tumor cells in lymphatic channels
    • C. Lymphocyte infiltration
    • D. The number of mitoses per high power field
  57. 57. The type of mammary ductal careinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is:
    • A. Apocrine DCIS
    • B. Neuroendocrine DCIS
    • C. Well differentiated DCIS
    • D. Comedo DCIS
  58. 58. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplatic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except
    • A. CD 45 RO
    • B. CD 43
    • C. Myeloperoxidase
    • D. Lysozyme
  59. 59. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except:
    • A. CD 23
    • B. CD 20
    • C. CD 5
    • D. CD 43
  60. 60. Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of
    • A. Endothelial cells
    • B. Collagen fibers
    • C. Smooth muscle cells
    • D. Elastic fibers
  61. 61. All of the following statements regarding subendo cardinal infarction are true, except
    • A. These are multifocal in nature
    • B. These often result from hypotension or shock
    • C. Epicarditis is not seen
    • D. These may result in aneurysm
  62. 62. The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that procced to infraction, is approximately:
    • A. 0-5%
    • B. 5-15%
    • C. 20-30%
    • D. 30-40%
  63. 63. The finish type of congenital nephritic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations affecting the following protein
    • A. Podocin
    • B. Alpha-actinin
    • C. Nephrin
    • D. CD2 activated protein
  64. 64. A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram-negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture?
    • A. Pasteurella spp
    • B. Francisella spp
    • C. Bartonella spp
    • D. Brucella spp
  65. 65. A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat
    • grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever and
    • axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to
    • the labarotory to perform a specific staining. Which the of the following staining method would help in the identification of the suspected
    • A. Albert staining
    • B. Zxihl-Neelson staining
    • C. McFadyean's staining
    • D. Wayson staining
  66. 66. Which one of the following statement is true regarding
    • pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species?
    • A. M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M. bovis to t he humans
    • B. M. Kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis
    • C. M. Africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source
    • D.M. Marinum is responsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy
  67. 67. A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the following would help in determining the risk of transmission to the infant except
    • A. TPHA test on the serum sample of the mother
    • B. TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant
    • C. VDRL on the paired serum sample of the infant and mother
    • D. Time interval between the treatment of the mother and her delivery
  68. 68. A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeks before. He had rashes all over the body and was delirious at the time of presentation to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitis due to Rickettsial infection was made. Which one of the following can be causative agent:
    • A. Rickettsia typhi
    • B. Rickettsia rickettsiae
    • C. Rickettsia prowazekii
    • D. Rickettsia akarai
  69. 69. The following diseases are associated with Epstein- Barr virus infection, excepr:
    • A. Infectious mononucleosis
    • B. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
    • C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    • D. Oral hairy leukoplakia
  70. 70. Which of the following parasitic infestation can lead to malabsorption syndrome?
    • A. Amoebiasis
    • B. Ascariasis
    • C. Hookworm infestation
    • D. Giardiasis
  71. 71. A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram-positive round to oval cells, 12-14 m in size. The aspirate on Gram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely actiological agent?
    • A. Aspergillus
    • B. Rhizopus
    • C. Candida
    • D. Fusarium
  72. 72. When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying:
    • A. Efficacy
    • B. Effectiveness
    • C. Efficiency
    • D. Effect modification
  73. 73. Misoprostol is a:
    • A. Prostaglandin E1 analogue
    • B. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
    • C. Prostaglandin antagonist
    • D. Antiprogestin
  74. 74. Which enzyme is inhibited by aminophylline?
    • A. Monoamine oxidase
    • B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
    • C. Phosphodiesterase
    • D. Cytochrome P.450 7
  75. 75. Bisphosphonates act by
    • A. Increasing the osteoid formation
    • B. Increasing the mineralization of osteoid
    • C. Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone
    • D. Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion
  76. 76. Which one of the following drugs causes constipation?
    • A. Propranolol
    • B. Verapamil
    • C. Nitroglycerin
    • D. Captopril
  77. 77. The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with liver disease, except
    • A. Lorazepam
    • B. Oxazepam
    • C. Temazepam
    • D. Diazepam
  78. 78. The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except
    • A. Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptors
    • B. They have active metabolites
    • C. Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human being
    • D.Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes3
  79. 79. Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of:
    • A. Tonic-clonic seizure
    • B. Absence seizure
    • C. Myoclonic seizure
    • D. Simple partial seizure
  80. 80.Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence seizure?
    • A. Sodium valproate
    • B. Phenobarbitone
    • C. Carbamazepine
    • D. Phenytoin
  81. 81. Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism?
    • A. Phenytoin
    • B. Gabapentin
    • C. Phenobarbitone
    • D. Primidone
  82. 82.The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is:
    • A. Seizure
    • B. Anxiety
    • C. Hypotension
    • D. Loose stools
  83. 83. All are side effects of Clozapine, except:
    • A. Granulocytopenia
    • B. Seizures
    • C. Sedation
    • D. Extrapyramidal side effects
  84. 84.The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidol is:
    • A. Hypotension
    • B. Akathisia
    • C. Dryness of mouth
    • D. Tic disorder
  85. 85.All of the following antibacterial agents acts by
    • inhibiting cell wall synthesis, except:
    • A. Carbapenems
    • B. Monobactams
    • C. Cephamycins
    • D. Nitrofurantoin
  86. 86. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
    • A. Levobunolol
    • B. Bimatoprost
    • C. Brinzolamide
    • D. Brimonidine
  87. 87. All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except:
    • A. Bacterial Meningitis
    • B. Rickettsial Infection
    • C. Syphillis
    • D. Anthrax
  88. 88. Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?
    • A. Cephalexin
    • B. Cloxacillin
    • C. Piperacillin
    • D. Dicloxacillin
  89. 89. A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except:
    • A. Vancomycin
    • B. Imipenem
    • C. Teichoplanin
    • D. Linezoiid
  90. 90. One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is incorrect:
    • A. It is a prodrug
    • B. It is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor
    • C. It also inhibits calcineurin
    • D. Selectivity inhibits lymphocyte proliferation
  91. 91. All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except:
    • A. Nelfinavir
    • B. Saquinavir
    • C. Abacavir
    • D. Ritonavir
  92. 92. Nevirapine is a:
    • A. Protease inhibitor
    • B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
    • C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
    • D. Fusion inhibitor
  93. 93. Pre-treatment evaluation for lithium therapy should include
    • A. Fasting blood sugar
    • B. Serum creatinine
    • C. Liver function tests
    • D. Platelet count
  94. 94. All of the following are part of the treatment of lithium toxicity, except
    • A. Treating dehydration
    • B. Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate
    • C. Hemodialysis
    • D. Using an antagonist
  95. 95. Spalding's sign occurs after:
    • A. Birth of live fetus
    • B. Death of fetus in uterus
    • C. Rigor mortis of infant
    • D. Cadaveric spasm
  96. 96. Scab or crust of abrasion appears brown:
    • A. Between 12-24 hours
    • B. Between 2-3 days
    • C. Between 4-5 days
    • D. Between 5-7 days
  97. 97. Which of following tests in used to detect semen?
    • A. Phenolphthalein test
    • B. Reine's test
    • C. Barberio's test
    • D. Paraffin test
  98. 98. Medical qualifications awarded by institutions outside India and recognized by MCI are registered in
    • A. First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
    • B. Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
    • C. Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
    • D.Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
  99. 99. Fingerprint Bureau was first established in:
    • A. England
    • B. China
    • C. India
    • D. Singapore
  100. 100. Physical quality of life index is measured by all except:
    • A. Infant mortality
    • B. Life expectancy at age one
    • C. Latency
    • D. Per capita income
  101. 101. All the statements are true about standardization except
    • A. Standardization allows comparison to be made between two different populations
    • B. The national population is always taken as the standard population
    • C.For direct standardization, age specific rates of the study population are applied to that of the standard population
    • D. For indirect standardization, age specific rates of the standard population are applied to that of the study population
  102. 102. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trails is to
    • A. Facilitate double blinding
    • B. Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
    • C. Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics
    • D. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
  103. 103. The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to:
    • A. Achieve comparability between study and control groups
    • B. Avoid observer bias
    • C. Avoid subject bias
    • D. Avoid observer and subject bias
  104. 104. All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except:
    • A.Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar
    • B. Investigator's bias is minimized by double blinding
    • C. The sample size required depends on the hypothesis
    • D.The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis
  105. 105. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease and the results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are given below: Disease Test result Present
    • Absent
    • 180
    • 400
    • Which of the following is the positive predictive value
    • of diagnostic test in that population?
    • A. 45
    • B. 31
    • C. 95
    • D. 50
  106. 106. Study the following table carefully and answer the
    • following question
    • Disease
    • Absent
    • 225
    • 225
    • Test result Present
    • 40
    • 10
    • What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test?
    • A. 45
    • B. 20
    • C. 80
    • D. 50
  107. 107. Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease?
    • A. Apolipoproteins
    • B. VLDL
    • C. HDL
    • D. Total lipoproteins
  108. 108. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
    • A. School teachers
    • B. Medical officers of health centers
    • C. Ophthalmologists
    • D. Health assistants
  109. 109. According to the world Health Organization, the definition of blindness is
    • A. Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with available correction
    • B. Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with available correction
    • C. Visual acuity 6160 in the better eye with best correction
    • D. Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with best correction
  110. 110. As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of blindness in India (at visual acuity <6/60 in better cye)?
    • A. 1.38%
    • B. 1.49%
    • C. 1.72%
    • D. 1.8%
  111. 111. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India
    • A. Cataract
    • B. Conjunctivitis
    • C. Refractive erron
    • D. Trachoma
  112. 112. According to the World Health Report 2000, India's health expenditure is
    • A. 4.8% ofG.D.P
    • B. 5.2% of GDP
    • C. 6.8% of GDP
    • D. 7% of GDP
  113. 113. Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003
    • A• 6.0
    • B. 6.5
    • C. 7.8
    • D. 10.5
  114. 114. In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India?
    • A. 1994
    • B. 1996
    • C. 2000
    • D. 2002
  115. 115. The extra cnergy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is
    • A. 150 KCals
    • B. 200 Kcals
    • C. 300 Kcals
    • D. 550 Kcals
  116. 116. The premium of the "Community-based Universal Health Insurance Scheme" launched during 2003-04 ranges from
    • A. Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven
    • B. Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 3 per day fo a family of seven
    • C. Rs. 2 per day poor and individual to Rs. 12 per day for a family of severn
    • D. Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 7 per day for a family of seven
  117. 117 Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to.
    • A. Inadequate dietary intake
    • B. Defective intestinal absorption
    • C. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum
    • D. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine
  118. 118.In which of the following age group myelodysplastic syndromes MDS) are most common?
    • A. 2-10
    • B. 15-20
    • C. 25-40
    • D. > 50
  119. 119. A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gm/dl, serum calcium 12.6 mg/dl, phosphate-2.5 mg/dl, allka phosphatase-100 ul, serum Aburnin3 gm/dl,globulin -7.1 gm/dl and urea-178 mg/d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    • A. Lung cancer
    • B. Disseminated tuberculosis
    • C. Multiple mycloma
    • D. Osteoporosis
  120. 120. Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
    • A. Lytic bone lesions
    • B. Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy
    • C. Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30%
    • D. " M' spike > 39% for Ig G, > 2g% for IgA
  121. 121. B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia in
    • A. Presenting at a younger age
    • B. Having a lower total leucocyte count
    • C. Having prominent lymphadenopathy
    • D. Having a shorter survival
  122. 122. All of the following statement regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except
    • A. It generally presents in elderly patients
    • B. There is often an association with HHV-8
    • C. The proliferating cells are NK cells
    • D. Patients are commonly HIV positive
  123. 123. A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia , thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of
    • following is the clinical diagnosis?
    • A. Appendictis
    • B. Leukemic colitis
    • C. Perforation peritonitis
    • D. Neutropenic colitis
  124. 124. All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion, except
    • A. Hypokalemia
    • B. Hypothermia
    • c. Hyponagnesemia
    • D. Hypocalcemia
  125. 125. All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis
    • A. Increased waist-hip ratio
    • B. Hyperhomocysteinemia
    • C. Decreased fibrinogen levels
    • D. Decreased HDL levels
  126. 126, All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia except
    • A. Prolonged PR interval
    • B. Prolonged QRS interval
    • C. Prolonged QT interval
    • D. Ventricular asystole
  127. 127: All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade except
    • A. Kussmaul's sign
    • B. Pulsus paradoxus
    • C. Electrical alternans
    • D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogram
  128. 128. All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse except
    • A. Transmission may be as an autosomal dominant trait
    • B. Majority of the case present with features of mitral regurgitation
    • C. The value leaflets characteristically show myxomatous degeneration
    • D. The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan's Syndrome
  129. 129. Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following except:
    • A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
    • B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    • C. Eisenmenger's syndrome
    • D. Ventricular septal defect
  130. 130. Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis?
    • A. Staphylococcus albust
    • B. Streptococcus facalis
    • C. Salmonella typhi
    • D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  131. 131. Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm inected because of
    • A. Fungal infection
    • B. Blood-borne infection (intravascular)
    • C. Infection introduced from outside (extravascular)
    • D. Both intravascular and extravascular infection
  132. 132. Myoctic abscesses are due to:
    • A. Bacterial infection
    • B. Fungal infection
    • C. Viral infection
    • D. Mixed infection
  133. 133. A 28 years old woman having limited cutaneous
    • scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary function tests (PFT) are as follows:
    • What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
    • A. Interstitial lung disease
    • B. Pulmonary artery hypertension
    • C. Congestive heart failure-
    • D. Bronchiectasis
  134. 134 Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor
    • A. Small cell carcinoma
    • B. Respiratory bronchiolitis
    • C. Emphysema
    • D. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia
  135. 135. Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa?
    • A. Binge eating
    • B. Amennorhea
    • C. Self perception of being 'fat
    • D. Under weight
  136. 136. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal hypertension?
    • A. Chronic liver failure
    • B. Ascites
    • C. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
    • D. Encephalopathy
  137. 137. Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre malignant?
    • A. Juvenile polyps
    • B. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz- Jeghers Syndrome
    • C. Villous adenomas
    • D. Tubular adenomas
  138. 138. Drug induced lupus can be identified by
    • A. Anti-histone antibodies
    • B. Double stranded DNA antibodies
    • C. Antinuclear antibodies
    • D. Anti-SM antibodies
  139. 139. Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with
    • A. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
    • B. Mixed connective tissue disease
    • C. CREST syndrome
    • D. Polymyositis
  140. 140. The presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibody is a surrogate marker of one of the tottowing
    • A. Celiac disease
    • B. Crohn's disease
    • C. Ulcerative colitis
    • D. Tropical sprue
  141. 141.Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following except:
    • A. Atherosclerosis
    • B. Fibromuscular dysplasia
    • C. Takayasu's arteritiS
    • D. Polyarteritis nodosa
  142. 142. Joint erosions are not a feature of
    • A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    • B. Psoriasis
    • C. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
    • D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  143. 143. All of the.following are the known causes of osteoporosis except:
    • A. Fluorosis
    • B. Hypogonadism
    • C. Hyperthyroidism
    • D. Hyperparathyroidism
  144. 144. Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia:
    • A. Diarrhea
    • B. Polyuria
    • C. Depression
    • D. Vomiting
  145. 145. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage is
    • A. Subarachnoid space
    • B. Basal ganglia
    • C. Cerebellum
    • D. Brainstem
  146. 146. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
    • A. Arterio-venous malformation
    • B. Cavernous angioma
    • C. Aneurysm
    • D. Hypertension
  147. 147.Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?
    • A. Phenylpropanolamine
    • B. Terfenadine
    • C. Quinidine
    • D. Fenfluramine
  148. 148. Which of the following is the most common ty Glial tumors?
    • A. Astrocytomas
    • B. Medulloblastomas
    • C. Neurofibromas
    • D. Ependymomas
  149. 149. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in
    • A. Cerebellar hemisphere
    • B. Thalamus
    • C. Temporal lobe
    • D. Parietal lobe
  150. 150. Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of polymyositis?
    • A. Neck muscle involvement
    • B. Extraocular muscle involvement
    • C. Dysphagia
    • D. Abdominal muscle involvement
  151. 151. A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte is:
    • A. Hyponatremia
    • B. Hypocalcemia
    • C. Hypokalemia
    • D. Hypomagnesemia
  152. 152. The most common malignancy found in Marjolin's ulcer is
    • A. Basal cell carcinoma
    • B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    • C. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
    • D. Neurotrophic malignant melanoma
  153. 53. The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of the tumour is:
    • A. Orbit
    • B. Para testicular
    • C. Extremity
    • D. Urinary bladder
  154. 154. Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing
    • A. Tubercular lymphadenitis
    • B. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
    • c. Plasmacytoma
    • D. Aneurymal bone cyst
  155. 155 The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except:
    • A. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life
    • B. The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline
    • C. Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice
    • D. The swelling moves upwards on protrusion
    • tongue
  156. 156. Mixed tumors of salivary gland, are
    • A. Most common in submandibular gland
    • B. Usually malignant
    • C. Most common in parotid gland
    • D. Associated with calculi
  157. 157. The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is
    • A. Histological grade of the tumor
    • B. Stage of the tumor at the time of diagnosis
    • C. Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors
    • D. Over expession of p-53 tumour suppressor gene
  158. 158. In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would you consider biopsy of opposite breast?
    • A. Adenocarcinoma-poorly differentiated
    • B. Medullary carcinoma
    • C. Lobular carcinoma
    • D. Comedo carcinoma
  159. 159. The tumor, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is
    • A. Leiomyosarcoma
    • B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    • C. Basal cell carcinoma
    • D. Angiosarcoma
  160. 160, Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the inner side of right thigh, except:
    • A. Inflamed pelvic appendix
    • B. Inflamed ovaries
    • C. Stone in pelvic ureter
    • D. Pelvic abscess
  161. 161 Apart from Escherichia coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is
    • A. Bacteroides
    • B. Klebsiella
    • C. Peptostreptococcus
    • D. Pseudomonas
  162. 162. A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. The most likely
    • A. Escherichia colli
    • B. Bacillus fragilis
    • C. Streptococcus viridans
    • D. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
  163. 163. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding stones in the common bile duct?
    • A. Can present with Charcot's triad
    • B. Are suggested by a bile duct diameter 6 mm of ultrasound
    • C. ERCP, sphincterotomy and balloon clearance is now the standard treatment
    • D. When removed by exploration of the common bile ducts the T-tube can be removed after 3 days
  164. 164. Biliary stricture developing after laparascopic choice cystectomy usually occurs at which part of the common bile duct?
    • A. Upper
    • B. Middle
    • C. Lower
    • D. All side with equal frequency
  165. 165 All of the following modalities can be used for in situ ablation of liver secondaries, except
    • A. Ultrasonic waves
    • B. Cryotherapy
    • C. Alcohol
    • D. Radio-frequency
  166. 166. The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India as:
    • A. Tuberculosis
    • B. Cancer of stomach
    • C. Duodenal lymphoma
    • D. Peptic ulcer disease
  167. 167. The treatment of choice for the management of carcinoma of the anal canal is
    • A. Abdominoperineal resection
    • B. Primary radiotherapy
    • C. Combined radio-and chemotherapy
    • D. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and local excision
  168. 168. The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer
    • A. Abdominoperennial resection
    • B. Laser fulgaration
    • C. Chemoradiotherapy
    • D. Platinum-based chemotherapy
  169. 169. Which of the following drugs is not a part of the"Triple Therapy' immunosuppression for post-renal transplant patients?
    • A. Cyclosporine
    • B. Azathioprine
    • C. FK 506
    • D. Prednisolone
  170. 170 Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumors?
    • A. Are embryonal cell carcinomas in 95% of cases
    • B. Bilateral in up to 10% cases
    • C. Teratomas are more common than seminomas
    • D. Usually present after 50 years of age
  171. 171. Allen's test is useful in evaluating
    • A. Thoracic outlet compression
    • B. Presence of cervical rib
    • C. Integrity of palmar arch
    • D. Digital blood flow
  172. 172. The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistuala is
    • A. Bacterial infection
    • B. Fungal infection
    • C. Blunt trauma
    • D. Penetrating trauma
  173. 173. Dacron vascular graft is:
    • A. Nontextile synthetic
    • B. Textile synthetic
    • C. Nontextile biologic
    • D. Textile biologic
  174. 174. Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascular access for maintenance hemodialysis?
    • A. Nondominant extremity
    • B. Upper limb
    • C. Radiocephalic AV fistula
    • D. Saphenofemoral fistula
  175. 175. The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery as the present time is
    • A. Transcranial
    • B. Transethmoidal
    • C. Trans-sphenoidal
    • D. Transcallosal
  176. 176. Which of the following is not a component of Glasgow Coma Scale?
    • A. Eye opening
    • B. Motor response
    • C. Pupil size
    • D. Verbal response
  177. 177. Total score in Glasgow Coma Scale of a conscious person is:
    • A. 8
    • B. 3
    • C. 15
    • D.10
  178. 178. The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome
    • A. 17-OH progesterone
    • B., Follicular stimulating hormone
    • Luteinizing hormone
    • D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
  179. 179.Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian diseasc?
    • A. Elevated LH hormone
    • B. Can cause infertility
    • C. May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test
    • D. Results in postdated pregnancy
  180. 180. A 15-ycar-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Turner's syndrome
    • B. Mullerian agenesis
    • C. Testicular feminization syndrome
    • D. Premature ovarian failure
  181. 181. The treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is:
    • Estrogens
    • B. Antiandrogens
    • C. ACTh
    • D. Cortisone
  182. 182. In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of metastasis to ovary is the least?
    • A. Carcinoma cervix
    • B. Carcinoma endometrium
    • C. Carcinoma fallopian tube
    • D. Uterine sarcoma
  183. 183. The investigation of choice in a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman who has presented with
    • postmenopausal bleeding is
    • A. Pap smear
    • B. Fractional curettage
    • C. Transvaginal ultrasound
    • D. Ca-125 estimation
  184. 184. In a suspected of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for all of the following information, except
    • A. Defection of adenexal lesion
    • B. Characterization of the lesion
    • C. Staging
    • D. Assess respectability
  185. 185. Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
    • A Vaginal hysterectomy
    • B Abdominal hysterectomy
    • C. Wertheim's hysterectomy
    • D. Anterior colporraphy
  186. 186 A 40-years-old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except
    • A. Abundance of gram yariable coccobacilli
    • B., Absence of Lactobacilli
    • C. Presence of plymorph
    • D. Presence of clue cell
  187. 187. The most common cause of tubal block in India is:
    • A. Gonorrhea infection
    • B. Chlamydia infection
    • C. Tuberculosis
    • D. Bacterial Vaginosis
  188. 188. All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are true, except
    • A. Inhibition of ovulation
    • B. Prevention of fertilization
    • C. Interfernce with implantation of fertilized ovum
    • D. Interference with placental functioning
  189. 189. Which of the following statements is incorrectn regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system:
    • A. There is increased incidence of menorrhagia
    • B. This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy
    • C. This method is useful for the treatment of endometerial hyperplasia
    • D. Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially
  190. 190. All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin -releasing IUDs, except
    • A. Reduced retrograde menstruation
    • B. Decreased ovulation
    • C. Thickened cervical mucus
    • D. Decidual changes in the endometrium
  191. 191. Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms, except:
    • A. Delaying/inhibiting ovulation
    • B. Inhibiting fertilization
    • C. Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg
    • D. Interrupting an early pregnancy
  192. 192. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except
    • A. Amniotic fluid
    • B. Maternal blood
    • C. Chrionic villi
    • D. Fetal Blood
  193. 193. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
    • A. Anencephaly
    • B. Inencephaly
    • C. Microcephaly
    • D. Holoprosencephaly
  194. 194. The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second trimester of pregnancy is
    • A. Triple marker estimation
    • B. Nuchal skin fold thickness measurement
    • C. Chorionic villus sampling
    • D. Amniocentesis
  195. 195. At what period does tuberculosis flare up commonly in a pregnant patient?
    • A. First trimester
    • B. Second trimester
    • C. Third trimester
    • Puerperiunm
  196. 196. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
    • A. Serous cystadenoma
    • B. Mucinous cystadenoma
    • c, Dermoid cyst
    • D. Theca lutein cyst
  197. 197. Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy?
    • A. Glioma
    • B. Pituitary adenoma
    • C. Meningioma
    • D. Neurofibroma
  198. 198. Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for
    • epilepsy?
    • A. Vitamin B
    • B. Vitamin B12
    • C. Vitamin A
    • D. Folic acid
  199. 199. A primigravida presents to casually at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by
    • A. Immediate cesarean section
    • B. Immediate induction of labor
    • C. Tocolytic therapy
    • D. Magnesium sulphate therapy
  200. 200. The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) except
    • A. ypertension
    • B. Macrosomia
    • C. Twin pregnancy
    • D. Hydramnios
  201. 201. Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except:
    • A. Fetal distress
    • B. Hematuria
    • C. Fresh bleeding per vaginum
    • D. Passage of meconium
  202. 202. A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following except
    • A. Stand alone
    • B. Play peek a boo
    • C. Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger
    • D. Build a tower of 3-4 cubes
  203. 203. A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Constitutional delay in growth
    • B. Genetic short stature
    • C. Primordial dwarfisnm
    • D. Hypopituitarism
  204. 204. All of the following are features of prematurity in a
    • neonate, except:
    • A. No creases on sole
    • B. Abundant lanugo
    • C. Thick ear cartilage
    • D. Empty scrotum
  205. 205. Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in an infant incubator?
    • A. Radiation
    • B. Evaporation
    • C. Convection
    • D. Conduction
  206. 206. The following are characteristic of autism except:
    • A. Onset after 6 years of age
    • B. Repetitive behavior
    • C. Delayed language development
    • D. Severe deficit in social interaction
  207. 207. All of the following may occur in Down's syndrome except:
    • A. Hypothyroidism
    • B. Undescended testis
    • C. Ventricular septal defect
    • D. Brushfield's spots
  208. 208. Which of the following malformation in a newborn is
    • specific for maternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitnus?
    • A. Transposition of great arteries
    • B. Caudal regression
    • C. Holoprosencephaly
    • D. Meningmyelocele
  209. 209. The requirement of potassium is a child is:
    • A. 1-2 mEq/kg
    • B. 4-7 mEq/kg
    • C. 10-12 mEq/kg
    • D. 13-14 mEq/kg
  210. 210 The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution)for malnourished children) is:
    • A. 90 mmol/L.
    • B. 60 mmol/L
    • C. 45 mmol/L
    • D. 30 mmol/L.
  211. 211. The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancy is:
    • A. Influenza virus
    • B. Para influenza virus
    • C. Rhinovirus
    • D. Respiratory syncytial virus
  212. 212. With reference to mumps which of the following is true
    • A. Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis
    • B. Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids
    • C. The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement
    • D. Mumps orchitis frequency leads to infertility
  213. 213. The carliest indicator of response after starting in a 6-year-old girl with iron deficiency is:
    • A. Increased reticulocyte count
    • B. Increased hemoglobin
    • C. Increased ferritin
    • D. Increased serum iron
  214. 214 Late onset hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all of the following features except:
    • A. Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies
    • B. Onset occurs at 4-12 week of age
    • C. Intracranial hemorrhage can occur
    • D. Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role
  215. 215. The following features are true for tetralogy of Fallot except
    • A. Ventricular septal defect
    • B. Right ventricular hypertrophy
    • C. Atrial septal defect
    • D. Pulmonary stenosis
  216. 216. Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between
    • A. Aorta to pulmonary artery
    • B. Aorta to pulmonary vein
    • C. Subclavian artery to pulmonary vein
    • D.Subclavian vien to artery
  217. 217. In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged:
    • A. Ventricular septal defect
    • B. Atrial septal defect
    • C. Aortopulmonary window
    • D. Patent ductus arteriosus
  218. 218. A 1-month-old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows feature of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is
    • A. Congenital aortic stenosis
    • B. Coarctation of aorta
    • C. Patent ductus arteriosus
    • D. Congenital aortoiliac disease
  219. 219. The most important determinant of prognosis
    • A. Stage of disease
    • B. Loss of heterozygosity of chromsome 1p
    • C. Histiology
    • D. Age less than one year at presentation
  220. 220. A malignant tumor of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most often, is:
    • A. Wilm's tumor
    • B. Neuroblastoma
    • C. Adrenal gland tumors
    • D. Granulose cell tumor of ovary
  221. 221. The procecess underlying differences in expression of a gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called
    • A. Anticipation
    • B. Masaicism
    • C. Non-penetrance
    • D. Genomic imprinting
  222. 222. A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following
    • A. A chromosomal syndrome
    • B. A teratogenic syndrome
    • C. A mendelian syndrome
    • D. A polygenic syndrome
  223. 223. An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except:
    • A. An Autosomal dominant disorder
    • B. An Autosomal recessive disorder
    • C. A polygenic disorder
    • D. A vertically transmited disorder
  224. 224. In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the followingis most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?
    • A. Autosomal dominant
    • B. Autosomal recessive
    • C. X-linked dominant
    • D. X-linked recessive
  225. 225. The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot in a newborn is:
    • A. Manipulation by mother
    • B. Manipulation and Dennis Brown splint
    • C. Manipulation and casts
    • D. Surgical release
  226. 226 All of the following statements are true about developmental dysplasia (DDH) of hip, except
    • A. It is more common in females
    • B. Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH
    • C. The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed reduction
    • D. Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor
  227. 227. All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, except
    • A. Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions
    • B. Erb's palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the shoulder
    • C. In Klumpke's palsy, Horner's syndrome may be present on the ipsilateral side
    • D .Histamine test is useful to differentiate between the preganglionic and postganglionic lesions
  228. 228 "Rugger Jersey Spine" is seen in:
    • A. Fluorosis
    • B. Achondroplasia
    • C. Renal osteodystrophy
    • D. Marfan's syndrome
  229. 229. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion:
    • A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    • B. Giant cell tumor
    • C. Fibrous cortical defect
    • D. Simple bone cyst
  230. 230. All the statements are true about exotosis, except:
    • A. It occurs at the growing end of bone
    • B. Growth continues after skeletal maturity
    • C. It is covered by cartilaginous cap
    • D. Malignant transformation may occur
  231. 231 Brown tumors are seen in:
    • A. Hyperparathyroidisnm
    • B. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
    • C. Osteomalacia
    • D. Neurofibromatosis
  232. 232. Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant?
    • A.Ewing's sarcoma
    • B. Retinoblastoma
    • SC. Osteosarcoma
    • D. Neuroblastoma
  233. 233. Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristics of primary malignancy of
    • A. Kidney
    • B. Bronchus
    • C. Breast
    • D. Prostate
  234. 234. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by
    • A. Vagus nerve
    • B. Facial nerve
    • C. Trigeminal nerve
    • D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
  235. 235. The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is:
    • A. 1 disc diameter
    • B. 2 disc diameter
    • C. 3 disc diameter
    • D. 4 disc diameter
  236. 236. The retina receives its blood supply from all, except:
    • A. Posterior ciliary artery
    • B. Central retinal artery
    • C. Retinal arteries
    • D. Plexus of Zinn and Haller arteries
  237. 237. The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is
    • A. 5 times
    • B. 10 times
    • C. 15 times
    • D. 20 times
  238. 238, SAFE strategy is recommended for the control of
    • A. Trachoma
    • B. Glaucoma
    • C. Diabetic retinopathy
    • D. Cataract
  239. 239. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?
    • A. Itraconazole
    • B. Natamycin
    • C. Nystatin
    • D. Fluconazole
  240. 240. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can
    • ause drowsiness?
    • A. Latanoprost
    • B. Timolol
    • C. Brimonidine
    • D. Dorzolamide
  241. 241. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma
    • A. Latanoprost
    • B. Brimonidine
    • C. Acetazolamide
    • D. Dorzolamide
  242. 242. Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given
    • intravitreally?
    • A. Gentamicin
    • B. Vancomycin
    • C. Dexamethasone
    • D. Ceftazidime
  243. 243. A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination?
    • A. As early as feasible
    • B. After 5 years
    • C. After 10 years
    • D. Only after visual symptoms develop
  244. 244. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is:
    • A. Retinal hole
    • B. Trauma
    • C. Hypertension
    • D. Diabetes
  245. 245. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxations of lens is seen in
    • A. Marfan's syndrone
    • B. Homocystinuria
    • C. Hyperinsulinemia
    • D. Ocular trauma
  246. 246. In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery?
    • A. Fuch's heterochromic cyclitis
    • B. Juvenile rheumatopid arthritis
    • C. Psoriatic arthritis
    • D. Reiter's syndrome
  247. 247. Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition?
    • A. Lattice dystrophy
    • B. Granular dystrophy
    • C. Macular dystrophy
    • D. Fleck dystrophy
  248. 248. Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi?
    • A. The intraocular pressure is increased
    • B. Calcification of the lens is common
    • C. Sclera is thickened
    • D. Size of the globe is reduced
  249. 249. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults
    • A. Neurofibroma
    • B. Meningioma
    • C. Cavernous hemangioma
    • D. Schwannoma
  250. 250. Which one of the following statements is incorredt about Optic glioma?
    • A. Has a peak incidence in first decade
    • B. Arises from oligodendrocytes
    • C. Causes meningeal hyperplasia
    • D. Is associated with type I neurofirbromatosis
  251. 251. The most common second malignant in survivors retinoblastoma is
    • A. Thyroid cancer
    • B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    • C. Optic glioma
    • D. Osteosarcoma
  252. 252. The posterior superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to:
    • A. Sensori-neural hearing loss
    • B. Secondary cholesteatoma
    • C. Tympanoscelerosis
    • D. Tertiary cholesteatoma
  253. 253. A 30- vear-old male is having Attic cholesteato ma of left ear with lateral sinus thrombophlebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice?
    • A. Intact canal wall mastoidectomy
    • B. Simple mastoidectomy with Tympanoplasty
    • C. Canal wall down mastoidectomy
    • D. Mastoidectomy with cavity obliteration
  254. 254. Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates?
    • A. Impedance audiometry
    • B. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)
    • C. Free field audiometry
    • D. Behavioral audioimetry
  255. 255. Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss?
    • A.Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic
    • B. Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic
    • C. Partial fixation of the stapes footplate
    • D. Ottitis media with effusion
  256. 256. Sensorineural deafness may be feature of all, ekcepr
    • A. Nail-patella syndrome
    • B. Distal renal tubular acidosis
    • C. Bartter synd
    • D. Alport syndrome
  257. 257. During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is through
    • A. Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve
    • B. Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in a parabolic curve
    • C.Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatus
    • D. Through olfactory area
  258. 258. A 5-year-old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy On the day of surgery he had running nose temperature 37.5°C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?
    • A. Surgery should be cancelled
    • B Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history at asthma
    • C. Should get X-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
    • D. Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be on antibiotic
  259. 259. Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrance
    • A. Thyrohyoiod
    • B. Cricothyroid
    • C. Cricotracheal
    • D. Crisosternal
  260. 260. A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?
    • A. Slit-lamp examination of eye
    • B. Measurement of intraocular tension
    • C. Examination of fundus
    • D. Retinal artery angiography
  261. 261. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in
    • A. Lichen planus
    • B. Psoriasis
    • C. Tinea unguium
    • D. Alopecia arcata
  262. 262. A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be:
    • A. Acitretin
    • B. Isotretinoin
    • C. Doxycycline
    • D. Azithromycin
  263. 263. A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous popular lesions on face, neck, 'V' area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:
    • A. Skin biopsy
    • B. Estimation of IgE levels in blood
    • C. Patch test
    • D. Intradermal prick test
  264. 264. A 6-month-old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudative lesions on the scalp, face, groins and axillae for one month. She also had vesicular lesions on the palms. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Congenital shypilis
    • B. Seborrheic dermatitis
    • C. Scabies
    • D. Psoriasis
  265. 265. In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequently occurs?
    • A. Actinic keratoses
    • B. Seborrheic keratoses
    • C. Molluscum contagiosum
    • D. Basal cell carcinoma
  266. 266. Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
    • A. Maintenance of a patent airway
    • B. To provide positive pressure ventilation
    • C. Pulmonary toilet
    • D. Pneumothorax
  267. 267.Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
    • A. Atracurium
    • B. Vecuronium
    • C. Rocuronium
    • D. Doxacurium
  268. 268. Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure?
    • A. Rapacurium
    • B. Pancuronium
    • C. Atracurium
    • D. Rocuronium
  269. 269. Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
    • A. Norfloxacin
    • B. Streptomycin
    • C. Doxycycline
    • D. Cefotaxime
  270. 270. Which one of the following local anesthetics belongs to the ester group?
    • A. Procaine
    • B. Bupivacaine
    • C. Lignocaine
    • D. Mepivacaine
  271. 271. Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children
    • A. Methoxyflurane
    • B. Sevoflurane
    • C. Desflurane
    • D. Isoflurane
  272. 272. Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines?
    • A. Isoflurane
    • B. Ether
    • C. Halothane
    • D. Propofol
  273. 273. Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate?
    • A. It is an intravenous anesthetic
    • B. It precipitates coronary insufficiency
    • C. It inhibits cortisol synthesis
    • D. It causes pain at site of injection
  274. 274. Which of the following anesthetic agents doe trigger malignant hyperthermia?
    • A. Halothane
    • B. Isoflurane
    • C. Suxamcthonium
    • D. Thiopentone
  275. 275. Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery?
    • A. Morphine
    • B. Ketamine
    • C. Propofol
    • D. Diazepam
  276. 276. Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering?
    • A. Thiopentone
    • B. Suxamethoniunm
    • C. Atropine
    • D. Pethidine
  277. 277. Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?
    • A. Sodium nitroprusside
    • B. Hydralazine
    • C. Mephentermine
    • D. Esmolol
  278. 278. A two-month-old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended:
    • A. No medication is needed as infant does not fool pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system
    • B. Only paracetamol suppository is adequate
    • C. Spinal narcotics via intrathecal route
    • D. Intravenous narcotic infusion is lower dosage
  279. 279. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
    • A. Electrorn
    • B. Proton
    • C. Helium ion
    • D. Gamma - Photon
  280. 280. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except:
    • A. Phosphorus 2
    • B. Strontium 9
    • C. Iridium192
    • D. Samarium
  281. 281. Phosphorus 32 emits
    • A. Beta particles
    • B. Alfa Particles
    • C. Neutrons
    • D. X-rays
  282. 282. Which of the following is used in the treatment of
    • differentiated thyroid cancer?
    • A. 131 I
    • B. 99m Tc
    • C. 32 P
    • D. 11-mIBG
  283. 283. All of them use non-ionizing radiation,except
    • A. Ultrasonography
    • B. Thermography
    • C. MRI
    • D. Radiography
  284. 284 Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
    • A. Chest X-ray
    • B. MRI
    • C. CT scan
    • D. Bone-scan
  285. 285. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms tumour after surgery is:
    • A. Within 10 days
    • B. Within 2 weeks
    • C. Within 3 weeks
    • D. Any time after surgery
  286. 286. The most radiosensitive tumor among the following is
    • A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
    • B. Carcinoma paroticd
    • C. Dysgerminoma
    • D. Osteogenic sarcoma
  287. 287. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph?
    • A. Bidirectional Glem shunt
    • B. Modified Blalock-Taussing shunt
    • C. IVC occlusion
    • D. Coarctation of aorta
  288. 288. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?
    • A. Diameter of the main pulmonary artery > 16 mm
    • B. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
    • C. Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16 mm
    • D. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery >16 mm
  289. 289. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is
    • A. Ultrasonography
    • B. Computed tomography
    • C. Magnetic resonance imaging
    • D. Arteriography
  290. 290. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:
    • A. Intravenous urography
    • B. Computed tomography
    • C. Ultrasound
    • D. Magnetic resonance imaging
  291. 291. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
    • A. Multislice CT
    • B. Echocardiography
    • C. Nuclear scan
    • D. MRI
  292. 292. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is
    • A. A percentage diameter stenosis > 70%
    • B. Presence of collaterals
    • C. A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mm Hg across the lesion
    • D. Post-stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
  293. 293. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:
    • A. White matter
    • B. Grey matter
    • C. Thalamus
    • D. Basal ganglia
  294. 294. Loosening of association is an example of:
    • A. Formal thought disorder
    • B. Schneiderian first rank symptoms
    • C. Perseveration
    • D. Concrete thinking
  295. 295. All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, except:
    • A. Late onset
    • B. Married
    • C. Negative symptoms
    • D. Acute onset
  296. 296. Intense nihilisim, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of
    • A. Involutional melancholia
    • B. Atypical depression
    • C. Somatized depression
    • D. Depressive stupor
  297. 297. Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake and even alert, is best described as:
    • A. Twilight state
    • B. Oneroid state
    • C. Stupor
    • D. Deliriurm
  298. 298. Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment of:
    • A. Anorexia nervosa
    • B. Seasonal affective disorder
    • C. Schizophrenia
    • D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
  299. 299. Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the management of:
    • A. Depression
    • B. Dissociation
    • C. Delusions
    • D. Dementia
  300. 300 Pavlov's experiment is an example of:
    • A. Operant conditioning
    • B. Classical conditioning
    • C. Learned helplessness
    • D. Modelling
Author
adarsha
ID
355964
Card Set
Mudit 2006
Description
mudit 2006
Updated