-
1. All are true about inguinal canal except
- A. Conjoint tendon forms part of the posterior wall
- B. Superficial ring is found in ext obliqueaponeurosis
- C. Deep ring is an opening in transversalisabdorminis
- D. Internal oblique forms both anterior andposterior wall
-
2. The rt gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the
- A. Left gastric
- B. Splenic
- C. Ceiiac trunk
- D. Gastroduodenal
-
3. Motor supply of the diaphragm is
- A. Thoracodorsal nerve
- B. Intercostal nerves
- C Phrenic nerve
- D Sympathetic nerves
-
4. All of the followings are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except
- A. Sensory and motor
- B. Derived from S2.3
- C Comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen
- D. Main nerve supply of pelvic organs
-
5. In a post polio case, ilio-tibial tract contracture is likely toresult in
- A. Extension at the hip and knee
- B. Extension at the hip
- C. Flexion at the hip and the knee
- D. Extension at the knee
-
6. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerveexcept
- A. Lacrimal gland
- B. Submandibular gland
- C. Nasal glands
- D. Parotid gland
-
7. In the tracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tearswould be due to lesion in:
- A. Tngeminal ganglion
- B. Ciliary ganglion
- C. Greater petrosal nerve
- D. Cervical ganglion
-
8. Occlusion of the ant descending branch of LAD will leadto infarction of which area?
- A. Posterior part of the interventricular septurm
- B. Anterior wall of the left ventricle
- C. Lateral part of the heart
- D. Inferior surtace of right ventricle
-
9. All of the following are true about coronary arteryexcept
- a. Right coronary artery lies in right anteriorcoronary sulcus
- b. Left anterior descending artey is a branch of leftcoronary artery
- c. Usually 3 obruse marginal arteries arise from leftcoronary artery
- d. In 85% cases posterior descendinginterventricular artery arises from right co. art
-
10. Tidal volume is calculated by
- A.Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratoryreserve volume
- B. Total lung capacity minus the reserve volume
- C. Functional residual capacity minus residualvolume
- D.Vital capacity minus expiratory reserve volumes
-
11. Surfactant production in lungs starts at
- A.28 weeks B. 34 wks
- C. 32 wksD. 36 wks
-
12. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillockbecause
- A. It has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
- B. It is unmyelinated
- C. Neurotransmitter release occurs here
- D. None of the above
-
13. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressurebecause it has
- A. High mol wt, low concenration
- B. Low mol wt, low conc
- C. High mol wt, high conc
- D. Low mol wt, high conc.
-
14. After 5 days of fasting a man undergoes oral GTI, true is all except
- A. GH levels are increased
- B. Increased glucose tolerance
- C. Decreased insulin levels
- D. Glucagon levels are increased
-
l5. Metalioprore ins help in jaundice by the followingmechanism
- A. Increased glucorony l transferase activity
- B. Inhibit heme oxygenase
- C. Decrease RBC lysis
- D Increase Y and Z receptors
-
16. Which protein prevents contraction by covering bindingsites on actin and myosin
- A. Troponin
- B. Calmodulin
- C. Thymosin
- D. Tropomyosin
-
17, Which of the following is NOT correct regardingcapillaries
- A. Greatest cross sectional area
- B. Contain 25% of blood
- C. Contains less blood than veins
- D. Have single layer of ceils bounding the lumen
-
18. A0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes witl lead to
- A.Increase in HR, decrease in BP
- B.Slight increase in HR, normal BP
- C.Decrease in HR and BP
- D.Prominent increase in HR
-
19. Single most important factor in control of automaticcontractility of heart is:
- A. Myocordial wall thickness
- B. Right atrial volume
- C. SA node pacemaker potential
- D. Sympathetic stimulation
-
20. Which of the following is nut mediated through negativefeed back mechanism
- А.OP
- B. GH formation
- C. Thrombus formation
- D. ACTH relase
-
21. Force generating proteins are:
- A. Myosin and myoglobin
- B. Dynein and kinesin
- C. Calmodelin and G protien
- D. Troponin
-
22. Which is true about measurement of BP withsyphgnomonmeter versus intraarterial pressure
- measurements
- A. Less than intravascular pressure
- B. More than intravascular pressure
- C. Equal to intravascuiar pressure
- D. Depends upon blood flow
-
23. Secondary hyperparathyroidism due to Vit D deficiencyshows
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hyperualcemia
- C. Hypophosphatemia
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
-
24. Maximum absorption of water takes place in
- A. Pruximal convoluted tubule
- B Distal convoluted tubule
- C. Collecting duct
- D. Loop of henle
-
25. Basic amino acids are
- A. Aspartate and glutamate
- B. Serine and glycine
- C. Lysine and arginie
- D. None of the above
-
26. Aminc acid with dissociation constant closest tophysiological pH is
- A. Serine
- B. Histidine
- C. Threonine
- D. Proline
-
27. Sources of the nitrogen in urea cycle are
- A. Aspartate and ammonia
- B. glutamate and ammonia
- C. Arginine and ammonia
- D. Uric anid
-
28. If urine sample daikens on standing; the most likelycondition is
- A. Phenviketonuria
- B. Alkaptonuria
- C. Maple syrup disease
- D. Tyrosinemia
-
29. A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesionsseizures, ketosis organic acids in urine with normal
- ammonia; likely diagnosis is
- A. Proprionic aciduria
- B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
- C. Maple syrup urine disease
- D Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
-
30. Force not acting in an enzyme substrate complex
- A. Electrostatic
- B. Covalent
- C. Van der waals
- D. Hydrogen
-
31. Celluiar oxidation is inhibited by
- A. Cyanide
- B. Carbon dioxide
- C. Checolate
- D. Carbonated beverages
-
32. Triple bonds are found between which base pairs:
-
33. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases
- A. RNA
- B. mRNA
- C RNA
- D. 16S RNA
-
34. False regarding gout is
- A. Due to increased metabolism or pyrimidines
- B. Due to increased metabolism of purines
- C. Uric acid levels may not be elevated
- D. Has a predilection for the great toe
-
35. All of the following statements are true regardinglipoproteins except:
- A. VLDL Tansports endogenous lipids
- B. LDL transports lipids to the rissues
- C. Increased blood cholesterol is associated withncreased LDL receptors
- D. Increased HDL is associated with decreased riskof coronary disease
-
36. A destirure woman is admitted to the hospital withaltered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysisshows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other testwould be desirable
- A. Foucher
- B. Rothera
- C. Hays
- D. Benedicts
-
37. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breastmilk
- A. Linolaete
- B. Linolenic
- C. Palmitic
- D. Docosahexanoic acid
-
38. blood is not a newtonian fluid because
- A. Viscosity does not changing with velocity
- B. Viscos ity changes with veloicity
- C. Densiry does not change with velocity
- D. Densiry changes with velocity
-
39.Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury s
- A. Myeloperoxidase
- B. Superoxide dismutase
- СМАО
- D. Hydroxylase
-
40. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in
-
41. All of following are correct about Thromboxane Aexcept
- A. Low dose aspirin inhibits its synthesis
- B. Causes vasoconstriction in blood vessels.
- C. Causes broncoconstriction
- D. Secreted by WBC
-
42. Which of the following complications is likely to resultafter several units of blood have been transfused
- A. Metab alkalosis
- B. Metab acidosis
- C. Resp alkalosis
- D. Resp acidosis
-
43. The mother has sickle cell disease; Father is normal Chances of children having sickle ceil disease and sickle cell trait respectively are
- A. 0 and i 00%
- B. 25 and 25%
- C. 30 and 50%
- D. 10 and 50%
-
44. Father has a blood group B Mother has AB ; Childrenare not likely to have the following blood group:
-
45. Protein involved in intercellular connections is:
- A. Counexin
- B. Integrin
- C. Adhesin
- D. None of the above
-
46. Regarding NK cells. false statements
- A. It is activated by IL-2
- B. Expresses CD3 receptor
- C. It is.a variant of large lymphocyte
- D. There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
-
47. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in thefollowing:
- A. Common variable immun odericiency
- B. Severe combined immunodeticiency
- C. Chronic granulomatous disease
- D. Nezelof syndrome
-
48. A beta hemolytie bacteria is resistant to vancomycinshows growth in 6.5% NaCl, is non bile sensitive: It islikely to be
- A. Strep. agalactiae
- B.Strep, pneumoniae
- C. Enterococcus
- D. Strep. bovis
-
49. All are true about streptococcus except
- A. M protein is responsible for production ofmucoid coionies
- B. M protein is responsible for virulence
- C. Mucoid colcnies are virulent
- D.No resistance to penicillin has been reported
-
50. Toxin invoived in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrom
- A. Pyrogenic toxin
- B. Erythrogenic toxir
- C. Hemolysin
- D. Neurotoxin
-
51. A child presents with a white patch over the tonsils; diagnosis is best made by culture in
- A. Loetler medium
- B. LJmedium
- C Blood agar
- D. Tellurite medium
-
52. A pt with 14 days of fever is suspected of havingtyphoid; what investigation should be done
- A. Blood culture
- B. Widal
- C. Stool culture
- D. Urine culture
-
53. All are true about EHEC except: "938 HPIM
- A. Sereny test is positive
- B. Ferments sorbitol
- C. Causes HUS
- D.Elaborates shiga like exotoxin
-
54. An organism grown on agar shows green colouredcolonies; likely organism is:
- A. Staphylococcus
- B. E. Coli
- C. Pseudomonas
- D. Peptosureptococcus
-
55. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by
- A. IgM FTAabs
- B. IgG FTAabs
- C VDRL
- D. TP
-
56 Allare features of Ureapiasma urealyticum except
- A. Non gonococcal urethritis
- B. Salpingiti
- C. Epididymitis
- D. Bacterial vaginosis
-
57. Reagrding HIV infection, not true is
- A. p24 is used fot eariy diagnosis
- B. Lysis of infected CD4 cells is seen
- C. Dendritic cells do not support replication
- D. Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus
-
58. A pregnant woman from bihar presents with hepaticencephalopathy
- The likely diagnosis:
- A.Hep. E
- B. Hep. B
- C. Sepsis
- D. Acute fatty liver ot pregnancy
-
59. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis is
- A. RSV
- B. Rhinovirus
- C. Adenovirus
- D. Rotavirus
-
60. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient medium CLED ispreferred over McConkey agar in UTI because
- A. Former prevents swarming of proteus
- B. Is a selective mediun
- C. Prevents growth of pseudomonas
- D. Promotes growth of candida andstaphylococcus
-
61. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria seen in peripheral blood
- A. Tropical eosinophilia
- B Early adenolymphangitis stage
- C. Late adenolymphangitis stage
- D. Elephantiasis
-
62. Pancreatic Ca is caused by
- A. Fasciola
- B. Clonorch
- C. Paragonimus
- D. None
-
63. llot the following are true except:
- A. E.coil is an aerobe and facuitative anaerobe
- B. Proteus forms uric acid stories
- C. E coli is mctile by peritrichate flagella
- D Proreus causes deamination of phenylalanine tophenylpyruvic acid
-
64 Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause whichof the following helminthic disease:
- A. Tinea saginata
- B. Tinea solium
- C. Hydatid cyst
- D. Trichuris trichura
-
63. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderlyexcept
- A. They are lean and their body mass is less
- B. Have decreasing renal function with age
- C. Have increased baroceptor sensitivity
- D. Body water is decreased
-
66. True statement regarding inverse agonists is
- A. Binds to receptor and causes intended action
- B. Binds to receptor and causes opposite action
- C. Binds to receptor and causes no action
- D.Binds to receptor and causes submaximal action
-
67. True statement regarding first order kinetics is
- A. Independent of plasma concentration
- B. A constant proportion of plasma concentrationis eliminated
- C. T1/2 increases with dose
- D. Clearance decreases with dose
-
68. A diabetic female onINH and rifampicin for TB suffersDVT: She is started on warfarin; PT is not raised; next step should be:
- A. Long term heparin therapy
- B. Replace warfarin with acesoumarin
- C.Switch ethambutol for rifampin
- D. Use LMW heparin
-
69. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is all except
- A. Propranolol
- B. Pindolol
- C. Sotalol
- D. Oxyprenolol
-
70. All or the following are correct about steroids except
- A. Inhibit the release of arachidonic acid fromvessei wall through action of phospholipase
- B. Bind pasma membrane receptors and followinginternalization influence nuclear changes
- C. Inhibit vascular membrane permeability
- D. increase glucose synthesis, glycogen depositionin liver
-
71. All of the following statements are true except
- A. PG's and leukotrienes are derrived fromarachidonic acid
- B. Cox t is an inducibie enzy me
- C. Cox Il is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation
- D. Leukotrienes cause smooth ms. constriction
-
72. All of the following statements are true except
- A. IV noradrenaline increases systolic and diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
- B. IV A drenaline increases systolic. decreasesdiastolic BP and causes tachycardia
- C. IV isoprcterenol causes no change in systolicdecreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
- D. Dopamine decreases peripheral resistance andimpruves renal perfusion
-
73. Digoxin is not indicated in
- A. Atrial flurter
- B. Atrial tibrilatiun
- C. High output failure
- D. PSV
-
74. All of the following statements are true atheophylline except:
- A. Increase in dose is required in cardiopulmonarydisease
- B. Increases cAVM
- C. Increase in dose is required in smokers
- D. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
-
75. Mechanism of action of tetracycline is
- A. Binds to A site and inhibit attachment of t-RNA
- B. Inhibits peptidyl transrerase
- C. Causes misreading of imRNA
- D. Causes termination of peptide chain elongatior
-
76. False statement about selegeline is
- A. It is a MAO-A inhibitor
- B. Does not cause cheese reaction
- C. May be used in on-off phenomenon
- D. t is used in parkinsonism
-
77. A patient on phenytoin for tt of seizures developsdepression for which he is prescribed tricyclics.He nowcomplains of lassitude and his Hb reads 8 next step inmanaging this patient should be:
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. MCV should be estimated
- C. GGT should be estimared
- D. None of the above
-
78. Which of the following drugs would be removed by
- A. Digoxin
- B. Salicy lates
- C. Benzodiazepines
- D. Organophosphates
-
79. In low doses aspirin acts on
- A. Cyclo-oxygenase
- B. Thromboxane A2
- C. PGI2
- D. Lipoxygenase
-
80. All of the following statements about ticlodipine are trueexcept
- A. Directly interacts with piatelet membrane, gpllb/ Illa receptors
- B. Onset of action is delayed
- C. Duration of action is long
- D. It is used as an alternative to aspirin in patientswith cerebrovascular disease
-
81. All of the following statements about Methotrexate are true except
- A. Folinic acid enhances the action of methotrexate
- B. Methotrexate inhibit dehydrofolate reductase
- C. Non proliferative ceils are resistant tomethotrexate
- D. Methotrexate is used in treatment of psoriasis
-
82. Drug containing two suifhydryl groups in a molecule
- A. BAL
- B. EDTA
- C. Pencillamine
- D. None of the above
-
FORENSIC MEDICINE
- 83. Gettlers test is done for death by
- A. Drowning
- B. Hanging
- C. Burns
- D. Phophorus poisoning
-
84. Feature indicative of anti-mortem drowning is
- A. Cutis anserina
- B. Rigor mortis
- C. washerwomans teet
- D. Grass and weeds grasped in the mind
-
85. A boy has 20 permanent reeth and 3 temporary teeth. His age is likely to be
- A, 9yrs.
- B. 10 yrs.
- C. 11 yrs
- D. 12 yrs.
-
86. A patient has sensation of bugs crawling all over hisbody; this may be effect of:
- A. Cocaine
- B. Alcohol
- C.Cannabis
- D. Benzodiazepines
-
87. A person comes in contact with other This is caled
- A. Locard principle
- B. Quetlets rule
- C. Petty's principle
- D. None of the above
-
88. A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requiresurgent cranial decompression: Doctor should
- A. Operate without formal consent
- B. Take police consent
- C. wait for relatives to take consent
- D. Take magistrate consent
-
89. A boy attempts suicide. He is brought to a private doctorand he is successfully cured. Doctor should
- A. Inform police
- B. Not required
- C. Report to magistrate
- D. Refer to a psychiatrist
-
PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE
- 90. All are true about DOTS except
- A. Continuation phase drugs are given in a
- B. Medication is to be taken in presence of a health
- C. Alternate day treatmentmultiblister combipackworker
- D. Improves compliance
-
91. Basanti a 29 yrs aged female from bihar presents withactive tuberculosis; She delivers baby; all of thefollowing are indicated except
- A. Administer INH to the baby
- B. Withhold breast feeding
- C. Give ATT to mother for 2 years
- D. Ask mother to ensure proper disposal of spurum
-
92. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be calleda PHC-R, requisite is
- A. Microscopy
- B Microscopy plus radiology
- C. Radiology
- D. None of the above
-
93. A person has received complete immunization againsttetanus 10 years ago; now he presents with a cleanwound without any lacerations from an injury sustained2.5 hours ago; He should now be given
- A. Full course of tetanus toxoid
- B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid
- C Human tet globulin
- D. Human tet globulin and single dose of toxoid.
-
94. The rue statement regarding tetanus is
- A. Five dose immunisation provides life long immunity
- B. T affords no protection in the present injury
- C. IT serves no use once 12 hours have elapsed following injury
- D. IT and ig may both be given in suspected tetanus
-
95. A certain community has I00 children out of whom 28 are immunised against measles; 2 of them acquire measles simuitaneously: Subsequently 14 get measles. Assuming the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%, what is the secondary Attack rate?
- A.53%
- B. 10%
- C. 20%
- D. 21.5%
-
96. A community has a population of 10,000 and a birth rateor 36 per 1000. 5 maternal deaths were reported in thecurrent year:the MMR is
-
97. 10 babies are bom in a hospital on same day. All weigh2.8 kg each; calculate the standard deviation:
- A. Zero
- B. One
- C. Mirus one
- D. 028
-
98. Out of !!births in a hospital. 5 babies weighed over 2kg and 3 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5represent
- A. Geometric average
- B. Anthmetic average
- C. Median average
- D. Mode
-
99. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 525 gm carbobydrate65 gm protein and 35 gms fat in his dier: the mostapplicable statement here is
- A. His total calorie intake is 3000 kcal
- B. The proportion of proteins, fats andcarbohydrates is correct and in accordance witha balanced diet
- C. He has a negative nitrogen balance
- D. 30% of his total energy intake is derived from far
-
100. A country has a population of 1000 million; birth rate is23 and death rate is 6; in which phase of the demo-graphic cycle does this country lie
- A. Early expanding
- B. Late expanding
- C. Plateau
- D. Declining
-
101. in a population of 10.000. beta carotene was giver to6000; it was not given to the remainder. outof the first group got lung cancer while 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer: the best conclusion
- A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relationto one another
- B.The p value is not significant
- C.The study is not designed properly
- D.Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
-
102. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population ut
- A. 1000
- B. 2000
- C. 3000
- D. 5000
-
103. In a communityan increase in new cases denotes
- A. Increase in incidence rate
- B. increasein prevalence rate
- C. Decrease in incidence ra
- D. Decrease in prevalence rate
-
104. More false positive cases in a community signify hatedisease has
- A. High prevalencse
- B. High sensitivity
- C. Low prevalence
- D. Low sensitivity
-
105. The same screening test is applied to po comuunies Xand Y, Y shows more false -ve cases as compared to .The possibility is
- A. High sensitivity
- B. High specificity
- C Ycommunity has high prevalence
- D. Y community has low prevalenee
-
106. ELISA is performed on a population with low prevaience.What would be the result of performing doublescreening ELISA tests?
- A. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive vaiue
- B. Increased sensitivity and negative predicrive value
- C. Increased specificity and positive predictive value
- D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value
-
107. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum lipid levelswere tested both betore and after its use. Which test isbest suited for the staristical analysis of the result
- A. Paired T test
- B. Students test
- C. Chi squre tes
- D.None of the above
-
108. Sampling error is classified as
- A. Alpha error
- B. Beta error
- C. Gumma error
- D. Delta error
-
109. Virulance ofa discase is indicated by
- A. Proportional mortality rate
- B.Specific mortality rate
- C.Case totality ratio
- D.Amount of GDP spent on the disease
-
110. Which of the following diseases needs not to bescreened for, in workers to be employed in a dye industryin gujarat
- A. Anemia
- B. Bronchial asthma
- C Bladder cancer
- D. Precaancerous lesion
-
111. Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is
- A. Transferrin
- B. Serum ferritin
- C. Serum iron
- D. Hemoglobin
-
112. Which of the following is not a complete sterilizationagent
- A. Glutaraldehyde
- B. Absolute alcohol
- C. Hydrogen peroxide
- D. Sodium hypochlorite
-
113. False statement about type I respiratory failure is
- A. decreased Pa02
- B. decreased PaCO2
- C. noal PaCO2
- D. noma!A-a gradient
-
114. A 60 year oid man presents with non productive coughfor 4 weeks: He has grade II clubbing, and a lesion in theapical lobe on xray. Most likely diagnosis here is:
- A. Small cell ca
- B. Non smail cell ca
- C. Fungal infection
- D. Tuberculosis
-
115.A 60 yr old man is suspected of having bronchogenic caTB has been ruled out in this pt.What should be the nextinvestigation
- A. CT guided FNAC
- B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
- C. Sputum cytology
- D. X-Ray chest.
-
116. A man presents with fever, wt loss and cough.; Mantouxreads an induration of 17 x 19 mm; Spurum cytology isnegative for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is
- A. Pulm tuberculosis
- B. Fungal infection
- C. viral infection
- D. Pneunonia
-
117. Pulm. edema associated with normal PCWP is observed,which of these is not a cause
- A. High altitude
- B. Cocaine overdose
- C. Post cardiopuim bypass
- D Bilateral renal artery stenosis
-
118. An ABG analysis shows: piH 7.2, raised pco2, decreased HCO3; diagnosis is
- A. Resp acidosis
- B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
- C. Resp and metabolic acidosis
- D. Resp alkalosis
-
119. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator. shows decreasedpCO2, normal pO2, pH 7.5; diagnosis is:
- A. Resp acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respo alkalosis
- D. Meabolic acidosis
-
120. In a pt of acute inferior wail MI best modalitiy ofrx s
- A. IV fluids
- B. Digoxin
- C. Diuretics
- D. Vasodilators
-
121. A 26 yToid asymptomaric woman is found to have arthymiasand a systalic murmurassociated with midsystolic elicks;which investigation would you use:
- A. Electrophysiological testing
- B. Tc scan
- C. Echocardiography
- D. Angiography
-
122. A patient complains of intemittent claudication, dizziness and headache; ikely cardiac lesion is:
- A. TOF
- B. ASD
- C. PDA
- D. Coarctation of aorta
-
123. All of the following are true about ASD except
- A. Right arterial hypertrophy
- B. Left arterial hypertrophy
- C Right ventricular hyperrrophy
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
-
124. Mitral valve vegetations do not usually embolise to
- A. Lung
- B. Liver
- C. Spleen
- D. Brain
-
125. A woman has septic abortion done; vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
- a. Septic infarcts to lung
- B. Liver
- C.Spleen infarcts
- D. Emboli to brain (input by amit batla)
-
125. Kussmaui's sign is NOT seen in
- A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- B. Constrictive pericarditis
- C.Cardiac tamponade
- D. RV infarct
-
127.A pt presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 andpuise rate of 100 following blunt trauma to the chestDiagnosis is:
- A. Pneumothorax
- B. Right ventricular failure
- C. Cardiac tamponadc
- D. Hemothorax
-
128.Best test for assessment of iron status is:
- A. Transferrin
- B. Ferritin
- C. Serum iron
- D. Hemoglobin
-
129. Wbich of the following is not seen on hemoglobinelectrophoresis in sickle cell anemia
D. Hbs
-
130. False statement regarding DIC is
- A. Thrombocytopenia
- B. Decreased fibrinogen
- C. Decreased PTI
- D. Increased PT
-
131. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all EXCEPT
- A. Henoch schonlein purpura
- B. TTP
- C. DIC
- D. Cavernous hemangioma
-
132. A pt with an Hb of 6, WBC count of 2000, has a normalDifferent count except for having 6% blasts:plateles arereduced to 80,000; moderate splenomegaly is presentpossible diagnosis is
- A. Leukemia
- B. Aplastic anemia
- C. Hemolysis
- D. ITP
-
133. A pt. being investigated for anemia has a dry marrowtap.peripheral smear reveals tear drop cells; likelydiagnosis is
- A. Leukemia
- B. Lymphoma
- C. Mvelofibrosis
- D. Polycythemia rubra vera
-
134. Tumor associated with polycythernia vera is
- A. Sarcoma
- B. Pitutary adenoma
- C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
- D. None of the above
-
135. A young pt presents with jaundice.Total bilirubin is 21,direct is 9.6, alkphos is34 KA units. Diagnosis is
- A. Hemolytic jaundice
- B. Viral hepatitis
- C. Chronic active hepatitis
- D. Obstructive jaundice
-
136. A young male with gallbladder stones shows thefollowing test results; serum bilirubin 2.5, Hb 6, urine testpositive for urobilinogen;diagnosis is:
- A. Hemolytic jaundice
- B. Obstructive jaundice
- C. Hepatoceilular jaundice
- D. Protoporphyria
-
137. An 18 yr old male presents with massive hematemesis hehas history of fever for the past 14 days for which hewas managed with drugs; moderate spleenomegaly ispresent; diagnosis is
- A. NSAID induced duodenal ulcer
- B. Drug induced gastritis
- C. Esophageal varices
- D. None of the above.
-
138. Urinalysis shows RBC casts; likely source is
- A. Kidney
- B. UretcT
- C. Bladder
- D. Urethra
-
123. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days after anattack of URTI; likely renal pathology is
- A. Acute glomeruionephritis
- B. Minimal change disease
- C. IgA nephropathy
- D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
-
140. A patients CSF report reads as follows: sugar of 40,protein of 150, chloride of 550; lymphocytosis
- present;the picture is suggestive of
- A. Fungal meningitis
- B. Viral meningitis
- C. TB meningitis
- D. Leukemia
-
141. Lacunar infarcts are caused by
- A. Lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries
- B.Middle carotid artery involvement
- C.Emboli to anterior circulation
- D.None of the above
-
142. Dinesh, a 56 yr aged man presents with complaints ofslowness of movements, postural instability, tremors,rigidity and memory loss. Most likely diagnosis is
- A. Multi infarct dementia
- B Alzheimer's disease
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. None of the above
-
143. All of the following may be seen in wilson's diseaseexcept
- A. cerebellar ataxia
- B. peripheral neuropathy
- C. dysphagia
- D. chorea
-
144. An elderly man presents with features of dementia ataxia, difficulty in downward gaze and a history offrequent falls. Likely diagnosis
- A. Parkinsons disease
- B. Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
- C. Alzheimers disease
- D. None of the above
-
145. A chromosomal anomaly associated with alzheimer'sdenenda is
- A. Trisomy 13
- B. Patau syndrome
- C. Trisomy 21
- D. Turners syndrome
-
146. All are true about Huntington's disease except
- A. Chorea
- B. Behavioral disturbance
- C. Eariy onser of memory loss
- D. Cog-wheel rigidity
-
147. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection; he haslow testosterone and high prolactin level in blood; Whatis the likely diagnosis
- A. Pituitary adenoma
- B. Testicular failure
- C. Cranio pharyngioma
- D. Cushing's syndrome
-
148. A patient meets with an accident with resultanttransection of the picuitary stalk,what will NOT occur:
- A. Diabetes mellius
- B. Diabetes insipidus
- C Hyperprolactinemia
- D. Hypothyroidism
-
149. A woman has bilateral headache that worsens withemotional stress; she has two children ,both doing badlyin school: diagnosis is
- A. Migraine
- B Cluster headache
- C Tension headache
- D. Trigeminal neuralgia
-
150. A female aged 30.presents with episodic throbbingheadache for past 4 yrs with nausea and vomiting: mostlikely diagnosis is
- A. Migraine
- B. Cluster headache
- C Angie closure glaucoma
- D. Temporal arteritis
-
151.A woman complains of headache associated withparesthesias of the right upper and lower limb: likely
- A. Tigeminal neuralgia
- B. Gossopharyngea! neuralgia
- c. Migraine
- D. Cluster headachc
-
152. All of the foilowing are features of MEN IIa ,except:
- A. Pitmitary tumor
- B. Pheochramocytoina
- C. Medullary ca thyroid
- D. Neuromas
-
153 A patient with cushinoid features presents withhemoptysis he shows no response to dexamethasonesupression test;most likely diagnosis here is
- A. Adrenail hyperplasia
- B. Adrenal adenoma
- C. Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production
- D. Piruitary microadenoma
-
154. An obese patient presented in casualty in an unconcious state.His blood sugar measured 400mg%, urinetested positive for sugar and ketones,drug most useful in managements
- A. Glibenclamide
- B. Troglitazon
- C Insulin
- D. Chiorpropamide
-
155. Which of the following is not associated with thymoma
- A. Red cell aplasia
- B. Myasthenia gravis
- C. Hypergammaglobulinemia
- D. Compression oi the superior mediastinum
-
156. A young basketbal player with ht 188 cm and armspau 197cm has a diastolic murmur best heard in second rightintercostai space: likely cause of murmuris
- A. AS
- B. Coarctation of aorta
- C. AR
- D. MR
-
157. A patient presents with arthritis.hyperpigmentation ofskin and hypogonadism: likely diagnosis is
- A. Hemochromato sis
- B. Ectopic acth secreting tumor of lung
- C. Wilsons disease
- D Rheumatoid arthrit
-
158. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement regardinghymectomy is
- A. Should be done in all cases
- B. Should be done in cases with ocular involvement only
- C.Not required if controlled by medical management
- D. Should be done only in cases that are associatedwith thymoma
-
159. Most common fungai infection in febrile neutropenia is
- A. Aspergillus niger
- B. Candida
- C. Mucormycosis
- D. Aspergillus fumigatus
-
160. The following group of tests should be done to optimisegraft up take in bone marrow transplant
- A. Missing
- B. Missing
- c. Missing
- D. Missing
-
161. True statement about neurocysticercosis
- A. Seizures due to neurocysticercosis are resistantto anti epileptic drugs
- B. Albendazole is superior to praziquantel in the tt of above condition
- C. Common presentation is 6th CN palsy andhemiparesis
- D. Steroids are used in the management of hydro cephaius.
-
162. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acidpeptic disease except
- A. Misoprostol is the drug of choice in patients on NSAIDS
- B. DU is preventable by the use of single night timeH2 blockers
- C. Omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2blockers
- D.Mesoprostoi is DOC in pregnant patieats
-
163. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexorinvading renal papillae. Histopathology teports it as lymphoma; true statement is
- A. II E stage
- B. III E Stage
- C. IV E stage
- D. Staging cannot be done until bone marrowexamination is performed
-
164. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He hassudden abnormal flinging movementsin right upper and lower limbs. Most likely site of haemorrahge is
- A. Substantia nigra
- B. Caudate nuclei
- C. Pons
- D. Subthallmic nuclei
-
165. True about Haemophilia A are all except
- A. PTT increased
- B. PT increased
- C. Clotting time is increased
- D. serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
-
166. IPPV can cause
- A. Barotrauma
- B. Pleural effusion
- C. Missing
- D. None of the above
-
167. Characteristic finding in CT in a T3 case is
- A. Exudate seen in basal cistern
- B. Hydrocephalus is noncommunicating
- C Calcification commonly seen in unbellium
- D. Ventriculitis is a common finding
-
168. Vegetations on undersurface ofA.V.valves are found in
- A. Acute Rheumatic corditis
- B. Limban Sack's endocarditis
- C. Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis
- D. Chronic rheumatic carditis
-
169. Triagemeans
- A.Sorting out of cases on availability of medicalresources and severity of patients condition
- B. Patients are divided into 3 groups
- C. Severily injured patients are antended first inmilitary camps
- D. None of the above
-
SURGERY
- 170. A male aged 60 years has foul breath; He regurgitates foodthat is eaten 3 days ago: Likely diagnosis is:
- A. Zenkers divericulum
- B. Meckels diverticulum
- C Scleroderma
- D. Achalasia cardia
-
171. Most common site for squamous cell ca esophagus s
- A. Upper third
- B. Middle third
- C. Lower third
- D. Gastro-esophageal junction
-
172 What is true regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloricstenosis
- A. More common in girls
- B. Hypochloremic alkalosi
- C. Hellers myotomy is the procedure of choice
- D. Most often manifests at birth
-
173. Patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cmsize: procedure of choice
- A. Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
- B. Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
- C. Highly selective vagotomy
- D. Laparoscopic vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
-
174. All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis ofgastrointestinal tract except
- A. Presents with a mass in RIF
- B. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
- C. Most common site is ileocecal junction.
- D. ATT is the treatment of choice
-
175. A 56 year old woman has not passed stools tor the last14 days. Xray shows no air fluid levels. Probablediagnosis is:
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Aganglionosis of the colon
- C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
- D. Duodenal obstruction.
-
176. A man aged 60 yrs has h o IHD and atherosclerosis. Hepresents with abdominal pain and maroon stools: likelydiagnosis here is
- A. Acute intestinal obstruction
- B. Acute mesenteric ischemia
- C.Peritonius
- D. Appendicitis
-
177. True statement regarding Fistula in ano is
- A. Posterior fistulae have straight tracks
- B. High fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
- C. High and low divisions are made in relation tothe pelvic floor
- D. Intersphincteric is the most common type
-
178. In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colo-vesicalfistula would be:
- A. Crohns disease
- B. Ulceranve colitis
- C. TB
- D. Cancer colon
-
179 Following trauma, a patient presents with a drop of blood at the tip of urinary mearus.He complains of inability topass urine. Next step should be
- A. IVP should be done
- B MCU should be done
- C. Catheterise, drain bladder, and remove the catheter therafter
- D. Catheterise, drain biadder and retain the cathetertheratter
-
180. Chandu, a 45 yrs male shows calcification on the Rt sideof his abdomen in an AP view. In lateral view thecalcification is seen to overlie the spine. Most likelydiaghosis is
- A. Gallstones
- B. Calcined mesenteric nodés
- C. Renai stones
- D. Calcified rib
-
181. Ca prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae
- A. Because valveless communication exist withbatsons periprostatic plexus
- B. Via drainage to Sacrai lymph node
- C. Of direct Spread
- D. None of above
-
182. Following sexual intercourse,a person develops pain inthe left testes that does not get relieved on elevation ofscrotum. Diagnosis is
- A. Epididymo-orchitis
- B. Torsion testis
- C. Fourniers gangrene
- D. Tumor testes
-
183. A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is, most likelyto be
- A. Germ cell tumor
- B. Sertoli cell tumor
- C. Teratocarcinoma
- D. Lymphoma
-
184. A patient presents with B/L proptosis, heat intolerance andpalpitations; most unlikely diagnosis here would be
- A. Hoshimoto's thyroiditis
- B. Thyroid adenoma
- C. Diffuse thyroid goitre
- D. Reidel's thyroiditis
-
185. A patient with long standing multinodular goitre developshoarseness of voice; also,the swelling undergoes sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis is
- A. Follicular ca
- B. Papillary ca
- C. Medullary ca
- d. Anaplastic ca
-
186.A pt, presents with swelling in the neck following a thyroidectomy: what is the most likely resulting
- complication:
- A. Resp. obstruction
- B Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
- C. Hypo volumia
- D. Hypocaicemia
-
187. A patient on the same evening following thyroidectomypresents with a swelling in the neck aud difficultbreathing. Next management would be
- A. Open immediatly
- B Intubate oro-tracheally
- C. Wait and watch
- D. Administer oxygen by mask
-
188. Patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress few hours after a thyroidectomy surgery. Nextmanagement would be:
- A. Open immediatly
- B. Trecheostomy
- C. Wait and watch
- D. Oxygen by mask
-
189. A patient undergoes thyroid surgery, following which hedevelops perioral tingling. Blood Ca is 8.9 meq; Next step
- A Vit D orall
- B. Oral Ca and vit D
- C Intravenous calcium gluconate and serialmonitoring
- D.Wait for Ca to decrease to <7.0 before takingfurther action
-
190. A case of blunt trauma is brought to the emergency, in asate of shock; he is not responding to IV crystailoias;next step in his management would be
- A. Immediate laparotomy
- B. Blood transfusiorn
- C. Albumin transfusion
- D. Abdominal compression
-
191. Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of road traffic accident He is hypotensive. Most likely rupturedorgan is
- A. Spleen
- B. Mesentry
- C Kidney
- D. Rectum
-
192. A pt is brought to the emergency as a case of headinjury,following a head on collision road traffic
- accident.His BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia ispresent. Most likely diagnosis is
- A. EDH
- B. SDH
- C. Intracranial hemorrhage
- D. Intraabdominal bleed
-
193 Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is
- A. Marjolins
- B. Rodent
- C Melanoma
- D Curlings
-
194. Anelderly man presents with h/o abdominal pain.He is found to have a fusiform dilatation of the descendingaorta. Likely cause is
- A. Trauma
- B. Atherosclerosis
- C. Right ventricular failure
- D. Syphilitic aortitis
-
195. All of the toiloing are correct reyarding AV fisru a except
- A. Arterialisation of the veins
- B. Proximal compression causes increase in heartrate
- C. Overgrowth ofa limb
- D. Causes LV enlargement and LVF
-
196. All of the following are correct about axillary veinthrombosis except
- A. May be caused by a cervical rib
- B. Treated with iV anticaoguiant
- C Embolectomy is done in all cases
- D. May occur following excessive exercise
-
197.A 80 year old patient presents with amidline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He isedentulous. Rx of choice is:
- A. Hemimaucibulectomy
- B. Commando operation
- C. Segmental mandiblectomy
- D. Marginai mardibulectomy
-
198. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27yr old male is
- A. Warthins tumor
- B. Pleomorphic adenoma
- C. Adenccarcinoma
- D. Haemangioma
-
199. A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobilelump in the breast.Next investigation is
- A. FNAC
- B. USG
- C. Mammography
- D. Excision biopsy
-
200. A 45 yrs old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes enlargement, since 3 mouths, mostdiagnostic investigation is
- A. X ray soft tissue
- B. FNAO
- C. Lyrmph node biopsy
- D. None of the above
-
201. All of the following are true about fibrolamellarcarcinoma ofthen liver except
- A. More common in females
- B. Better prognosis than HCC
- C. AFP levcls aiways greater than 1000
- D Occur in younger individuals
-
202. A child presents with an expansile swelling on medialside of the nose. Likely diagnosis is:
- A. Teratoma
- B. Meningcuele
- C. Dermoid cyst
- D. Lipoma
-
203. Rokitansky Kuster hauser syndrome is associated with
- A. Ovarian agenesis
- B. Absent tailopian tube
- C. Vaginal atresia
- D. Bicomuate uterus
-
204. A patient of 47 XXY karyorype presents with featuresofhypogonadism; likely diagnosis is:
- A. Turners syndrome
- B. Klinefelters svndrome
- C. Edwards syndrome
- D. Down syndrome
-
205. A girl presents with: primary amenormhea grade Vthelarche, grade lI pubarche; no axillary hair, likelydiagnosis is
- A.Testicular feminisation
- B. Mullerian agenesis
- C. Turners syndrome
- D. Gonadal dysgenesis
-
206. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks durationand lump in the right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice
- A. USG abdomen
- B. Laparoscopy
- C. CT scan
- D. Shielded X-ray
-
207. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration; lower abdominal pain, facial pallor fainting andshock. Diagnosis is
- A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
- B Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
- C. Threamed abortion
- D. Septic abortion
-
208. A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents withmass abdomen. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is
- A. Ovarian cyst
- B. Octopic pregnancy
- C. Complete abortion
- D. None of the above
-
209. A 30 yrs old female, presents to the emergency withcomplaint of sudden severe abdominal pain; anabdominal mass is palpable on examination: Most likelydiagnosis is
- A. Torsion of subserous fibroid
- B. Twisted ovarian cyst
- C. Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
- D. Rupture of ovarian cyst
-
210. Basanti, a 28yrs aged female with a history of 6 weeks ofthe amenorrhea presents with pain in abdomen, USG showsfluid in pouch of doghlous. Aspiration yields dark colourblood that fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is
- A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
- B. Ruprured ectopic pregnanc
- C. Red degeneration of fibroid
- D. Pelvic abscess
-
211. A patient complains of post coital bleed no growth isseen, on per speculum examination; next step should be
- A. Colposcopy biopsy
- B. Conisation
- C. Repeat pap smea
- D. Cuidoscopy
-
212. A 50 yrs old woman presents with post coital bleedingvisible growth on cervix is detected on per speculumexamination. Next investigation is
- A. Punch biopsy
- B. Colposcopic biopsy
- C. Pap smear
- D. Cone biopsy
-
213. Rekha, a 45 yrs woman has , negative pap smear with+ve endocervical curratage; Next step in managementwill be
- A. Colposcopy
- B. Vaginal hysterectomy
- C. Conisation
- D. Wartheims hysterectomy
-
214. A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having hiccups. likely cause is
- A. Septicemia
- B. Uremia
- C. Raised ICT
- D. None of the above
-
2I5. Bilaceral ovarian cancer with capsule breached; ascitespositive for malignantcells: Stage is:
-
216. The true regarding adenomyosis :
- A.more common in nullipara
- B. progestins are the agents of choice for medicalmanagement
- C. presents with menrrhagia. dysmenorrhia and anenlarged uterus
- D. more common in young women
-
217. In an infertile woman. endometrial biopsy revealsproliferative changes. Which Hormone should be
- crefered?
- A. MDPA
- B. Desogestrol
- C. Norethisteron
- D None of the above
-
218. A pts. Semen sample reveals : I 5 million sperms. 60 %normal mortnology,60% motile, sperm volume is 2 mlno agglutination is seen; diagnosis is
- A. Azospermia
- B. Aspermia
- C Oligospermia
- D. Normospermia
-
219. Primury peritonitis is more common in females because
- A.Ostia of Follopian tubes communicate withabdominal cavity
- B. Peritoneum overlies the uterus
- C. Rupture of functional ovarian cysts
- D. None of the above.
-
220. False statement regarding HCG is
- A. It is secrered by cytotrophoblasts
- B. It acts on same receptor as LH
- C. It has luteotrophic action
- D. It is a glycoprotein
-
221. All ofthe following statements are true except
- A.Oxytocin sensitivity is increased during delivery
- B. Prosglandins may be given for inducing abortionduring III trimester
- C.In lactating women genital stimulation enhancesoxytocin release
- D. Oxytocin is used for inducing abortion in 1sttrimester
-
222. Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in
- A. Hydatidiform mole
- B, Ectopic pregnancy
- C. Anencephaly
- D. None of the above
-
223. All ofthe following are indications for termination ofpregnancy in APH patient except
- A. 37 weeks
- B. IUD
- C. Transverse iie
- D. Continous bleeding
-
224. A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented withbleeding per vagina. Invetigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:
- A. Immediare C.S
- B. Blood transtusion
- C. Conservative
- D. Medical induction of labour
-
225. A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid; Management is:
- Myomectomy
- B. Conservative
- C. Hysterectomy
- D. Termination of pregnancy
-
226. An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant woman;management is
- A. Immediate removal bylaprotomy
- B. Wait and watch
- C. Removal by laparotomy in second trimester
- D. Remove at time of cesarean section
-
227. Most useful investigation in the first Trimester to identify
- risk of fetal maiformanoo a ferus of a diabeic mother
- A. Glycosylated H
- B. Ultrasound
- C. MSAFP
- D. Amniocentesis
-
228. A pregnant diabetic on oral selphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin. All of the foilowings are true regardingthis, except
- A. Oral hypoglycaemics cause PIH
- B. Insulin does not cross piacenta
- C. Cross placenta and deplete foetal insulin
- D. During pregnancy insulin requirement increasesand cannot be met with sulphonyl ureas
-
229. Condition associated with lack ofa single pelvic aia is:
- A. Robert's pelvis
- B. Naegele's peivis
- C. Rachitic pelvis
- D. Osteomaiacic peivis
-
230. Consequence of matemal use of cocaines
- A. Hydrops
- B. Sacral agenesis
- C. Cerebrai infarction
- D. Hypertrichosis
-
231. DNA analysis of chorionic villus / amniocentesis is notlikelv to detect:
- A. Tay sachs disease
- B. Hemoph:iiaA
- C. Sickle cell disease
- D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
-
232. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk ofhaving a third one is:
-
233. A neonate presents with jaundice and clay white stools
- On liver biopsy giant cells are seen.Most likely diagnosis
- A. Physiological jaundice
- B. Neonatal hepatitis with extrabiliary atresia
- C. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
- D. Extrabiliary atresia
-
234. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratorydistress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is:
- A.Tracheoesophageal fistula
- B. Tetraiogy of fallo
- C Respiratory distress syndrome
- D. None of the above
-
235. Ramu, a 8 yr old boy presents with upper GI bleeding. Onexamination,he is foundto have splenomegaly;there areno signs of ascites, or hepatomegaly; esophageal varicesare found on UGIE.Most likely diagnosis is
- A. Budd chiari syndrome
- B. Non cihotic portal fibrosis
- C. Cirrhosis
- D. Veno-occlusive disease
-
236. A 5 year old child suffering from nephrotic syndrome isresponding well to steroid therapy. What would be themost likely finding on light microscopy:
- A. No finding
- B. Basement membrane thickning
- C. Hypercellular glomeruli
- D. Fusion of foot processes.
-
237. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a maleinfant is:
- A. Anterior urethral valves
- B. Posterior urethral valves
- C. Stone
- D. Stricture
-
238. A 5 yr old child presents with a calculus oi size 2 cm. inthe upper ureter. He aiso complains of haemaruria. USGshows no further obstruction in the urinary tract. TT orchoice for this patient would be
- A. Ureterolithotomy
- B. Endoscopic removai
- C. ESWL
- D. Observation
-
239. A patient presents with LVH. and pulmonary complications. ECG, shows left axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis
- A. TOF
- D. Tricuspid atresia
- C. TAPvC
- D. VSD
-
240. Potts shunt is
- A. Rt subclavian artery to rt pulmonary artery
- B. Descending aorta to left pulmonary artery
- C.Left subclavian to left pulmonary artery
- D. Ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery
-
241. A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restlessirritability and diaphoresis on feeding, Cardiac auscultationreveals a nonspecific murmur.He is believed to be at riskfor M.I. Likely diagnosis here is
- A. Asd
- B. Vsd
- C. Tof
- D. Anomalous coronary artery
-
242. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral blood smeartarget cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcyticpicture and Hb of 6 gm%. He also has 'a positive familyhistory Next investigation of choice is
- A. Hb electrophoresis
- B. Coombs test
- Liver function tests
- D. Osmatic fragility test
-
243. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral blood smeartarget cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcyticpicture and Hb of 6 gm%He also has a positive familyhistory' Next investigarion of choice is
- A. Hb electrophoresis
- B. Coombs test
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Osmatic fragility test
-
244. Most common cause of meningitis in children between 6months to 2 years of age is
- A. Pneumococcus
- B. Staphylococcus
- C. H influenza
- D. E.coli
-
245. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis. lytic skulllesions, ear discharge and hepatosplenomegaly; likelydiagnosis
- A. Leukemia
- B. Lymphoma
- C. HistiocytosisX
- D. Multiple myeloma
-
246. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism
- A. Short limbs compared to trunk
- B.Proportionate shortening
- C. Short limbs and short stature
- D. Short limbs and long stature
-
247. Manifestations of endemic cretinism include
- A. Deafness and facial nerve involvement
- B. Blindness and hypothyroidism
- C. Strabismus and spastic diplegia
- D. Multinodular goitre and mental retardation
-
243. A 10 day old male pseudohermaphrodite chiid with 46 XYkaryotype presents with BP of 110/80 mmHg. Most likelyenzyme deficiency is
- A. 21 hydroxylase
- B. 17 hydroxylase
- C 1 hydroxylase
- D. 3-beta hydroxylase
-
249. Treatment of kawasaki disease in children is
- A. Oral steroids
- B. IV steroids
- C. IV Ig
- D. mycophenolate mefentil
-
250. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, is put on a ventilatorX-ray shows 'white out lung' and ABG reveals PO, of 75Ventilator settings are an, FiO, of 70, and rate of 50/minute. Next step to be taken should be ?
- A. Increase rate to 60 per minute
- B. Increase Fi02 to 80
- C. Continue ventilation with the same settings
- D. Weaning ventilator
-
251. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder,a ptdevelops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack ofsensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injure
- A. Radial nerve
- B. Musculocutaneous nerve
- C. Axillary nerve
- D. Ulnar nerve
-
252, Babloo a l 0 year old boy presents withof humerusXray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. Likelycondition is:
- A Unicameral bone cyst
- B. Osteosarcoma
- C. Osteoclastoma
- D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
-
253. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 yrs backhe now presents with valgus deform ity in the elbow andparesthesias over the medial border of the hand. Theinjury is likely to have been
- A. Supraconavlara humerus
- B. Lateral condyle humerus
- C. Medial condyle#humerus
- D. Postr dislocation of the humerus
-
254. A woman aged 60 yrs suffers a fail:her lower limb isextended and externally rotated; likely diagnosis is:
- A. Neck of femur
- B. Intertrochanteric femur #
- C Postr dislocation of hip
- D. Anterior disiocation of hip
-
255. Triple arthrodesis invoives:
- A.Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
- B.Tibiotaiar, calcaneocuboid and taionavicuiar
- C.Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
- D.None of the above
-
256. Babu a 19 yrs old male has a small circumscribedsclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur likely
- agnosis is:
- A. Osteoclastoma
- B. Osteosarcoma
- C. Ewings sarcoma
- D. Osteoid osteoma
-
257. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is
- A. Femur, upper end
- B. Femur, Jower end
- C. Tibia, upper
- D. Tibia, lower end
-
258. Involvement of PIP jt, DIP jt and the carpo-mcpjt of baseof thumb with sparing the wrist is seen in
- A• Rheumatold arthritis
- B. Osteoarthritis
- C. Psoriatic arthritis
- D. Pseudogour
-
259. The pivot test is for
- A. Anterior cruciate ligament
- B. Posterior cruciate ligament
- C. Medial meniscus
- D. Lateral meniscus
-
260. A patient has a miotic pupi, IOP-25.normal anterior chamber, hazy comea and a shallow anterior chamber infellow eye. Diagnosis is
- A. Acute anterior uveitis
- B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
- C. Acute open angle glaucoma
- D. Senile cataract
-
261. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights inthe evening, with nausea and vomiting, rOP is normal:Diagnosis is
- A. Incipient stage glaucoma open angle
- B. Prodrornal stage, closed angle glaucoma
- C. Migraine
- D. Raised ICT
-
262. Babloo a 5 yrs old child presents with large coraea,lacrimation and photophobia:Diagnosis is
- A. Megalocornea
- B. Congenital glaucoma
- C. Congenital cataract
- D. Anterior uveitis
-
263. Ocular symptom not seen in Herpes zoster is:
- A. Nummular keratitis
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Uveitis
- D. Cranial nerve palsies
-
264. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in
- A. Marfan's syndrome
- B. Myaesthenia gravis
- C Myotonic dystrophy
- D. Kearns sayre syndrome
-
265. Eye is deviated laterally and downwards; patientis unable to look up or medially; likely nerve
- involved is:
- A. Trochiear
- B. Trigeminal
- C. Oculomotor
- D. Abducert
-
266. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in leasion of
- A.Right frontal lobe
- B.Right occipetal lobe
- C.Left occipetal lobe
- D.Left frontal lobe
-
267. An elderly male with heart disease presents with suddenloss of vision in one eye; examination reveals cherry redspot; diagnosis is:
- A. Central rerinal vein occlusion
- B. Central retinal artery occlusion
- C Amaurosis fugax
- D. Acure ischemic optic neuritis
-
268. Which of following. is not a feature in diabeticretinopathy on fundus examination
- A. Microaneurysms
- B. Retinai hemorrhages
- C. Arteriolar dilatation
- D. Neovascuiarisation
-
269. Vitamin B 12 deficiency is likely to cause:
- A. Bitemporal hemianopia
- B. Binasal bemianopía
- C. Heteronymous hemianopia
- D Centrocecal scotoma
-
270. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
- A. Decreased visual acuity
- B. Decreased pupillary refiex
- C. Abnormal clectro retin ogram
- D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
-
271. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen inall except
- A. syphilis
- B. lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
- C post papiledema optic neuritis
- D. traumatic injury to the optic nerve
-
272. A 3 month old child presents with intermittent stridor.Most likely cause is
- A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
- B. Laryngomalacia
- C. Respiratory oostruction
- D. Foreign body aspiraton
-
273. A patient presents with facial nerve palsy followinghead trauma with fracture of the mastoid: best
- tervention here is:
- A. Immediate decompression
- B. wait and watch
- C. Facial sling
- D. Steroids
-
274. A case of bells palsy on steroids shows no improvementafter 2 weeks; the next step in management should be
- A. Vasodilators and ACTH
- B. Physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
- C. Increase steroid dosage
- D. Electrophysiological nerve testing
-
275. Chandu a 15 year aged boy presents with unilateral nasalblockade, mass in the cheek and epistaxis: likelydiagnosis Is
- A. Nasopharyngeal ca
- B. Angiofibroma
- C. Inverted papilloma
- D. None of the above
-
276. A 40 year old diabetic presents with blackish nasaldischarge and a mass in the nose:likely diagnosis is
- A. Mucormycosis
- B. Actinomycosis
- C. Rhinosporiodosis
- D. Histopiasmosis
-
277. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is:
- A. Supraglottic ca
- B. Ca glottis
- C. Ca nasopharynx
- D. Subglottic ca
-
278. A man aged 30years presents with, alopecia, boggy scalpswelling and easily pluckable hair. Next step in establishing Diagnosis would be
- A. KOH smear
- B. Cuiture sensitivity
- C. Biopsy
- D. None of the above
-
279. Most common organism causing tinea capitis is
- A. Trichophyton tonsurans
- B. Microsporum
- C. Eoidennophyton
- D. Candida albicans
-
280. A young nan aged 19 years develops a painless penile ulcer 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professionalsex worker;likely diagnosis is
- A. Chancroid
- B. Herses
- C. Chancre
- D. Traumatic ulcer
-
281. An infant presents with itchy lesions over the groin andprepuce All of the following are indicated in this patient except
- A. Bathe and apply scabicidal solution
- B. Treatment should be extended to all family members
- C.Dispose all clothes by burning
- D.Start the patient on IV antibiotics
-
282. A boy aged 8 years from Tamil Nadu presents with awhite.non anesthetic.nonscaly,hypopigmented maculeon his face; likely diagnosis is
- A. Pityriasis alba
- B. Picyriasis versicolor
- C. Indeterminate leprosy
- D. Pure neuntic leprosy
-
283. A. 20 yrs old, male pt, from jaipur, presents with anerythematous lesion on the cheek with central
- crusting:likely diagnosis is
- A. SLE
- B. Lupus vuigaris
- C. Chilblains
- D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
-
284. A 19year aged girl presents with light brown pigmentation over the malar eminences; likely diagnosis is:
- A. Chloasma
- B.SLE
- C. Melasma
- D. Melanoma
-
285. A girl, aged 19, presents with arthritis and a photosenstive rash on the cheek; Likely diagnosis is:
- A. SLE
- B. Chloasina
- C. Steven johnsons syndrome
- D. Lymes disease
-
286. All of the following agents can be given for induction ofanaesthesia in children except:
- A. Halothane
- B. Servodurane
- C. Morphine
- D. Nitrous oxide
-
287. Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal failure is
- A. Methoxyflurane
- B. Isoflurane
- C. Enflurane
- D. None of the above
-
288. A man with alcoholic liver faiiure requires general anesthesiafor surgery. Anaesthetic agent of choice is:
- A. Ether
- B. Halothane
- C. Methoxyflurane
- D. Isoflurane
-
289. All of the following are true except
- A. Haiothane is good as an analgesic agen
- B. Halothane sensitises the heart to action ofcatacholamines
- C. Halothane relaxes brochi & is preterred in anaesthetics
- D. Halothane may cause Liver cell necrosis
-
290. A neonate presents with respiratory distresscontralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filledlesions in the chest. Most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
- B. Congenital lung cysts
- C. Pneumonia
- D. None of the above
-
291. Ground glass appearance is not seen in
- A. Hyaline membrane disease
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Left to right shunt
- D. Obstructive TAPVC
-
292. Drug that is radioprotective:
- A. Paclitaxe
- B. Vincristine
- C. Amifostine
- D. Etoposide
-
293. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is:
- A. Ca kidney
- B. Ca colon
- C. Ca pancreas
- D. Ca cervix
-
294. A pt with pneumonia for 5 days is admitted to thehospital. He suddenly ceases to recognize the doctorand staff, thinks that he is in jail and complains ofscorpions artacking him.He is in altered sensorium,thiscondition is:
- A. Acute delirium
- B. Acute dementia
- C. Acute schizophrenia
- D. Acute paranoia
-
295. A person missing from home, is found wandering purposefully. He is well groomed, and denies of having anyamnesia.Most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Dissociative fugue
- B. Dissociative amnesia
- C. Schizophrenia
- D. Dementia
-
296. Babu, a 40 years aged male complains of sudden unsetpalpitations and apprehension. ie is sweating for thelast 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis
- A. Hysteria
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C Panic attack
- D. Generalized anxiety disorder
-
297. A lady, while driving a car meets with an accident. Sheadmitted in an ICU for 6 moths. After being dischargedshe often gets up in night and feels terrified She is afraidto sit in a car again. The diagnosis i
- A.Panic disorder
- B.Phobia
- C.Conversion disorder
- D.Post traumatic stress disorder
-
298. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism andrigidity. Diagnosis is
- A. Catatonic schizophrenia
- B. Paranoid schizophrenia
- C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
- D. Simple schizophrenia
-
299. Chandu, age 32 presents with abdominal pain andvomiting. He also complains of some psychiaric symptoms and visual hallucinations. Most likely diagnosis is
- A. Intermittent, Porphyria
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Hyperthyroidisnm
- D. Hysteria
-
300. Basanti 27 years aged , female thinks her nose is ugly;her idea is fixed and not shared by anyone elseWhenever she goes out of home, she hides her face witha cloth. She visits a Surgeon. Next step would be
- A. Investigate and then operate
- B. Refer to psychiatrist
- C. Reassure the patient
- D. Immediate operation.
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