Mudit 2003

1. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplsmic molecules between two cells are called:

2. The cells belonging to the following type of epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane:

3. All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis except

4 All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone except:

5. All of the following features can be observed after the injury to axillary nerve, except:

6. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove:

7. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following

8. The middle cardiac vein is located at the:

9. In a patient with a tumor in superior mediatinum compressing the superior vena cava, all of the following veins would serve as altenate pathways for the blood to return to the right atrium, except

10. The lumbar region of the vertebral column permits all of the following movements except:

11. The blood vessel related to the paraduodenal fossa is

12 All of the following muscles are grouped together as muscles of mastication" except

13. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is:

14. All of the following statements are correct about potassium balance, except

15. Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because:

16. Which of the following statements is true for excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP)?

The EEG recorded shown below is normally recordable

18. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss (below the level of lesion) of

19. Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except:

20. Which of the following statements is true about the autonomic nervous system?

21. Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing luteininzing hormone surge is associated with which of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation:

22. Figure below represents the pH of the digestive jül

23. As a part of space-research program, a physiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight-induced stress on blood pressure. Accordingly. the blood pressure of the. cosmonauts were to be measured twice: once before the take-off and once after the spacecraft entered the signated orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison, the preflight blood pressure should be recorded in

24. Two students, Vineet and Kamlesh were asked to demonstrate in dogs the role of sinus nerve in hypovolemic shock. Vineet severed the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure (MBP) was 85 mm Hg and Kamlesh cut the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure was 60 mm Hg. On cutting the sinus nerve

25. An increase in which of the following parameters will shift the O, dissociation curve to the left

26. The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was to be estimated through the measurement of Para Amino Hippuric acid (PAH) clearance The technician observed the procedures correctly but due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used thrice the recommended dose of PAH The RPF estimated is likely to be

27. In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is re-absorbed which part of the nephron:

28. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pff

29. The following separation technique depends on the molecular size of the protein

30. The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo forms is called as

31. Decreased glycolytic activity impairs oxygen transport by hemoglobin due to

32. An enzyme involved in the catabolism of fructose to pyruvate in the liver is

33. p oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids produces:

34. The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions the packaging of DNA in chromosomes, is:

35. Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA?

36. Restriction fragment length polymorphism is used for

37. The primary role of chaperones is to help in

38. The collagen triple helix structure is not found in:

39. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is

40. The substance present in the gall bladder stones or the kidney stones can be best identified by the following techniques

41. Prophobilinogen in urine produces pink colour with

42. All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except

43. Presence of food might be expected to interfere with drug absorption by slowing gastric emptying, or by altering the degree of ionisation of the drug in the stomach. Which of the following statements is not correct example

44. All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies except

45. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason:

46. Haemorrhage secondary to human administration can be corrected by administration of

47. Granulocytopenia, gingival hyperplasia and faciahirsutism are all possible aide effects of one of the following anticonvulsant drugs

48. Which of the following is present intracellularly in muscle cells

49. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except

50. Bacitracin acts orn:

51. The most effective drug against M. leprae is:

52. The most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major is:

53. Bostentan is a

54. The extent to which ionisation of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which of the following statements is not correct:

55 The correct sequence of cell cycle is:

56. Which of the following procedures as routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy

57. A married middle aged female gives history or repeated abortions for the past 5 years. The given below s conceptions pre-natal karyogram.

58. A nineteen year old female with short stature, wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhoea most likely has a karyotype of:

59. An albino girl gets married to a normal boy, What are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers?

60. A couple, with a family history of beta thalassemia major in a distant relative, has come for counseling. The husband has HbA2 of4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The risk of having a child with beta thalassemia major is:

61. Hereditary Retinoblastoma develop the following chromosomal deletion:

62. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with;

63. Which of the following is a pan-T lymphocyte marker?

64. Memory T cells can be identified by using the following marker

65. All of the following statements about NK cells are true except

66. MHC class III genes encode

67. The HLA class III region genes are important elements in

68. All the statement about lactoferrin are true, except:

69.The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is

70. Raised serum level of lipoprotein-(a) is a predictor of

71. Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been patho-physiologically linked to which of the following factors:

72. Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary artery discasce

73. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with which of the following syndrome

74. All of the following are associated with low C3 level except:

75. Which of the following is not true about Berger's disease?

76. A 40 year old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of

77. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by

78. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures can be best sterilized by

79. The following are true for Bordetella pertussis except:

80. A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patiernt

81. A 60-year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from Legionnaires' disease after he returns home from attending a convention. He could have acquired it

82. The following are true regarding Lyme's Disease, except:

83. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured from a single source at a picnic party. Twenty children developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhea 6-10 hours after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is:

84. Which of the following statements is true about rabies

85. An anxious mother brought her 4 year old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This was often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination, which showed the following organisms Identify the organism

86. All of the following infections are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except:

87. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is:

88. Mummification refers to:

89. A patient has been allegedly bitten by cobra snake. The venom in such a bite would be:

90. All the following are related to legal responsibility of an insane pcrson except

91. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to

92. Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by:

93. Postmortem lividity is unlikely to develop in a case of

94. The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death except

95. In prenatal diagnostic technique Act 1994 which one of the following is not a ground for carrying out prenatal test

96. Perjury means giving willful false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment amy extend to seven years. This falls under which section of IPC

97. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson's method of identification is

98. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes:

99. In one single visit, a 9-month-old, unimmunized child can be given the following vaccination.

100. Study this formula carefully True positives/ (True positives + False negatives) X 100 This denotes

101. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of:

102. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except:

103. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing:

104. The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true except

105. A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11 kg, respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chestindrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is?

106. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the follow ing measures are recommended except

107. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and Eastern U.P. is

108. Class II exposure in animal bites includes the following:

109. Which of the following statements is true about endemiç

110. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more tharn

111. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for:

112. Scope of family planning services include all of the following except

113. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children

114. The Vitamin A supplmenent administered in "Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme" contain

115. The Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is defined as:

116. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of iron & folic acid adult tablets supplied under the "National Programme for Anaemia Prophylaxis are

117. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron folic acid tablets supplied under Rural Child Health (RCH) programme are

118. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:

119. The 'P' value of a randomized controlled trial comparing operation A (new procedure) & operation B (Gold standard) is 0.04. From this, we conclude that

120. Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of

121. Elements of primary health care include all of the following except

122 The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on:

123. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by:

124. Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the following except

125. A 50kg man with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters: pH 7.05, pCO2 12 mmHg, pO2 108mm Hg, HCO3 5mEq/L base excess-30 mEq/L. The approximate quantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is:

126. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is:

127. Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following, excep

128. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemias, except

129. A 63-year old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm. The flowcytometery showed CD19 positive, CD5 positive, CD23 negative, monoclonal B.cells with bright kappa positively comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells The most likely diagnosis is:

130. Which of the following statements represent most

131. A 56 year old man presents in the casualty with severe chest pain and difficulty in breathing. His ECG was taken immediately

132. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except

133. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except:

134. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except

135. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except

136. An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except

137. Exercise testing is absolutely conrtraindicated in which

138. The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to

139. Which of the heart valve is most likely to be involved by infective endocarditis following a septic abortion

14o. Osler's nodes are typically seen in which one of the following

141. Troponin-Tis preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) in all of the following situations except

142. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the followin circumstances except

143. A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure pulsusparadoxus at the 4 post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is:

144. The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, pCO2 23 mm Hg pO2 300 mm Hg and oxygen saturation 60% are most consistent with:

145. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLco) is decreased in

146. A 55 ycar old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be

147. Diagnostic features of allergiebronchopulmonaryaspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except

148. Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion

149. Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of the following conditions except

150. A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is

151. Which of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission;

152. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following

154. A 23-year old woman has experienced episodes of myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test to diagnose her disease would be

154. Which of the following is the most common location of hypertensive hemorrhage?

155. ABsence seizure are characterised in EEG by

156 Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is

157. Commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis is:

158. Serum total lactate dehydrogenase level will NOT be raised in:

159. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the

160. A 30-year old HIV positive patient presents with fever dyspnoea and non-productive cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is

161. A 60-year old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen right ankle joint. Radiographs of the ankle show destroyed joint with large number of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is:

162. Central nervous system manifestation in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following, except

163. A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enchanced computed tomography of the ces showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the mos

164. Cardiac output measured by thermodilution technique is unreliable in all of the following situations except

165. What is the most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

166. Marjolin's ulcer is a:

167. Bedsore is an example of

168. Early stage of trauma is characterized by

169. One unit of fresh blood arises the Hb% concentration

170. A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with

171. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is:

172. Which of the following lasers is used for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi?

173. Semen analysis of a young man who presented with primary infertility revealed low volume, fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermia. Which of the following is the most useful imaging modality to evaluate the cause of his infertility?

174. A 65 year old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:

175. A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum of the stomach is most likely to produce initial localized peritonitis or abscess formation in the following:

176. A 27 year old man presents with a left testcular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass. The treatment of choice is:

177. Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia

178. Which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small bowel obstruction:

179. All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except

180. All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except.

181. If a patient with Raynaud's disease immersed his hand in cold water, the hand will

182. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to involvement of the following nerve

183. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the follwing carcinoma

184. An increased incidence of cholangiocarcinoma is seen in all of the following except

185. The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for

186. Pseudoclaudication is due to the compression of

187. Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in:

188. Sympathectomy is indicated in all following condition

189. The best for surgery of hypospadias is:

190. A 50-year old male, working as a hotel cook, has four dependent family members. He has been diagnosed with early stage squamous cell cancer of anal canal. He has more than 60% chances of cure. The best treatment option is

191. In a post operative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same wound. The best method to prevent cross infection occurring in other patients in the same ward is to:

192. A 70 year old male patient presented with history of chest pain and was diagnosed to have coronary artery disease. During routine evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of gallbladder stones. There was no past history of biliary colic or jaundice. What is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones

193. The nerve commonly damaged during McBurney's incision is:

194. A 70 year old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transuretheral resection of prostate under spinal anaesthesia. One hour later, he developed vomiting and altered sensorium. The most probable cause is:

195. What is the most appropriate operation for a solitary

196. The commonest cause of an obliterative stricture of the membranous urethra is:

197. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is

198. All of the following may occur in Noonan's syndrome except:

199. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4 hour. He is irritable but

200. A 15-year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erythema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of:

201. A 45 day-old infant developed icterus and two dayslater symptoms and signs of acute liver failure

202. A 2 month old baby with acute viral hepatitis like illnesslips into encephalopathy after 48 hours. The mother isknown hepatitis B carrier. Mother's hepatitis B virusserological profile is most likely to be

203. A 5 ycar old boy is detected to be HBs Ag positive ono separate occasions during a screening program forepatitis B. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Child wasgiven three doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine atthe age of I year. His mother was treated for chrohepatitis B infection around the sane time. The next relevant step for further investigating the child would

204. An eight year old boy had abdominal pain, fever withbloody diarhea for 18 months. His height is 100 cmsand weight is 14.5 kg. Stool culture was negative forknown enteropathogens. The sigmoidoscopy wasormal. During the same period, child had an episode ofrenal colic,and passed urinary gravel. The mantoux testwas 5 x 5 mm. The most probable diagnosis is:

205. A 7 year old girl from Bihar presented with threeepisodes of massive hematemesis and melena. There isno history of jaundice. On examination, she had a largespleen, non-palpable liver and mild ascites. Portal veinwas not visualized on ultrasonography. Liver functiontests were normal and endoscopy revealed esophagealvarices. The most likely diagnosis is

206. Which one of the following statements is false withregard to pyuria in children

207. Which one of the following statements is false withregard to Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is children

208. Which one of the following is the most common causeof abdominal mass in neonates?

209. A ten-year old girl presents with swelling of one kneeint. All of the following conditions can be consideredin the differential diagnosis except

210. A 1-month old baby presents with frequent vomitingand failure to thrive. There are features of moderatedehydration. Blood sodium is 122 mEq/l and potassiumis 6.1 mEq/1. The most likely diagnosis is

211. A 40 year old lady delivered a full term baby. Onexamination of the baby, the neonatologist noted certainurogenital abnormality. He took the following picture.The most likely diagnosis is

212. A 2 month baby presents with history of jaundiceturmeric colored urine and pale stools since birth.

213. All of the following are known risk factors for development ofendometrial carcinoma except

214. A case of Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia belongs to high risk group ifdisease develops after

215. A primigravida at 37 week of gestation reported tolabour room with central placenta praevia with heavybleeding per vaginum. The fetal heart rate was normal atthe time of examination. The best management optionfor her is:

216. A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient withectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 x 3 cms andBeta hCG titer of 1500 miu/ml. What modality of treatment is suitable for her:

217. A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department(OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months hasa 1 x 1 cmnodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The mostappropriate investigation to be done subsequently is

218. All of the following drugs are used for management ofpost partumhaemorrhage except:

219. Laparotomy performed in a case of ovarian tumorrevealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascities positivefor malignant cells and positive pelvic lymph nodes. All other structures were free of disease. What is stage ofthe disease:

220. All of the following may be observed in a normal pregnancy except

221. B Lynch suture is applied on:

222. Pyometra is a complication associated with all of thefollowing conditions except

223. Cut-off value of cervical length at 24 weeks of gestationfor prediction of preterm delivery is

224. Pure gonadal dysgenesis will be diagnosed in thepresence of

225. All of the following are mechanisms of action ofemergency contraception except

226. Most common cause of first trimester abortion is:

227. A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comeswith history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per vaginumand loss of fetal movements. On examination the uterusis contracted with increased uterine tone. Fetal heartsounds are absent. The most likely diagnosis is

228. A 20 year old woman gives a history of sharp pain the lower abdomen for 2-3 days every month

229. A 55-year old woman has recurrent urinary retentionafter a hysterectomy doen for a huge fibroid. The mostlikely cause is

230. A 45 year old female is having bilateral ovarian massascites and omental caking on CT scan. There is highpossibility that patient is having

231. A commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is

232. A vascular necrosis can be a possible sequelae offracture of all of the following bones, except:

233. Kinebock's disease is due to avascular necrosis of

234. A classical expansive lytic lesion in the transverseprocess of a 'vertebra is seen in:

235. A 30-year old male was brought to the casuallyfollowing a road traffic accident. His physical

236. Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury

237. Osteomalacia is associated with

238. Which one of the following tests will you adopt whileexamining a knee joint where you suspect an old tear ofanterior cruciate ligament?

239. A 64 year old hypertensive obsese female wasundergoing surgery for fracture femur under gencral

240. In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usuallyerodes

241. A 30 year old man came to the outpatient departmentbecause he had suddenly developed double vision. Onexamination it was found that his right eye, when atrest, was turned medially. The most likely anatomicalstructures involved are

242. The commonest cause of low vision in India is:

243, A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with theonset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms ofburning, itching, and lacrimation with polygonal raisedarcas in the palpebral conjunctiva is

244. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:

245. SAFE strategy'" has been developed for the control of

246. A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection.Laboratory diagnosis of acanthomoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment

247. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typicallycaused by:

248. A 20 year old man complains of difficulty in reading thenewspaper with his right eye, three weeks aftersustaining a gun shot injury to his left eye. The mostlikely diagnosis is

249. A child has got a congenital cataract involving the

250, A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asksfor your opinion. All the following things are suitablefor performing LASIK surgery except

251. A patient is on follow-up with you after cnucleation of apainful blind eye. After enucleation of the cyeball, aproper sized artificial prosthetic eye is advised after apostoperative period of

252. A one year old child having leucocoria was detected tobe having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half theglobe. Current therapy would involve:

253. FasanellaServan operation is specifically indicated in

254. The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors isindicated in:

255. A vitreous aspirate has been collected in an emergencyat 9 pm. What advice you like to give to the staff on duty regarding the overnight storage of the sample:

256. Vortex Vein invasion is commonly seen in:

257. A 5 year old boy been diagnosed to have posterior superior retraction pocket cholesteotoma. All wouldconstsitute part of the management. except:

258. A 31 year old female patient complaints of bilateralImpairment of hearing for the past 5 years. On

259. Carharts notch is audiogram is deepest frequency of

260. A middle aged male comes to the outer patient department (OPD) with the only complaint of hoarseness ofvoice for the past 2 years. He has been a chronic smokerfor 30 years. On examination, a reddish area of mucosalirregularity overlying a portion of both cords was seen.Management would include all except

261. Type I thyroplasty is for

262. A 40 year old male developed persistant oral ulcersfollowed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and

263. Acantholysis is characteristie of:

264. A 5 year boy has multiple asymptomatic oval and circularfaintly hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on hisface. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:

265. An eleven year old boy is having tineacapitis on hisscalp. The most appropriatc line of treatment is:

266. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient whopresents with an itchy annular plaque on the face is:

267. An 8-month old child presented with itchy, exudativelesions on the face, palms and soles. The siblings alsohave similar complaints. The treatment of choice is sucha patient is:

268. The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulcerationin a sexually active male is

269. The syndromic management of urethral dischargeincludes treatment of:

270. An anaesthetist orders a new attenant to bring the oxygencylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correctcylinder by following color code

271. Interscalene approach to brachral plexus block does not provide optimal surgical anaesthesia in the area ofdistribution of which of the following nerve

272. In all of the following conditions neuraxial blockade isabsolutcly contraindicated, except

273. The induction agent of choice is day care anacsthesia is

274. A 38 ycar old man is posted for extraction of last molartooth under general anaesthesia as a day care case. Hewishes to resume his work after 6 hours. Which one of thefollowing induction agents is preferred:

275. Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortexsuppression is:

276. During rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia:

277. At the end of a balanced anacsthesia technique withnon-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recoveredspontaneously from the effect of muscle reiaxantwithout any reversal. Which is the most probablerelaxant the patient had received.

278. A 5 year old boy suffering from Duchenne musculardystrophy has to undergo tendon lengthening procedure.The most appropriate anaesthetic would be

279. A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and drainageof abscess under general anacsthesia with spontaneousrespiration. The most efficient anaestheticcircuiit is

280. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphysealdysgenesis?

281. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in achild does not occur in:

282. High resolution computed tomography of the chest isthe ideal modality for evaluating

283. Which one of the following is a recognized X-Rayfeature of rheumatoid arthritis?

284. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especiallyinvolving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features

285 CT scan of a patient with history of head injury shows a biconvex hyperdense lesion displacing the grey whitematter interface. The most likely diagnosis is:

286. Which of the following is the best choice to evaluateradiologically a posterior fossa tumor?

287. An eight year old boy presents with back pain and mildfever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals asolitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadowThe most likely diagnosis is:

288. Most suitable radioisotope of lodine for treatinghyperthyroidism is

289. Which of the following radio-isotopes is commonlyused as a source for external beam radiotherapy in thetreatment of cancer patients:

290. All of the following are impulse control disorders except

291. Delirium tremens is characterized by confusionassociated with:

292. An alcoholic is brought to the Emergency OPD with the complaint or irrelevant talking. He had stopped usingalcohol three days back. On examination, he is found tobe disoriented to time. place and person. He also hasvisual illusions and hallucinations. There is no historyof head injury. The most likely diagnosis is:

293. A 41-year old married female presented with headache for the last 6 months. She had several consultations. Allher investigations were found to be within normallimits. She still insists that there is something wrong inher head and seeks another consultation. The mostlikely diagnosis is

294. A 20-year old man has presented with increased alcoholconsumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack ofsleep. and not feeling fatigued even on prolongedperiods of activity. All these changes have beenpresent for 3 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is

295. Behavior therapy to change maladaptive behaviors using response as reinforcer uses the principles of

296. A 15 year old boy feels that the dirt has hung onto himwhenever he passes through the dirty street. Thisrepetitive thought causes much distress and anxiety. Heknows that there is actually no such thing after he hascleaned once but he is not satisfied and is compelled tothink so. This has led to social withdrawal. He spendsmuch of his time thinking about the dirt and contamination. This has affected his studies also. The most likelydiagnosis is

297. A 50 year old man has presented with pain in back, lackof interest in recreational activities, low mood, lethargydecreased sleep and appetite for two months. There wasno history suggestive of delusions or hallucinations. Hedid not suffer trom any chronic medical illness. Therewas no family history of psychiatric illness. Routineinvestigations including haemogram, renal functiontests, liver function tests, electrocardiogram did notreveal any abnormality. This patient should be treated

298. All of the following are features of hallucinations,except

299. Which of the following symbol represents adopted individuals

300. A male child of 15 years, with a mental age of 9 yearshas an IQ of