SPI EXAM

  1. What is the vertical axis of a graph called?



    B. y-axis
  2. What is the name of the horizontal axis of a graph?



    B. x-axis
  3. Mega means
    Millions
  4. Hecto means
    hundreds
  5. Milli means
    thousandths
  6. Kilo means
    thousands
  7. Nano means
    billionths
  8. Giga means
    billions
  9. How can the volume of an irregularly shaped object be measured most accurately? 



    C. BY IMMERSING IT IN WATER

    If you measure the amount of water that the object has displaced, you will get an accurate volume.
  10. What term is used to describe the effects of an ultrasound wave on living tissues? 



    B. biological effects

    US wave on LIVING TISSUES = biological effects
  11. Which waves do NOT require a medium to propagate?
    A. light
    B. heat
    C. sound
    D. television
    A, B, D.

    Sound requires a medium to propagate.
  12. Which describes the characteristic of a sound wave? 



    D. mechanical, longitudinal
  13. Sound is best described as:



    A. a series of compressions and rarefactions
  14. Name the 3 acoustic variables:
    Pressure, density, particle motion
  15. Pressure can be represented in which units?
    A. atmospheres (atm)
    B. pascals (Pa)
    C. millimeters of mercury (mm Hg)
    D. pounds/sq inch (lb/in2)
    • ALL. 
    • However, pressure of sound waves is most often reported in units of pascals.
  16. Sound can be characterized as:



    B. Sounds is a wave.

    A wave is the rhythmical variation throughout time.
  17. AIUM means:
    American Institute of Ultrasound Medicine
  18. Sound waves are:



    D. longitudinal, mechanical
  19. The speed of Us in soft tissue is closest to:



    B. 1500 m/s
  20. The frequency closest to the lower limit of US is:



    A. 15,000 Hz
  21. Which is NOT an acoustic variable?



    C. INTENSITY

    density, pressure, distance are acoustic variables
  22. The effects of soft tissue on US are called:



    B. acoustic propagation properties
  23. ____ is the time to complete one cycle.



    C. period
  24. Which of the following sound waves is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging?




    A. 30 KHz
  25. ____ is the distance covered by one cycle.



    D. wavelength

    Wavelength is the distance covered by one cycle.
  26. Which is determined by the source and the medium?



    A. range resolution.
  27. Propagation Speed is equal to:
    • Frequency x Wavelength
    • P.S = FW
  28. What is the rationale for the ALARA principle?



    B. patient exposure
  29. Propagation speed increases when:
    Compressibility and density decrease
  30. Units of PRF (pulse repetition frequency)
    per minute
  31. The time from the beginning of a pulse to the end is called:



    A. pulse duration
  32. What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modulus of the medium increases?


    B. faster

    More stiffness = Faster
  33. ____ resolution is determined be the spatial pulse length. 



    B. axial
  34. If a wave's amplitude is doubled, what happens to a power?
    It is QUADRUPLED. 

    2A = 4P
  35. Power of sound has units of:
    WATTS
  36. If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the beam area is reduced in half, what has happened to the power?



    • C. halved
    • Intensity = Power/Area 
    • I=P/A
  37. Which intensity is the smallest?


    A. SATA
  38. The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound is



    • B. 1.0 
    • 1 = duty factor for continuous wave us
  39. What is the minimum value of the duty factor?



    • C. 0%
    • Minimum value of the duty factor = 0%
  40. What are the units of intensity? 



    B. watts/cm squared
  41. What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modulus of the medium decreases?


    C. slower

    Speed of sound is SLOWER when bulk modulus DECREASES.
  42. The units of attenuation are ____; this is a ____ scale. 



    C. dB, logarithmic

    the units of attenuation are dB, this is a logarithmic scale
  43. Sound intensity is decreased by 75%. How many decibels of attenuation is this? 



    B. 6dB = 75%
  44. A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is traveling in soft tissue. The go-return time, or time-of-flight, of a sound pulse is 130 microsecs. What is the reflector depth?




    E. 10cm

    130microsecs / 10 = 10cm
  45. If a 5MHz sound wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the shortest wavelength? 



    A. AIR

    *****
  46. If a 5MHz sound wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the longest wavelength?



    C. bone
  47. The approximate attenuation coefficient of 1MHz US in soft tissue equals:
    • 0.5 dB/cm
    • 1MHz = 0.5 dB attenuation coefficient
  48. Rayl is the unit of:
    IMPEDANCE
  49. What are attenuations 3 components?
    • SCATTERING, ABSORPTION, REFLECTION 
    • attenuation = SAR
  50. Impedance is the product of:
    propagation speed & density
  51. For soft tissue, the approximate attenuation coefficient in dB/cm is equal to 1/2 frequency in MHz
  52. The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two media is 56degrees. This is called: 



    D. oblique incidence
  53. Refraction only occurs if:
    Oblique incidence & different propagation speeds
  54. With 90degree incidence, reflections are always generated at a boundary if propagation speeds of the media are different. (T/F?)
    FALSE
  55. ____ is a redirection of US in many directions as a result of a rough boundary between two media. 



    B. SCATTERING
  56. What tissue most likely would  create Rayleigh scattering?
    RED BLOOD CELLS
  57. With normal incidence the angle is 180degrees. (T/F?)
    FALSE
  58. Axial resolution is improved when spatial pulse length is DECRASED
  59. Snell's law describes the physics of ____.



    C. REFRACTION

    snell's law refers to refraction
  60. The most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissues is: 



    B. 1%
  61. The most typical amount of transission at a boundary in biologic media is:



    C. 99%
  62. Angle of incidence = angle of reflection
  63. Lateral Resolution is also called:



    A. AZIMUTHAL
  64. Frequency = mHz
    Speed = m/sec
    Intensity = W/cm2
    Attenuation = dB/cm
  65. What increases patient exposure?



    C. exam time
  66. Nyquist Limit (kHz) =
    PRF/2

    Nyquist frequency = the doppler frequency at which aliasing occurs
  67. Doppler shift produces information about:
    Velocity
  68. The area of interrogation in a pulsed doppler exam is called:
    Sample volume
  69. What does velocity have that speed doesn't?
    Direction. Speed only has magnitude, velocity has magnitude and direction.
  70. What is the range of periods commonly found in waves produced by ultrasound systems?



    C. 0.06 to 0.5 us

    A wave with a frequency if 2 MHz has a period of 0.5 usec. A wave with a frewuency of 15 MHz has a period of 0.06 us.
  71. With standard ultrasonic imaging, what happens to the period of a wave as it propagates?


    B. remains the same

    Period and frequency of a wave remain constant as sound wave propagates.
  72. What determines the period of an ultrasound wave?



    B. the transducer
  73. Which of the following are appropriate to describe the period of an acoustic wave? (More than one can be correct)
    A. minutes
    B. microseconds
    C. mm/us
    D. cubic centimeters
    A & B - minutes & microseconds
  74. What term describes the number of cycles that an acoustic variable completes in a second? 



    A. Frequency - number of occurring events in a specific time
  75. Which cannot be considered a unit of frequency?




    B. cycles
  76. The Doppler effect is presented as a ____ when the source and the receiver are ____.
    Frequency shift; in motion relative to each other.
  77. A sound beam is traveling from east to west. Blood is traveling from north to south. Which is true?



    • A. no Doppler shift 
    • - This is normal incidence, there no Doppler shift with normal incidence.
  78. Doppler shift provides formation about ____.
    VELOCITY
  79. At what angle between the sound beam and the direction of motion will the Doppler shift be a minimum?
    90degrees. No Doppler frequency exists because the cosine of 90degrees is 0.
  80. What are the current methods of processing spectral and color Doppler signals?
    • The FFT (FAST FOURIER TRANSFORM) method of spectral analysis for pulsed and CW. 
    • Autocorrelation for color flow Doppler.
  81. What is the typical range of Doppler Shift found in diagnostic imaging exams?
    between 20 Hz and 20kHz. In the audible range.
  82. The phenomenon where high velocities appear negative is called ____.
    Aliasing.
  83. The area of interrogation in a pulsed Doppler exam is called ____.
    SAMPLE VOLUME
  84. The higher the emitted frequency, the more likely a signal is to alias. (T/F?)
    TRUE
  85. The shallower the sample volume is, the more likely is a signal to alias. (T/F?)
    FALSE
  86. Only Pulsed wave Doppler exams have a sample volume. (T/F?)
    TRUE
  87. What feature does pulsed wave Doppler have that continuous wave Doppler does not?
    RECIEVE GATE THAT IS ADJUSTED by the sonographer.
  88. What is the recommended maximum angle of abduction?



    A. 30 degrees
  89. Using a tissue equivalent phantom, two pins at depths of 2 cm and 10 cm are imaged. On the systems display, you measure the distance between the two reflections created by these pins. What are you evaluating?



    D. RANGE CALIBRATION
  90. Using a tissue equivalent phantom, a sonographer adjusts the gain so that reflections on the display change from fully bright to barely visible. What is the sonographer evaluating? 



    D. SENSITIVITY
  91. Which of the following phantoms can be used to evaluate performance Doppler systems?



    C. STRING PHANTOM
  92. Which best describes the interval at which quality assurance evaluations should be performed?



    B. ROUTINELY
  93. Which of these phantoms has similar attenuation peroperties as that of soft tissue? 



    C. tissue equivalent phantom

    - the answer is in the question
  94. Which agency collect sonographer injury data? 



    C. SDMS
  95. Why is a tissue equivalent phantom used to interpret gray scale?



    A. because sound attenuates
  96. Which creates safety regulations for the workplace?



    A. OSHA 

    OSHA - safety
  97. Who is responsible for the quality assurance program in an ultrasound lab?



    B. sonographer
  98. When image is too bright or too dark use ALARA. What does ALARA stand for?
    AS LOW AS REASONABLY ACHIEVABLE
  99. How often should electrical safety checks be performed on a endocavitary transducer: 



    A. before each exam
  100. Which has the lowest output power?



    C. GRAY SCALE
  101. Which creates the weakest reflection?



    A. soft tissue - blood
  102. Which creates the strongest reflection?



    B. air-soft tissue
  103. Identify one of the advantages of coded excitation:



    D. PENETRATION
  104. What is the meaning of a thermal index = 3 ?



    B. tissue temperature may rise 3 degrees Celsius
  105. The creation of an image by scanning from different angles best describes ____. 



    A. spatial compounding
  106. You encounter a pt that does not speak english. Which is best to obtain informed consent?



    A. call for a hospital interpreter
  107. You enter a hospital room to perform an US exam. What do you do first?



    D. politely check the wristband
  108. Which of the following has the greatest output power?



    C. pulsed Doppler has the greatest output power
  109. Where does coded excitation originate? 



    C. THE PULSER
  110. All of the following are true of normal cavitation EXCEPT: 



    B. harmful bioeffects are commonly observed
  111. Identify one of the advantages of coded excitation:



    A. improved contrast resolution
  112. Which will eliminate range ambiguity artifact? 



    B. coded excitation
  113. Which will eliminate range ambiguity artifact?



    D. imaging deeper
  114. Which will eliminate range ambiguity artifact?



    A. lowering the PRF
  115. What artifact is created by an object that is located deeper than the image?



    C. range ambiguity
  116. The consolidation of many images into a single frame best describes which of the following?



    C. PERSISTENCE
  117. With the presence of ____ we see more boundaries than there are reflecting surfaces.



    B. REVERBERATIONS
  118. What is another name for longitudinal resolution?
    AXIAL RESOLUTION
  119. What are the units of longitudinal resolution?
    FEET

    ft = long
  120. Which is the best lateral resolution?



    B. 0.06cm
  121. If the spatial pulse length is 10mm, what is the axial resolution?



    A. 0.5 cm
  122. If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is _____.
    INCREASED
  123. A transducer CONVERTS one form of ENERGY into another.
  124. The production of a voltage from the application of a pressure is called ____. 



    D. piezoelectricity
  125. What is the production of deformation from voltage called?



    D. piezoelectricity
  126. Which is not a part of a transducer?



    D. A/D converter
  127. What is the Fraunhofer?



    B. far zone
  128. If we increase the frequency, the near zone length is:


    C. increased
  129. If the transducer aperature increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is: 


    C. INCREASED
  130. If we increased the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the far zone is: 


    C. DECREASED
  131. At the focus, the beam diameter is ____ the transducer diameter.



    D. half
  132. The digital scan converter has a number of pixels assigned to each bit. (T/F?)
    FALSE
  133. Lateral resolution can be improved by:
    FOCUSING
  134. The more bits per pixel:



    B. the more shades of gray
  135. The more pixels per inch:



    A. the better the spatial resolution
  136. Which is the first adjustment made when an entire image is too dark?



    A. GAIN
  137. What is the elimination of voltages that do not exceed a certain level?



    B. reject
  138. What is the name of the receiver function that corrects for attenuation?
    COMPENSATION
  139. The process of changing gray scale is called:
    DYNAMIC RANGE
  140. Enhancement, multipath, and side lobes result in:



    C. ARTIFACT
  141. The propagation speed of the US in the AIUM test object is:



    D. 1.54 mm/us

    American Institute of US in Medicene
  142. How many data bits are needed to represent 46 gray shades?



    B. 6
  143. The Fresnel is the:



    A. NEAR ZONE
  144. Which is associated with cavitation?



    B. MECHANICAL INDEX
  145. Which best describes the mechanistic approach to the study of bioeffects?




    A. cause-effect
  146. Which best describes the empirical approach to the study of bioeffects? 




    C. exposure-response 

    =empirical approach
  147. Where are harmonics created?



    A. in the tissues
  148. How is range ambiguity artifact eliminated? 



    D. lower the PRF
  149. For doppler, which incident angle results in no shift?



    B. 90 degrees

    90 degrees = no Doppler shift
  150. Which transducer would be best to image superficial structures?



    D. small diameter, high frequency
  151. A transducer with more than one active element is called:



    D. array
  152. How many bits are needed to represent 16 shades of grey?



    C. 4
  153. What information does Doppler shift provide?



    D. velocity
  154. A sound wave is a pressure wave made of compressions and rarefactions. (T/F?)
    TRUE
  155. A hydrophone is used to measure:
    INTENSITY & FREQUENCY
  156. Images on a videotape are stored using:



    D. COMPUTER MEMORY
  157. Circumferences may be measured in unit of:



    C. cm
  158. Decimal uses a base of 10, binary uses a base of:



    A. 2
  159. If the frame rate increases and the lines per frame is unchanged, what else must happen?



    B. depth decreases
  160. Which cannot be performed by a sonographer?



    A. clean pixels
  161. Which is not a beam steering technique for a mechanical scanhead?



    B. phased beam
  162. Which has the greatest amount of attenuation?



    B. bone
  163. What is not the responsibility of the sonographer?



    A. adjust the converter matrix
  164. While scanning in a water tank, what location in a sound beam has the highest intensity?




    D. focal point
  165. Which of the following will result in the highest mechanical index?



    D. low frequency and high signal amplitude
  166. Which of these biologic tissues will sound waves propagate most quickly?



    A. tendon
  167. What is the standard for communication  between medical imaging computers? 




    C. DICOM
  168. The Curie Temp has what effect?
    the ferroelectric material is depolarized
  169. What happens to venous return to the heart during expiration?


    C. decreased
  170. PERCENT is NOT a unit
  171. Pressure = Force/Area
  172. Period (sec) x Frequency (Hz) = 1
    inverse relationship, one goes up the other goes down
  173. 3 bigness parameters
    API - amplitude, power, intensity

    amplitude = dB, power = WATTS, Intensity = amplitude squared
  174. I = P/A

    INTENSITY (watts/cm2) = power (watts)/beam area (cm2)
  175. Wavelength (mm) = 1.54 mm/us / frequency (MHz)
    Speed and wavelength are DIRECTLY related
  176. stiffness and speed = same direction
    density and speed = opposite directions

    compressibility and elasticity are opposites of stiffness
    BULK MODULUS is the SAME as STIFFNESS.

    bulk modulus increases, speed increases
  177. If frequency of sound is doubled, what happens to wavelength?
    Wavelength is halved
  178. the effects of ultrasound upon tssue are called
    BIOEFFECTS
  179. Spatial Pulse Length (mm) = # of cycles x wavelength (mm)
    Shorter pulses create higher quality images
  180. PRF - pulse repetition frequency
    PRF only determined by IMAGING DEPTH
    PRF is NOT related to frequency
  181. Duty factor is the percentage or fraction of the time the system transmits sound.
    • Max: 1.0 or 100%, continuous wave
    • Min: 0.0 or 0%, system is off

    • Shallow image = high duty factor
    • Deep image = low duty factor
  182. SPTP = spatial peak, temporal peak - HIGHEST VALUE
    SATP = spatial average, temporal peak
    SPTA = spatial peak, temporal average *most relevant for thermal bioeffects*
    SATA = sptial average, temporal average - lowest value
    SPPA = spatial peak, pulse average
    SAPA = spatial average, pulsed average
    all have units of W/cm2 - they are all intensities
  183. 3dB = two times bigger
    10dB = ten times bigger
    • -3dB = one half
    • -10dB = one tenth
  184. IMPEDANCE = DENSITY x SPEED
    Rayls represented by "Z" = density (kg/m3) x propagation speed (m/s)
  185. Attenuation coefficient = amount of attenuation per centimeter
    Units: dB/cm
    • frequency doubles, atten coef doubles
    • frequency doubles, Rayleigh scattering increases by factor of 16, (2x2x2x2=16)
  186. Normal Incidence
    "PORNN" = perpendicular, orthogonal, right angle, ninety degrees ALL MEAN THE SAME 

    if not at 90 degrees, it is oblique
  187. Snell's law describes the physics of REFRACTION
  188. Speed = distance/time
  189. PZT is depolarized.
    NEVER heat sterilize or autoclave transducers
    Endocavitary probes require high level disinfection
  190. Ceramic, PZT, or crystal = 1/2 wavelength thick
    Matching layer = 1/4 wavelength thick
    never use a transducer with a cracked case, it can shock the patient
  191. Quality factor is a unitless number related to the extent of damping
    • Low-Q = imaging pulsed transducers
    • High-Q = CW & therapeutic transducers
  192. PZT crystal is half as thick, the sound frequency is twice as high
    • Low frequency = thick crystal, slow PZT
    • HIGH FREQUENCY = thin crystal, fast PZT
  193. When a transducer is covered with a sterile cover with gel on the inside, what must the transducer avoid touching in order to create an image?




    A. talcum powder
  194. A sound beam is created by a round PZT crystal with a diameter of 10mm. The focal depth of the sound beam is 8cm. What is the diameter of the sound beam at a depth of 8cm?



    D. 5mm
  195. A sound beam is created by a round PZT crystal with a diameter of 10mm. The focal depth of the sound beam is 8cm. What is the diameter of the sound beam at a depth of 16cm?



    B. the same as the transducer diameter
  196. Axial Resolution (cm) = Spatial Pulse Length (mm)/2
    • shorter pulse=better axial resolution
    • smaller #, better image quality
  197. Lateral resolution is equal to beam diameter
    It is also called beam width variation or point spread artifact
    Lateral resolution degrades at deeper depths (in the far zone)
  198. Which of the following transducers will have the poorest axial resolution?



    B. this is the longest pulse. it has the lowest frequency and most cycles/pulse
  199. Which of the following transducers will have the poorest axial resolution?



    A. low freq & many cycles
  200. Which has the best axial resolution?



    A. this is the shortest pulse, highest fequency, and fewest cycles/pulses
  201. Switched arrays are also called sequential.
    • Phased arrays = adjustable focus or multifocus
    • Electronic slope - creates beam steering
    • Electronic curvature - creates beam transmit focusing
  202. All decrease temporal resolution except:



    D. narrower sector
  203. A sonographer ajusts an ultrasound machine to double the depth of view from 5cm to 10cm. If the frane rate remains the same, which one of the following also changed?



    B. narrower sector
  204. A sonographer adjusts an image to change the sector size from 90 degrees to 45 degrees. Nothing else changes. The frame rate is:



    A. doubled
  205. A sonographer changes an images sector size from 90 degrees to 45 degrees. The frame rate remained unchanged. What else must have happened?



    C. the line density was doubled
  206. A sonographer using a phased array US system turns off the multifocus feature. What is the most likely consequence of this action?



    D. the temporal resolution improves
  207. A sonographer increases the line density from 1 line per degree of sector to 3 lines per degree of sector. What is the consequence of this action? 



    B. the temporal resolution decreases
  208. Which will increase frame rate by a factor of three? 




    A. changing imaging depth from 21 to 7cm
  209. Which of the following will have no effect upon temporal resolution?




    B. increasing transducer frequency
  210. What is the frame rate if each image of ultrasound system is created in 0.02 seconds (1/50th sec)?



    D. 50 Hz
  211. What is the time needed to make a single image if the frame rate of ultrasound system is 20 Hz?



    A. 0.05s
  212. What is the rationale for the ALARA principle?



    D. patient exposure
  213. Which of the following is associated with uniform amplification of signals?



    D. gain
  214. Which is associated with uniform brightness of an image?



    A. compensation
  215. All of the following are characteristics of contrast agents EXCEPT:



    D. cost effective
  216. An entire US image is too dark, but of uniform brightness. Which is the first adjustment that should be made to make the image brighter?



    C. increase output power
  217. An entire US image is too bright, but of uniform brightness. Which is the first adjustment that should be made to make the image darker?



    C. decrease output power
  218. Preamplification processes extremely weak signals that are susceptible to noise and often takes place in the transducer. (T/F?)
    TRUE
  219. With regard to ALARA, what is the best way to image deeper?



    B. decrease transducer frequency
  220. Which would have the shallowest delay on a TGC curve?



    C. 5 MHz linear phased array transducer
  221. How many Hertz is 3MHz?
    A. 3,000,000
    B. 3,000
    C. 333
    D. 0.003
    • Mega = MILLIONS
    • A. 3,000,000
  222. Which would have the deepest delay on a TGC curve?



    D. 2 MHz annular phased array transducer
  223. How much bigger is a billion than a million?



    • B. 1,000 
    • 1 mil X 1,000 = 1 Billion
  224. How many milliliters are contained in a jar filled with 5 liters of fluid? 



    D. 5,000
  225. How many liters are in 80 ml of fluid?



    D. 0.080
Author
TiaTaxin
ID
355885
Card Set
SPI EXAM
Description
Edelman Book
Updated