Mudit 2002

  1. 1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest.
    • A. Melanocyte
    • B. Adrenal medulla
    • C. Sympathetic ganglia
    • D. Cauda equina
  2. 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation
    • A. Establishes all the three germ layers
    • B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryoprior to its cephalic end.
    • C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass
    • D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks
  3. 3. All the following features are seen in neurons fromdorsal root ganglia. EXCEPT
    • A. They have centrally located nuclei
    • B. They are derived from neural crest cells
    • C. They are multipolar
    • D. They contain lipofuscin granules
  4. 4. Elastic cartilage is found in
    • A. Auditory tube
    • B. Nasal septum
    • C. Articuar cartilage
    • D. Costal cartilage
  5. 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axialkeleton by
    • A. Coracoclavicular ligament
    • B. Coracoacromial ligament
    • C. Costroclavicular ligament
    • D Coracohumeral ligament
  6. 6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of
    • A Femoral artery
    • B. External iliac artery
    • C. Internal iliac artery
    • D. Aorta
  7. 7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all thefollowing, EXCEPT
    • A. Esophageal opening
    • B. Costovertebral triangle
    • C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm
    • D. Inferior vena cava opening
  8. 8. Ureteric construction is seen at all the followingpositions, EXCEPT
    • A. Ureteropelvic junction
    • B Ureterovesicle junction
    • C Crossing of iliac artery
    • D Ischial spine
  9. 9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to thekidney, EXCEPT
    • A Stellate veins drain superficial zone
    • B. It is a type of portal-circulation
    • C. The renal artery divides into five segmentalarteries before entering the hilum
    • D. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries
  10. 10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops painwhile passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is
    • A. Hypogastric nerve
    • B. Pudendal nerve
    • C Splachnic visceral nerve
    • D. Sympathetic plexus
  11. 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied bymandibular nerve:
    • A. Masseter
    • B. Buccinator
    • C. Tensor veli palari
    • D. Posterior belly of digastric
  12. 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of thefollowing, except
    • A. Facial nerve
    • B. Hypoglossal nerve
    • C. Giossopharyngeal nerve
    • D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
  13. 13. All of the following are features of large intestineEXCEPT
    • A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps
    • B. It is a site of mucocutancous junctionin formation of stools
    • C. Its epithelium contains globlets ceils in largenumbers
    • D. Absorbs salt and water
  14. PHYSIOLOGY
    • 14. SI unit for measuring 'Blood Pressure is
    • A. Torr
    • B. mmHg
    • C. kPa
    • D. Barr
  15. 15. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through
    • A. ATP dependent K' channels
    • B cAMP
    • C. Carrier modulators
    • D. Receptor phosphorylation
  16. 16. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is assaciated with
    • A.Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion
    • B. Increased phosphate
    • C. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve
    • D. Cardiac conduction abnormalities
  17. 17. Ablation of the 'somatosensory area I' of the cerebralcortex leads to
    • A. Total loss of pain sensation
    • B. Total loss of touch sensation
    • C Loss of tactile localization but not of two pointdiscrimination
    • D. Loss of tactile localization and two pointdiscrimination
  18. 18. Nonshivering thermogenesis in adults is due to
    • A. Thyroid hormone
    • B. Brown fat between the shoulders
    • C. Noradrenaline
    • D. Muscle metabolism
  19. 19. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changesare seen
    • A. Increased K: excretion
    • B. Decresed K excretion
    • C. Increased Na excretion
    • D. Increased Na reabsorption
  20. 20. Tropomyosin
    • A. Helps n the fusion of actin and myosin
    • B. Covers myosin and prevents attachments oractin ad myosin
    • C. Slides over myosin
    • D. Causes Ca release
  21. 21. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis ofdisorders of following hormones
    • A. Insulin
    • B. ACTH
    • C. Growth hormone
    • D. PTH
  22. BIOCHEMISTRY
    • 22. All enzymes are not proteins." This statement isjustified by
    • A. All enzymes do not follow the MichaelisMenton hypothesis
    • B. RNAs act as ribozymes
    • C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis ofmany reactions
    • D. Metals are involved in attachment toenzymes and catalysts.
  23. 23. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another
    • A. Transferases
    • B. Oxidases
    • C. Lysases
    • D. Peptidases
  24. 24 In which of the following reactions is Magnesiumrequired
    • A. ATPase
    • B. Dismutase
    • C. Phosphatase
    • D. Aldolase
  25. 25. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production andrespiratory chain are linked by
    • A. Chemical methods
    • B. Physical methods
    • C. Chemiosmotic methods
    • D. Conformational changes
  26. 26. Thiamine level is best monitored by
    • A. Transketolase level in blood
    • B. Thiamine level in blood
    • C. G6PD activity
    • D. Reticulocytosis
  27. 27. Vitamin B and folic acid supplementation inmegaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of
    • anemia due to
    • A. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow
    • B. Increased Hemoglobin production
    • C. Erythroid hyperplasia
    • D. Increased iron absorption
  28. 28.Nitric Oxide Synthase
    • A. Is inhibited by Ca
    • B. Catalyzes a dioxygenase reaction
    • C. Accepts electrons from NADH
    • D. Requires NADPH, FAD, FMN & Heme iron
  29. 29. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the followingEXCEPT
    • A. Tyrosine
    • B. Epinephrine
    • C. Thyroxine
    • D. Melatonin
  30. 30. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from dietsleast used in the synthesis of
    • A. Palmity CoA
    • B. Citrate
    • C. Acetoacetate
    • D. Oxalosuccinate
  31. 31. Substrate level poosphorylation is seen in the Conversion of
    • A. Acetoacetate to a-keto glutarale
    • B. Succinyl CoA to Succinare
    • C. Fumarate to calate
    • D. Succinate to fumarate
  32. 32. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins because of difference in
    • A. RNA editing
    • B. RNA splicing
    • C. Chromosomal loci
    • D. Apo-B gens
  33. 33. All the following can be used to detect mutation, excepc
    • A. Single strand conformational polymorphism
    • B. Ligase chain reaction
    • C. Polymerase chain reaction
    • D. DNA Sequencing
  34. 34. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxyl ethyl Starch
    • A. It is an anesthetic ageot
    • B. It is a plasma expander
    • C. lt is a crystalloid
    • D. Used as a nutritional agent
  35. 35. Elasticity of the comical layer of skin is due to the presence of
    • A Histidine
    • B. Keratin
    • C. Lysinc
    • D. Cysteine
  36. 36. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by
    • A. Ubiquitin
    • B. Tobulin
    • C Laminin
    • D. Keratin
  37. 37 Entropy in a biological system does not increase because
    • A. It is an open system
    • B It is a closed system
    • C. It is a governed by vitalism
    • D. It is a related to thermodynamics
  38. 38 Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours oscillatory responses
    • A. Proportional component
    • B. Has a greater gain
    • C. Has a lesser gain
    • D. Positive feedback system
  39. 39. Reyarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true EXCEPT
    • A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
    • B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
    • C. ED of the drug corresponds to efficacy
    • D. Drugs that produce a similarpitarmacological effect can have differentl evels of efficacy
  40. 40. All the following are selective beta blockers, except
    • A. Atenolol
    • B. Esmolol
    • C. Bisprolol
    • D. Celiproiol
  41. 41. All of the following factor the risk of amino glycosiderenal toxicity Except
    • A. Elderly person
    • B Hypokalemia
    • C Simultaneous use with penicillin
    • D. Aminoglycoside acministration in recent past
  42. 42. In which of the following disorders is administration of barbiturates contraindicated in:
    • A. Anxiety disorders
    • B Acute intermittent porphyria
    • C. Kernincterus
    • D.Refractive starus epilegticus
  43. 43. Mechanism of action Tianeptin in the brain is
    • A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
    • B. Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
    • C Selective serotonin reuptake enchancer
    • D. Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
  44. 44. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they aregiven
    • A. After meals
    • B. Shortly before meals
    • C. Along with H2 blockers
    • D. During prolonged fasting periods
  45. 45. Which of the following is correctly matched:
    • A. Dimercaprol: Iror
    • B. Calcium di-sodium EDTA:Arsenic
    • C. Penicillamine : Copper
    • D. Desferrioxamine Lead
  46. 46. Digoxin is contraindicated in
    • A. Supraventricular tachycardia
    • B. Atrial fibrillation
    • C Congestive heart failure
    • D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
  47. 47. All the following drugs cause renal failure except
    • A. Cephaloridine
    • B. Amphoterecin B
    • C. Cefoperazone
    • D. Gentamicin
  48. 48. All of the following statements are true regardingLosartan except
    • A. It is a competitive angiotensin receptor antagonist
    • B. It has a long acting metabolite
    • C Associated with negligible cough
    • D. Causes hyperuricemia
  49. 49. Gemcitabine is effective in
    • A. Head and neck cancers
    • B. Pancreatic cancer
    • C. Small-cell lung cancer
    • D. Soft tissue sarcoma
  50. 50. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except
    • A. Phenyto in
    • B. Diazepam
    • C. Morphine
    • D. Heparin
  51. 51. A highway truck driver has profuse rhinorrhea andsneezing. Which amongstthe following durgs would you prescribe him?
    • A. Pheniramine
    • B. Promerhazine
    • C. Dimenhydrinate
    • D. Cerizine
  52. 52. The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is
    • A. Increased cAMP
    • B. Increased guany late cyclase
    • C. Calcium channel blockage
    • D. K channel opener
  53. 55. All the following belong to the steroid receptorsuperfamily except
    • A. Vitarmin D, receptor
    • B. Thyroid receptor
    • C. Retinoid receptor
    • D. Epinephrine receptor
  54. 54. All of the following undergo hepatic metabolism before excretion except
    • A. Phenytoin
    • B. Diazeparm
    • C. Penicillin G
    • D. Cimeridine
  55. 55. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance ofpregnancy increases after taking any of the followingdrugs except
    • A. Phenytoin
    • B. Griseofulvin
    • C. Ampicillin
    • D. Cimetidine
  56. 56 The primary mechanism ofaction of fluoride on topicalapplication is
    • A. Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatiteby replacing the OH ions
    • B Inhibition of plaque bacteria
    • C Fonm a reservoir in saliva
    • D Improvement in tooth morphology
  57. 57.The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells ofGranulomatous inflammation are derived from
    • A. Basophils
    • B. Eosinophils
    • C. CD4-T lymphocytes
    • D. Monocytes Macrophages
  58. 58. The following host tissue responses can be seen inacute infection, except
    • A. Exudation
    • B. Vasodilation
    • C. Margination
    • D. Granuloma formation
  59. 59. The following feature is common to both cytotoxicT-ceils and NK cells
    • A. Synthesize antibody
    • B. Require antibodies to be present for action
    • C. Effecive against virus infected ceils
    • D. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers
  60. 60. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestinethe predominant cell population is that of:
    • A. B cell
    • B. T-cells
    • C. Plasma cells
    • D. Basophils
  61. 61. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may beseen except:
    • A. Cavitation
    • B. Caseation
    • C. Calcification
    • D. Langerhan giarnt cell
  62. 62. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occured
    • A. Less than 1 hours
    • B. Within 24 hrs
    • C.Within 1 week
    • D. Within 1 month
  63. 63.A 10 year old boy, Pappu, died of acute rheumatic fever All the following can be expected at autopsy except
    • A. Ashoff nodules
    • B. Rupture of chordae tendinae
    • C. Mc Callum patch
    • D. Fibrinous pericarditis
  64. 64.All oi the following are seen in asbestosis except
    • A. Diffuse alveolar damage
    • B. Calcify pleural plaques
    • C Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis
    • D. Mesotheliomas
  65. 65. Macrophages containing large quantities of undigestedand partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in
    • A. Whipple's disease
    • B. Amyloidosis
    • C. immunoapproliferative small intestinal disease
    • D. Vibro cholerae infection
  66. 66.The histological features of coeliac disease include all ofthe following, Except
    • A. Crypt hyperpiasia
    • B. Increase in thickness of the mucosa
    • C. Increase in intraepithelial lynphocytes
    • D. Increase in inflammatory cells in lamina propyria
  67. 67. Liver granulation may be associated with all of thefollowing except
    • A. Candida
    • B. Halothane
    • C Sarcoidosis
    • D. Hepatic metastasis
  68. 68. In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen inthe liver except
    • A. Fatty degeneration
    • B Chronic hepatitis
    • C. Granuloma formation
    • D. Cholestatic hepatitis
  69. 69. Crescent formation is characteristic of the followingglomerular disease
    • A. Minimal change disease
    • B. Rapidly progressive giomerulonephritis
    • C. Focal and segmental glomeruloscierosis
    • D. Rapidly non progressive glomerulonephritis
  70. 70. Necrouzing pappillitis may be seen in all of thefollowing conditions except
    • A. Sickle cell disease
    • B. Tuberculous pyelonephritis
    • C. Diaberes mellitus
    • D. Analgesic nephropathy
  71. 71. Disease or infarction of neurological tissue causes it tobe replaced by
    • A. Fluid
    • B. Neuroglia
    • C. Proliferation of adjacent nerve cells
    • D. Blood vessel
  72. 72. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all or thefollowing except
    • A. Taking up soluble DNA fragments acrosstheir call wall from other species
    • B. Incorporating part or host DNA
    • C. Through bacteriophag
    • D. Through conjugation
  73. 73. Neonatal thymectomy leads to
    • A. Decreased size of germinal center
    • B. Decreased size of paracortical areas
    • C. Increased antibody productionby B cells
    • D. Increased bone marrow production oflymphocytes
  74. 74. Staphylococcus aureus differs from staphylococcusepidermidis by
    • A. Is coagulase positive
    • B. Forms white colonies
    • C. A common cause of UTI
    • D. Causes éndocarditis in drug addicts
  75. 75. Positive shick's test indicares that person is
    • A. Immune to diptheria
    • B. Hypersensitive to diptheria
    • C. Susceptible to diptheria
    • D. Carrier of diptheria
  76. 76. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days ofonset of fever is best done by
    • A. Blood culture
    • B. Widal
    • C. Stool culture
    • D. Urine culture
  77. 77. Which of the following is transmitted by Rat urine?
    • A. Leptospira
    • B. Liste a
    • C. Legionella
    • D. Mycoplasma
  78. 78. All the following are true about Listeria except
    • A. Transmitted by contaminated milk
    • B. Gram negative bacteria
    • C. Causes abortion in pregnancy
    • D. Causes meningitis in neonates
  79. 79. Which of the following statement is true about Bactericides
    • A. It is gram positive bacilli
    • B. It is strictly aerobic
    • C. It may cause peritonitis
    • D. Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment
  80. 80. Heat stable enterotoxin causing cod poisoning caused by all the following except
    • A. Bacillus cereus
    • B. Yersinia enterocolitica
    • C. Staphylococcus
    • D. Clostridium perfringens
  81. 81. HIV virus contains
    • A. Single stranded DNA
    • B. Single stranded RNA
    • C. Double stranded DNA
    • D. Double stranded RNA
  82. 82. Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:
    • A. It is a DNA retrovirus
    • B. Contains Reverse Transcriptase
    • C. May infect host CD, cells other than
    • D. T-lymphocytes
    • D. Causes a reduction in host CD, cells at late stageof disease
  83. 83. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts fallbelow
    • A. 50
    • B. 100
    • D. 200
    • D. 150
  84. 84. Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except
    • A. Infectious mononucleosis
    • B. Measles
    • C. Nasopharyngeal carcin
    • D. Non Hodgkins lymphoma
  85. 85. In a patient, comeal scraping reveals narrow angledseptate hyphae. Which of the following is the likelyetiologic agent
    • A. Mucor
    • B. Aspergillus
    • C. Histoplasma
    • D. Candida
  86. 86. Which of the following is true regarding globi in apatient with lepromatous leprosy
    • A. Consists of lipid laden macrophages.
    • B. Consists of macrophages filled with AFB
    • C. Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria
    • D. Consists of activated lymphocytes
  87. 87. The following diagnostic tests are useful forcorresponding purposes except
    • A. Zeilh-Nelson staining- Detection of mycobacteria
    • B. Immunoflorescence - Detection of Influenza virus
    • C. Specific IgM antibodies - Immunity gainst Rubella
    • D. Specific 1gM antibodies Detection of acuteinfectioD
  88. 88. IL-I produces
    • A. T lymphocyte activation
    • B. Delayed wound heaiing
    • C. Increased pain perception
    • D. Decreased PMN release trom bone marrow
  89. 89.What would be the race of individual if skull bonehaving following feature rounded nasal opening
    • horseshoe shaped palette. Round orbit & cephalic indexabove 80
    • A. Negro
    • B. Mongol
    • C European
    • D. Aryans
  90. 90. A sample to look for uric crystal (Gouty tophus) would besubmitted to the pathology laboratory in
    • A. Formalin
    • B. Disulled water
    • C. Alcohol
    • D. Normal saline
  91. 91. Not a feature of brain death
    • A. Complete apnea
    • B. Absent pupillary reflex
    • C Absence deep tendon reflex
    • D. Heart rate un-responsive to atropine
  92. 92. At autopsy, a body is found to have copious fineleathery froth in mouth & nosuils which increased onpressure over chest. Death was likely due to
    • A. Epilepsy
    • B. Hanging
    • C. Drowning
    • D. Opium poisoning
  93. 93. In firearm injury, entery-wound blackening is due to
    • A. Flame
    • B. Hot gases
    • C. Smoke
    • D. Unburned powder
  94. 94. Tentative cut is a feature of
    • A. Fall from the height
    • B. Homicidal assault
    • C. Accidental injury
    • D. Suicidal attempt
  95. 95. Gastric lavage is indicated in all cases of acute poisoningideally because of
    • A.Fear of aspiration
    • B. Danger of cardiac arrest
    • C. Danger of respiratory arrest
    • D. Inadequat ventilation
  96. 96. All of the following method user for detecting heavymetals, except
    • A. Harrison& Gilroy test
    • B. Paraffin test
    • C. Neutron activation analysis
    • D. Atomic adsorption spectrospcopy
  97. 97. 60 yrs old man presents in OPD with history of opiumaddiction for the last 20 yrs. He has given up opium from2 days. Withdrawal symptoms will include
    • A. Drowsiness
    • B. Constricted pupil
    • C. Rhinorhea
    • D. Blood pressure
  98. 98. The sensation of creping bugs over the body is a featureof poisoning
    • A. Cocaine
    • B. Diazepam
    • C. Barbiturates
    • D. Brown sugar
  99. 99. Which type of cattle poisoning occurs due to ingestionofLNSEED plant
    • A. Aconite
    • B. Pilocarpine
    • C. Atropine
    • D. Hydro cyanic acid
  100. 100. Hera Lal's 10 year old child present in casualty withsnakebite since six hours. On examination no systemicsigns are found & lab investigation are normal exceptlocalized sweiling over the leg of 5 cm. Next step inmanagement would be
    • A. Incision & suction of local swelling
    • B. Vply antivenum
    • C. S/cutaneous anti venum at local swelling
    • D. Observe the Patient for progression of symptomswait for antivenum therapy
  101. 101. Iron and Folic acid supplementation forms
    • A. Health promotion
    • B. Specific protection
    • C. Primordial prevention
    • D. Primary prevention
  102. 102. The most important function of sentinel surveillance is
    • A. To find the total amount of disease in a population
    • B. To plan effective control measures
    • C. To determine the trend of disease in a population
    • D. To notity disease
  103. 103. Serial interval is
    • A. Time gap between primary and secondary case
    • B. Time gap between index and primary ca
    • C. Time taken for a person from infection to developmaximum infectivity
    • D. The time taken from infection till a person infectsanother person
  104. 104. All the following are advantages of case controlstudies except
    • A. Useful in rare disease
    • B. Relative risk can be calculated
    • C. Odds ratio can be calculated
    • D. Cost -effective and inexpensive
  105. 105. The association between coronary artery disease andsmoking was found to be as follows
    • No CAD CAD
    • Smokers 30 20
    • Non Smokers 20 30
    • The Odds ratio can be estimated as
    • A. 0.65
    • B. 0.8
    • C. 13
    • D. 225
  106. 106. In a prospective study comprising 10,000 subjects.6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 werenot. 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What isthe interpretation of the above results
    • A. Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer
    • B. Beta carotene and Lung Cancer have no relation toeach other
    • C. The study desiga is not sufficient to draw anymeaningful conclusions
    • D. Beta carotene is carcinogenic
  107. 107. About direct standardization all are true except
    • A. Age specific death rates are not needed
    • B. A standard population is needed
    • C Population should be comparable
    • D. Two propulations are compared
  108. 108. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
    • A. Rubella
    • B. Diphtheria
    • C. Tetanus
    • D. Hepatitis B
  109. 109. Which of the following statements is true regardingpertussis?
    • A. Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000
    • B. Vaccine efficacy is more than 92%
    • C. Erythromycin prevents spread of disease betweenchildren
    • D. The degree of poiymorphonuclear Leukocytosiscorrelates with the severity of cough
  110. 110. Drugs A & B are both used for treating a particular skin infection. After one standard application, Drug A eradicates the infection in 95% of both adults and children. Drug B eradicates the infection in 47% of adults & 90% of children. There are otherwise no significant pharmacological differences between the two drugs, and there are no significant side effects However, the cost of Drug A is twice that of Drug B. Dr. Ram, a general practioner, always uses drug B for the first treatment, and resorts to Drug A if the infectionpersists. Dr. Yogesh, another general practitioner, always uses Drug A for adults and drug B for children. Ignoring indirect costs, which of the following statement is incorrect :
    • A Drug A is more effective than B for treating children
    • B Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating children
    • C Drug A is more cost-effective than Drug B for treating adults
    • D. Dr. Yogesh's regime achieves a higher level of Cost-effectiveness than Dr Ram's
  111. 111. The infectivity of chicken pox lasts for
    • A. Till the last scab falls off
    • B. 6 days after onset of rash
    • C. 3 days after onset of rash
    • D. Till the fever subsides
  112. 112. Carriers are important in all the following except
    • A. Polio
    • B. Typhoid
    • C. Measles
    • D. Diphtheria
  113. 113. Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged
    • A. 0-3 years
    • B 0-5 years
    • 0-15 years
    • D. 0-25 years
  114. 114. Ramu a 2 yr old boy, presented with cough, fever & difficulty in breathing. His RR 50/min. There was no chest in drawing, Auscaluation of chest reveals bilateralcrepitions. The most probable diagnosis is
    • A. V. severe poeumonia
    • B. Scvcre pocwmonia
    • C. Pneumonia
    • D. No peumonia
  115. 115. Active and passive immunity should be given togetherin all except
    • A. Tetanus
    • B. Rabies
    • с. Measles
    • D. Hepatitis B
  116. 116. Cereals and pulses considered complementary since
    • A. Cereals are deficient in methionine
    • B. Cereals are deficient in methionine and pulse are deficient in lysine
    • C. Cereals are deficient in lysine and pulses are deficient in methionine
    • D. Cereal proteins contain non-essential amino-acidswhile pulse proteins contain essential amino acids
  117. 117. For a 60Kg Indian male, the minimum daily proteinrequirement has been calculated to be 40g (mean) &Standard deviation is 10. The recommended dailyallowance of protein would be
    • A. 60g day
    • C. 40g day
    • B. 70g/day
    • D. 50g/day
  118. 118. A population study showed a mean glucose of 86mg/dL. In a sample of 100 showing normal curve
    • distribution, what percentage of people have glucose above 86%?
    • A. 65 B. 50
    • C. 75D. 60
  119. 119. The best method to show the association betweenheight and weight of children in a class is by
    • A. Bar chart
    • B. Line diagram
    • C. Scarter diagram
    • D. Histogram
  120. 120. The corelation berween variables A and B in a studywas found to be L.1. This indicates
    • A. Very strong correlation
    • B. Moderately strong correlation
    • C. Weak correlation
    • D Computational mistake in calculating c0πelation
  121. 121. The biological oxygen demand indicates
    • A. Organic matter
    • B. Bacterial content
    • C. Anaerobic bacteria
    • D. Chemicals
  122. 122. In a surveillance centre for Hepatitis B, in a lowprevalance area, the method for testing for Hepatitis Bwas single ELISA. This policy was changed to doubletesting in series. This would result in the following 2parameters of the test being affected
    • A. Specificity and positive predictive value
    • B. Sensitivity and positive predictive value
    • C. Sensitivity and negative predictive value
    • D. Specificity and negative predictive value
  123. 123. In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before andafter giving a drug. The test which would give itssingificance is
    • A. Unpaired t test
    • B. Paired t est
    • C. Chi square test
    • D. Fisher test
  124. 124. Xavier and Yogender stay in the same hostel of thesame university. Xavier develops infection with GroupB meningococcus. After a few days Yogender developsinfection due to Group C meningococcus. All thefollowing are true statements except
    • A. Educate students about meningococcaltransmission and take preventive measures
    • B. Chemotheraphylaxis to all against bothGroup B and Group C
    • C. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Xavier
    • D. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Yogender
  125. 125. All of the following are common cause of post neonatalinfant mortality in India, Except
    • A. Tetanus
    • B. Malnutition
    • C. Diarrhoeal diseases
    • D. Acute respiratory infection
  126. 126. The following condition is not associated with anincreased anion-gap type of metabolic acidosis
    • A. Shock
    • B. Ingestion of ante-freeze
    • C. Diabetic keto-acidosis
    • D. COPD
  127. 127. Acute metabolic acidosis
    • A. Has biphasic effect on K" excretion
    • B. Does not effect K excretion significantly
    • C. Decreases urinary K excretion
    • D. Increases urinary K"excretion
  128. 128. Urinary anion gap an indication of excretion of
    • A. Ketoacids
    • B. NH,
    • C. Hion
    • D. K ion
  129. 129 The commonest mode of inheritance of congenital heardisease is
    • A. Autosomal dominant
    • B. Autosomal recessive
    • C. Sex linked dominant
    • D. Multifactorial
  130. 130. Which one of the following is an Autosomal Dominantdisorder
    • A. Cystic fibrosis
    • B. Hereditary spherocytosis
    • C. Sickle cell anemia
    • D. G-6PD deficiency
  131. 131. Which type diabetes is HLA associated
    • A. Type I diabetes
    • B. Tyep I diabetes
    • C. Malnutrition related type disease
    • D. Pregnancy related type diabetes
  132. 132. All of the following are sexually transmitted. Except
    • A. Candida albicans
    • B. Echionococcus
    • C. Molluscum contagiosum
    • D. Group B streptococcus
  133. 133. All of the following infections may be transmitted viablood transfusion, except
    • A. Parvo B-19
    • B. Dengue virus
    • C Cyomegalo virus
    • D. Hepatitis G virus
  134. 134. Hypoglycemia is a recognized feature of all of thefollowing conditions, except
    • A. Uremia
    • B. Acromegaly
    • C. Addison's disease
    • D. Hepatoceiluiar failure
  135. 135. All of the following feature may be seen in thromboicthrombocytopenic purpura, except
    • A. Fever
    • B. Haemolysis
    • C. Hypertension
    • D. Low platelets count
  136. 136. The fallowing laboratory determinants is abnormallyprolonged in ITP
    • A. APTT
    • B. Prothrombin time
    • C. Bleeding time
    • D. Clotting time
  137. 137. PNH is associated with all of the following conditionExcept
    • A. Aplastic anemia
    • B. 1d LAP scores
    • C. Venous thrombosis
    • D. Iron deficiency anemia
  138. 138. A 20 yrs adult presents with severe hypo plastic anemiaWhat is most effective treatment
    • A. α-interferon
    • B. IL-2
    • C. ATG therapy
    • D. Bone marrow transplant
  139. 139. Which of the following is not commonly seen inPolycythemia Vera ?
    • A. Thrombosis
    • B. Hyperuricemia
    • C. Prone for acute leukemia
    • D. Spontaneous severe infection
  140. 140. The following condition is not associated with an Antiphopholipid syndrome
    • A. Venous thrombosis
    • B. Recurrent fetal loss
    • C. Thrombocytosis
    • D. Neurological manifestations
  141. 141. Hypergastrinemia with hypochlorhydria is seen in
    • A. Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
    • B. VIPoma
    • C Pernicious anemia
    • D. Glucagonorma
  142. 142. All of the following phases of the jugular venous pulse and their causes are correctly matched, Except
    • A. .С, wave - onset of atrial systole
    • B. 'a-x' descent - atrial relaxation
    • C. ν-W-emptying ofbloodrom right atrium intoright ventricle
    • D. y-a' ascent filling of the right atrium from thevena cava
  143. 143. Which of the following is the correct statementregarding findings in JVP
    • A. Cannon wave Complete heart block
    • B. Slow vy descent: Tricuspid regurgitation
    • C. Giant c wave : Tricuspid stenosis
    • D Increased JVP with prominent pulsations: SVC obstruction
  144. 144. While inseting a central venous catheter, a patientdevelops respiratory distress. The most likely cause is
    • A. Hemothorax
    • B Peumothorax
    • C Pleural effusion
    • D. Hypovolumia
  145. 145. All of the following are clinical features of myxomaexcest
    • A. Fever
    • B Clubbing
    • C. Hypertension
    • D. Embolic phenomenon
  146. 146. Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with
    • A. Diabetic nephropathy
    • B. Membranous glomerulopathy
    • C. Minimal change disease
    • D. Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephnitis
  147. 147. One of the following is a characteristic of HenochSchonlein Purpura
    • A. Blood in stool
    • B. Thrombocytopenia
    • C. Intracranial hemorrhage
    • D. Susceptibility to infection
  148. 148. Renal osteodystropy differs from nutritional and genericforms of osesteomalacia in having:
    • A. Hypocalcaem ia
    • B. Hypercalcemia
    • C. Hypophostaemia
    • D. Hyerphosphatema
  149. 149. Medullary cystic disease of the kidney is bestdiagnosed by
    • A. Ultrasound
    • B. Nuclear scan
    • c. Urography
    • D. Biopsy
  150. 150. A patient with nephrotic syndrome on longstandingcortico-steroid therapy may develop all the followingexcept
    • A. Hyperglycemia
    • B. Hypertophy of muscle
    • C. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
    • D. Suppression of the piuitary adrenal axis
  151. 151. A 40 year old man presented with repeated episodes orbronchospasm and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray revealedperihilar bronchiectasis. The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Sarcoidosis
    • B.Idiopathic pulmonary fiborsis
    • C. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
    • D. Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
  152. 152. Which of the following is characteristically not associatedwith the development of interstitial lung disease?
    • A. Coal dust
    • B. Sulfur dioxide
    • C. Thermophilic actenomycetes
    • D. Tobacco smokes
  153. 153. Hera lal 35 years old man was found-ve for HBsAg &HBeAg, accidentally during screening of blood
    • donation. On Lab examination SGOT & SGPT areNormal. What should you do next:
    • A. Liver biopsy
    • B Interferon therapy
    • C Observation
    • D. HBV-DNA estimation
  154. 154. A 25 yrs women presents with bloody diarrhea& isdiagnosed as a case of Ulcerative colitis. Which of thefollowing condition is not associated:
    • A. Sclerosing cholengitis
    • B. Tritis
    • C. Ankylosing spondylitis
    • D. Pancreatitis
  155. 155. Investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis is
    • A. Indirect heamagglutination
    • B. ELISA
    • C. Counter immune electrophores is
    • D. Microscopy
  156. 156. A diabetic patient with blood glucose of 600mg/dL andNa 122 mEq/L was treated with insulin. After giving insulinthe blood glucose decreased to 100 mg/dL.What changesin blood Na level is expected?
    • A. Increased in Na level
    • B. Decrease in Na level
    • C. No change would be expected
    • D. Na would return to previous levelspontaneously on correction of blood glucose.
  157. 157. A 20 year young man presents with exert ional dysp-noea, headache, and giddiness. On examination, there ishypertension and LVH. X-ray picture shows notching ofthe anterior ends of the ribs. The most like diagnosis is
    • A. Phaeochromocytoma
    • B. Carcinoid syndrome
    • C. Coarctation ot the aorta
    • D. Superior Mediastinal syndrome
  158. 158. Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is important because
    • A. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis
    • B. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis
    • C. It is very common in childhood Rheumatoidarthritis
    • D. It correlates with disease activity
  159. 159. Conn's syndrome is associated with all, except
    • A. Hypertension
    • B. Muscle weakness
    • C. Hypokalemia
    • D. Oedema
  160. 160. The triad originally described by Zollinger Ellisonsyndrome is characterized by
    • A. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, nonbeta cell tumour
    • B. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, betacell tumour
    • C. Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, non beta celltumour
    • D.Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, beta cell tumour
  161. 161. All of the following are features of pheochromocytomaexcept
    • A. Hypertensive paraoxysm
    • B. Headache
    • C. Orhtostatic hypotension
    • D. Wheezing
  162. 162. A patient suddenly experienced pain radiating along themedial border of the dorsum of foot. Which ofthe followingnerve is most likely to be accidently ligated
    • A. Sural nerve
    • B. Saphenous nerve
    • C Deep peroneal nerve
    • D. Genicular nerve
  163. 163. In an audlt patient with plural effusion, the mostappropriate site for plurisentesis done by inserting aneedle is in
    • A. 5th intercostals space in midclevicular line
    • B. 7th intercostal space in mid axilary's bone
    • C. 2nd intercostals space adjacent to the sternum
    • D. 10th intercostal space adjacent to the vertebralcolumn
  164. 164. Measurements of intravacular pressure by a pulmonaryartery catheter should be done
    • A. At end expiration
    • B. At peak of inspiration
    • C. During mid inspiration
    • D. During mid expiration
  165. 165. A 24- year old man falls onthe ground when he is struck inthe right temple by a baseball. While being driven to thehospital, he lapses into coma. He is unresponsive with thedilated right pupil when he reaches the emergencydepartment. The most important step in initial management
    • A. Craniotomy
    • B. CT scan of the head
    • C. X-ray of the skull and cervical spine
    • D. Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck
  166. 166. Kamli Rani 75 yrs old woman present with post myocardial.intaction after.6 weeks with mild CHF. There was past HO neck surgery for paratryroid adenoma 5 years ago. EKGshows slow artrial fibrillation. Serum Ca 13.0 mg/L andurinary Ca is 300 mg/24h. On examination their is smallmass in the Para tracheal position behind the right clavicleAppropriate management at this time is
    • A. Repeat neck surgery
    • B. Treatment with technetium-99
    • C. Observation and repeat serum Ca in two months
    • D. Ultrasound guided alcohol injection of the mass
  167. 167. Not a feature of dequervan's disease
    • A. Autoimmune in etiology
    • B. ESR
    • C. Tends to regress spontaneously
    • D. Painful & associated with enlargements of thyroid
  168. 168. A 35 year old woman has had recurrent episodes ofheadache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculiand died of thyroid cancer. Physical observationsrevealed a thyroid nodule and ipsilateral enlargedcervical lymphnodes. Before performing thyroidsurgery the woman's physian should order
    • A. Thyroid scan
    • B. Estimation of hydroxy indole acetic acid in urine
    • C. Estimation of urinary metanephrines, VMA andcatecholamines
    • D. Estimation of TSH, and TRH levels in serum
  169. 169. All of the following are associated with Thyroid storm,Except:
    • A. Surgery for thyroiditis
    • B. Surgery for thyrotoxicosis
    • C. Stressful illness in thyrotoxicosis
    • D. I therapy for thyrotoxicosis
  170. 170. Needle biopsy of solitory thyroid nodule in a youngwoman with palpable cervical lymph nodes on the samesides demonstrates amyloid in stroma of lesion. Likelydiagnosis is
    • A Medullary carcinoma thyroid
    • B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
    • C. Thyroid adenoma
    • D. Muiti nodular goitre
  171. 171. A 26 year woman presents with a palpable thyroidnodule, and needle biopsy demonstrates amyloid in thestroma of the lesion. A cervical lymph node is palpableon the same side as the lesion. the preferred treatmentshould be
    • A. Removal of the involved node, the isthmusand the enlarged lymph node.
    • B. Removal of the involved lobe, the isthmus, aportion of the opposite lobe, and he enlarged lymph rode.
    • C. Total thyroidectomy and modified neck dissectionon the side of the enlarged lymph node
    • D. Total thyroidectomy and irradiation of the cervicallymph nodes.
  172. 172. The most common tumor of the salivary gland is
    • A. Mucoepideomoid tumor
    • B. Warthin's tunor
    • C. Acinic cell tumor
    • D. Pleomorphic adenoma
  173. 173. The pre-malignant condition with the highest probability of progression to malignancy is
    • A. Dysplasia
    • B. Hyperplasia
    • C. Leucoplakia
    • D. Erythroplakia
  174. 174. An old man who is edentulous developed squamous cell Ca in buccal mucosa that has infiltrated to thealveolus. Following is not indicated in treatment
    • A. Radiotherapy
    • B. Segmental mandibulectomy
    • C. Marginal mandibulectomy involvingremoval of the outer table only
    • D. Marginal mandibulectomy involving removal ofupper half of mandible
  175. 175. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the followingconditions?
    • A. Carcinoma esophagus
    • B. Scleroderma
    • C Achalasia cardia
    • D. Diffuse esophagus spasrm
  176. 176. Treatment for achlasia associated with high rate ofrecurrence
    • A. Pneumatic dilatation
    • B. Laproscopic myotomy
    • C. Open surgical myotomy
    • D. Bonuilin roxin
  177. 177. Barrett's oesophagus is:
    • A. Lower oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium
    • B. Upper oesopnagus lined by columnar epithelium
    • C. Lower cesophagus lined by ciliated epithelium
    • D. Lower oesophagus lined by pseudostrerifideepithelium
  178. 178. The adenocarcinoma of esophagus-developed in
    • A. Barret's esophagus
    • B. Long standing achalasia
    • C. Corrosive structure
    • D. Alcohol abuse
  179. 179. The lowest recurrence of peptic ulcer is associated with
    • A. Gastric resection
    • B Vagotomy r drainage
    • C. Vagotomy Antrectomy
    • D. Highly selective vagotomy
  180. 180. Risk factor for development of gastric Ca
    • A. Blood group O
    • B. Duodenal ulcer
    • C intestinal hyperplasia
    • D. Intestinal metaplasia type III
  181. 181. In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, themetabolic disturbance is
    • A. Respiratory alkalosis
    • B. Metabolic acidosis
    • C. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
    • D. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
  182. 182. Ali the following indicates early gastric cancer except
    • A. Involvement of mucosa
    • B. Involvement of mucosa and submucosa
    • C. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa andmuscularis
    • D. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and adjacentlymph nodes
  183. 183. In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patientthe site of obstruction is most likely
    • to be
    • A. Antrum
    • B. Duodenum
    • C. Pylorus
    • D. Pyloric canal
  184. 184. Ramesh met an accident with a car and has been in 'deepcoma' for the last 15 days. The most suitable route for theadministration of protein and calories is by
    • A. Jejunostomy tube feeding
    • B. Gastrostomy tube feeding
    • C Nasogastric tube feeding
    • D. •Central venous hyperalimentation
  185. 185. A İ0month old infants present with acute intestinalobstruction. Contrast enema X-ray shows the intussusceptions. Likely cause is
    • A. Payers patch hypertrophy
    • B. Mekei's diverticulum
    • C. Mucosal polyp
    • D. Duplication cyst
  186. 186. .Ater undergoing surgery, for Carcinoma of colon apatient developed single liver metastatis of 2Cm. Whatyou do next
    • A. Resection
    • B. Chemo radiation
    • C. Acetic acid injection
    • D. Radio frequency ablation
  187. 187. Ten days after a splenectomy for blunt abdominal trauma, a 23-year-old man complains of upper abdominaland lower chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing. Heis anorectic but ambulatory and otherwise makingsatistactory progress. On physical examination, histemperature is 38.2°C(108 C)rectally, and he has decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. Hisabdominal wound appears to be healing wel, bowelsound are active and there are no peritoneal signsRectal examination is negative. The W.B.C. count is12,500 mm3with a shift to left. Chest X-rays showplatelike atelectasis of the left lung field. AbdominalX-rays show a nonspecific gas pattern in the bowel andan air-fluid level in the left upper quadrant. Serunmamylase is 150 Somogyiunits d (normal 60 to 30). Themost likely diagnosis is
    • A. Subphrinic abscess
    • B. Pancreatitis
    • C. Pulmonary embolism
    • D. Subfascial wound infection
  188. 188. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is an important part of themanagement of which of the foilowing conditions?
    • A. Carcinoma prostate
    • B. Carcinoma breast
    • C. Carcinoma lung
    • D. Carcinoma nasopharynx
  189. 189 A man who weighs 70kg ( 154 pounds) is transferred to aburn center 4 weeks after sustaining a second andthird-degree burn injury to 45% of his total body surfacearea. Prior to accident, the patients weight was 90kg (198pounds). The patient has not been given anything bymouth since the injury except for actacids because ofprevious ulcer history. On physical examination, thepatients burm wounds are clean. but only minimalhealing is evident and thick adherent Escher is presentThe patient's abdomen is sot and nondistended, andactive bowel sounds are heard. His stcols are tracepositive for blood, and he has a right inguinal hemia.which appears to be easily reducible. He has poor range of motion of all involved joints and has developed earlyaxillary and popliteal fossae flexion contracrures. In
    • imanaging this patient at this stage his injury, toppriority must be given co correcting
    • A. The presence of blood in stools by the increasingthe dose of antacids + H1 receptor blocker
    • B, the open, poorly healing burn wounds treated bysurgical excision and grafting
    • C. The inguinal hernia treated by surgical repairusing local anesthesia
    • D. The nutritional starus by oral supplementation orparental hyperalimentation
  190. 190. A 14 year old girl sustains a steam burn measuring 6 by7 inches over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm.Blisters deveiop over the entire area of the burn woundand by the time the patient is seen 6 hour after theinjury, some of the blisters have rupturedspontaneously. In addition to debridement of thenecrotic epithelium, all the following therapeution regiments might be considered appropriate for thispatient EXCEPT
    • A. Application of silver sulfadiazine and dailywashes, but no dressing
    • B. Application of Polyvinylpyrorolidone foam daily washes and a light occlusive dressing changed daily
    • C. Application of mafenide acetate cream, but nodaily washes or dressing
    • D. Heterograft application with sutures to secure itin place and daily washes, but no dressing
  191. 191. All of the following are the clinical feature of thromboangitis obliterence except
    • A. Raynaud's phenomenon
    • B. Claudication of extremeties
    • C. Absence of popliteal pulse
    • D. Migratory superticial thrombophlabitis
  192. 192. Sukhia rani, a 16-year old girl who has non-pittingedema of recent onset affecting her right leg but noher symptoms is referred for evaluation. True statements about this patient include
    • A. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated
    • B. A lymphagiongram will sthow hypoplasia of the lymphatics
    • C. Elastic stocking and diuretics will lead to anormal appearance of the limb
    • D. A variety of operations will ultimately lead to anormal appearance of the limb
  193. 193. Kamla, a 59-year-old woman, has a left femoral venousthrombosis during a pregnancy 30 year ago. The leftgreater saphenous vein had been stripped at age 21.She now presents with a large non healing ulcerationover the medial left calf, which has continuouslyprogressed despite bedrest, elevation, and use of a support stocking. Descending phlebography of the leftleg demonstrates a patent deep venous system, withfree flow of dye from the groin to foot. The first pro-funda femoris valve is competent. Appropriate management might include which of the following
    • A. Division of the superficial femorai vein in thegroin and transposition of its distal end onto
    • the profunda femoris vein below the level of thecompetent profunda valve
    • B. Saphenous venous crossover graft withasastomosis of the end of the right saphenous
    • vein onto the side of competent femoral vein
    • C. Ligated iliofemoral venous trombectomy withcreation of the temporary arteriovenous fistula
    • D. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins in the left calf
  194. 194. On her third day of hospitalization, a 70 yrs old womanwho is being rreated with antibiotics for acute cholecystitis develops increased pain and tenderness in the rightupper quadrant with a palpable mass. Her temperaturerises to 40 °C (104°F) her blood pressure falls to 80/60mmHg. Hematemesis, and melena ensue and petechiaeare noted. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopeniaprolonged prothrombin time, and a decreased fibrinogenlevel. The most important step in the correction of this
    • patient's coagulopathy is
    • A. Exploratory laparotomy
    • B. Administration of heparin
    • C. Administration of e-Aminocaprociacid
    • D. Administration of fresh frozen plasma
  195. 195. A 64-years-old previously healthy man is admitted to a hospital because of a closed head injury and rupturedspleen Following a road side accident following anautomobile accident. During the first 4 days of ospitalization, following laparotomy and splenectomyhe receives 5% dextrose 0.5% normal saline solution arate of 125 mL/h. Recorded daily fluid ourputs include450 to 600 mL of nasogastric drainage and 700 to 10mL of urine. The patient is somnolent but easily arouseduntil the morning of the 5th hospital day, when henoted to be in deep coma. By the after-noon, he begins
    • having seizures. The following laberatory data areobtained
    • Serum electro iytes (meq L) Na. 130: K. 1.9: C196; HCO3-19
    • Serum osmolality: 260 mOsm/L
    • rine eiectrolytes (meq/L):Na 61 K 18.
    • Which of the following statements about diagnosis ortreatment of this patien'ts condition is true
    • A. Emergency carotid arteriogram to be done
    • B. Secondary to metabolic acidosis there is hypokalemia
    • C. A small qantity of hypertonic saline to be given
    • D. IV infusion 0120ml of50% MgSO4 given to r 4 hrs
  196. 196. All of the following statements about acute adrenalinsufficiency are true EXCEPT
    • A. Hyperglycenia is usually present
    • B. Acute adrenal insufficiency usually is secondaryto exogenous glucocorticoid administration.
    • C. Acute adrenal insufficiency presents withweakness, vomiting, fever, and hypotension
    • D. Hyponatremia occurs because of impaired renaltubule sodium resorption
  197. 197. All of the following are correct statements aboutradiological evaluation of a patient with Cushing's
    • syndrome. EXCEPT
    • A. MRI of the sella turcica will identify a pituitarycause for Cushing's syndrome
    • B. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way todistinguish a pituitary tumor from an ectopic
    • ACTH producing tumor.
    • C. MRI of the adrenals may distinguish adrenaladenoma trom carcinoma
    • D. Adrenal CT scan distinguished adrenal corticalhyperplasia from an adrenal tumor
  198. 198. The following signs would warrant further evaluation of developmental status in a healthy 12 weeks old infant
    • A. Dose not vocalize
    • B. Dose not babble
    • C. Dose not raise head up to 90°
    • D. Dose not transfer a bright red ring from one handto the other, even when the ring is directly placed
    • in the hand ofchild.
  199. 199. Kallu 2 yrs child weighing 6.7 Kg presents in the casualty 2with history of vomiting & diarrohea for last 2 days. Onexamination skin pinch over the ant. abdominal wall goquickly to its original position. Interpretation of skin-pinchtest in this child will be
    • A. No dehydration
    • B. Some dehydration
    • C. Sever dehydration
    • D. Skin pinch can not be evaluated in this child
  200. 200. An infant presents with history of seizures & skin rashes.Investigations show metabolic acidosis increased blood ketone levels. This child is likely to be suffering from:
    • A. Propionic aciduraria
    • B. Urea cyclic disorder
    • C. Phenylketonuria
    • D. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
  201. 201. With reference to RDS, all of the following statementsare true, EXCEPT
    • A. Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeksof gestation
    • B. Is more common in babies born to diabetic moners
    • C. Leads to cyanosis
    • D. Is treated by administering 100% oxygen
  202. 202. Which of the following is not a common manifestation ofcongenital Rubeila
    • A. Deafness
    • B. PDA
    • C Aortic stenosis
    • D. Mental retardation
  203. 203. An 3 year old bov presented with fever and bilateral cervicallymphadenopathy vith prior history of sore throat. Therewas no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows20% lympho-plasmacyteoid cells. The most likelydiagnosis is
    • A. Influenza
    • B. Tuberculosis
    • C. Infectious mononucleosis
    • D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemi
  204. 204. The most common genetic cause of liver disease inchildren is
    • A. Haemochromatosis
    • B. a antitrypsin deficiency
    • C. Cystic fibrosis
    • D. Glyocgen storage disease
  205. 205. Which of the following childhood rumors most frequentlymetastasizes to the bone
    • A. Neuroblastoma
    • B. Ganglioneuroma
    • C. Wilm's turnon
    • D Ewing's Sarcoma
  206. 206. A six months old girl is having recurrent UTI. Ultrasoundabdomen shows bilaterai hydronephrosis. MCU (Micaurating cysto urethrogram) shows bilaterai Grad IV vesico-ureteral reflux. The treatment of choice is
    • A. Endoscopic injection of polyteflon at the uretericontices
    • B. Ureteric re-implantation
    • C. Bilateral Ureterostomy
    • D. Prophylactic antibiotics
  207. 207. The most common cause of ambiguous genical is in anewborn is
    • A. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
    • B. -hydroxylase deficiency
    • C 17a -hydroxyalse deficiency
    • D. 3p-hydroxysteroid deficiency
  208. 208. In nomal pregnancy charatcter of vagina is
    • A. ↑ed pH
    • B.↑ed number of lactobacilli
    • C.↑ed Glocogen content
    • D.↑ed number of pathogenic bacteria
  209. 209. Which is associated with tod risk of Thrombo-embolism ina normal pregnancy
    • A. ↑ed progesterone level
    • B. ↑ed production of clotting factors by liver
    • C. Change in blood viscosity
    • D. ↑ed antithrombin III
  210. 210. Cephalo-haemtoma
    • A.Is caused by oedema of the subcutaneous layersof the scalp
    • B. Should be treated by aspiratiorn
    • C. Most commonly lies over the occipital bone
    • D. Does not vary in tension with crying
  211. 211. A pregnant woman developed idiopathic cholestaticjaundice. The following condition is not associated
    • A. Intense itching
    • B. SGOT, SGPT less than 60 IU
    • C. Serum bilirubin> 5mg/dl
    • D. Markedly ↑ed levels ofalkaline phosphatase
  212. 212. Kalli, 35yrs old female presents with Bilateral deep veinthrombosis in legs. There is past history of recurrentfoeral loss and one attack of pulmonary emoolism.Screening tests of coagulation reveal a prolonged APPTLikely diagnosis is
    • A. Factor VШ deficiency
    • B. Inherited Protein C & S deficiency
    • C Anti pbospholipids syndrome
    • D. Hereditary excess of Anti thrombin II
  213. 213. Kamla rani, a 20 yrs old female having mitral stenosisclass II and Rheumatic heart disease becomes pregnant. Which is not indicated in her management during labor
    • A. Give Prophylactic antibiotics
    • B Apply Outlet forceps in 2nd stage of labor
    • C. Give iv frusamide at delivery of placenta
    • D. Give Methergen at delivery of anterior shoulder
  214. 214. One of the following is an absolute contraindication fortreatment of Thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy o
    • duration:
    • A. Anti thyroid drusg
    • B. therapy
    • C. Telepaque
    • D. Surgery
  215. 215. All of the following are associated with breech presentationat normal full term pregnancy, EXCEPT
    • A. Placenta accrcta
    • B. Fetai malformation
    • C Uterine anomaly
    • D. Cornual implantation of placenta
  216. 216. Which of the following is seen in the infant of adiabetic mother
    • A. Hyperkalemia
    • B. Hypercalcemia
    • C. Macrocytic anemia
    • D. Polycythemia
  217. 217. The following is aiways an indication of Caesarean sectionEXCEPT
    • A. Abruptio Placentae
    • B. Untreated stage of I, Ca cervix
    • C. Active primary genital herpes
    • D. Type IV Placenta Previa (major previa)
  218. 218. All of the following statements are tnue for episictomiesexcept:
    • A. Allows widening ot birth canal
    • B. Can be either mild-line or mediolateral
    • C. Involvement of anal sphincter is classified 30-4"degree perennial tear
    • D. Mid-line episiotomies bleed less, are easier torepair and heal more quickly
  219. 219. In instrumental vaginal delivery
    • A. Full cervical dilatation is the only pre-requisite
    • B. Forceps are used in all cases of breech delivery
    • C Forceps may be used if ventouse fails
    • D. Ventouse can not be used in rotational occipito-transverse/posterior delivery
  220. 320. Kamlesh, a 2 years old girl. has Down's syndrome. Herkaryorype is 21/21 tanslocation. What is the risk ofrccurrence in subsequent pregnancies if the father isabalanced translocation carrier
    • A. 100%
    • B.50
    • C. 25%
    • D.094
  221. 221. The short retroviral rezime administration in the periparturmperiod decreases the isk of vertical transmission by
    • A, 30%
    • B. 50%
    • C. 65% ,
    • D. 75%
  222. 222. Complete tailure of mullerian duct fusion will result in:
    • A. Utenis didelphys
    • B. Arcuate uterus
    • C. Subseptatc uterus
    • D Unicornuate utenus
  223. 223. Commonest cause at female pseudo hermaphroditism is
    • A. Virlizing ovarian aumor
    • B. Ovarian dygenesis
    • C. Exogenous androgen
    • D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  224. 224. Basanti devi 45 yrs old women present with hot flush afterstopping of mensruaion. 'Hor Flush' car be relieved byadministration of following agents
    • A. Ehinyl estradiol
    • B. Testesterone
    • C. Fluoxymesteron
    • D. Danazol
  225. 225. Contraceptive LNG-IUD (levonorgesterol intra-uterinedevice) has the curnuiarive pregnancy rate atyrs of:
    • A. 0.5
    • B. 1.0
    • C. 1.5
    • D. 2.0
  226. 226. A 25 year old iniertile male underwent semen analysis Results show: sperm count 15 million/ml; pH 7.5volurme -2 ml no agglutination is seen. Morphology shows60% normal & 60% motile spermsMost likely diagnosis is
    • A. Normospermia
    • B. Oligospermia
    • C. Azoospermia
    • D. Aspermia
  227. 227, A 28 yrs old lady, Rani, is suspected to have polycystic 2ovarian disease. Sample for testing LH & FSH are besttaken on the following days or Menstrual cycle
    • A. 1-4
    • B. 8-I0
    • C. 13-15
    • D 24-26
  228. 228. Kali Rani, a 20 yrs old young girl. presents with history ofrapidly developing hirsutism and Amenarrhea with changein voice. To establish a diagnosis you would like to proceedwith which of the following tests in blood
    • 17-OH progesterone
    • B. DHEA
    • C. Testosterone
    • D. LH FSH estimation
  229. 229. A 35 years old mother of two children is suffering fromamenorrhea for last 12 months. She has history of failureof lactation following 2nd delivery but remainedasymptomatic thereafter. Skull X-ray shows Empty sella"Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Menopause
    • B. Pituitary tumor
    • C. Sheehan's syndrome
    • D.Intraductal papilloma of breast
  230. 230. A 35 year old female patient, Radha, having children aged 5 and 6 years has history of amenorrhea andgalactorrhea. Blood examination reveals increasedprolactin. The CT of the head is likely to reveal
    • A. Pituitary adenoma
    • B. Craniopharyngioma
    • C Sheehan's syndrome
    • D. Pinealoma
  231. 231. Raja Devi 45 yrs old women present with history of polymenorrhea for last six months. The first line ofmanagement is
    • A. Hysterectomy
    • B. Progesterone for 3 cycles
    • C. Dilatation & curettage
    • D Oral contraceptive for 3 cycles
  232. 232. Which of the following is not indicated in menorrhagia:
    • A. NSAID s
    • B. Clomiphene
    • C. Norernesterone
    • D. Tranexamic acid
  233. 253. Most common genital prolapse is
    • A. Cystocoele
    • B. Procidentia
    • C.Rectocoele
    • D. Entrocpele
  234. 234. Kamla, a 30 yrs old lady examined for infertility by hysterosalpingography, reveals Bead-like fallopian tube& clubbing of ampuila. Most likely cause is:
    • A. Gonococcus
    • B. Mycopiasma
    • C. Chlanydia
    • D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  235. 235. A 25 year old patient, Bindu, presents with vaginadischarge. Examination of the discharge,reveals thepresence of Chamydial infection. The treatment of choice
    • A. Azithromycin + contact tracing
    • B. Doxycycline Metronidazole
    • C FluconazoleDoxycycline
    • D. Metronidazole
  236. 236. All of the following may predispose to Endometrial CaEXCEPT
    • A. Un-opposed Estrogen
    • B. Oral contraceptive
    • C. Radiation
    • D. Tamoxifen therapy
  237. 237. Carpel tunnel syndrome is due to compression of
    • A. Radial nerve
    • B. Ulnar nerve
    • C. Palmer branch of the Ulnar nerve
    • D. Median nerve
  238. 238. Most common nerve involved in the racture of surgicalneck of humerus is
    • A. Median
    • B. Radial
    • C. Ulnar
    • D. Axiilary
  239. 239. All of the following are associated with supracondylarfracture ofhumerus, EXCEPT
    • A. It is uncommon after 15 yrs ofage
    • B. Extension type fracture is more common than theflexion type
    • C. Cubius varus deformity commonly resultfollowing malunion
    • D. Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved
  240. 240. Ramesh Singh, a 40 yrs old man, was admitted with fractureshaft femur following a road traffic accident. On 2nd day hebecame disoriented. He was found to be tachypnoeicand had conjunctival petechiaeMost likely diagnosis is
    • A. Pulomary embolism
    • B. Sepsis syndrome
    • C. Fat embolism
    • D. Hemothorex
  241. 241. Kumar, a 3I yrs old motorcyclist sustained injury over hisRight hip joini. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation ofthe Right hip joint. The clinical attitude of the affectedlower limb will be
    • A. External rotation, extension & abduction
    • B. Internal rotation, flexion & adduction
    • C. Internal rotation, extension & abduction
    • D. External rotation, flexion & abduction
  242. 242. Pappu, 7 yrs oid young boy, had fracture of lateral condyleof femur. He developed malunion as the fracture was notreduced anatomicaily. Malunion will produce
    • A. Genu vulgum
    • B. Genu varunm
    • C. Genu recurvatum
    • D. Dislocarion of knee
  243. 243. Pareilar tendon bearing POP cast is indicated in thefollowing fracture
    • A. Patella
    • B. Tibia
    • C. Medial malleolus
    • D. Femur
  244. 244. Inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of thefallowing EXCEPT
    • A. Fracure tip of lateral melleclus
    • B. Fracrure base of the S metatarsal
    • C Sprain of Ext. Digitorum brevis
    • D. Fracrure or sustentaculam taii
  245. 245. A previously healthy 45 yrs old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain & weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true:
    • A. Immediate treatment should include analgesicsmuscle relaxants & back strengthening exercises
    • B. The appearance of the foot drop indicate early surgical intervention
    • C. If the neurological sign resolve with in 2 to 3 weeksbut low back pain persists, the proper treatment
    • would include fusion of affected Lumbar vertebra.
    • D. If the neurological signs fail to resolve within1 week, Lumbar laminectomy and exscision ofany herniated nucleus pulposus should be done.
  246. 246 Acute Osteomylitis is most commonly caused by
    • A. Staphylococcus aureas
    • B. Acrinomyces bovis
    • C. Nocardia asteroids
    • D. Borrelia Vincentii
  247. 247. A 45 yrs male presented with an expansile lesion in the center of femoral metaphysis. The lesion shows Endosteaiscalloping & punctuate calcifications. Most likelydiagnosis is
    • A. Osteosarcoma
    • B. Chondrosarcoma
    • C. Simple bone cys
    • D. Fibrous Dysplasia
  248. 248. Raju, a 10 yrs old child, presents with predisposition tores, anemia, hepatospienomegaly and a diffuselyincreased radiographic density of bones. The most likelydiagnosis is
    • A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    • B. Pyenodysotosis
    • C. Myelofibrosis
    • D. Osteopetrosis
  249. 249. Hari Verdhman, 9 yrs old child. presents with scoliosishairy tuft n the skin of back and neurological deficit. PlainX-rays reveal multiple vertebral anomalies & a vertical bonyspur overlying lumbar spine on AP view. The most probable diagnosis is
    • A. Dorsul dermal sinus
    • B. Diastometamyelia
    • C. Tight ilum terminale
    • D. Caudal regresion syndrome
  250. 250. In a Pt. with head injury, unexplained hypotension warrantsevaluation of
    • A. Upper cervical spine
    • B. Lower cervical spine
    • C. Thoracic spine
    • D. Lumbar spine
  251. 251. Complete transaction of the spinal cord at the C. levelproduces all of the following effects except
    • A. Hvpotension
    • B. Limited respiratory effort
    • C. Anaesthesia below the level of the lesion
    • D. A-rerlexia below the level of the lesion
  252. 252. In the normal human sight eye, the peripheral field of visionis usually least:
    • A. On the left side (nasalily)
    • B. In the downward direcrion
    • C. In the upward direction
    • D. On the nght side (temporally)
  253. 253. Tonography heips you to determine
    • A. The rate of formation of aqueous
    • B. The facility of ourtlow of aqueous
    • C. The levels of intraoculaf presure ar different tirnes
    • D.None of the above
  254. 254. Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of three monochiomatie lights (red, green, blue) in differentproportions. If a person needs more of one of the colourfor matching than a normal person, then he has a colouranomaly. More red colour is needed in the case of
    • A. Deuteranomaly
    • B. Tritanomaly
    • C. Protonomaly
    • D. Tritanomaly
  255. 255 The colours best appreciated by the cencral cones of our 23.Afoveo-macular area are
    • A. Read and blue
    • B. Blue and green
    • C. Red and green
    • D. Blue and veilow
  256. 256. Epiphora is
    • A. Cerebrospinal fluid running from the nose arterfracture of anterior cranial fossa
    • B.An epiphenomenors of a cerebral tumor
    • C.an abnormal overflow of tears due to obstructionof lacrimal duct
    • D. Eversion of lower eyelid following injury
  257. 257. A 35 years old hypermetrope is using 1.50 D sphere botheyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on his nosehe will feel that his near vision:
    • A. Becomes enlarged
    • B. Becomes distorted
    • C. Becomes decreased
    • D. Remains the same
  258. 258. Occulomoter nerve palsy affects all of the following muscles, EXCEPT
    • A. Medial rectus
    • B. Inferior obtique
    • C Lateral rectus
    • D. Levetor pelpabrae superioris
  259. 259. Kusumlata presents with acute painfull red eye and milddilated vertically oval pupil. Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Acute retrobulber neuritis
    • B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
    • C. Acute anterior uveitis
    • D. Severe kerato-conjunctivitis
  260. 260. You have been referred a middle-aged patient to rule out open angie giaucoma. Which or the following findingswill help in the diagnosis
    • A. Cupping of the disc
    • B. Depth of anterior chamber
    • C. Visual acuity and refractive error
    • D. Angle of the anterior chamber
  261. 261. In a case of hypertensive uveitis, most useful drug toreduce intraocular pressure is
    • A Pilocarpine
    • B. Latanosprost
    • C. Physostigmine
    • D. Dipivetrine
  262. 262. A patient having glaucoma developsbiepharoconjunctivitis after instilling someanti- glaucoma drug. Which of the following drug canme responsible for it
    • A. Timolol
    • B. Latanosprost
    • C. Dipiverine
    • D. Pilocarpine
  263. 263. A 12 year old child complains ofheadache anddecreased vision. On examination he has a visual acuityof 6 36 in the right eye and 6/6 in the iett eye. OnRetinoscopy at 66cms, the left eye showed correctionof I 5D and the right eye of s D. The anterior chamberand fundus of eye were normal, What may be the causeof decreased vision in the right eye
    • A. Amblyopia
    • B. Occipital lobe in farct
    • C. Optic neuritis
    • D. Refractive error
  264. 261. Werick's hemianopic papillary response is seen in lesions
    • A. Optic tract
    • B. Optic chiasma
    • C. Optic radiation
    • D. Lateral geniculate body
  265. 265. Weber test is best elected by
    • A.Placing the tuning fork on the mastoid processand comparing the bone conduction of the patient
    • with that of the examiner
    • B. Placing the tuning fork on the vertex of the skulland determining the effect of gently occluding
    • the auditory canal on the threshold of lowfrequencies
    • C. Placing the runing fork on the mastoid processand comparing the bone conduction in the patient
    • D. Placing the uning fork on the forehead and askinghim to report in which ear he hears it better
  266. 266. On otological examination ail of the following will havepositive fistula test EXCEPT
    • A. Dead ear
    • B. Labyrinthine fistula
    • C. Hypermobile stapes footplate
    • D. Following fenesration surgery
  267. 267. Acure otitis media in children is most commonly due to
    • A. Morexiella caarrhalis
    • B. H. Influenzae
    • C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • D. Staphyloccus aureus
  268. 268. All of the following are true for Ramsay Hunt syndromeexcept
    • A. It has viral etiology
    • B. Involves Vi nerve
    • C. May invalve VIII nerve
    • D. Resuits of spontaneous recovery are excellent
  269. 269. Rajesh, a 7 month old child, presents with failure of gainingweight & noisy breathing which becomes worse when thechild cries. Laryngoscopy shows a reddish mass insubglottis. Treatment modality may include all, except
    • A. Radiation
    • B. Steroids
    • C. Tracheostomy
    • D. Carbon dioxide laser treatmert
  270. 270. A 50 year old male chronic smoker complains ofhoarsenessfor the past 4 months. Microlaryngoscopic biopsy showsit to be keratosis of the larynx. All are suggested treatment
    • modalities for this condition, except
    • A. Laser vaporizer
    • B. Stop smoking
    • C. Stripping of vocal cord
    • D. Partial laryngectomy
  271. 271. The treatment of choice ofa T1N0M0 glottic carcinoma is:
    • A. Extemal beam radiography
    • B. Brachytherapy
    • C. Surgery
    • D. Chemotherapy
  272. 272. Multiple eryhtematous annular lesions with peripheralcollorete of scales arranged predominantly over trunkare seen in:
    • A. Pityriasis vesico lor
    • B Pytyriasis nubra
    • C. Pityriasis rosea
    • D. Pityriasis lichennoides chonica
  273. 273. All of the following are given for the treatment ofPityriasis versicolor, EXCEPT
    • A. Ketoconazole
    • B. Griesotulvin
    • C. Clotrimazole
    • D. Selenium sulphide
  274. 274. A patient with psoriasis was started on systemicsteroids. After stopping treatment, the patient
    • developed generalized pustules all over the body. Thecause is most likely to be
    • (a) Drug induced reaction
    • (b) Pustular psoriasis
    • (c) Bacterial infections
    • (d) Septicemia
  275. 275. Wickihem's stria are seen in:
    • A. Lichen nidirus
    • B. Lichenoid eruption
    • C. Lichen striates
    • D. Lichen planus
  276. 276. Griesofulvinis given for the treatment of fungal infection in finger nail dermatophytosis for
    • A. 4 weeks
    • B. 6 weeks
    • C.2 month
    • D month
  277. 277After 3 days of fever patient developed maculoerythematous rash that lasted for 48 hrs. The most likelydiagnosis is
    • A. Fifth disease
    • B. Rubella
    • C. Measles
    • D. Roseola infantunm
  278. 278. Exfoliative dermatitis can be due to all the followingdiseases, EXCEPT
    • A. Drug hypersensitivity
    • B. Pityriasis rubra
    • C Pityriasis rosea
    • D. Psoriasis
  279. 279. Genital elephantiasis is caused by
    • A. Donovanosis
    • B. Congenital syphilis
    • C. Herpes genaitalis
    • D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
  280. 280. The gas which produces systemic toxicity withoutcausing local irritation is
    • A. Ammonia
    • B Carbon monoxide
    • C. Hydrocyanic acid
    • D Sulfur dioxid
  281. 281. In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction Helium isused along with Oxygen instead of plain oxygenbecause
    • A. It decreases oxygenation
    • B. It decreases turbulence
    • C. It decreases the dead space
    • D. It provides analgesia
  282. 282. Upper respiratory tract infection is a common problemin children. All the following anestheric complicationscan occur in children with respiratory infections,except
    • A. Bacteremia
    • B. Halothane granuloma
    • C. Increased mucosal bleeding
    • D. Laryngospasm
  283. 283. Which of he following has mot penetrating power?
    • A. α particle
    • B. β particle
    • C. γ-radiation
    • D. Electron beam
  284. 284. What contrast is needed for proper radiographic image is a heavy bony built person?
    • A. ↑ed ma
    • B ↑ed kvp
    • C. ↑ed exposer time
    • D. ↑ed developing time
  285. 285. Pappu, a 2 yrs old boy, is brought with sudden onsetstridor and respiratory difficulty. The chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds & wheeze in the rigside. The chest X-Ray showed an opaque right hemithoraWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis
    • A. Pneumothorax
    • B. Acute epiglottitis
    • C. Massive pleural effusion
    • D. Foreign body aspirarion
  286. 286. A child with acute respiratory distress showhyperintlation of unilateral lung in chest X-ray. Most likecause for above presentation is
    • A. Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia
    • B. Aspiration pneumonia
    • C. Congenital lobar emphysema
    • D. Foreign body aspiration
  287. 287. Abdominal Ultra-sonography in a 3 year old boy showa solid well circumscribed hypo-echnoic renal mass.Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Wilm's tumor
    • B. Renai cell carcinoma
    • C. Mesoblastic nephroma
    • D. Oncocytoma
  288. 288. A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction &constipation showed, on abdominal Xray, multiple airfluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be
    • A. Pyloric obsruction
    • B. Duodenal atresia
    • C. Ileal atresia
    • D. Ladd's bands
  289. 289. Which one of the following statement is false aboutocuiated pleural effusion
    • A. They form obtuse angles against themediastinum/ chest wall when viewed in profile
    • B. They have unsharp margins when viewed enface
    • C. They do not conform to segmental distribunon
    • D. The opacity may show air bronchogram
  290. 290. Radiographic appearance of Pindborg's tumor is
    • A. Onion peel appearance
    • B. Sun burst appearance
    • C. Chery - biosom appearance
    • D. Driven snow appearance
  291. 291. Craniospinal irradiation is employed in the treatmentof
    • A. Oligodendroglioma
    • B. Pilocytic astrocytoma
    • C. Mixed oligoastrocytoma
    • D. Medulloblastoma
  292. 292. Prophylactic cranial irradiation is indicated in the treatmentof all of the following, except
    • A. Small cell Ca of lung
    • B. ALL
    • C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
    • D. NHL
  293. 293. All ofthe following are features of hallucinations, EXCEPT
    • A. It depends on will of the observer
    • B. Occurs in inner subjective space
    • C It is a vivid sensory perception
    • D. It occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus
  294. 294. The following is suggestive of an organic cause of the behavioral symptoms
    • A. Formal thought disorder
    • B. Auditory hallucinations
    • C. Delusion of guilt
    • D. Prominent visualhallucintion
  295. 295. Delusion is not present in
    • A. Delinum
    • B. Mania
    • C. Depresion
    • D. Compulsive disorder
  296. 296, An alcoholic is brought to the casualty, 3 days after hequit alcohol, with the complaint of irrelevant talking. Onexamination, he is found to be dis-oriented to time, placeand person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinationsThere is no history of head injury. The most probablediagnosis is
    • A. Dementia praecox
    • B. Delirium remens
    • C. Schizophrenia
    • D. Korsakoff psychosis
  297. 297. Ram Lal, a 45 yrs old male came to the psychiatric OPD complaining of continuous, dull, non-progressive headachefor the last 8 years. The patient has seen numerousneurologists in teh belief that he has a brain tumor eventhough all his investigations have been normal. The patientinsisted that he had a brain tumor and requested yetanother workup. Psychiatric evaluation reveals disease
    • conviction in the background of normal investigationsThe most probable diagnosis is:
    • A. Hypochondriasis
    • B. Somatization disorer
    • C. Somatoform pain disorder
    • D. Conversion disorder
  298. 298. A patient presented with short lasting episodic behavioral changes which include agitation & dream like state withthrashing movements of his limbs. He does not recallthese episodes & has no apparant precipitating factor.The most likely diagnosis is-
    • A. Schizophrenia
    • B. Temporal lobe epilepsy
    • C Panic episodes
    • D. Dissociative disorder
  299. 299. A young lady presented with repeated episodes ofovereating followed by purging after use of laxatives. Sheis probably suffering from
    • A. Bulemia nervosa
    • B. Schizophrenia
    • C. Aorexia nervosa
    • D. Binge eating disorder
  300. 300. An 11 years old boy is all the time so restless that the restof the class is unable to concentrate. .He is hardly ever inhis seat and roams around the hall. He has difficulty inplaying quietly.
    • The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
    • B. Conduct disorder
    • C. Depressive disorder
    • D. Schizophrenia
Author
adarsha
ID
355850
Card Set
Mudit 2002
Description
mudit khanna 2002
Updated