-
1. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to:
- A. Shrug the shoulders
- B. Raise the arm above the head on the affected side
- C. Touch the opposite shoulder
- D. Lift a heavy object from the ground
-
2. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung
- due to all of the following features except:
- A. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung
- B. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus
- C. Tracheal bifurcation directs the toreign body to the right lung
- D.Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus
-
3. While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except
- A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
- B. lioinguinal nerve
- C. Subcostal nerve
- D. Iliohypogastric nerve
-
4. Infection/inflammation of all of the following causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except
- A. Isthmus of uterine tube
- B. Inferior part of anal canal
- C. Big toe
- D. Penile urethra
-
5. The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as:
- A. Choroid plexus
- B. Tuberal plexus
- C. Pampiniform plexus
- D. Pectiniform septum
-
6. The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right or left
- A. Atlanto-occipital joint
- B. Atlanto-axial joirt
- C. C2-C3 joint
- D. C3-C4 joint
-
7. The first costochondral joint is a
- A. Fibrous joint
- B. Synovial joint
- C. Syndesmosis
- D. Syncendrosis
-
8. The articuiar cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except
- A. It is devoid of perichondrium
- B. It has a rich nerve supply
- C. It is avascular
- D. It lacks the capacity to regenerate
-
9. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except
- A. Lymph nodes
- B. Spleen
- C. Thymus
- D. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes
-
10. Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome?
- A. Acrocentric
- B. Telocentric
- C. Submetacentric
- D. Metacentric
-
11. The Couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the
- A. Hepatic veins and portal vein
- B. Hepatic veins and biliary ducts
- C. Portal vein and biliary ducts
- D. Portal vein and hepatic artery
-
12. During acclimatization to high aititude all of the following take place except
- A. Increase in minute ventilation
- B. Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors
- C. Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to
- D. Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left
-
13. One interm calculated the concentration of O, in blood as 0.0025 ml/ml of blood. Considering atmospheric pressure as 760mmHg, how much approx. O2 tension could have been in the blood?
- A. 40mmHg
- B. 60mmHg
- C. 80mmHg
- D. 100mmHg
-
14. Patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, because
- A. The plasma oncotic pressure is high
- B. There is renal compensation
- C. There is an increase in cardiac output
- D. There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
-
15. During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes place at the
- A. Beginning of systole
- B. End of isovolumetric contraction
- C. End of diastole
- D. End of diastasis
-
16. Sertoli cells have receptors for:
- A. Inhibin
- B. Luteinizing hormone
- C. Follicle stimulating hormone
- D. Melatonin
-
17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle
- A. Desmolase
- B. Isomerase
- C. Aromatase
- D. Hydroxylase
-
18. Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are under the inhibitory control of:
- A. Glycine
- B. Glutamate
- C. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
- D. Beta-endorphin
-
19. In which of the following form the Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma:
- A. Bound to neurophysin-I
- B. Bound to neurophysin-II
- C. Bound to plasma albumin
- D. Free form
-
20. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:
- A. Glycine
- B. Acetylcholine
- C. Aspartate
- D. Glutamate
-
21. The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the following except
- A. Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
- B. Increasing the number of motor units activated
- C. Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor neurons
- D. Recruiting larger motor units
-
22. A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficitl/excess for blood in a given patient. An experienced senior resident advised a quick method to determine acid base composition of blood based on PCO2 Which of the following is the likely method he suggested to predict acid base composition of blood?
- A. Red ford normogram
- B. DuBio's normogram
- C. Goldman constant field equation
- D. Siggard-Andersen normogram
-
23. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRN
- A. AUG codon
- B. UAA codon
- C. UAG codon
- D. UGA codon
-
24. RNA polymerase does not require
- A. Template (ds DNA)
- B. Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP)
- C. Divalent metal ions (Mn2", Mg
- D. Primer
-
25. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature messenger RNA is known as:
- A. Intron
- B. Exon
- C. Plasmid
- D. TATA box
-
26. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as
- A. DNA polymerase
- B. RNA polymerase
- C. Reverse transcriptase
- D. Phosphokinase
-
27. Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for valine in hemoglobin?
- A. Isoleucine
- B. Glutamic acid
- C. Phenylalanine
- D. Lysine
-
28. The transmembrane region of protein is likely to have
- A. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids
- B. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids
- C. A disulphide loop
- D. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids
-
29. Which of the following group of proteins assist in the
- 'folding' of other proteins?
- A. Proteases
- B. Proteosomes
- C. Templates
- D. Chaperones
-
30. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to
- A. Clathrin
- B. Pepsin
- C. Laminin
- D. Ubiquitin
-
31. Which of the following is a membrane bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP?
- A. Tyrosine Kinase
- B. Polymerase
- C. ATP synthase
- D. Adenylate cyclas
-
32. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca from endoplasmic reticulum?
- A. Inositol triphosphate
- B. Parathyroid hormone
- C. 1.25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol
- D. Diacylglycerol
-
33. A small Ca 2 binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2 concentration, is known as
- A. Cycline
- B. Calmodulin
- C. Collagen
- D. Kinesin
-
34. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
- A. Chylomicrons
- B. VLDL
- D. HDL
-
35. A middle aged woman on oral contraceptives for many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression, irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8g/dl Biochemical investigations revealed that she wasexcreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum All of the above findings are most probably related vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except
- A. Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion
- B. Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines
- C. Decreased hemoglobin level
- D. Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level
-
36. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's ability to handle oxidative stress?
- A. Calcium
- C. Potassium
- D. Selenium
-
37. In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine kinase-1 increases?
- A. Myocardial Ischemia
- B. Brain Ischemia
- C. Kidney damage
- D. Electrical cardioversion
-
38. A young man finds that every time he cats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable, His stomach becomes distended He develops gas and diarrhea frequently. These symptoms do not appears when ho eats foods other than dairy products. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient?
- A. α-amylase
- B. ß-galactosidase
- C. a-glucosidase
- D. Sucrase
-
39. Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins
- A. Quartemary structure
- B. Tertiary structure
- C. Amino acid sequence
- D. Loop and turn segments
-
40. Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of:
- A. Primary structure
- B. Secondary structure
- C. Tertiary structure
- D. Quaternary structure
-
41. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6-biphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bi phosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:
- A. Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is higher than normal
- B. Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is lower than normal
- C. Less pyruvate is formed
- D. Less ATP is generated
-
42. Xerodema pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in:
- A. DNA polymerase II
- B. DNA polymeraseI
- C. DNA exonuclease
- D. DNA ligase
-
43. To which of the following family of chemicalmediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong?
- A. Kinin system
- B. Cytokines
- C. Chemokines
- D. Arachidonic acid metabolites
-
44. Which of the following is a procoagulation protein?
- A. Thrombomodulirn
- B. Protein C
- C. Protein S
- D. Thrombin
-
45. Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene?
- A. c-myc
- B. p53
- C. bcl-2
- D. bac
-
46. The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is:
- A. Laminin
- B. Fibronectin
- C. Collagen type 4
- D. Heparan sulphate
-
47. To which of the following events is 'good' outcome in neuroblastoma associated
- A. Diploidy
- B. N-myc amplification
- C. Chromosome p depletion
- D. Trk A expression
-
48. Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of medullary carcinoma of thyroid?
- A. Ret Proto Oncogene
- B. FAP gene
- C. Rb gene
- D. BRCA 1 gene
-
49. Males who are sexually under developled with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of
- A. 45, XYY
- B. 46, XY
- C. 46, XXY
- D. 46, X
-
50. Kinky hair disease is a disorder where an affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degenration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease Her mother's brother also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the possible mode of inheritence in her family?
- A. X-linked recessive
- B. X-linked dominant
- C. Autosomal recessive
- D. Autosomal dominant
-
51. Which of the following is an automsomal dominant metabolic disorder?
- A. Cystic fibrosis
- B. Phenyl ketonuria
- C. a1 antitrypsin deficiency
- D. Familial hyper cholestrolemia
-
52. Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?
- A. Trisomy 8
- B. 20q
- D. Monosmy 7
-
53. All of the following statements about Hairy cell leukaemia are true except:
- A. Splenomegaly is conspicuous
- B. Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes
- C. Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase
- D. The cells express CD25
-
54. All of the following are the good prognostic feature for Hodgkin's disease except
- A. Hacmoglobin > 10 gmd
- B. WBC count < 15000/mm
- C. Absolute lymphocyte count < 600/ul
- D. Age < 45 yrs
-
55. A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed presence of a transmural haemorthagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal
- A. Edema in between normal myofibres
- B. Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils
- C. Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of granulation tissue
- D. Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages
-
56. Serum C3 is persistently low in the following except
- A. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
- B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
- C. Lupus nephritis
- D. Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis
-
57. All of the following are associated with low complement levels except
- A. Lupus nephritis
- B. Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis
- C. Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome
- D. Post-infections glomerulonephritis
-
58. Splenic macrophages in Gaucher's disease differ from those in ceroid histiocytosis by staining positive for
- A. Lipids
- B. Phosphlipids
- C. Acid fast stain
- D. Iron
-
59. A 70 year old male who has been chewing tobacco for the past 50 years presents with a six months history of a large, fungating, soft papillary lesions in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into the mandible.Lymph nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies taken from the lesion proper show benign appearing papillomatosis with hvperkeratosis and acanthosis infiltrating the adjacent tissue. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Squamous cell papilloma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Verrucous carcinoma
- D. Malignant mixed tumour
-
60. The blood in the vessels normally does not clot because
- A. Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma
- B. Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen
- C. Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
- D. Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx
-
61. Which of the following statements is true about hapten?
- A. It induces brisk immune response
- B. It needs carrier to induce immune response
- C. It is a T-independent Antigen
- D. It has no association with MHC
-
62. A 20 year old man presented with hemorthagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E.coli is likely to be the causative agent
- A. O 157:H7
- B. O 159:H7
- C. O 107:H7
- D. O 55:H7
-
63. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis
- A. Cholera toxin
- B. Shiga toxin
- C. Pertusis toxin
- D. LT of enterotoxigenic E.coli
-
64. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except
- A. CFA-1
- B. Pi-Pili
- C. CS-2
- D. K 88
-
65. Toxins are implicated as the major pathogenetic mechanism in all of the following bacterial diarrheas except
- A. Vibrio cholerae
- B. Shigella sp
- C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
- D. Staphylococcus aureus
-
66. A man, after skinning a dead animal, developeda pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely actiological agent is
- A. Clostridium tetan
- B. Listeria monocylogenes
- C. Bacillus anthracis
- D. Actinomyces species
-
67. A farmer presenting with fever off and on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this state except:
- A. Standard Agglutination test
- B. 2 Mercapto-ethanol test
- C. Complement fixation test
- D. Coomb's test
-
68. Regarding gas gangrenc one of the following is correct:
- A. It is due to Clostridium Botulinum infection
- B. Clostridial species are gram-negative spore forming anerobes
- C. The clinical featues are due to the release of protein endotoxin
- D. Gas is invariably present in the muscle compartments
-
69. A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows gram-positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is
- A. Listera monocytogenes
- B. Corynebacterium sp
- C. Enterococcus sp
- D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
-
70. A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be
- A. Thayer-Martin Medium
- B. Blood agar with X & V factors
- C. Chocolate agar with isovitale X
- D. Teilurite blood agar
-
71. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is
- A. Direct fluorescent antibody test
- B. Enzyme immunoassay
- C. Polymerase chain reaction
- D. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells
-
72. Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except
- A. Hodgkin's disease
- B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
- C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- D. Multiple myeloma
-
73. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except
- A. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen
- B. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings
- C. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enchanced culture
- D. Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAl) antibodies in a single serum specimen
-
74. All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus except:
- A. It is transmitted by feco-oral route
- B. Asyinptomatic infections are common in children
- C. There is a single serotype causing infection
- D. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity
-
75. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is:
- A. Hepatitis B virus
- B. Hepatitis C virus
- C. Hepatitis E virus
- D. Hepatitis A virus
-
76. All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except
- A. Myocarditis
- B. Pleurodynia
- C. Herpangina
- D. Hemorrhagic fever
-
77. Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses:
- A. Yellow fever is endemic in India
- B. Dengue virus has only one serotype
- C. Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) is transmitted by ticks
- D. Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever
-
78. A highly ionized drug
- A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
- B. Crosses the placental barrier easily
- C. Is well absorbed from the intestine
- D. Is highly protein bound
-
79. In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drug ethical clearance is not required?
- A. Phase
- B. Phase II
- C. Phase III
- D. Phase IV
-
80. Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following conditions except;
- A. Acute decompensated heart failur
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hypertension
- D. Erectile dysfucntion
-
81. Which one of the follwing statements about biguanides is not true?
- A. Don't stimulate insulin Release
- B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
- C. Renal Dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use
- D. Can be combined with sulfonylureas
-
82. All of the following statements about an alpha glucosidase inhibitor are true except
- A. Reduces intestinal absorbtion of carbohydrates
- B. Effective in both type 1 & 2 diabetes
- C. Hypoglycemia is a common & serious side effect
- D.Can be used with other oral Hypoglycemic Agents
-
83. All of the following Anticancer agents cause bone marrow depression except:
- A. Chlorambucil
- B. Daunorubicin
- C. Doxarubicin
- D. Flutamide
-
84. All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifen over estrogen in post menopasual women except?
- A. Reduces fracture rates
- B. Avoids Endometrial hyperplas
- C. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis
- D. No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma
-
85. Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels?
- A. Ethanol
- B. Alphaxolone
- C. Zolpidem
- D. Buspirone
-
86. A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was:
- A. Verapamil
- B. Digoxin
- C. Grevedilol
- D. Propranolol
-
87. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiadarone therapy
- A. Pulmonary Fibrosis
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Hyperthyroidism
- D. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
-
88. A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed ranitidine and sucralfate in the moning hours. Why is this combination incorrect
- A. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action
- B. Combination of these two drugs produces serious side effects like agranulacytosis
- C. Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not able to act.
- D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine
-
89. All the following statements regarding interactions of levodopa are correct except
- A. In Parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
- B. It is a prodrug
- C. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsomism
- D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its
- therapeutic potential.
-
90. Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is
- A. Domperidone
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Cisapride
- D. Omeprazole
-
91. Which of the following actions is ascribed to delta type of opoid receptors?
- A. Supraspinal analgesis
- B. Respiratory depression
- C. Euphoria
- D. Reduced intestinal motility
-
92. Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except
- A. Head injury
- B. Asthma
- C. Hypothyroidism
- D. Diabetes
-
93. Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides
- A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
- B. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide Administration
- C. Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
- D. Sulfonamides are of value intreatment of infections due to Norcardia species.
-
94. A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most likely combination that was given?
- A. Vancomycin and Amikacin
- B. Cephalexin and Gentamicin
- C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
- D. Ciprofloxacin and Pipcracillin
-
95. Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of <50mg/min?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trovafloxacin
- C. Lomefloxacin
- D. Sparfloxacin
-
96. Which of the following Antimicrobials has Antipseudomonal action
- A. Cefopodoxime proxetil
- B. Ceforanide
- C. Cefotetan
- D. Cefoperazone
-
97. A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis Which of the following antitubercular drugs should no be used
- A. INH
- B. Rifampicin
- C. Streptomycin
- D. Ethambutol
-
98. Patients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be treated with all the following drugs except
- A. Tobramycin
- B. Amikacin
- C. Ciprofloxacin
- D. Clarithromycin
-
99. All of the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer except
- A. Letrazole
- B. Exemestanc
- C. Taxol
- D. Tamoxifen
-
100. Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the treatment of Leiomyosarcoma?
- A. Adriamycin
- B. Doxorubicin
- C. Methotrexate
- D. Cisplatin
-
101.Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except
- A. Isoniazid
- B. Cyclosporine
- C. Levodopa
- D. Hydralazine
-
102. Which of the following statements is not true about Tacrolimus?
- A. It is macrolide Antibiotic
- B It is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection
- C. Glucose intolerance is a well Recognized side effect
- D. It can be safely administered with any
-
103. BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except?
- A. Lead
- B. Organic mercury
- C. Cadmium
- D. Arsenic
-
104.A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped from the jail. A dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by
- A. Blood Grouping
- B. DNA Profile
- C. Anthropometry
- D. HLA typing
-
105.The cephalic index of Indian population is between
- A. 70-75
- B. 75-80
- С. 80-85
- D. 85-90
-
106.A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right corneal opacity following the injury Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:
- A. Grievous
- B. Simple
- C. Dangerous
- D. Serious
-
107.Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by
- A. Potassium cyanide
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Aniline dyes
- D. Carbon monoxide
-
108.In which of the following conditions postmortem caloricity may be seen in death due to
- A. Massive haemorrhage
- B. Cyanide poisoning
- C. Corrosive poisoning
- D. Septicemia
-
109 Contre-coup injuries are seen in:
- A. Brain
- B. Diazepam
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Ethyl alcohol
-
110. Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except
- A. Blood grouping
- B. HLA typing
- C. Preciptin test
- D. DNA fingerprinting
-
111. Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests for blood except
- A. Benzedine test
- B. Phenophthalein test
- C. Orthotoluidine test
- D. Teichmann's test
-
112.A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most probable diagnosis is
- A. Alcohol intoxication
- B. Carbamates poisoning
- C. Organophosphorous poisoning
- D. Dhatura poisoning
-
113.A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of 'Mees' lines in the nails and rain drop pigmentation in the hands.
- The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is
- A. Lead
- B. Arsenic
- C. Thallium
- D. Mercury
-
114.Which of the following is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level?
- A. Cavett's test
- B. Breath alcohol anaylzer
- C. Gas liquid chromatography
- D. Thin layer chromatography
-
115.A 39-year old carpenter has taken two bottles of liquor from the local shop. After about an hour he develops confusion, vomiting and blurring of vision. He has been brought to the emergency out patient. He should be given:
- A. Naloxone
- B. Diazepam
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Ethyl alcohol
-
116. A 34 years old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past ten years. One evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought to the casualty. On examination he had tachycardia, shallow breathing, constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mm of Hg. He had brisk bilateral deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. Which of the following is the best treatment for him?
- A. Buprenorphine
- B. Flumazenil
- C. Methadone
- D. Naloxone
-
117.A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of
- A. Cross-sectional study
- B. Retrospective
- C. Concurrent cohort study
- D. Case-control stud
-
118.All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except:
- A. Latent period
- B. Period of communicability
- C. Serial interval
- D. Generation time
-
119.A 3 % year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child?
- A. BCG, DPTi, OPVi, and DPT2, OPV2 after 4 weeks
- B. BCG, DT1, OPVi, measles, vitamin A
- C. BCG, DPTI, OPVi, measles, vitamin A
- D. DT. DT: and booster after 1 year
-
120.The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except
- A. Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect
- B. Whole killed bacteNa of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant effect
- C. Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenecity
- D. Presence of H. influenzae type B component increases its immunogenecity
-
121.A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre. She has not had any antenatal visit till now. The best approach regarding tetanus immunization in this case would be to
- A. Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will not protect the new born and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she delivers in the meantime
- B. Do not waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnancy
- C. Give one dose of TT and explain that it will not be useful for this pregnancy
- D. Give her anti-tetanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine
-
122.A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever On exanunation, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child?
- A. The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia
- B. Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home
- C. Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens
- D. Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic
-
123.The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is
- A. Mass Miniature Radiotherapy
- B. Sputum examination
- C. Tuberculin Test
- D. Clinical examination
-
124.According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow Fever if the Aedes aegypti index remains below
-
125.All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except?
- A. Breast milk
- B. Insect bite
- C. Transplacental spread
- D. Droplet infection
-
126.All of the following statements about leprosy are true except
- A. Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches
- B. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy
- C. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more
- D. The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000 population
-
127.A 10 month old child weighing 8kg has Bitot spots in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child ?
- A. 2 lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14
- B. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 14
- C. 2 lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
- D. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
-
128. The current recommendation for breast feeding is that
- A. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
- B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
- C. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days
- D.The baby should be allowed to breast-feed till one year of age
-
129. The following statements about breast milk are true except:
- A. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months
- B. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%
- C. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow's milk
- D. It provides about 65 k cals per 100 ml
-
130.The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (IUD) except
- A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD
- B. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar
- C. IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days
- D. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years
-
131.The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except
- A.To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015
- B. To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births
- C. To reduce the bilateral Mortality Rate to 100 per 100000 live births
- D.100 percent registration of births deaths marriages and pregnancies
-
132.Essential component of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except:
- A. Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies
- B. Maternal care including antenatal delivery & post- natal services
- C. Reduce the under five mortality to half
- D. Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections.
-
133."Five clean practices" under strategies for elimination
- neonatal tetanus include all except:
- A. Clean surface for delivery
- B. Clean hand of the attendant
- C. New blade for cutting the cord
- D. Clean Airway
-
134. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the following except:
- A. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption
- B. Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 percent of caloric intake
- C. Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% oftotal energy intake
- D. Reduction of cholesterol to below 100mg per 1000 kcal per day
-
135.Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of
- A. Srivastava Committec
- B. Bhore Committec
- C. Kartar Singh Committee
- D. Mudaliar Committee
-
136.If cach value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10 the standard deviation of the resulting observations is:
- A. Original std. Deviation x 10
- B. Original std. Deviation /10
- C. Original std. Deviation 10
- D. Original std. Deviation itself
-
137.If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130mmHg and a median of 140mmHg, the distribution is said to be
- A. Symmetrical
- B. Positively skewed
- C. Negatively skewed
- D. Either positively or negatively skewed depending on the Standard deviation
-
138.The table below shows the screening test results of
- disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the
- population being tested
- Screening Disease Z
- Total
- Test Results
- Positive
- 400 200
- 100 600
- 500 800
- 600
- 700
- 1300
- Negative
- Total
- The specificity of the screening test is
- A. 70%
- B. 75%
- C. 79%
- D. 86%
-
139. If prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:
- A. 0.01
- B. 0.03
- C. 0.001
- D. 0.003
-
140.If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild moderate" and "severe" the scale of measurement used is
- A. Interval
- B. Nominal
- C. Ordinal
- D. Ratio
-
141. The usefulness of a screening test' in a community depends on its
- A. Sensitivity
- B. Specificity
- C. Reliability
- D. Predictive value
-
142.Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characterized by:
- A. Significant numbers of schistocytes
- B. A brisk reticulocytosis
- C. Decreased coagulation factor levels
- D. Significant thrombocytopenia
-
143.A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since birth and hepatosplenomegaly Which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis
- A. Hb electrophoresis
- B. Peripheral smear examination
- C. Osmotic fragility test
- D. Bone marrow examination
-
144.Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Anemia of chronic disease
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Lead poisoning
-
145.Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all except
- A. Osteopetrosis
- B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
- C. Hurler's syndrome
- D. Hemochromatosis
-
146.All of the following statements are true about sickle cell disease except
- A. Patient may require frequent blood transfusions
- B. Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before 3 years of age.
- C. There is positive correlation between conc. HBS and polymerization of HBS
- D. Patient presents early in life before 6 months of
-
147.All of the following are seen in cardiac temponade except
- A. Pulsus paradoxus
- B. Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram
- C. Electrical alternans
- D. Kussmaul's sign
-
148. In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterized by the presence of all of the following except:
- A. Red cell casts
- B. Acanthocytes
- C. Crenated red cells
- D. Dysmorphic red cells
-
149.Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs except
- A. Lung
- B. Liver
- C. Pancreas
- D. Spleen
-
150.A 40 year old man presented with painless hematuria Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done and mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear cytoplasm. Areas of hemorrhage and necrosis were frequent. Cytogenic analysis of this mass is likely to reveal an abnormality of
- A. Chromosome 1
- B. Chromosome 3
- C. Chromosome 11
- D. Chromosome 17
-
151. Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis ?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Doxycycline
- D. Minocycline
-
152.An HIV patient complains of visual disturbances Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular haemorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis
- A. Herpes simplex virus
- B. Human herpes virus 8
- C. Cytomegalovirus
- D. Epstein-Barr (EBV) virus
-
153. Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection:
- A. Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues
- B. CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression
- C. Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients
- D. In latent phase HIV has minimal replication
-
154. Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
- A. Zalcitabine
- B. Lamivudine
- C. Nevivapine
- D. Didanosine
-
155.A known sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis patient currently on INH, rifampicin, pyrizinamide and ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100 L and viral load was more than 50,000 copies/ml. Which of the following antiretroviral drug should be avoided:
- A. Indinavir
- B. Lamivudin
- C. Ritonavir
- D. Efavirenz
-
156.HBAIC level in blood explains
- A. Acute rise of sugar
- B. Long terms status of blood sugar
- C. Hepatorenal syndrome
- D. Chronic pancreatitis
-
157.A 45-year old woman visited her physician with
- complaints of increased appetite and thirst with
- increased frequency of urination. She also had the
- symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the
- feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory
- findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as
- follows:
- Parameters
- Blood glucose (mg/dL)
- Urine glucose
- Ketone bodies
- Fasting 1 hr 2 hr
- 270
- 155
- ve
- ve
- 205
- -ve
- Which of the following statements is not correct for the
- above mentioned case:
- She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes
- mellitus
- She was suffering from non-insulin dependent
- diabetes mellitus
- She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs
- only when diet and exercise could not control the
- pathological situation
- Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus
- is useful in predicting the nature of the diabetes.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
-
158.The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorder is:
- A. T3
- B. T4
- C. TSH
- D. Thyroglobulin
-
159. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as
- A. Jod-Basedow effect
- B. Wolff-Chaokoff effect
- C. Thyrotoxicosis factitia
- D. De Quervain's thyroiditis
-
160.All of the following are true about amiadarone induced thyroid dysfunction except?
- A. Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficie
- B. Hypothyroidism is more common in men
- C. Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activ
- D. Amiodaraone therapy is associated with reduction of serum T4 levels
-
161.A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorthoca followed by amenonohoca for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?
- A. Serum electrolytes
- B. Plasma cortisol
- C. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of
- D. T3, T4 and TSH
-
162. Which of the following is the carliest manifestation of Cushing 's syndrome?
- A. Loss of diurnal variation
- B. Increased ACTHH
- C. Increased plasma Cortisol
- D. Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol
-
163.Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except
- A. Chronic renal failure
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
- D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
-
164.A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorthoea. Her height is 153 cms, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Turner's syndrome
- B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
- C. Premature ovarian failure
- D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
-
165.A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be
- A. Craniopharyngioma
- B. Prolactinoma
- C. Meningioma
- D. Sub-arachnoid hacmohhage
-
166.A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest x-ray is normal. The next step in investigation should be
- A. Lung Ventilation-perfusion scan
- B. Pulmonary arteriography
- C. Pulmonary venous wedge angiography
- D. Echocardiography
-
167.A 20 year old women presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm, red cell casts in the urine and serum creatinine 3mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
- B. Polyarteritis nodosa
- C. Wegener's granulomatosis
- D. Dissen: nated tuberculosis
-
168.An 18 yr old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasrmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Wegener's granulomatosis
- B. Polyarteritis nodosa
- C. Takayasu's arteritis
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)
-
169.A woman is admitted with complains of low-grade fever of 6 wecks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except:
- A. CD4/CD8 counts in the blood
- B. Serum ACE levels
- C. CECT of chest
- D. Gallium scan
-
170.An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5 g/dl). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Multiple myeloma
- B. Indolent myeloma
- C. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
- D. Waldenstorm's macroglobulinemia
-
171.A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional lability has a golden brown discoloration in Descemet's membrane. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Fabry's disease
- B. Wilson's disease
- C Glycogen storage Disease
- D. Acute Rheumatic fever
-
172.The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's disease
- A. Neurofibrillary tangles
- B. Senile (neuritic) plaques
- C. Amyloid Angiopathy
- D. Lewy bodies
-
173.All of the following can cause neuropathies wit predominant motor involvement except
- A. Acute inflammatory demyclinating polyneuropathy
- B. Acute intermittent porphyrıa
- C. Lead intoxication
- D. Arsenic intoxication
-
174. Which of the following viruses is not a common cause of viral encephalitis?
- A. Herpes simplex virus type 2
- B. Japanese encephalitis virus
- C. Nipah virus
- D. Cytomegalovirus
-
175.A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and right hemiparesis. The MRI pertormed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Acute pyogenic meningitis
- B. Herpes simplex encephalitis
- C. Neurocysticercosis
- D. Carcinomatous meningitis
-
176.Which of the following brain tumors does not spread via CSF ?
- A. Germ cell tumors
- B. Medulloblastoma
- C. CNS Lymphoma
- D. Craniopharyngoma
-
177.A 15 year old boy with epilepsy on treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except
- A. Weight gain of 5 kg
- B. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/IL
- C. Rise in serum ammonia level by 20ug/dL
- D. Lymphadenopathy
-
178.Persistant vomiting most likely causes
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Acidic urine excretion
- C. Hypochloraemia
- D. Hyperventilation
-
179.All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women except:
- A. It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention
- B. It is not related to menstrual cycle
- C. There is increased water retention in upright position
- D. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases
-
180.In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the
- A. Hepatic vein
- B. Post sinusoidal
- C. Extra hepatic portal vein
- D. Sinusoids
-
181.In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is
- A. Infrahepatic inferior vena cava
- B. Infrarenal inferior vena cava
- C. Hepatic veins
- D. Portal veins
-
182.The short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following except
- B. Hypogastrinemia
- C. Weight loss
- D. Steatorrhoea
-
183.Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except:
- A. Testosterone
- B. Prolactin
- C. Estradiol
- D. Lutenizing hormone
-
184.Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltration by anaplastic ells, which are also present in the papillary and reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Melanoma, Clark level IV
- B. Congenital melanocytic nevus.
- C. Dysplastic nevus
- D. Melanoma, clark level III
-
185.Chronically lymphadenopathy limb is predisposed to all of the following except
- A. Thickening of the skin
- B. Recurrent soft tissue infections
- C. Marjolin's ulcer
- D. Sarcoma
-
186.First treatment of rupture of varicose veins at the ankle should be
- A. Rest in prone position of patient
- B. Application of a tourniquet proximally
- C. Application of a toumiquet distally
- D. Direct Pressure and Elevation
-
187.A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first
- A. Pulmonary artery
- B. Bronchial artery
- C. Pulmonary vein
- D. Superior vena cava
-
188.A 60 year old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. On CECT chest there was a tumor of 5x5 cm in upper lobe and another 2x2 cm size tumor nodule in middle lobe. The primary modality of treatment is
- A. Radiotherapy
- B. Chemotherapy
- C. Surgery
- D. Supportive treatment
-
189.Thoracic extension of cervical goiter is usually approached through
- A. Neck
- B. Chest
- C. Combined cervico-thoracic route
- D. Thoracoscopic
-
190.Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and pheochromocytoma may be associated with
- A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
- B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
- C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid
- D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
-
191.A 20 year old male presented with chronic constipation, headache and palpitations. On examination he had marfanoid habitus, neuromas of tongue, medullated cormeal nerve fibers and nodule of 2x2 cm size in the left lobe of thyroid gland. This patient is a case of:
- A. Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid
- B. Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid
- C. MEN IIA
- D. MEN IIB
-
192.The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is
- A. Medullary type
- B. Follicular type
- C. Papillary type
- D. Anaplastic type
-
193.The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is
- A. Tongue
- B. Floor of mouth
- C. Alveobuccal complex
- D. Lip
-
194.The most common malignant tumor of adult males in India is
- A. Oropharyngeal carcinoma
- B. Gastric carcinoma
- C. Colo-rectal carcinoma
- D. Lung cancer
-
195.The most common site of intestinal obstruction itn gallstone ileus is
- A. Jejunum
- B. Ileum
- C. Transverse colon
- D. Sigmoid colon
-
196. Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis?
- A. Alcoholic pancreatitis
- B. Gall stone pancreatitis
- C. Post operative pancreatitis
- D. Idiopathic pancreatitis
-
197. Injection sclerotherapy is ideal for the following:
- A. External haemormhoids
- B. Internal haemorrhoids
- C. Prolapsed haemorrhoids
- D. Strangulated haemorrhoids
-
198 For a rectal carcinoma at 5cm from the anal verge the best acceptable operation is:
- A. Anterior resection
- 3. Abdominal perineal resection
- C. Posterior resection
- D. Local resection
-
199.All of the following are significant risk factors for colonic carcinoma in an adenomatous polyp except
- A. Pedunculated polyp
- B. Villous histology
- C. Size > 2cm
- D. Atypia
-
200.A 55 year old male presented with painless terminal hematuria. Cystoscopic examination revealed a solitary papillary tumor. Histopathological examination of completely resected tumor is suggestive of grade III transitional cell carcinoma with no muscle invasion. Further management of this patient is best done by
- A. Just follow up
- B. Intravesical chemotherapy
- C. Intravesical BCG
- D. Cystectomy
-
201.Unilateral undescended testis is ideally operated around
- A. 2 months of age
- B. 6 months of age
- C. 12 months of age
- D. 24 months of age
-
202.Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatremia?
- A. Gastric fistula
- B. Excessive vomiting
- C. Excessive Sweating
- D. Prolonged Ryle's tube aspiration
-
203. Which one of the following preservatives is used while packing catgut suture ?
- A. Isopropyl alcohol
- B. Colloidal iodine
- C. Glutaraldehyde
- D. Hydrogen peroxide
-
204.Which of the following is not an indication of radiotherapy in Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid:
- A. Involvement of deep lobe
- B. 2nd histologically benign recurrence
- C. Microscopically positive margins
- D. Malignant transformation
-
205.All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except
- A. Biparietal diameter
- B. Head circumference
- C. Transcerebellar diameter
- D. Femur length
-
206.Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome
- A. Triple screen test
- B. Amniocentesis
- C. Chorionic villous biopsy
- D. Ultrasonography
-
207.Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down's syndrome. Karyoiype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy?
- A. Triple test
- B. a-fetoprotein
- C. Karyotyping
- D. B-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
-
208. Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most useful in distinguishing between open neural tube defects and ventral wall defects in a fetus?
- A. Carcinoembryogenic antigen
- B. Sphingomyelin
- C. Alpha-feto protein
- D. Pseudocholinesterase
-
209.Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detect all of the following except
- A. Neural tube defects
- B. Duodenal Artesia
- C. Talipes equinovarus
- D. Omphalocele
-
210.Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is
- A. 63 days
- B. 72 days
- C. 88 days
- D. 120 days
-
211.A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and marked respiratory distress is best treated by:
- A. Intravenous frusemide
- B. Saline infusion
- C. Amniocentesis
- D. Artificial rupture of membranes
-
212.Anti-D prophylaxis should be given in all of the following conditions except:
- A. Medical abortion for 63 days pregnancy
- B. Amniocentesis at 16 weeks
- C. Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks
- D. Manual removal of Placenta
-
213. The consequences of Rh incompatibility are not serious during first pregnancy because:
- A. Antibodies are not able to cross placenta
- B. Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response
- C IgG gencrated is ineffective against fetal red cells
- D. Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropocsis
-
214. Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy?
- A. Serum iron
- B. Serum ferritin
- C. Serum trans ferrin
- D. Serum iron binding capacity
-
215.A 37 year multipara construction labourer has a blood picture showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Folic acid deficiency
- C. Malnutrition
- D. Combined iron and folic acid deficiency
-
216.All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except
- A. Nifedipine
- B. Captopril
- C. Methyldopa
- D. Hydralazıne
-
217.Which of the following is not an indication for Antiphospholipid antibody testing
- A. Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnancy losses
- B. Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents
- C. Early onset severe pre-eclampsia
- D. Gestational Diabetes
-
218.All of the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract infections in pregnancy except
- A. Diabetes
- B. Hypertension
- C. Sickle cell anemia
- D. Vesicoureteral reflux
-
219.Which of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester
- A. Hepatitis B virus
- B. Syphillis
- C. Toxoplasmosis
- D. Rubella
-
220.A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in
- preterm labor. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions except
- A. Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hrs
- B. Pregnancy induced hypertension
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Chorioamnionitis
-
221.All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening during pregnancy except
- A. Prostaglandin E
- B. Oxytocin
- C. Progesterone
- D. Misoprostol
-
222. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a vaginal pH of 4?
- A. Atrophic vaginitis
- B. Candidal vaginits
- C. Trichomonas vaginitis
- D. Gardnella vaginitis
-
223.The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in case of Vesicovaginal fistula is
- A. Suprapubic needle aspiration
- B. Midstrcam clcan catch
- C. Foley's catheter
- D. Sterile speculum
-
224.A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by caesarian section complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most likely site of fistula?
- A. Urethrovaginal
- B. Vesico-vaginal
- C. Vesico-uterine
- D. Uretero uterine
-
225. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility and hirsuitism?
- A. Polycystic ovaries
- B. Endometriosis
- C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
- D. Turner's syndrome
-
226.A fifty year old woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascitis. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals an ulcerative growth in pyloric region of stomach. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Malignant ovarian tumor
- B. Carcinoma in the small intestine
- C. Carcinoma body uterus
- D. Carcinoma stomach with Kurkenberg's tumor
-
227.Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade I is
- A. Radiotherapy
- B. Chemotherapy
- C. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy
- D. No treatment
-
228.A two month old child is able to:
- A. Show a positive parachute protective reflex
- B. Head steady in seated position
- C. Lift head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows
- D. Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral suspension
-
229. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
- A. Klinefelter syndrome
- B. Turner syndrome
- C. Cri du chat syndrome
- D. Noonan syndrome
-
230.Ataxia telangicctasia is chracterised by all of the following except:
- A. Chronic sinopulmonary disease
- B. Decreased level of a-fetoprotein
- C. Chromosomal breakage
- D. IgA deficiency
-
231 .А 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hr. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
- A. Nutritional rickets
- B. Renal rickets
- C. Hyperparathyroidism
- D Skeletal dysplasia
-
232.A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability
- & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe pallor. Investigation showed Hb-3.8 mg%; MCV-58 fl; MCH-19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Acute lymphoblastic anemia
- C. Hemoglobin D disease
- D. Hereditary spherocytosis
-
233.A 5 year old child presents with history of fever off and-on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Acute leukemia
- B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
- C. Hypersplenism
- D. Aplastic anemia
-
234.A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later ballooned atrial septosomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is
- A. Tetralogy of Fallot
- B. Transposition of great vesse
- C. Truncus Arteriosus
- D. Tricuspid Atresia
-
235.In which of the following a 'Coeur en Sabot' shape of
- the heart is seen:
- A. Tricuspid atresia
- B. Ventricular septal defect
- C. Transposition of great arteries
- D. Tetralogy of Fallot
-
236.An infant develops cough and fever. The X-ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except
- A. Parainfluenza viruses
- B. Influenza virus A
- C. Respiratory syncytial virus
- D. Mumps virus
-
237.In neonatal cholestasis, if the serum gamaglutamyl transpeptidase (gamma GTP) is more than 600 IU/L the most likely diagnosis is
- A. Neonatal hepatitis
- B. Choledochal cyst
- C. Sclerosing cholangitis
- D. Biliary atresia
-
238. The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability equivalent to adult's kidney by
- A. One year of age
- B. Eighteen months of age
- C. Three to six months of age
- D. Just before puberty
-
239.All of the following are neural tube defects except
- A. Myelomeningocoele
- B. Anencephaly
- C. Encephalocele
- D. Holoprosencephaly
-
240.All are features of absence seizures except:
- A. Usually seen in childhood
- B. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG
- C. Postictal confusion
- D. Precipitation by hyperventilation
-
241.A 10 month old child presents with two weeks history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus, The most likely etiological agent is
- A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- B. Cryptococcus neoformans
- C. Listera monocytogenes
- D. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
-
242.For which of the following diseases is enzyme replacement therapy available?
- A. Albinism
- B. Neimann-Pick disease
- C. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
- D. Gaucher's disease
-
243. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of
- A. Neuromuscular junction
- B. Sarcolemmal proteins
- C. Muscle contractile proteins
- D. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
-
244.Bacterial meningitis in children (2 months-12 years of age) is usually due to the following organisms except
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Neisseria meningitidis
- C. Hemophilus influenzac type B
- D. Listera monocytogenes
-
245.All of the following are essential features of attention deficit hyperactivity disease (ADHD) except:
- A. Lack of concentration
- B. Impulsivity
- C. Mental retardation
- D. Hyperactivity
-
246.A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the 1st day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion 1 year back. On vaginal swab culture growth of ß-haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?
- A. Strptococcus pyogenes
- B. Stiptococcus agalactiae
- C. Peptostreptococci
- D. Enterococcus faecum
-
247.The most common agent associated with neonatal bacterial meningitis is
- A. Haemophilus influenzae type b
- B. Neisseria meningitidis
- C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- D. Streptococcus agalactiae
-
248. Haemophilus influenzae has been isolated from the CSF of a two year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain is beta-lactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol. The most appropriate antimicrobial in such a situation is:
- A. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Third-generation cephalosporin
- D. Vancomycin
-
249.An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training
- started complaining of pain at postero medial aspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Buerger's discase
- B. Gout
- C. Lumbar canal stenosis
- D. Stress fracture
-
250.In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between containing clear fluid. This condition is called as
- A. Delayed union
- B. Slow union
- C. Non union
- D. Pseudoarthrosis
-
251.Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to
- A. Titanium debris
- B. High density polythene debris
- C. N. N-Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)
- D. Free radicals
-
252.In fracture of the olecronon, excision of the proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following situations except
- A. Old ununited fractures
- B. Non-articular fractures
- C. Fracture extending to coronoid process
- D. Elderly patient
-
253.Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of the following parts of the vertebra except
- A. Body
- B. Lamina
- C. Spinous process
- D. Pedicle
-
254.All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except
- A. Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon
- B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
- C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
- D. Carpal instability
-
255. The management of fat embolism includes all of the following except
- A. Oxygen
- B. Heparinization
- C. Low Molecular weight dextran
- D. Pulmonary Embolectomy
-
256.Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower end of femur must include
- A. Radiotherapy, amputation, chemotherapy
- B. Surgery alone
- C. Chemotherapy + Limb Salvage Surgery + Chemotherapy
- D. Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
-
257.Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in
- A. Superior conjunctiva
- B. Inferior conjunctiva
- C. Nasal conjunctiva
- D. Temporal conjunctiva
-
258.A 10 year old boy presents with severe itching of the eye and a ropy discharge. His symptoms aggravate in summer season. Most likely diagnosis is?
- A. Trachoma
- B. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
- C. Acute coniunctivitis
- D. Blepharitis
-
259. Arlt's line is seen in
- A. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
- B. Pterygium
- C. Ocular pemphigoid
- D. Trachoma
-
260. Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer
- A. Atropine sulphate eye ointment
- B. Dexamethasone eye drops
- C. Pilocarpine eye drops
- D. Lignocaine eye drops
-
261.Polychromatic lusture is seen in:
- A. Complicated cataract
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Post radiation cataract
- D. Congenital cataract
-
262.A two week old child presents with unilateral cataract. Which of the following statement represents the best management advice
- A. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four weeks
- B. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four months
- C. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four years
- D.The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is required
-
263. Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan's syndrome:
- A. Microcornea
- B. Microspherophakia
- C. Megalocornea
- D. Ectopia lentis
-
264. Lanatoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts
- A. Decreasing aqueous humour formation
- B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
- C. Releasing pupillary block
- D. Increasing trabecular outflow
-
265.A two months old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is
- A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
- B. Buphthalmos
- C. Congenital dacryocystitis
- D. Encysted mucocele
-
266. "Photo dynamic therapy" is used in the eye for the following disease:
- A. Cataract
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Uveitis
- D. Wet AMD (Age related macular degeneration)
-
267.All are ocular emergencies except
- A. Angle closure glaucoma
- B. Central serous retinopathy
- C. Retinal detachment
- D. Central retinal arterial occlusion
-
268. The most common condition of inherited blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is
- A. Retinopathy of prematurity
- B. Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy
- C. Retinitis pigmentosa
- D. Retinal detachment
-
269.All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex except:
- A. Retinoblastoma
- B. Cataract
- C. Retrolental fibroplasia
- D. Glaucoma
-
270. In right middle ear pathology Weber's test will be:
- A. Normal
- B. Centralised
- C. Lateralised to right side
- D. Lateralised to left side
-
271. Meniere's disease is characterized by
- A. Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
- B. Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
- C. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
- D. Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss
-
272.Fordyce's (Spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise from:
- A. Mucous glands
- B. Sebaceous glands
- C. Taste buds
- D. Minor salivary glands
-
273.Which of the following locations show collection of pus in quinsy
- A. Peritonsillar space
- B. Parapharyngeal space
- C. Retropharyngeal space
- D. Within the tonsil
-
274. Which of the following statements best represents Bell's paralysis
- A. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve
- B. Combined paralysis of the facial, trigeminal, and
- C. Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
- nerves
- D. Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye
-
275.A 30 year old male had severely itchy papula-vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction. The most probable diagnosis is:
- A. Pemphigus vulgar
- B. Bullous pemplhigoi
- C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
- D. Nummular eczema
-
276.A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Fixed drug eruption
- B. Lichen planus
- C. Urticaria pigmentosa
- D. Urticarial vasculitis
-
277.A 25 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from
- A. Seborrheic dermatitis
- B. Atopic dermatitis
- C. Airbome contact dermatitis
- D. Nummular dermatitis
-
278. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children
- A. Enflurane
- B. Isoflurane
- C. Sevoflurane
- D. Desflurane
-
279. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
- A. Neurosurgery
- B. Day care surgery
- C. Patients with coronary artery disease
- D. In neonates
-
280.A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocain was used as anesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Amniotic fluid embolism
- B. Lignocaine toxicity
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypokalemia
-
281.A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistert numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except:
- A. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
- B. A tight cast or dressing
- C. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
- D. Tourniqet pressure
-
282.When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of thoe following treatments may be instituted except:
- A. Carotid sinus massage
- B. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV
- C. Direct current cardioversion
- D. Verapamil 5 mg IV
-
283.A patient is suspected to have vestibular schwanoma The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
- A. Contrast enhanced CT scan
- B. Gadolinum enhanced MRI
- C. SPECT
- D. PET scan
-
284.In scurvy' all the following radiological signs are seen except
- A. Pelican spur
- B. Soap bubble appearance
- C. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis
- D. Frenkel's line
-
285.On radiography widened duodenal"C" loop with irregular mucosal pattern on upper gastrointestinal barium series is most likely due to
- A. Chronic pancreatitis
- B. Carcinoma head of pancreas
- C. Duodenal ulcer
- D. Duodenal ileus
-
286. Which of the following is the most penetration beam?
- A. Electron beanm
- B. 8 MV photons
- C. 18 MV photons
- D. Proton beam
-
287.The radiation tolerance of whole liver is
- A. 15 Gy
- B. 30 Gy
- C. 40Gy
- D. 45C
-
288. In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used?
- A. Head and neck
- B. Stomach
- C. Colon
- D Soft tissue sarcomas
-
289. Which of the following is not a CT scan feature of acute pancreatitis
- A. IlI defined outline of the pancreas
- B. Enlargement of the pancreas
- C. Poor contrast enhancement
- D. Dilated main pancreatic duct
-
290 Which of the following is the classic CT appearance of an acute Subdural hematoma
- A. Lentiform-shaped hyperdense lesion
- B. Cresent-shaped hypodense lesion
- C. Cresent-shaped hyperdense lesion
- D. Lentiform-shaped hypodensc lesion
-
291.The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be
- A. Non-contrast computed tomography
- B. CSF examination
- C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- D. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography
-
292. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques except
- A.Mass spectroscopy
- B. RIA
- C. ELISA
- D. Sequencing of nucleic acid
-
293.Signs of organic brain damage are evident on:
- A. Bender Gestalt Test
- B. Rorschach Test
- C. Sentence Completion Test
- D. Thematic Apperception Test
-
294.Miss B, a 27 year old nurse had extracurricular interest in trekking and painting. She broke up relationship with her boy friend. Two months later she lost interest in her hobbies and was convinced that she would not be able to work again. She thought life was not worth living and has consumed 60 tablets of phenobarbitone to end her life. She is most likely suffering from
- A. Adjustment disorder
- B. Conversion disorder
- C. Depressive disorder
- D. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
-
295.A 25-year old house wife came to the Psychiatry out patient department (OPD) complaining that her nose was longer than usual. She felt that her husband did not like her because of the deformity and had developed relationship with the neighbouring girl. Further she complained that people made fun of her. It was not possible to convince her that there was no deformity Her symptoms include
- A. Delusion
- B. Depersonalization
- C. Depression
- D. Hallucination
-
296.A 40-year old man presents to casualty with his regular and heavy use of alcohol for ten years and morning drinking for one year. The last alcohol intake was three days back. There is no history of head injury or seizures. On examination, there is no icterus, sign of hepatic encephalopathy or focal neurological sign. The patient had coarse tremors, visual hallucinations and had disorientation to time. Which of the following is the best medicine to be prescribed for such a patient?
- A. Diazepam
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Imipramine
- D. Naltrexone
-
297.A 30 year old unmarried woman from a low socio economic status family believes that a rich boy staying in her neighbourhood is in deep love with her. The boy clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady insists that his denial is a secret affirmation of his love towards her. She makes desperate attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family. She also develops sadness at times when her effort to meet the boy does not materialize. She is able to maintain her daily routine. She however, remains preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering
- A. Delusional disorder
- B. Depression
- C. Mania
- D. Schizophrenia
-
298.The Non-REM (NREM) sleep is commonly associate
- A. Frequent dreaming
- B. Frequent penile erections
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Night terrors
-
299-A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his classmates laugh at and talk even scared of going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from
- A. Anxiety neurosis
- B. Manic Depressive Psychosis
- C. Adjustment reaction
- D. Schizophrenia
-
300-A 41 year old woman working as an Executive Director is convinced that the management has denied her promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and have forged her signature on sensitive documents so as to convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and requests for security. Despite all this she attends to her work and manages the household. She is suffering from
- A. Paranoid Schizophrenia
- B. Late onset Psychosis
- C. Persistent Delusional Disorder
- D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
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