Mudit 2004

  1. 1. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to:
    • A. Shrug the shoulders
    • B. Raise the arm above the head on the affected side
    • C. Touch the opposite shoulder
    • D. Lift a heavy object from the ground
  2. 2. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung
    • due to all of the following features except:
    • A. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung
    • B. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus
    • C. Tracheal bifurcation directs the toreign body to the right lung
    • D.Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus
  3. 3. While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except
    • A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    • B. lioinguinal nerve
    • C. Subcostal nerve
    • D. Iliohypogastric nerve
  4. 4. Infection/inflammation of all of the following causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except
    • A. Isthmus of uterine tube
    • B. Inferior part of anal canal
    • C. Big toe
    • D. Penile urethra
  5. 5. The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as:
    • A. Choroid plexus
    • B. Tuberal plexus
    • C. Pampiniform plexus
    • D. Pectiniform septum
  6. 6. The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right or left
    • A. Atlanto-occipital joint
    • B. Atlanto-axial joirt
    • C. C2-C3 joint
    • D. C3-C4 joint
  7. 7. The first costochondral joint is a
    • A. Fibrous joint
    • B. Synovial joint
    • C. Syndesmosis
    • D. Syncendrosis
  8. 8. The articuiar cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except
    • A. It is devoid of perichondrium
    • B. It has a rich nerve supply
    • C. It is avascular
    • D. It lacks the capacity to regenerate
  9. 9. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except
    • A. Lymph nodes
    • B. Spleen
    • C. Thymus
    • D. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes
  10. 10. Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome?
    • A. Acrocentric
    • B. Telocentric
    • C. Submetacentric
    • D. Metacentric
  11. 11. The Couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the
    • A. Hepatic veins and portal vein
    • B. Hepatic veins and biliary ducts
    • C. Portal vein and biliary ducts
    • D. Portal vein and hepatic artery
  12. 12. During acclimatization to high aititude all of the following take place except
    • A. Increase in minute ventilation
    • B. Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors
    • C. Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to
    • D. Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left
  13. 13. One interm calculated the concentration of O, in blood as 0.0025 ml/ml of blood. Considering atmospheric pressure as 760mmHg, how much approx. O2 tension could have been in the blood?
    • A. 40mmHg
    • B. 60mmHg
    • C. 80mmHg
    • D. 100mmHg
  14. 14. Patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, because
    • A. The plasma oncotic pressure is high
    • B. There is renal compensation
    • C. There is an increase in cardiac output
    • D. There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
  15. 15. During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes place at the
    • A. Beginning of systole
    • B. End of isovolumetric contraction
    • C. End of diastole
    • D. End of diastasis
  16. 16. Sertoli cells have receptors for:
    • A. Inhibin
    • B. Luteinizing hormone
    • C. Follicle stimulating hormone
    • D. Melatonin
  17. 17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle
    • A. Desmolase
    • B. Isomerase
    • C. Aromatase
    • D. Hydroxylase
  18. 18. Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are under the inhibitory control of:
    • A. Glycine
    • B. Glutamate
    • C. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
    • D. Beta-endorphin
  19. 19. In which of the following form the Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma:
    • A. Bound to neurophysin-I
    • B. Bound to neurophysin-II
    • C. Bound to plasma albumin
    • D. Free form
  20. 20. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:
    • A. Glycine
    • B. Acetylcholine
    • C. Aspartate
    • D. Glutamate
  21. 21. The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the following except
    • A. Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
    • B. Increasing the number of motor units activated
    • C. Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor neurons
    • D. Recruiting larger motor units
  22. 22. A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficitl/excess for blood in a given patient. An experienced senior resident advised a quick method to determine acid base composition of blood based on PCO2 Which of the following is the likely method he suggested to predict acid base composition of blood?
    • A. Red ford normogram
    • B. DuBio's normogram
    • C. Goldman constant field equation
    • D. Siggard-Andersen normogram
  23. 23. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRN
    • A. AUG codon
    • B. UAA codon
    • C. UAG codon
    • D. UGA codon
  24. 24. RNA polymerase does not require
    • A. Template (ds DNA)
    • B. Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP)
    • C. Divalent metal ions (Mn2", Mg
    • D. Primer
  25. 25. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature messenger RNA is known as:
    • A. Intron
    • B. Exon
    • C. Plasmid
    • D. TATA box
  26. 26. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as
    • A. DNA polymerase
    • B. RNA polymerase
    • C. Reverse transcriptase
    • D. Phosphokinase
  27. 27. Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for valine in hemoglobin?
    • A. Isoleucine
    • B. Glutamic acid
    • C. Phenylalanine
    • D. Lysine
  28. 28. The transmembrane region of protein is likely to have
    • A. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids
    • B. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids
    • C. A disulphide loop
    • D. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids
  29. 29. Which of the following group of proteins assist in the
    • 'folding' of other proteins?
    • A. Proteases
    • B. Proteosomes
    • C. Templates
    • D. Chaperones
  30. 30. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to
    • A. Clathrin
    • B. Pepsin
    • C. Laminin
    • D. Ubiquitin
  31. 31. Which of the following is a membrane bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP?
    • A. Tyrosine Kinase
    • B. Polymerase
    • C. ATP synthase
    • D. Adenylate cyclas
  32. 32. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca from endoplasmic reticulum?
    • A. Inositol triphosphate
    • B. Parathyroid hormone
    • C. 1.25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol
    • D. Diacylglycerol
  33. 33. A small Ca 2 binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2 concentration, is known as
    • A. Cycline
    • B. Calmodulin
    • C. Collagen
    • D. Kinesin
  34. 34. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
    • A. Chylomicrons
    • B. VLDL
    • D. HDL
  35. 35. A middle aged woman on oral contraceptives for many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression, irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8g/dl Biochemical investigations revealed that she wasexcreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum All of the above findings are most probably related vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except
    • A. Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion
    • B. Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines
    • C. Decreased hemoglobin level
    • D. Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level
  36. 36. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's ability to handle oxidative stress?
    • A. Calcium
    • C. Potassium
    • D. Selenium
  37. 37. In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine kinase-1 increases?
    • A. Myocardial Ischemia
    • B. Brain Ischemia
    • C. Kidney damage
    • D. Electrical cardioversion
  38. 38. A young man finds that every time he cats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable, His stomach becomes distended He develops gas and diarrhea frequently. These symptoms do not appears when ho eats foods other than dairy products. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient?
    • A. α-amylase
    • B. ß-galactosidase
    • C. a-glucosidase
    • D. Sucrase
  39. 39. Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins
    • A. Quartemary structure
    • B. Tertiary structure
    • C. Amino acid sequence
    • D. Loop and turn segments
  40. 40. Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of:
    • A. Primary structure
    • B. Secondary structure
    • C. Tertiary structure
    • D. Quaternary structure
  41. 41. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6-biphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bi phosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:
    • A. Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is higher than normal
    • B. Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is lower than normal
    • C. Less pyruvate is formed
    • D. Less ATP is generated
  42. 42. Xerodema pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in:
    • A. DNA polymerase II
    • B. DNA polymeraseI
    • C. DNA exonuclease
    • D. DNA ligase
  43. 43. To which of the following family of chemicalmediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong?
    • A. Kinin system
    • B. Cytokines
    • C. Chemokines
    • D. Arachidonic acid metabolites
  44. 44. Which of the following is a procoagulation protein?
    • A. Thrombomodulirn
    • B. Protein C
    • C. Protein S
    • D. Thrombin
  45. 45. Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene?
    • A. c-myc
    • B. p53
    • C. bcl-2
    • D. bac
  46. 46. The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is:
    • A. Laminin
    • B. Fibronectin
    • C. Collagen type 4
    • D. Heparan sulphate
  47. 47. To which of the following events is 'good' outcome in neuroblastoma associated
    • A. Diploidy
    • B. N-myc amplification
    • C. Chromosome p depletion
    • D. Trk A expression
  48. 48. Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of medullary carcinoma of thyroid?
    • A. Ret Proto Oncogene
    • B. FAP gene
    • C. Rb gene
    • D. BRCA 1 gene
  49. 49. Males who are sexually under developled with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of
    • A. 45, XYY
    • B. 46, XY
    • C. 46, XXY
    • D. 46, X
  50. 50. Kinky hair disease is a disorder where an affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degenration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease Her mother's brother also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the possible mode of inheritence in her family?
    • A. X-linked recessive
    • B. X-linked dominant
    • C. Autosomal recessive
    • D. Autosomal dominant
  51. 51. Which of the following is an automsomal dominant metabolic disorder?
    • A. Cystic fibrosis
    • B. Phenyl ketonuria
    • C. a1 antitrypsin deficiency
    • D. Familial hyper cholestrolemia
  52. 52. Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?
    • A. Trisomy 8
    • B. 20q
    • D. Monosmy 7
  53. 53. All of the following statements about Hairy cell leukaemia are true except:
    • A. Splenomegaly is conspicuous
    • B. Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes
    • C. Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase
    • D. The cells express CD25
  54. 54. All of the following are the good prognostic feature for Hodgkin's disease except
    • A. Hacmoglobin > 10 gmd
    • B. WBC count < 15000/mm
    • C. Absolute lymphocyte count < 600/ul
    • D. Age < 45 yrs
  55. 55. A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed presence of a transmural haemorthagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal
    • A. Edema in between normal myofibres
    • B. Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils
    • C. Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of granulation tissue
    • D. Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages
  56. 56. Serum C3 is persistently low in the following except
    • A. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    • B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
    • C. Lupus nephritis
    • D. Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis
  57. 57. All of the following are associated with low complement levels except
    • A. Lupus nephritis
    • B. Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis
    • C. Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome
    • D. Post-infections glomerulonephritis
  58. 58. Splenic macrophages in Gaucher's disease differ from those in ceroid histiocytosis by staining positive for
    • A. Lipids
    • B. Phosphlipids
    • C. Acid fast stain
    • D. Iron
  59. 59. A 70 year old male who has been chewing tobacco for the past 50 years presents with a six months history of a large, fungating, soft papillary lesions in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into the mandible.Lymph nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies taken from the lesion proper show benign appearing papillomatosis with hvperkeratosis and acanthosis infiltrating the adjacent tissue. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Squamous cell papilloma
    • B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    • C. Verrucous carcinoma
    • D. Malignant mixed tumour
  60. 60. The blood in the vessels normally does not clot because
    • A. Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma
    • B. Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen
    • C. Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
    • D. Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx
  61. 61. Which of the following statements is true about hapten?
    • A. It induces brisk immune response
    • B. It needs carrier to induce immune response
    • C. It is a T-independent Antigen
    • D. It has no association with MHC
  62. 62. A 20 year old man presented with hemorthagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E.coli is likely to be the causative agent
    • A. O 157:H7
    • B. O 159:H7
    • C. O 107:H7
    • D. O 55:H7
  63. 63. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis
    • A. Cholera toxin
    • B. Shiga toxin
    • C. Pertusis toxin
    • D. LT of enterotoxigenic E.coli
  64. 64. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except
    • A. CFA-1
    • B. Pi-Pili
    • C. CS-2
    • D. K 88
  65. 65. Toxins are implicated as the major pathogenetic mechanism in all of the following bacterial diarrheas except
    • A. Vibrio cholerae
    • B. Shigella sp
    • C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
    • D. Staphylococcus aureus
  66. 66. A man, after skinning a dead animal, developeda pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely actiological agent is
    • A. Clostridium tetan
    • B. Listeria monocylogenes
    • C. Bacillus anthracis
    • D. Actinomyces species
  67. 67. A farmer presenting with fever off and on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this state except:
    • A. Standard Agglutination test
    • B. 2 Mercapto-ethanol test
    • C. Complement fixation test
    • D. Coomb's test
  68. 68. Regarding gas gangrenc one of the following is correct:
    • A. It is due to Clostridium Botulinum infection
    • B. Clostridial species are gram-negative spore forming anerobes
    • C. The clinical featues are due to the release of protein endotoxin
    • D. Gas is invariably present in the muscle compartments
  69. 69. A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows gram-positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is
    • A. Listera monocytogenes
    • B. Corynebacterium sp
    • C. Enterococcus sp
    • D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  70. 70. A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be
    • A. Thayer-Martin Medium
    • B. Blood agar with X & V factors
    • C. Chocolate agar with isovitale X
    • D. Teilurite blood agar
  71. 71. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is
    • A. Direct fluorescent antibody test
    • B. Enzyme immunoassay
    • C. Polymerase chain reaction
    • D. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells
  72. 72. Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except
    • A. Hodgkin's disease
    • B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
    • C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    • D. Multiple myeloma
  73. 73. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except
    • A. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen
    • B. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings
    • C. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enchanced culture
    • D. Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAl) antibodies in a single serum specimen
  74. 74. All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus except:
    • A. It is transmitted by feco-oral route
    • B. Asyinptomatic infections are common in children
    • C. There is a single serotype causing infection
    • D. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity
  75. 75. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is:
    • A. Hepatitis B virus
    • B. Hepatitis C virus
    • C. Hepatitis E virus
    • D. Hepatitis A virus
  76. 76. All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except
    • A. Myocarditis
    • B. Pleurodynia
    • C. Herpangina
    • D. Hemorrhagic fever
  77. 77. Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses:
    • A. Yellow fever is endemic in India
    • B. Dengue virus has only one serotype
    • C. Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) is transmitted by ticks
    • D. Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever
  78. 78. A highly ionized drug
    • A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
    • B. Crosses the placental barrier easily
    • C. Is well absorbed from the intestine
    • D. Is highly protein bound
  79. 79. In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drug ethical clearance is not required?
    • A. Phase
    • B. Phase II
    • C. Phase III
    • D. Phase IV
  80. 80. Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following conditions except;
    • A. Acute decompensated heart failur
    • B. Hypotension
    • C. Hypertension
    • D. Erectile dysfucntion
  81. 81. Which one of the follwing statements about biguanides is not true?
    • A. Don't stimulate insulin Release
    • B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
    • C. Renal Dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use
    • D. Can be combined with sulfonylureas
  82. 82. All of the following statements about an alpha glucosidase inhibitor are true except
    • A. Reduces intestinal absorbtion of carbohydrates
    • B. Effective in both type 1 & 2 diabetes
    • C. Hypoglycemia is a common & serious side effect
    • D.Can be used with other oral Hypoglycemic Agents
  83. 83. All of the following Anticancer agents cause bone marrow depression except:
    • A. Chlorambucil
    • B. Daunorubicin
    • C. Doxarubicin
    • D. Flutamide
  84. 84. All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifen over estrogen in post menopasual women except?
    • A. Reduces fracture rates
    • B. Avoids Endometrial hyperplas
    • C. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis
    • D. No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma
  85. 85. Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels?
    • A. Ethanol
    • B. Alphaxolone
    • C. Zolpidem
    • D. Buspirone
  86. 86. A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was:
    • A. Verapamil
    • B. Digoxin
    • C. Grevedilol
    • D. Propranolol
  87. 87. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiadarone therapy
    • A. Pulmonary Fibrosis
    • B. Hypothyroidism
    • C. Hyperthyroidism
    • D. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
  88. 88. A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed ranitidine and sucralfate in the moning hours. Why is this combination incorrect
    • A. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action
    • B. Combination of these two drugs produces serious side effects like agranulacytosis
    • C. Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not able to act.
    • D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine
  89. 89. All the following statements regarding interactions of levodopa are correct except
    • A. In Parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
    • B. It is a prodrug
    • C. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsomism
    • D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its
    • therapeutic potential.
  90. 90. Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is
    • A. Domperidone
    • B. Metoclopramide
    • C. Cisapride
    • D. Omeprazole
  91. 91. Which of the following actions is ascribed to delta type of opoid receptors?
    • A. Supraspinal analgesis
    • B. Respiratory depression
    • C. Euphoria
    • D. Reduced intestinal motility
  92. 92. Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except
    • A. Head injury
    • B. Asthma
    • C. Hypothyroidism
    • D. Diabetes
  93. 93. Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides
    • A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
    • B. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide Administration
    • C. Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
    • D. Sulfonamides are of value intreatment of infections due to Norcardia species.
  94. 94. A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most likely combination that was given?
    • A. Vancomycin and Amikacin
    • B. Cephalexin and Gentamicin
    • C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
    • D. Ciprofloxacin and Pipcracillin
  95. 95. Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of <50mg/min?
    • A. Ciprofloxacin
    • B. Trovafloxacin
    • C. Lomefloxacin
    • D. Sparfloxacin
  96. 96. Which of the following Antimicrobials has Antipseudomonal action
    • A. Cefopodoxime proxetil
    • B. Ceforanide
    • C. Cefotetan
    • D. Cefoperazone
  97. 97. A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis Which of the following antitubercular drugs should no be used
    • A. INH
    • B. Rifampicin
    • C. Streptomycin
    • D. Ethambutol
  98. 98. Patients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be treated with all the following drugs except
    • A. Tobramycin
    • B. Amikacin
    • C. Ciprofloxacin
    • D. Clarithromycin
  99. 99. All of the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer except
    • A. Letrazole
    • B. Exemestanc
    • C. Taxol
    • D. Tamoxifen
  100. 100. Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the treatment of Leiomyosarcoma?
    • A. Adriamycin
    • B. Doxorubicin
    • C. Methotrexate
    • D. Cisplatin
  101. 101.Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except
    • A. Isoniazid
    • B. Cyclosporine
    • C. Levodopa
    • D. Hydralazine
  102. 102. Which of the following statements is not true about Tacrolimus?
    • A. It is macrolide Antibiotic
    • B It is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection
    • C. Glucose intolerance is a well Recognized side effect
    • D. It can be safely administered with any
  103. 103. BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except?
    • A. Lead
    • B. Organic mercury
    • C. Cadmium
    • D. Arsenic
  104. 104.A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped from the jail. A dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by
    • A. Blood Grouping
    • B. DNA Profile
    • C. Anthropometry
    • D. HLA typing
  105. 105.The cephalic index of Indian population is between
    • A. 70-75
    • B. 75-80
    • С. 80-85
    • D. 85-90
  106. 106.A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right corneal opacity following the injury Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:
    • A. Grievous
    • B. Simple
    • C. Dangerous
    • D. Serious
  107. 107.Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by
    • A. Potassium cyanide
    • B. Phosphorus
    • C. Aniline dyes
    • D. Carbon monoxide
  108. 108.In which of the following conditions postmortem caloricity may be seen in death due to
    • A. Massive haemorrhage
    • B. Cyanide poisoning
    • C. Corrosive poisoning
    • D. Septicemia
  109. 109 Contre-coup injuries are seen in:
    • A. Brain
    • B. Diazepam
    • C. Flumazenil
    • D. Ethyl alcohol
  110. 110. Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except
    • A. Blood grouping
    • B. HLA typing
    • C. Preciptin test
    • D. DNA fingerprinting
  111. 111. Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests for blood except
    • A. Benzedine test
    • B. Phenophthalein test
    • C. Orthotoluidine test
    • D. Teichmann's test
  112. 112.A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most probable diagnosis is
    • A. Alcohol intoxication
    • B. Carbamates poisoning
    • C. Organophosphorous poisoning
    • D. Dhatura poisoning
  113. 113.A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of 'Mees' lines in the nails and rain drop pigmentation in the hands.
    • The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is
    • A. Lead
    • B. Arsenic
    • C. Thallium
    • D. Mercury
  114. 114.Which of the following is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level?
    • A. Cavett's test
    • B. Breath alcohol anaylzer
    • C. Gas liquid chromatography
    • D. Thin layer chromatography
  115. 115.A 39-year old carpenter has taken two bottles of liquor from the local shop. After about an hour he develops confusion, vomiting and blurring of vision. He has been brought to the emergency out patient. He should be given:
    • A. Naloxone
    • B. Diazepam
    • C. Flumazenil
    • D. Ethyl alcohol
  116. 116. A 34 years old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past ten years. One evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought to the casualty. On examination he had tachycardia, shallow breathing, constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mm of Hg. He had brisk bilateral deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. Which of the following is the best treatment for him?
    • A. Buprenorphine
    • B. Flumazenil
    • C. Methadone
    • D. Naloxone
  117. 117.A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of
    • A. Cross-sectional study
    • B. Retrospective
    • C. Concurrent cohort study
    • D. Case-control stud
  118. 118.All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except:
    • A. Latent period
    • B. Period of communicability
    • C. Serial interval
    • D. Generation time
  119. 119.A 3 % year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child?
    • A. BCG, DPTi, OPVi, and DPT2, OPV2 after 4 weeks
    • B. BCG, DT1, OPVi, measles, vitamin A
    • C. BCG, DPTI, OPVi, measles, vitamin A
    • D. DT. DT: and booster after 1 year
  120. 120.The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except
    • A. Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect
    • B. Whole killed bacteNa of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant effect
    • C. Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenecity
    • D. Presence of H. influenzae type B component increases its immunogenecity
  121. 121.A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre. She has not had any antenatal visit till now. The best approach regarding tetanus immunization in this case would be to
    • A. Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will not protect the new born and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she delivers in the meantime
    • B. Do not waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnancy
    • C. Give one dose of TT and explain that it will not be useful for this pregnancy
    • D. Give her anti-tetanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine
  122. 122.A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever On exanunation, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child?
    • A. The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia
    • B. Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home
    • C. Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens
    • D. Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic
  123. 123.The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is
    • A. Mass Miniature Radiotherapy
    • B. Sputum examination
    • C. Tuberculin Test
    • D. Clinical examination
  124. 124.According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow Fever if the Aedes aegypti index remains below
    • A. 1%
    • B. 5%
    • C. 8%
    • D. 10%
  125. 125.All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except?
    • A. Breast milk
    • B. Insect bite
    • C. Transplacental spread
    • D. Droplet infection
  126. 126.All of the following statements about leprosy are true except
    • A. Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches
    • B. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy
    • C. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more
    • D. The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000 population
  127. 127.A 10 month old child weighing 8kg has Bitot spots in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child ?
    • A. 2 lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14
    • B. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 14
    • C. 2 lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
    • D. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
  128. 128. The current recommendation for breast feeding is that
    • A. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
    • B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
    • C. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days
    • D.The baby should be allowed to breast-feed till one year of age
  129. 129. The following statements about breast milk are true except:
    • A. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months
    • B. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%
    • C. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow's milk
    • D. It provides about 65 k cals per 100 ml
  130. 130.The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (IUD) except
    • A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD
    • B. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar
    • C. IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days
    • D. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years
  131. 131.The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except
    • A.To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015
    • B. To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births
    • C. To reduce the bilateral Mortality Rate to 100 per 100000 live births
    • D.100 percent registration of births deaths marriages and pregnancies
  132. 132.Essential component of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except:
    • A. Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies
    • B. Maternal care including antenatal delivery & post- natal services
    • C. Reduce the under five mortality to half
    • D. Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections.
  133. 133."Five clean practices" under strategies for elimination
    • neonatal tetanus include all except:
    • A. Clean surface for delivery
    • B. Clean hand of the attendant
    • C. New blade for cutting the cord
    • D. Clean Airway
  134. 134. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the following except:
    • A. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption
    • B. Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 percent of caloric intake
    • C. Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% oftotal energy intake
    • D. Reduction of cholesterol to below 100mg per 1000 kcal per day
  135. 135.Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of
    • A. Srivastava Committec
    • B. Bhore Committec
    • C. Kartar Singh Committee
    • D. Mudaliar Committee
  136. 136.If cach value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10 the standard deviation of the resulting observations is:
    • A. Original std. Deviation x 10
    • B. Original std. Deviation /10
    • C. Original std. Deviation 10
    • D. Original std. Deviation itself
  137. 137.If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130mmHg and a median of 140mmHg, the distribution is said to be
    • A. Symmetrical
    • B. Positively skewed
    • C. Negatively skewed
    • D. Either positively or negatively skewed depending on the Standard deviation
  138. 138.The table below shows the screening test results of
    • disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the
    • population being tested
    • Screening Disease Z
    • Total
    • Test Results
    • Positive
    • 400 200
    • 100 600
    • 500 800
    • 600
    • 700
    • 1300
    • Negative
    • Total
    • The specificity of the screening test is
    • A. 70%
    • B. 75%
    • C. 79%
    • D. 86%
  139. 139. If prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:
    • A. 0.01
    • B. 0.03
    • C. 0.001
    • D. 0.003
  140. 140.If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild moderate" and "severe" the scale of measurement used is
    • A. Interval
    • B. Nominal
    • C. Ordinal
    • D. Ratio
  141. 141. The usefulness of a screening test' in a community depends on its
    • A. Sensitivity
    • B. Specificity
    • C. Reliability
    • D. Predictive value
  142. 142.Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characterized by:
    • A. Significant numbers of schistocytes
    • B. A brisk reticulocytosis
    • C. Decreased coagulation factor levels
    • D. Significant thrombocytopenia
  143. 143.A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since birth and hepatosplenomegaly Which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis
    • A. Hb electrophoresis
    • B. Peripheral smear examination
    • C. Osmotic fragility test
    • D. Bone marrow examination
  144. 144.Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of
    • A. Iron deficiency anemia
    • B. Anemia of chronic disease
    • C. Hemochromatosis
    • D. Lead poisoning
  145. 145.Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all except
    • A. Osteopetrosis
    • B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
    • C. Hurler's syndrome
    • D. Hemochromatosis
  146. 146.All of the following statements are true about sickle cell disease except
    • A. Patient may require frequent blood transfusions
    • B. Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before 3 years of age.
    • C. There is positive correlation between conc. HBS and polymerization of HBS
    • D. Patient presents early in life before 6 months of
  147. 147.All of the following are seen in cardiac temponade except
    • A. Pulsus paradoxus
    • B. Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram
    • C. Electrical alternans
    • D. Kussmaul's sign
  148. 148. In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterized by the presence of all of the following except:
    • A. Red cell casts
    • B. Acanthocytes
    • C. Crenated red cells
    • D. Dysmorphic red cells
  149. 149.Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs except
    • A. Lung
    • B. Liver
    • C. Pancreas
    • D. Spleen
  150. 150.A 40 year old man presented with painless hematuria Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done and mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear cytoplasm. Areas of hemorrhage and necrosis were frequent. Cytogenic analysis of this mass is likely to reveal an abnormality of
    • A. Chromosome 1
    • B. Chromosome 3
    • C. Chromosome 11
    • D. Chromosome 17
  151. 151. Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis ?
    • A. Ceftriaxone
    • B. Ciprofloxacin
    • C. Doxycycline
    • D. Minocycline
  152. 152.An HIV patient complains of visual disturbances Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular haemorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis
    • A. Herpes simplex virus
    • B. Human herpes virus 8
    • C. Cytomegalovirus
    • D. Epstein-Barr (EBV) virus
  153. 153. Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection:
    • A. Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues
    • B. CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression
    • C. Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients
    • D. In latent phase HIV has minimal replication
  154. 154. Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
    • A. Zalcitabine
    • B. Lamivudine
    • C. Nevivapine
    • D. Didanosine
  155. 155.A known sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis patient currently on INH, rifampicin, pyrizinamide and ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100 L and viral load was more than 50,000 copies/ml. Which of the following antiretroviral drug should be avoided:
    • A. Indinavir
    • B. Lamivudin
    • C. Ritonavir
    • D. Efavirenz
  156. 156.HBAIC level in blood explains
    • A. Acute rise of sugar
    • B. Long terms status of blood sugar
    • C. Hepatorenal syndrome
    • D. Chronic pancreatitis
  157. 157.A 45-year old woman visited her physician with
    • complaints of increased appetite and thirst with
    • increased frequency of urination. She also had the
    • symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the
    • feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory
    • findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as
    • follows:
    • Parameters
    • Blood glucose (mg/dL)
    • Urine glucose
    • Ketone bodies
    • Fasting 1 hr 2 hr
    • 270
    • 155
    • ve
    • ve
    • 205
    • -ve
    • Which of the following statements is not correct for the
    • above mentioned case:
    • She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes
    • mellitus
    • She was suffering from non-insulin dependent
    • diabetes mellitus
    • She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs
    • only when diet and exercise could not control the
    • pathological situation
    • Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus
    • is useful in predicting the nature of the diabetes.
    • A.
    • B.
    • C.
    • D.
  158. 158.The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorder is:
    • A. T3
    • B. T4
    • C. TSH
    • D. Thyroglobulin
  159. 159. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as
    • A. Jod-Basedow effect
    • B. Wolff-Chaokoff effect
    • C. Thyrotoxicosis factitia
    • D. De Quervain's thyroiditis
  160. 160.All of the following are true about amiadarone induced thyroid dysfunction except?
    • A. Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficie
    • B. Hypothyroidism is more common in men
    • C. Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activ
    • D. Amiodaraone therapy is associated with reduction of serum T4 levels
  161. 161.A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorthoca followed by amenonohoca for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?
    • A. Serum electrolytes
    • B. Plasma cortisol
    • C. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of
    • D. T3, T4 and TSH
  162. 162. Which of the following is the carliest manifestation of Cushing 's syndrome?
    • A. Loss of diurnal variation
    • B. Increased ACTHH
    • C. Increased plasma Cortisol
    • D. Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol
  163. 163.Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except
    • A. Chronic renal failure
    • B. Hypothyroidism
    • C. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
    • D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  164. 164.A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorthoea. Her height is 153 cms, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
    • A. Turner's syndrome
    • B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
    • C. Premature ovarian failure
    • D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
  165. 165.A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be
    • A. Craniopharyngioma
    • B. Prolactinoma
    • C. Meningioma
    • D. Sub-arachnoid hacmohhage
  166. 166.A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest x-ray is normal. The next step in investigation should be
    • A. Lung Ventilation-perfusion scan
    • B. Pulmonary arteriography
    • C. Pulmonary venous wedge angiography
    • D. Echocardiography
  167. 167.A 20 year old women presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm, red cell casts in the urine and serum creatinine 3mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    • A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
    • B. Polyarteritis nodosa
    • C. Wegener's granulomatosis
    • D. Dissen: nated tuberculosis
  168. 168.An 18 yr old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasrmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Wegener's granulomatosis
    • B. Polyarteritis nodosa
    • C. Takayasu's arteritis
    • D. Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)
  169. 169.A woman is admitted with complains of low-grade fever of 6 wecks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except:
    • A. CD4/CD8 counts in the blood
    • B. Serum ACE levels
    • C. CECT of chest
    • D. Gallium scan
  170. 170.An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5 g/dl). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Multiple myeloma
    • B. Indolent myeloma
    • C. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
    • D. Waldenstorm's macroglobulinemia
  171. 171.A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional lability has a golden brown discoloration in Descemet's membrane. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Fabry's disease
    • B. Wilson's disease
    • C Glycogen storage Disease
    • D. Acute Rheumatic fever
  172. 172.The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's disease
    • A. Neurofibrillary tangles
    • B. Senile (neuritic) plaques
    • C. Amyloid Angiopathy
    • D. Lewy bodies
  173. 173.All of the following can cause neuropathies wit predominant motor involvement except
    • A. Acute inflammatory demyclinating polyneuropathy
    • B. Acute intermittent porphyrıa
    • C. Lead intoxication
    • D. Arsenic intoxication
  174. 174. Which of the following viruses is not a common cause of viral encephalitis?
    • A. Herpes simplex virus type 2
    • B. Japanese encephalitis virus
    • C. Nipah virus
    • D. Cytomegalovirus
  175. 175.A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and right hemiparesis. The MRI pertormed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Acute pyogenic meningitis
    • B. Herpes simplex encephalitis
    • C. Neurocysticercosis
    • D. Carcinomatous meningitis
  176. 176.Which of the following brain tumors does not spread via CSF ?
    • A. Germ cell tumors
    • B. Medulloblastoma
    • C. CNS Lymphoma
    • D. Craniopharyngoma
  177. 177.A 15 year old boy with epilepsy on treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except
    • A. Weight gain of 5 kg
    • B. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/IL
    • C. Rise in serum ammonia level by 20ug/dL
    • D. Lymphadenopathy
  178. 178.Persistant vomiting most likely causes
    • A. Hyperkalemia
    • B. Acidic urine excretion
    • C. Hypochloraemia
    • D. Hyperventilation
  179. 179.All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women except:
    • A. It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention
    • B. It is not related to menstrual cycle
    • C. There is increased water retention in upright position
    • D. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases
  180. 180.In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the
    • A. Hepatic vein
    • B. Post sinusoidal
    • C. Extra hepatic portal vein
    • D. Sinusoids
  181. 181.In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is
    • A. Infrahepatic inferior vena cava
    • B. Infrarenal inferior vena cava
    • C. Hepatic veins
    • D. Portal veins
  182. 182.The short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following except
    • B. Hypogastrinemia
    • C. Weight loss
    • D. Steatorrhoea
  183. 183.Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except:
    • A. Testosterone
    • B. Prolactin
    • C. Estradiol
    • D. Lutenizing hormone
  184. 184.Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltration by anaplastic ells, which are also present in the papillary and reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Melanoma, Clark level IV
    • B. Congenital melanocytic nevus.
    • C. Dysplastic nevus
    • D. Melanoma, clark level III
  185. 185.Chronically lymphadenopathy limb is predisposed to all of the following except
    • A. Thickening of the skin
    • B. Recurrent soft tissue infections
    • C. Marjolin's ulcer
    • D. Sarcoma
  186. 186.First treatment of rupture of varicose veins at the ankle should be
    • A. Rest in prone position of patient
    • B. Application of a tourniquet proximally
    • C. Application of a toumiquet distally
    • D. Direct Pressure and Elevation
  187. 187.A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first
    • A. Pulmonary artery
    • B. Bronchial artery
    • C. Pulmonary vein
    • D. Superior vena cava
  188. 188.A 60 year old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. On CECT chest there was a tumor of 5x5 cm in upper lobe and another 2x2 cm size tumor nodule in middle lobe. The primary modality of treatment is
    • A. Radiotherapy
    • B. Chemotherapy
    • C. Surgery
    • D. Supportive treatment
  189. 189.Thoracic extension of cervical goiter is usually approached through
    • A. Neck
    • B. Chest
    • C. Combined cervico-thoracic route
    • D. Thoracoscopic
  190. 190.Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and pheochromocytoma may be associated with
    • A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
    • B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
    • C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid
    • D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
  191. 191.A 20 year old male presented with chronic constipation, headache and palpitations. On examination he had marfanoid habitus, neuromas of tongue, medullated cormeal nerve fibers and nodule of 2x2 cm size in the left lobe of thyroid gland. This patient is a case of:
    • A. Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid
    • B. Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid
    • C. MEN IIA
    • D. MEN IIB
  192. 192.The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is
    • A. Medullary type
    • B. Follicular type
    • C. Papillary type
    • D. Anaplastic type
  193. 193.The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is
    • A. Tongue
    • B. Floor of mouth
    • C. Alveobuccal complex
    • D. Lip
  194. 194.The most common malignant tumor of adult males in India is
    • A. Oropharyngeal carcinoma
    • B. Gastric carcinoma
    • C. Colo-rectal carcinoma
    • D. Lung cancer
  195. 195.The most common site of intestinal obstruction itn gallstone ileus is
    • A. Jejunum
    • B. Ileum
    • C. Transverse colon
    • D. Sigmoid colon
  196. 196. Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis?
    • A. Alcoholic pancreatitis
    • B. Gall stone pancreatitis
    • C. Post operative pancreatitis
    • D. Idiopathic pancreatitis
  197. 197. Injection sclerotherapy is ideal for the following:
    • A. External haemormhoids
    • B. Internal haemorrhoids
    • C. Prolapsed haemorrhoids
    • D. Strangulated haemorrhoids
  198. 198 For a rectal carcinoma at 5cm from the anal verge the best acceptable operation is:
    • A. Anterior resection
    • 3. Abdominal perineal resection
    • C. Posterior resection
    • D. Local resection
  199. 199.All of the following are significant risk factors for colonic carcinoma in an adenomatous polyp except
    • A. Pedunculated polyp
    • B. Villous histology
    • C. Size > 2cm
    • D. Atypia
  200. 200.A 55 year old male presented with painless terminal hematuria. Cystoscopic examination revealed a solitary papillary tumor. Histopathological examination of completely resected tumor is suggestive of grade III transitional cell carcinoma with no muscle invasion. Further management of this patient is best done by
    • A. Just follow up
    • B. Intravesical chemotherapy
    • C. Intravesical BCG
    • D. Cystectomy
  201. 201.Unilateral undescended testis is ideally operated around
    • A. 2 months of age
    • B. 6 months of age
    • C. 12 months of age
    • D. 24 months of age
  202. 202.Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatremia?
    • A. Gastric fistula
    • B. Excessive vomiting
    • C. Excessive Sweating
    • D. Prolonged Ryle's tube aspiration
  203. 203. Which one of the following preservatives is used while packing catgut suture ?
    • A. Isopropyl alcohol
    • B. Colloidal iodine
    • C. Glutaraldehyde
    • D. Hydrogen peroxide
  204. 204.Which of the following is not an indication of radiotherapy in Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid:
    • A. Involvement of deep lobe
    • B. 2nd histologically benign recurrence
    • C. Microscopically positive margins
    • D. Malignant transformation
  205. 205.All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except
    • A. Biparietal diameter
    • B. Head circumference
    • C. Transcerebellar diameter
    • D. Femur length
  206. 206.Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome
    • A. Triple screen test
    • B. Amniocentesis
    • C. Chorionic villous biopsy
    • D. Ultrasonography
  207. 207.Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down's syndrome. Karyoiype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy?
    • A. Triple test
    • B. a-fetoprotein
    • C. Karyotyping
    • D. B-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
  208. 208. Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most useful in distinguishing between open neural tube defects and ventral wall defects in a fetus?
    • A. Carcinoembryogenic antigen
    • B. Sphingomyelin
    • C. Alpha-feto protein
    • D. Pseudocholinesterase
  209. 209.Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detect all of the following except
    • A. Neural tube defects
    • B. Duodenal Artesia
    • C. Talipes equinovarus
    • D. Omphalocele
  210. 210.Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is
    • A. 63 days
    • B. 72 days
    • C. 88 days
    • D. 120 days
  211. 211.A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and marked respiratory distress is best treated by:
    • A. Intravenous frusemide
    • B. Saline infusion
    • C. Amniocentesis
    • D. Artificial rupture of membranes
  212. 212.Anti-D prophylaxis should be given in all of the following conditions except:
    • A. Medical abortion for 63 days pregnancy
    • B. Amniocentesis at 16 weeks
    • C. Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks
    • D. Manual removal of Placenta
  213. 213. The consequences of Rh incompatibility are not serious during first pregnancy because:
    • A. Antibodies are not able to cross placenta
    • B. Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response
    • C IgG gencrated is ineffective against fetal red cells
    • D. Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropocsis
  214. 214. Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy?
    • A. Serum iron
    • B. Serum ferritin
    • C. Serum trans ferrin
    • D. Serum iron binding capacity
  215. 215.A 37 year multipara construction labourer has a blood picture showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:
    • A. Iron deficiency
    • B. Folic acid deficiency
    • C. Malnutrition
    • D. Combined iron and folic acid deficiency
  216. 216.All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except
    • A. Nifedipine
    • B. Captopril
    • C. Methyldopa
    • D. Hydralazıne
  217. 217.Which of the following is not an indication for Antiphospholipid antibody testing
    • A. Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnancy losses
    • B. Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents
    • C. Early onset severe pre-eclampsia
    • D. Gestational Diabetes
  218. 218.All of the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract infections in pregnancy except
    • A. Diabetes
    • B. Hypertension
    • C. Sickle cell anemia
    • D. Vesicoureteral reflux
  219. 219.Which of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester
    • A. Hepatitis B virus
    • B. Syphillis
    • C. Toxoplasmosis
    • D. Rubella
  220. 220.A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in
    • preterm labor. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions except
    • A. Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hrs
    • B. Pregnancy induced hypertension
    • C. Diabetes mellitus
    • D. Chorioamnionitis
  221. 221.All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening during pregnancy except
    • A. Prostaglandin E
    • B. Oxytocin
    • C. Progesterone
    • D. Misoprostol
  222. 222. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a vaginal pH of 4?
    • A. Atrophic vaginitis
    • B. Candidal vaginits
    • C. Trichomonas vaginitis
    • D. Gardnella vaginitis
  223. 223.The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in case of Vesicovaginal fistula is
    • A. Suprapubic needle aspiration
    • B. Midstrcam clcan catch
    • C. Foley's catheter
    • D. Sterile speculum
  224. 224.A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by caesarian section complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most likely site of fistula?
    • A. Urethrovaginal
    • B. Vesico-vaginal
    • C. Vesico-uterine
    • D. Uretero uterine
  225. 225. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility and hirsuitism?
    • A. Polycystic ovaries
    • B. Endometriosis
    • C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    • D. Turner's syndrome
  226. 226.A fifty year old woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascitis. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals an ulcerative growth in pyloric region of stomach. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Malignant ovarian tumor
    • B. Carcinoma in the small intestine
    • C. Carcinoma body uterus
    • D. Carcinoma stomach with Kurkenberg's tumor
  227. 227.Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade I is
    • A. Radiotherapy
    • B. Chemotherapy
    • C. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy
    • D. No treatment
  228. 228.A two month old child is able to:
    • A. Show a positive parachute protective reflex
    • B. Head steady in seated position
    • C. Lift head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows
    • D. Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral suspension
  229. 229. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
    • A. Klinefelter syndrome
    • B. Turner syndrome
    • C. Cri du chat syndrome
    • D. Noonan syndrome
  230. 230.Ataxia telangicctasia is chracterised by all of the following except:
    • A. Chronic sinopulmonary disease
    • B. Decreased level of a-fetoprotein
    • C. Chromosomal breakage
    • D. IgA deficiency
  231. 231 .А 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hr. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
    • A. Nutritional rickets
    • B. Renal rickets
    • C. Hyperparathyroidism
    • D Skeletal dysplasia
  232. 232.A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability
    • & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe pallor. Investigation showed Hb-3.8 mg%; MCV-58 fl; MCH-19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    • A. Iron deficiency anemia
    • B. Acute lymphoblastic anemia
    • C. Hemoglobin D disease
    • D. Hereditary spherocytosis
  233. 233.A 5 year old child presents with history of fever off and-on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Acute leukemia
    • B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
    • C. Hypersplenism
    • D. Aplastic anemia
  234. 234.A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later ballooned atrial septosomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is
    • A. Tetralogy of Fallot
    • B. Transposition of great vesse
    • C. Truncus Arteriosus
    • D. Tricuspid Atresia
  235. 235.In which of the following a 'Coeur en Sabot' shape of
    • the heart is seen:
    • A. Tricuspid atresia
    • B. Ventricular septal defect
    • C. Transposition of great arteries
    • D. Tetralogy of Fallot
  236. 236.An infant develops cough and fever. The X-ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except
    • A. Parainfluenza viruses
    • B. Influenza virus A
    • C. Respiratory syncytial virus
    • D. Mumps virus
  237. 237.In neonatal cholestasis, if the serum gamaglutamyl transpeptidase (gamma GTP) is more than 600 IU/L the most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Neonatal hepatitis
    • B. Choledochal cyst
    • C. Sclerosing cholangitis
    • D. Biliary atresia
  238. 238. The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability equivalent to adult's kidney by
    • A. One year of age
    • B. Eighteen months of age
    • C. Three to six months of age
    • D. Just before puberty
  239. 239.All of the following are neural tube defects except
    • A. Myelomeningocoele
    • B. Anencephaly
    • C. Encephalocele
    • D. Holoprosencephaly
  240. 240.All are features of absence seizures except:
    • A. Usually seen in childhood
    • B. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG
    • C. Postictal confusion
    • D. Precipitation by hyperventilation
  241. 241.A 10 month old child presents with two weeks history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus, The most likely etiological agent is
    • A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    • B. Cryptococcus neoformans
    • C. Listera monocytogenes
    • D. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
  242. 242.For which of the following diseases is enzyme replacement therapy available?
    • A. Albinism
    • B. Neimann-Pick disease
    • C. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
    • D. Gaucher's disease
  243. 243. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of
    • A. Neuromuscular junction
    • B. Sarcolemmal proteins
    • C. Muscle contractile proteins
    • D. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
  244. 244.Bacterial meningitis in children (2 months-12 years of age) is usually due to the following organisms except
    • A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • B. Neisseria meningitidis
    • C. Hemophilus influenzac type B
    • D. Listera monocytogenes
  245. 245.All of the following are essential features of attention deficit hyperactivity disease (ADHD) except:
    • A. Lack of concentration
    • B. Impulsivity
    • C. Mental retardation
    • D. Hyperactivity
  246. 246.A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the 1st day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion 1 year back. On vaginal swab culture growth of ß-haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?
    • A. Strptococcus pyogenes
    • B. Stiptococcus agalactiae
    • C. Peptostreptococci
    • D. Enterococcus faecum
  247. 247.The most common agent associated with neonatal bacterial meningitis is
    • A. Haemophilus influenzae type b
    • B. Neisseria meningitidis
    • C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • D. Streptococcus agalactiae
  248. 248. Haemophilus influenzae has been isolated from the CSF of a two year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain is beta-lactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol. The most appropriate antimicrobial in such a situation is:
    • A. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination
    • B. Ciprofloxacin
    • C. Third-generation cephalosporin
    • D. Vancomycin
  249. 249.An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training
    • started complaining of pain at postero medial aspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Buerger's discase
    • B. Gout
    • C. Lumbar canal stenosis
    • D. Stress fracture
  250. 250.In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between containing clear fluid. This condition is called as
    • A. Delayed union
    • B. Slow union
    • C. Non union
    • D. Pseudoarthrosis
  251. 251.Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to
    • A. Titanium debris
    • B. High density polythene debris
    • C. N. N-Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)
    • D. Free radicals
  252. 252.In fracture of the olecronon, excision of the proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following situations except
    • A. Old ununited fractures
    • B. Non-articular fractures
    • C. Fracture extending to coronoid process
    • D. Elderly patient
  253. 253.Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of the following parts of the vertebra except
    • A. Body
    • B. Lamina
    • C. Spinous process
    • D. Pedicle
  254. 254.All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except
    • A. Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon
    • B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
    • C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
    • D. Carpal instability
  255. 255. The management of fat embolism includes all of the following except
    • A. Oxygen
    • B. Heparinization
    • C. Low Molecular weight dextran
    • D. Pulmonary Embolectomy
  256. 256.Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower end of femur must include
    • A. Radiotherapy, amputation, chemotherapy
    • B. Surgery alone
    • C. Chemotherapy + Limb Salvage Surgery + Chemotherapy
    • D. Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
  257. 257.Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in
    • A. Superior conjunctiva
    • B. Inferior conjunctiva
    • C. Nasal conjunctiva
    • D. Temporal conjunctiva
  258. 258.A 10 year old boy presents with severe itching of the eye and a ropy discharge. His symptoms aggravate in summer season. Most likely diagnosis is?
    • A. Trachoma
    • B. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
    • C. Acute coniunctivitis
    • D. Blepharitis
  259. 259. Arlt's line is seen in
    • A. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
    • B. Pterygium
    • C. Ocular pemphigoid
    • D. Trachoma
  260. 260. Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer
    • A. Atropine sulphate eye ointment
    • B. Dexamethasone eye drops
    • C. Pilocarpine eye drops
    • D. Lignocaine eye drops
  261. 261.Polychromatic lusture is seen in:
    • A. Complicated cataract
    • B. Diabetes mellitus
    • C. Post radiation cataract
    • D. Congenital cataract
  262. 262.A two week old child presents with unilateral cataract. Which of the following statement represents the best management advice
    • A. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four weeks
    • B. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four months
    • C. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four years
    • D.The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is required
  263. 263. Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan's syndrome:
    • A. Microcornea
    • B. Microspherophakia
    • C. Megalocornea
    • D. Ectopia lentis
  264. 264. Lanatoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts
    • A. Decreasing aqueous humour formation
    • B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
    • C. Releasing pupillary block
    • D. Increasing trabecular outflow
  265. 265.A two months old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is
    • A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
    • B. Buphthalmos
    • C. Congenital dacryocystitis
    • D. Encysted mucocele
  266. 266. "Photo dynamic therapy" is used in the eye for the following disease:
    • A. Cataract
    • B. Glaucoma
    • C. Uveitis
    • D. Wet AMD (Age related macular degeneration)
  267. 267.All are ocular emergencies except
    • A. Angle closure glaucoma
    • B. Central serous retinopathy
    • C. Retinal detachment
    • D. Central retinal arterial occlusion
  268. 268. The most common condition of inherited blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is
    • A. Retinopathy of prematurity
    • B. Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy
    • C. Retinitis pigmentosa
    • D. Retinal detachment
  269. 269.All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex except:
    • A. Retinoblastoma
    • B. Cataract
    • C. Retrolental fibroplasia
    • D. Glaucoma
  270. 270. In right middle ear pathology Weber's test will be:
    • A. Normal
    • B. Centralised
    • C. Lateralised to right side
    • D. Lateralised to left side
  271. 271. Meniere's disease is characterized by
    • A. Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
    • B. Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
    • C. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
    • D. Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss
  272. 272.Fordyce's (Spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise from:
    • A. Mucous glands
    • B. Sebaceous glands
    • C. Taste buds
    • D. Minor salivary glands
  273. 273.Which of the following locations show collection of pus in quinsy
    • A. Peritonsillar space
    • B. Parapharyngeal space
    • C. Retropharyngeal space
    • D. Within the tonsil
  274. 274. Which of the following statements best represents Bell's paralysis
    • A. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve
    • B. Combined paralysis of the facial, trigeminal, and
    • C. Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
    • nerves
    • D. Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye
  275. 275.A 30 year old male had severely itchy papula-vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction. The most probable diagnosis is:
    • A. Pemphigus vulgar
    • B. Bullous pemplhigoi
    • C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
    • D. Nummular eczema
  276. 276.A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Fixed drug eruption
    • B. Lichen planus
    • C. Urticaria pigmentosa
    • D. Urticarial vasculitis
  277. 277.A 25 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from
    • A. Seborrheic dermatitis
    • B. Atopic dermatitis
    • C. Airbome contact dermatitis
    • D. Nummular dermatitis
  278. 278. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children
    • A. Enflurane
    • B. Isoflurane
    • C. Sevoflurane
    • D. Desflurane
  279. 279. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
    • A. Neurosurgery
    • B. Day care surgery
    • C. Patients with coronary artery disease
    • D. In neonates
  280. 280.A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocain was used as anesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Amniotic fluid embolism
    • B. Lignocaine toxicity
    • C. Hypocalcemia
    • D. Hypokalemia
  281. 281.A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistert numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except:
    • A. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
    • B. A tight cast or dressing
    • C. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
    • D. Tourniqet pressure
  282. 282.When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of thoe following treatments may be instituted except:
    • A. Carotid sinus massage
    • B. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV
    • C. Direct current cardioversion
    • D. Verapamil 5 mg IV
  283. 283.A patient is suspected to have vestibular schwanoma The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
    • A. Contrast enhanced CT scan
    • B. Gadolinum enhanced MRI
    • C. SPECT
    • D. PET scan
  284. 284.In scurvy' all the following radiological signs are seen except
    • A. Pelican spur
    • B. Soap bubble appearance
    • C. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis
    • D. Frenkel's line
  285. 285.On radiography widened duodenal"C" loop with irregular mucosal pattern on upper gastrointestinal barium series is most likely due to
    • A. Chronic pancreatitis
    • B. Carcinoma head of pancreas
    • C. Duodenal ulcer
    • D. Duodenal ileus
  286. 286. Which of the following is the most penetration beam?
    • A. Electron beanm
    • B. 8 MV photons
    • C. 18 MV photons
    • D. Proton beam
  287. 287.The radiation tolerance of whole liver is
    • A. 15 Gy
    • B. 30 Gy
    • C. 40Gy
    • D. 45C
  288. 288. In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used?
    • A. Head and neck
    • B. Stomach
    • C. Colon
    • D Soft tissue sarcomas
  289. 289. Which of the following is not a CT scan feature of acute pancreatitis
    • A. IlI defined outline of the pancreas
    • B. Enlargement of the pancreas
    • C. Poor contrast enhancement
    • D. Dilated main pancreatic duct
  290. 290 Which of the following is the classic CT appearance of an acute Subdural hematoma
    • A. Lentiform-shaped hyperdense lesion
    • B. Cresent-shaped hypodense lesion
    • C. Cresent-shaped hyperdense lesion
    • D. Lentiform-shaped hypodensc lesion
  291. 291.The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be
    • A. Non-contrast computed tomography
    • B. CSF examination
    • C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
    • D. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography
  292. 292. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques except
    • A.Mass spectroscopy
    • B. RIA
    • C. ELISA
    • D. Sequencing of nucleic acid
  293. 293.Signs of organic brain damage are evident on:
    • A. Bender Gestalt Test
    • B. Rorschach Test
    • C. Sentence Completion Test
    • D. Thematic Apperception Test
  294. 294.Miss B, a 27 year old nurse had extracurricular interest in trekking and painting. She broke up relationship with her boy friend. Two months later she lost interest in her hobbies and was convinced that she would not be able to work again. She thought life was not worth living and has consumed 60 tablets of phenobarbitone to end her life. She is most likely suffering from
    • A. Adjustment disorder
    • B. Conversion disorder
    • C. Depressive disorder
    • D. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
  295. 295.A 25-year old house wife came to the Psychiatry out patient department (OPD) complaining that her nose was longer than usual. She felt that her husband did not like her because of the deformity and had developed relationship with the neighbouring girl. Further she complained that people made fun of her. It was not possible to convince her that there was no deformity Her symptoms include
    • A. Delusion
    • B. Depersonalization
    • C. Depression
    • D. Hallucination
  296. 296.A 40-year old man presents to casualty with his regular and heavy use of alcohol for ten years and morning drinking for one year. The last alcohol intake was three days back. There is no history of head injury or seizures. On examination, there is no icterus, sign of hepatic encephalopathy or focal neurological sign. The patient had coarse tremors, visual hallucinations and had disorientation to time. Which of the following is the best medicine to be prescribed for such a patient?
    • A. Diazepam
    • B. Haloperidol
    • C. Imipramine
    • D. Naltrexone
  297. 297.A 30 year old unmarried woman from a low socio economic status family believes that a rich boy staying in her neighbourhood is in deep love with her. The boy clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady insists that his denial is a secret affirmation of his love towards her. She makes desperate attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family. She also develops sadness at times when her effort to meet the boy does not materialize. She is able to maintain her daily routine. She however, remains preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering
    • A. Delusional disorder
    • B. Depression
    • C. Mania
    • D. Schizophrenia
  298. 298.The Non-REM (NREM) sleep is commonly associate
    • A. Frequent dreaming
    • B. Frequent penile erections
    • C. Increased blood pressure
    • D. Night terrors
  299. 299-A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his classmates laugh at and talk even scared of going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from
    • A. Anxiety neurosis
    • B. Manic Depressive Psychosis
    • C. Adjustment reaction
    • D. Schizophrenia
  300. 300-A 41 year old woman working as an Executive Director is convinced that the management has denied her promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and have forged her signature on sensitive documents so as to convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and requests for security. Despite all this she attends to her work and manages the household. She is suffering from
    • A. Paranoid Schizophrenia
    • B. Late onset Psychosis
    • C. Persistent Delusional Disorder
    • D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Author
adarsha
ID
355874
Card Set
Mudit 2004
Description
mudit khanna 2004
Updated