Mudit 2001

  1. 1. All are true about inguinal canal except
    • A. Conjoint tendon forms part of the posterior wall
    • B. Superficial ring is found in ext obliqueaponeurosis
    • C. Deep ring is an opening in transversalisabdorminis
    • D. Internal oblique forms both anterior andposterior wall
  2. 2. The rt gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the
    • A. Left gastric
    • B. Splenic
    • C. Ceiiac trunk
    • D. Gastroduodenal
  3. 3. Motor supply of the diaphragm is
    • A. Thoracodorsal nerve
    • B. Intercostal nerves
    • C Phrenic nerve
    • D Sympathetic nerves
  4. 4. All of the followings are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except
    • A. Sensory and motor
    • B. Derived from S2.3
    • C Comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen
    • D. Main nerve supply of pelvic organs
  5. 5. In a post polio case, ilio-tibial tract contracture is likely toresult in
    • A. Extension at the hip and knee
    • B. Extension at the hip
    • C. Flexion at the hip and the knee
    • D. Extension at the knee
  6. 6. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerveexcept
    • A. Lacrimal gland
    • B. Submandibular gland
    • C. Nasal glands
    • D. Parotid gland
  7. 7. In the tracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tearswould be due to lesion in:
    • A. Tngeminal ganglion
    • B. Ciliary ganglion
    • C. Greater petrosal nerve
    • D. Cervical ganglion
  8. 8. Occlusion of the ant descending branch of LAD will leadto infarction of which area?
    • A. Posterior part of the interventricular septurm
    • B. Anterior wall of the left ventricle
    • C. Lateral part of the heart
    • D. Inferior surtace of right ventricle
  9. 9. All of the following are true about coronary arteryexcept
    • a. Right coronary artery lies in right anteriorcoronary sulcus
    • b. Left anterior descending artey is a branch of leftcoronary artery
    • c. Usually 3 obruse marginal arteries arise from leftcoronary artery
    • d. In 85% cases posterior descendinginterventricular artery arises from right co. art
  10. 10. Tidal volume is calculated by
    • A.Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratoryreserve volume
    • B. Total lung capacity minus the reserve volume
    • C. Functional residual capacity minus residualvolume
    • D.Vital capacity minus expiratory reserve volumes
  11. 11. Surfactant production in lungs starts at
    • A.28 weeks B. 34 wks
    • C. 32 wksD. 36 wks
  12. 12. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillockbecause
    • A. It has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
    • B. It is unmyelinated
    • C. Neurotransmitter release occurs here
    • D. None of the above
  13. 13. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressurebecause it has
    • A. High mol wt, low concenration
    • B. Low mol wt, low conc
    • C. High mol wt, high conc
    • D. Low mol wt, high conc.
  14. 14. After 5 days of fasting a man undergoes oral GTI, true is all except
    • A. GH levels are increased
    • B. Increased glucose tolerance
    • C. Decreased insulin levels
    • D. Glucagon levels are increased
  15. l5. Metalioprore ins help in jaundice by the followingmechanism
    • A. Increased glucorony l transferase activity
    • B. Inhibit heme oxygenase
    • C. Decrease RBC lysis
    • D Increase Y and Z receptors
  16. 16. Which protein prevents contraction by covering bindingsites on actin and myosin
    • A. Troponin
    • B. Calmodulin
    • C. Thymosin
    • D. Tropomyosin
  17. 17, Which of the following is NOT correct regardingcapillaries
    • A. Greatest cross sectional area
    • B. Contain 25% of blood
    • C. Contains less blood than veins
    • D. Have single layer of ceils bounding the lumen
  18. 18. A0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes witl lead to
    • A.Increase in HR, decrease in BP
    • B.Slight increase in HR, normal BP
    • C.Decrease in HR and BP
    • D.Prominent increase in HR
  19. 19. Single most important factor in control of automaticcontractility of heart is:
    • A. Myocordial wall thickness
    • B. Right atrial volume
    • C. SA node pacemaker potential
    • D. Sympathetic stimulation
  20. 20. Which of the following is nut mediated through negativefeed back mechanism
    • А.OP
    • B. GH formation
    • C. Thrombus formation
    • D. ACTH relase
  21. 21. Force generating proteins are:
    • A. Myosin and myoglobin
    • B. Dynein and kinesin
    • C. Calmodelin and G protien
    • D. Troponin
  22. 22. Which is true about measurement of BP withsyphgnomonmeter versus intraarterial pressure
    • measurements
    • A. Less than intravascular pressure
    • B. More than intravascular pressure
    • C. Equal to intravascuiar pressure
    • D. Depends upon blood flow
  23. 23. Secondary hyperparathyroidism due to Vit D deficiencyshows
    • A. Hypocalcemia
    • B. Hyperualcemia
    • C. Hypophosphatemia
    • D. Hyperphosphatemia
  24. 24. Maximum absorption of water takes place in
    • A. Pruximal convoluted tubule
    • B Distal convoluted tubule
    • C. Collecting duct
    • D. Loop of henle
  25. 25. Basic amino acids are
    • A. Aspartate and glutamate
    • B. Serine and glycine
    • C. Lysine and arginie
    • D. None of the above
  26. 26. Aminc acid with dissociation constant closest tophysiological pH is
    • A. Serine
    • B. Histidine
    • C. Threonine
    • D. Proline
  27. 27. Sources of the nitrogen in urea cycle are
    • A. Aspartate and ammonia
    • B. glutamate and ammonia
    • C. Arginine and ammonia
    • D. Uric anid
  28. 28. If urine sample daikens on standing; the most likelycondition is
    • A. Phenviketonuria
    • B. Alkaptonuria
    • C. Maple syrup disease
    • D. Tyrosinemia
  29. 29. A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesionsseizures, ketosis organic acids in urine with normal
    • ammonia; likely diagnosis is
    • A. Proprionic aciduria
    • B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
    • C. Maple syrup urine disease
    • D Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
  30. 30. Force not acting in an enzyme substrate complex
    • A. Electrostatic
    • B. Covalent
    • C. Van der waals
    • D. Hydrogen
  31. 31. Celluiar oxidation is inhibited by
    • A. Cyanide
    • B. Carbon dioxide
    • C. Checolate
    • D. Carbonated beverages
  32. 32. Triple bonds are found between which base pairs:
    • A. A-T
    • B. C-G
    • C. A-G
    • D. CT
  33. 33. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases
    • A. RNA
    • B. mRNA
    • C RNA
    • D. 16S RNA
  34. 34. False regarding gout is
    • A. Due to increased metabolism or pyrimidines
    • B. Due to increased metabolism of purines
    • C. Uric acid levels may not be elevated
    • D. Has a predilection for the great toe
  35. 35. All of the following statements are true regardinglipoproteins except:
    • A. VLDL Tansports endogenous lipids
    • B. LDL transports lipids to the rissues
    • C. Increased blood cholesterol is associated withncreased LDL receptors
    • D. Increased HDL is associated with decreased riskof coronary disease
  36. 36. A destirure woman is admitted to the hospital withaltered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysisshows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other testwould be desirable
    • A. Foucher
    • B. Rothera
    • C. Hays
    • D. Benedicts
  37. 37. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breastmilk
    • A. Linolaete
    • B. Linolenic
    • C. Palmitic
    • D. Docosahexanoic acid
  38. 38. blood is not a newtonian fluid because
    • A. Viscosity does not changing with velocity
    • B. Viscos ity changes with veloicity
    • C. Densiry does not change with velocity
    • D. Densiry changes with velocity
  39. 39.Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury s
    • A. Myeloperoxidase
    • B. Superoxide dismutase
    • СМАО
    • D. Hydroxylase
  40. 40. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in
    • A. ALL
    • B. AML
    • C. a
    • D. CML
  41. 41. All of following are correct about Thromboxane Aexcept
    • A. Low dose aspirin inhibits its synthesis
    • B. Causes vasoconstriction in blood vessels.
    • C. Causes broncoconstriction
    • D. Secreted by WBC
  42. 42. Which of the following complications is likely to resultafter several units of blood have been transfused
    • A. Metab alkalosis
    • B. Metab acidosis
    • C. Resp alkalosis
    • D. Resp acidosis
  43. 43. The mother has sickle cell disease; Father is normal Chances of children having sickle ceil disease and sickle cell trait respectively are
    • A. 0 and i 00%
    • B. 25 and 25%
    • C. 30 and 50%
    • D. 10 and 50%
  44. 44. Father has a blood group B Mother has AB ; Childrenare not likely to have the following blood group:
    • Α.Ο
    • B. A
    • C. B
    • D. AB
  45. 45. Protein involved in intercellular connections is:
    • A. Counexin
    • B. Integrin
    • C. Adhesin
    • D. None of the above
  46. 46. Regarding NK cells. false statements
    • A. It is activated by IL-2
    • B. Expresses CD3 receptor
    • C. It is.a variant of large lymphocyte
    • D. There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
  47. 47. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in thefollowing:
    • A. Common variable immun odericiency
    • B. Severe combined immunodeticiency
    • C. Chronic granulomatous disease
    • D. Nezelof syndrome
  48. 48. A beta hemolytie bacteria is resistant to vancomycinshows growth in 6.5% NaCl, is non bile sensitive: It islikely to be
    • A. Strep. agalactiae
    • B.Strep, pneumoniae
    • C. Enterococcus
    • D. Strep. bovis
  49. 49. All are true about streptococcus except
    • A. M protein is responsible for production ofmucoid coionies
    • B. M protein is responsible for virulence
    • C. Mucoid colcnies are virulent
    • D.No resistance to penicillin has been reported
  50. 50. Toxin invoived in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrom
    • A. Pyrogenic toxin
    • B. Erythrogenic toxir
    • C. Hemolysin
    • D. Neurotoxin
  51. 51. A child presents with a white patch over the tonsils; diagnosis is best made by culture in
    • A. Loetler medium
    • B. LJmedium
    • C Blood agar
    • D. Tellurite medium
  52. 52. A pt with 14 days of fever is suspected of havingtyphoid; what investigation should be done
    • A. Blood culture
    • B. Widal
    • C. Stool culture
    • D. Urine culture
  53. 53. All are true about EHEC except: "938 HPIM
    • A. Sereny test is positive
    • B. Ferments sorbitol
    • C. Causes HUS
    • D.Elaborates shiga like exotoxin
  54. 54. An organism grown on agar shows green colouredcolonies; likely organism is:
    • A. Staphylococcus
    • B. E. Coli
    • C. Pseudomonas
    • D. Peptosureptococcus
  55. 55. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by
    • A. IgM FTAabs
    • B. IgG FTAabs
    • C VDRL
    • D. TP
  56. 56 Allare features of Ureapiasma urealyticum except
    • A. Non gonococcal urethritis
    • B. Salpingiti
    • C. Epididymitis
    • D. Bacterial vaginosis
  57. 57. Reagrding HIV infection, not true is
    • A. p24 is used fot eariy diagnosis
    • B. Lysis of infected CD4 cells is seen
    • C. Dendritic cells do not support replication
    • D. Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus
  58. 58. A pregnant woman from bihar presents with hepaticencephalopathy
    • The likely diagnosis:
    • A.Hep. E
    • B. Hep. B
    • C. Sepsis
    • D. Acute fatty liver ot pregnancy
  59. 59. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis is
    • A. RSV
    • B. Rhinovirus
    • C. Adenovirus
    • D. Rotavirus
  60. 60. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient medium CLED ispreferred over McConkey agar in UTI because
    • A. Former prevents swarming of proteus
    • B. Is a selective mediun
    • C. Prevents growth of pseudomonas
    • D. Promotes growth of candida andstaphylococcus
  61. 61. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria seen in peripheral blood
    • A. Tropical eosinophilia
    • B Early adenolymphangitis stage
    • C. Late adenolymphangitis stage
    • D. Elephantiasis
  62. 62. Pancreatic Ca is caused by
    • A. Fasciola
    • B. Clonorch
    • C. Paragonimus
    • D. None
  63. 63. llot the following are true except:
    • A. E.coil is an aerobe and facuitative anaerobe
    • B. Proteus forms uric acid stories
    • C. E coli is mctile by peritrichate flagella
    • D Proreus causes deamination of phenylalanine tophenylpyruvic acid
  64. 64 Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause whichof the following helminthic disease:
    • A. Tinea saginata
    • B. Tinea solium
    • C. Hydatid cyst
    • D. Trichuris trichura
  65. 63. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderlyexcept
    • A. They are lean and their body mass is less
    • B. Have decreasing renal function with age
    • C. Have increased baroceptor sensitivity
    • D. Body water is decreased
  66. 66. True statement regarding inverse agonists is
    • A. Binds to receptor and causes intended action
    • B. Binds to receptor and causes opposite action
    • C. Binds to receptor and causes no action
    • D.Binds to receptor and causes submaximal action
  67. 67. True statement regarding first order kinetics is
    • A. Independent of plasma concentration
    • B. A constant proportion of plasma concentrationis eliminated
    • C. T1/2 increases with dose
    • D. Clearance decreases with dose
  68. 68. A diabetic female onINH and rifampicin for TB suffersDVT: She is started on warfarin; PT is not raised; next step should be:
    • A. Long term heparin therapy
    • B. Replace warfarin with acesoumarin
    • C.Switch ethambutol for rifampin
    • D. Use LMW heparin
  69. 69. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is all except
    • A. Propranolol
    • B. Pindolol
    • C. Sotalol
    • D. Oxyprenolol
  70. 70. All or the following are correct about steroids except
    • A. Inhibit the release of arachidonic acid fromvessei wall through action of phospholipase
    • B. Bind pasma membrane receptors and followinginternalization influence nuclear changes
    • C. Inhibit vascular membrane permeability
    • D. increase glucose synthesis, glycogen depositionin liver
  71. 71. All of the following statements are true except
    • A. PG's and leukotrienes are derrived fromarachidonic acid
    • B. Cox t is an inducibie enzy me
    • C. Cox Il is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation
    • D. Leukotrienes cause smooth ms. constriction
  72. 72. All of the following statements are true except
    • A. IV noradrenaline increases systolic and diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
    • B. IV A drenaline increases systolic. decreasesdiastolic BP and causes tachycardia
    • C. IV isoprcterenol causes no change in systolicdecreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
    • D. Dopamine decreases peripheral resistance andimpruves renal perfusion
  73. 73. Digoxin is not indicated in
    • A. Atrial flurter
    • B. Atrial tibrilatiun
    • C. High output failure
    • D. PSV
  74. 74. All of the following statements are true atheophylline except:
    • A. Increase in dose is required in cardiopulmonarydisease
    • B. Increases cAVM
    • C. Increase in dose is required in smokers
    • D. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
  75. 75. Mechanism of action of tetracycline is
    • A. Binds to A site and inhibit attachment of t-RNA
    • B. Inhibits peptidyl transrerase
    • C. Causes misreading of imRNA
    • D. Causes termination of peptide chain elongatior
  76. 76. False statement about selegeline is
    • A. It is a MAO-A inhibitor
    • B. Does not cause cheese reaction
    • C. May be used in on-off phenomenon
    • D. t is used in parkinsonism
  77. 77. A patient on phenytoin for tt of seizures developsdepression for which he is prescribed tricyclics.He nowcomplains of lassitude and his Hb reads 8 next step inmanaging this patient should be:
    • A. Chest X-ray
    • B. MCV should be estimated
    • C. GGT should be estimared
    • D. None of the above
  78. 78. Which of the following drugs would be removed by
    • A. Digoxin
    • B. Salicy lates
    • C. Benzodiazepines
    • D. Organophosphates
  79. 79. In low doses aspirin acts on
    • A. Cyclo-oxygenase
    • B. Thromboxane A2
    • C. PGI2
    • D. Lipoxygenase
  80. 80. All of the following statements about ticlodipine are trueexcept
    • A. Directly interacts with piatelet membrane, gpllb/ Illa receptors
    • B. Onset of action is delayed
    • C. Duration of action is long
    • D. It is used as an alternative to aspirin in patientswith cerebrovascular disease
  81. 81. All of the following statements about Methotrexate are true except
    • A. Folinic acid enhances the action of methotrexate
    • B. Methotrexate inhibit dehydrofolate reductase
    • C. Non proliferative ceils are resistant tomethotrexate
    • D. Methotrexate is used in treatment of psoriasis
  82. 82. Drug containing two suifhydryl groups in a molecule
    • A. BAL
    • B. EDTA
    • C. Pencillamine
    • D. None of the above
  83. FORENSIC MEDICINE
    • 83. Gettlers test is done for death by
    • A. Drowning
    • B. Hanging
    • C. Burns
    • D. Phophorus poisoning
  84. 84. Feature indicative of anti-mortem drowning is
    • A. Cutis anserina
    • B. Rigor mortis
    • C. washerwomans teet
    • D. Grass and weeds grasped in the mind
  85. 85. A boy has 20 permanent reeth and 3 temporary teeth. His age is likely to be
    • A, 9yrs.
    • B. 10 yrs.
    • C. 11 yrs
    • D. 12 yrs.
  86. 86. A patient has sensation of bugs crawling all over hisbody; this may be effect of:
    • A. Cocaine
    • B. Alcohol
    • C.Cannabis
    • D. Benzodiazepines
  87. 87. A person comes in contact with other This is caled
    • A. Locard principle
    • B. Quetlets rule
    • C. Petty's principle
    • D. None of the above
  88. 88. A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requiresurgent cranial decompression: Doctor should
    • A. Operate without formal consent
    • B. Take police consent
    • C. wait for relatives to take consent
    • D. Take magistrate consent
  89. 89. A boy attempts suicide. He is brought to a private doctorand he is successfully cured. Doctor should
    • A. Inform police
    • B. Not required
    • C. Report to magistrate
    • D. Refer to a psychiatrist
  90. PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE
    • 90. All are true about DOTS except
    • A. Continuation phase drugs are given in a
    • B. Medication is to be taken in presence of a health
    • C. Alternate day treatmentmultiblister combipackworker
    • D. Improves compliance
  91. 91. Basanti a 29 yrs aged female from bihar presents withactive tuberculosis; She delivers baby; all of thefollowing are indicated except
    • A. Administer INH to the baby
    • B. Withhold breast feeding
    • C. Give ATT to mother for 2 years
    • D. Ask mother to ensure proper disposal of spurum
  92. 92. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be calleda PHC-R, requisite is
    • A. Microscopy
    • B Microscopy plus radiology
    • C. Radiology
    • D. None of the above
  93. 93. A person has received complete immunization againsttetanus 10 years ago; now he presents with a cleanwound without any lacerations from an injury sustained2.5 hours ago; He should now be given
    • A. Full course of tetanus toxoid
    • B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid
    • C Human tet globulin
    • D. Human tet globulin and single dose of toxoid.
  94. 94. The rue statement regarding tetanus is
    • A. Five dose immunisation provides life long immunity
    • B. T affords no protection in the present injury
    • C. IT serves no use once 12 hours have elapsed following injury
    • D. IT and ig may both be given in suspected tetanus
  95. 95. A certain community has I00 children out of whom 28 are immunised against measles; 2 of them acquire measles simuitaneously: Subsequently 14 get measles. Assuming the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%, what is the secondary Attack rate?
    • A.53%
    • B. 10%
    • C. 20%
    • D. 21.5%
  96. 96. A community has a population of 10,000 and a birth rateor 36 per 1000. 5 maternal deaths were reported in thecurrent year:the MMR is
    • A. 14.5
    • B. 13.3
    • C. 20
    • D. 5
  97. 97. 10 babies are bom in a hospital on same day. All weigh2.8 kg each; calculate the standard deviation:
    • A. Zero
    • B. One
    • C. Mirus one
    • D. 028
  98. 98. Out of !!births in a hospital. 5 babies weighed over 2kg and 3 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5represent
    • A. Geometric average
    • B. Anthmetic average
    • C. Median average
    • D. Mode
  99. 99. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 525 gm carbobydrate65 gm protein and 35 gms fat in his dier: the mostapplicable statement here is
    • A. His total calorie intake is 3000 kcal
    • B. The proportion of proteins, fats andcarbohydrates is correct and in accordance witha balanced diet
    • C. He has a negative nitrogen balance
    • D. 30% of his total energy intake is derived from far
  100. 100. A country has a population of 1000 million; birth rate is23 and death rate is 6; in which phase of the demo-graphic cycle does this country lie
    • A. Early expanding
    • B. Late expanding
    • C. Plateau
    • D. Declining
  101. 101. in a population of 10.000. beta carotene was giver to6000; it was not given to the remainder. outof the first group got lung cancer while 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer: the best conclusion
    • A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relationto one another
    • B.The p value is not significant
    • C.The study is not designed properly
    • D.Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
  102. 102. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population ut
    • A. 1000
    • B. 2000
    • C. 3000
    • D. 5000
  103. 103. In a communityan increase in new cases denotes
    • A. Increase in incidence rate
    • B. increasein prevalence rate
    • C. Decrease in incidence ra
    • D. Decrease in prevalence rate
  104. 104. More false positive cases in a community signify hatedisease has
    • A. High prevalencse
    • B. High sensitivity
    • C. Low prevalence
    • D. Low sensitivity
  105. 105. The same screening test is applied to po comuunies Xand Y, Y shows more false -ve cases as compared to .The possibility is
    • A. High sensitivity
    • B. High specificity
    • C Ycommunity has high prevalence
    • D. Y community has low prevalenee
  106. 106. ELISA is performed on a population with low prevaience.What would be the result of performing doublescreening ELISA tests?
    • A. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive vaiue
    • B. Increased sensitivity and negative predicrive value
    • C. Increased specificity and positive predictive value
    • D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value
  107. 107. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum lipid levelswere tested both betore and after its use. Which test isbest suited for the staristical analysis of the result
    • A. Paired T test
    • B. Students test
    • C. Chi squre tes
    • D.None of the above
  108. 108. Sampling error is classified as
    • A. Alpha error
    • B. Beta error
    • C. Gumma error
    • D. Delta error
  109. 109. Virulance ofa discase is indicated by
    • A. Proportional mortality rate
    • B.Specific mortality rate
    • C.Case totality ratio
    • D.Amount of GDP spent on the disease
  110. 110. Which of the following diseases needs not to bescreened for, in workers to be employed in a dye industryin gujarat
    • A. Anemia
    • B. Bronchial asthma
    • C Bladder cancer
    • D. Precaancerous lesion
  111. 111. Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is
    • A. Transferrin
    • B. Serum ferritin
    • C. Serum iron
    • D. Hemoglobin
  112. 112. Which of the following is not a complete sterilizationagent
    • A. Glutaraldehyde
    • B. Absolute alcohol
    • C. Hydrogen peroxide
    • D. Sodium hypochlorite
  113. 113. False statement about type I respiratory failure is
    • A. decreased Pa02
    • B. decreased PaCO2
    • C. noal PaCO2
    • D. noma!A-a gradient
  114. 114. A 60 year oid man presents with non productive coughfor 4 weeks: He has grade II clubbing, and a lesion in theapical lobe on xray. Most likely diagnosis here is:
    • A. Small cell ca
    • B. Non smail cell ca
    • C. Fungal infection
    • D. Tuberculosis
  115. 115.A 60 yr old man is suspected of having bronchogenic caTB has been ruled out in this pt.What should be the nextinvestigation
    • A. CT guided FNAC
    • B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
    • C. Sputum cytology
    • D. X-Ray chest.
  116. 116. A man presents with fever, wt loss and cough.; Mantouxreads an induration of 17 x 19 mm; Spurum cytology isnegative for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Pulm tuberculosis
    • B. Fungal infection
    • C. viral infection
    • D. Pneunonia
  117. 117. Pulm. edema associated with normal PCWP is observed,which of these is not a cause
    • A. High altitude
    • B. Cocaine overdose
    • C. Post cardiopuim bypass
    • D Bilateral renal artery stenosis
  118. 118. An ABG analysis shows: piH 7.2, raised pco2, decreased HCO3; diagnosis is
    • A. Resp acidosis
    • B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
    • C. Resp and metabolic acidosis
    • D. Resp alkalosis
  119. 119. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator. shows decreasedpCO2, normal pO2, pH 7.5; diagnosis is:
    • A. Resp acidosis
    • B. Metabolic alkalosis
    • C. Respo alkalosis
    • D. Meabolic acidosis
  120. 120. In a pt of acute inferior wail MI best modalitiy ofrx s
    • A. IV fluids
    • B. Digoxin
    • C. Diuretics
    • D. Vasodilators
  121. 121. A 26 yToid asymptomaric woman is found to have arthymiasand a systalic murmurassociated with midsystolic elicks;which investigation would you use:
    • A. Electrophysiological testing
    • B. Tc scan
    • C. Echocardiography
    • D. Angiography
  122. 122. A patient complains of intemittent claudication, dizziness and headache; ikely cardiac lesion is:
    • A. TOF
    • B. ASD
    • C. PDA
    • D. Coarctation of aorta
  123. 123. All of the following are true about ASD except
    • A. Right arterial hypertrophy
    • B. Left arterial hypertrophy
    • C Right ventricular hyperrrophy
    • D. Pulmonary hypertension
  124. 124. Mitral valve vegetations do not usually embolise to
    • A. Lung
    • B. Liver
    • C. Spleen
    • D. Brain
  125. 125. A woman has septic abortion done; vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
    • a. Septic infarcts to lung
    • B. Liver
    • C.Spleen infarcts
    • D. Emboli to brain (input by amit batla)
  126. 125. Kussmaui's sign is NOT seen in
    • A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
    • B. Constrictive pericarditis
    • C.Cardiac tamponade
    • D. RV infarct
  127. 127.A pt presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 andpuise rate of 100 following blunt trauma to the chestDiagnosis is:
    • A. Pneumothorax
    • B. Right ventricular failure
    • C. Cardiac tamponadc
    • D. Hemothorax
  128. 128.Best test for assessment of iron status is:
    • A. Transferrin
    • B. Ferritin
    • C. Serum iron
    • D. Hemoglobin
  129. 129. Wbich of the following is not seen on hemoglobinelectrophoresis in sickle cell anemia
    D. Hbs
  130. 130. False statement regarding DIC is
    • A. Thrombocytopenia
    • B. Decreased fibrinogen
    • C. Decreased PTI
    • D. Increased PT
  131. 131. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all EXCEPT
    • A. Henoch schonlein purpura
    • B. TTP
    • C. DIC
    • D. Cavernous hemangioma
  132. 132. A pt with an Hb of 6, WBC count of 2000, has a normalDifferent count except for having 6% blasts:plateles arereduced to 80,000; moderate splenomegaly is presentpossible diagnosis is
    • A. Leukemia
    • B. Aplastic anemia
    • C. Hemolysis
    • D. ITP
  133. 133. A pt. being investigated for anemia has a dry marrowtap.peripheral smear reveals tear drop cells; likelydiagnosis is
    • A. Leukemia
    • B. Lymphoma
    • C. Mvelofibrosis
    • D. Polycythemia rubra vera
  134. 134. Tumor associated with polycythernia vera is
    • A. Sarcoma
    • B. Pitutary adenoma
    • C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
    • D. None of the above
  135. 135. A young pt presents with jaundice.Total bilirubin is 21,direct is 9.6, alkphos is34 KA units. Diagnosis is
    • A. Hemolytic jaundice
    • B. Viral hepatitis
    • C. Chronic active hepatitis
    • D. Obstructive jaundice
  136. 136. A young male with gallbladder stones shows thefollowing test results; serum bilirubin 2.5, Hb 6, urine testpositive for urobilinogen;diagnosis is:
    • A. Hemolytic jaundice
    • B. Obstructive jaundice
    • C. Hepatoceilular jaundice
    • D. Protoporphyria
  137. 137. An 18 yr old male presents with massive hematemesis hehas history of fever for the past 14 days for which hewas managed with drugs; moderate spleenomegaly ispresent; diagnosis is
    • A. NSAID induced duodenal ulcer
    • B. Drug induced gastritis
    • C. Esophageal varices
    • D. None of the above.
  138. 138. Urinalysis shows RBC casts; likely source is
    • A. Kidney
    • B. UretcT
    • C. Bladder
    • D. Urethra
  139. 123. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days after anattack of URTI; likely renal pathology is
    • A. Acute glomeruionephritis
    • B. Minimal change disease
    • C. IgA nephropathy
    • D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
  140. 140. A patients CSF report reads as follows: sugar of 40,protein of 150, chloride of 550; lymphocytosis
    • present;the picture is suggestive of
    • A. Fungal meningitis
    • B. Viral meningitis
    • C. TB meningitis
    • D. Leukemia
  141. 141. Lacunar infarcts are caused by
    • A. Lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries
    • B.Middle carotid artery involvement
    • C.Emboli to anterior circulation
    • D.None of the above
  142. 142. Dinesh, a 56 yr aged man presents with complaints ofslowness of movements, postural instability, tremors,rigidity and memory loss. Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Multi infarct dementia
    • B Alzheimer's disease
    • C. Parkinsonism
    • D. None of the above
  143. 143. All of the following may be seen in wilson's diseaseexcept
    • A. cerebellar ataxia
    • B. peripheral neuropathy
    • C. dysphagia
    • D. chorea
  144. 144. An elderly man presents with features of dementia ataxia, difficulty in downward gaze and a history offrequent falls. Likely diagnosis
    • A. Parkinsons disease
    • B. Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
    • C. Alzheimers disease
    • D. None of the above
  145. 145. A chromosomal anomaly associated with alzheimer'sdenenda is
    • A. Trisomy 13
    • B. Patau syndrome
    • C. Trisomy 21
    • D. Turners syndrome
  146. 146. All are true about Huntington's disease except
    • A. Chorea
    • B. Behavioral disturbance
    • C. Eariy onser of memory loss
    • D. Cog-wheel rigidity
  147. 147. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection; he haslow testosterone and high prolactin level in blood; Whatis the likely diagnosis
    • A. Pituitary adenoma
    • B. Testicular failure
    • C. Cranio pharyngioma
    • D. Cushing's syndrome
  148. 148. A patient meets with an accident with resultanttransection of the picuitary stalk,what will NOT occur:
    • A. Diabetes mellius
    • B. Diabetes insipidus
    • C Hyperprolactinemia
    • D. Hypothyroidism
  149. 149. A woman has bilateral headache that worsens withemotional stress; she has two children ,both doing badlyin school: diagnosis is
    • A. Migraine
    • B Cluster headache
    • C Tension headache
    • D. Trigeminal neuralgia
  150. 150. A female aged 30.presents with episodic throbbingheadache for past 4 yrs with nausea and vomiting: mostlikely diagnosis is
    • A. Migraine
    • B. Cluster headache
    • C Angie closure glaucoma
    • D. Temporal arteritis
  151. 151.A woman complains of headache associated withparesthesias of the right upper and lower limb: likely
    • A. Tigeminal neuralgia
    • B. Gossopharyngea! neuralgia
    • c. Migraine
    • D. Cluster headachc
  152. 152. All of the foilowing are features of MEN IIa ,except:
    • A. Pitmitary tumor
    • B. Pheochramocytoina
    • C. Medullary ca thyroid
    • D. Neuromas
  153. 153 A patient with cushinoid features presents withhemoptysis he shows no response to dexamethasonesupression test;most likely diagnosis here is
    • A. Adrenail hyperplasia
    • B. Adrenal adenoma
    • C. Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production
    • D. Piruitary microadenoma
  154. 154. An obese patient presented in casualty in an unconcious state.His blood sugar measured 400mg%, urinetested positive for sugar and ketones,drug most useful in managements
    • A. Glibenclamide
    • B. Troglitazon
    • C Insulin
    • D. Chiorpropamide
  155. 155. Which of the following is not associated with thymoma
    • A. Red cell aplasia
    • B. Myasthenia gravis
    • C. Hypergammaglobulinemia
    • D. Compression oi the superior mediastinum
  156. 156. A young basketbal player with ht 188 cm and armspau 197cm has a diastolic murmur best heard in second rightintercostai space: likely cause of murmuris
    • A. AS
    • B. Coarctation of aorta
    • C. AR
    • D. MR
  157. 157. A patient presents with arthritis.hyperpigmentation ofskin and hypogonadism: likely diagnosis is
    • A. Hemochromato sis
    • B. Ectopic acth secreting tumor of lung
    • C. Wilsons disease
    • D Rheumatoid arthrit
  158. 158. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement regardinghymectomy is
    • A. Should be done in all cases
    • B. Should be done in cases with ocular involvement only
    • C.Not required if controlled by medical management
    • D. Should be done only in cases that are associatedwith thymoma
  159. 159. Most common fungai infection in febrile neutropenia is
    • A. Aspergillus niger
    • B. Candida
    • C. Mucormycosis
    • D. Aspergillus fumigatus
  160. 160. The following group of tests should be done to optimisegraft up take in bone marrow transplant
    • A. Missing
    • B. Missing
    • c. Missing
    • D. Missing
  161. 161. True statement about neurocysticercosis
    • A. Seizures due to neurocysticercosis are resistantto anti epileptic drugs
    • B. Albendazole is superior to praziquantel in the tt of above condition
    • C. Common presentation is 6th CN palsy andhemiparesis
    • D. Steroids are used in the management of hydro cephaius.
  162. 162. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acidpeptic disease except
    • A. Misoprostol is the drug of choice in patients on NSAIDS
    • B. DU is preventable by the use of single night timeH2 blockers
    • C. Omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2blockers
    • D.Mesoprostoi is DOC in pregnant patieats
  163. 163. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexorinvading renal papillae. Histopathology teports it as lymphoma; true statement is
    • A. II E stage
    • B. III E Stage
    • C. IV E stage
    • D. Staging cannot be done until bone marrowexamination is performed
  164. 164. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He hassudden abnormal flinging movementsin right upper and lower limbs. Most likely site of haemorrahge is
    • A. Substantia nigra
    • B. Caudate nuclei
    • C. Pons
    • D. Subthallmic nuclei
  165. 165. True about Haemophilia A are all except
    • A. PTT increased
    • B. PT increased
    • C. Clotting time is increased
    • D. serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
  166. 166. IPPV can cause
    • A. Barotrauma
    • B. Pleural effusion
    • C. Missing
    • D. None of the above
  167. 167. Characteristic finding in CT in a T3 case is
    • A. Exudate seen in basal cistern
    • B. Hydrocephalus is noncommunicating
    • C Calcification commonly seen in unbellium
    • D. Ventriculitis is a common finding
  168. 168. Vegetations on undersurface ofA.V.valves are found in
    • A. Acute Rheumatic corditis
    • B. Limban Sack's endocarditis
    • C. Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis
    • D. Chronic rheumatic carditis
  169. 169. Triagemeans
    • A.Sorting out of cases on availability of medicalresources and severity of patients condition
    • B. Patients are divided into 3 groups
    • C. Severily injured patients are antended first inmilitary camps
    • D. None of the above
  170. SURGERY
    • 170. A male aged 60 years has foul breath; He regurgitates foodthat is eaten 3 days ago: Likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Zenkers divericulum
    • B. Meckels diverticulum
    • C Scleroderma
    • D. Achalasia cardia
  171. 171. Most common site for squamous cell ca esophagus s
    • A. Upper third
    • B. Middle third
    • C. Lower third
    • D. Gastro-esophageal junction
  172. 172 What is true regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloricstenosis
    • A. More common in girls
    • B. Hypochloremic alkalosi
    • C. Hellers myotomy is the procedure of choice
    • D. Most often manifests at birth
  173. 173. Patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cmsize: procedure of choice
    • A. Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
    • B. Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
    • C. Highly selective vagotomy
    • D. Laparoscopic vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
  174. 174. All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis ofgastrointestinal tract except
    • A. Presents with a mass in RIF
    • B. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
    • C. Most common site is ileocecal junction.
    • D. ATT is the treatment of choice
  175. 175. A 56 year old woman has not passed stools tor the last14 days. Xray shows no air fluid levels. Probablediagnosis is:
    • A. Paralytic ileus
    • B. Aganglionosis of the colon
    • C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
    • D. Duodenal obstruction.
  176. 176. A man aged 60 yrs has h o IHD and atherosclerosis. Hepresents with abdominal pain and maroon stools: likelydiagnosis here is
    • A. Acute intestinal obstruction
    • B. Acute mesenteric ischemia
    • C.Peritonius
    • D. Appendicitis
  177. 177. True statement regarding Fistula in ano is
    • A. Posterior fistulae have straight tracks
    • B. High fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
    • C. High and low divisions are made in relation tothe pelvic floor
    • D. Intersphincteric is the most common type
  178. 178. In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colo-vesicalfistula would be:
    • A. Crohns disease
    • B. Ulceranve colitis
    • C. TB
    • D. Cancer colon
  179. 179 Following trauma, a patient presents with a drop of blood at the tip of urinary mearus.He complains of inability topass urine. Next step should be
    • A. IVP should be done
    • B MCU should be done
    • C. Catheterise, drain bladder, and remove the catheter therafter
    • D. Catheterise, drain biadder and retain the cathetertheratter
  180. 180. Chandu, a 45 yrs male shows calcification on the Rt sideof his abdomen in an AP view. In lateral view thecalcification is seen to overlie the spine. Most likelydiaghosis is
    • A. Gallstones
    • B. Calcined mesenteric nodés
    • C. Renai stones
    • D. Calcified rib
  181. 181. Ca prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae
    • A. Because valveless communication exist withbatsons periprostatic plexus
    • B. Via drainage to Sacrai lymph node
    • C. Of direct Spread
    • D. None of above
  182. 182. Following sexual intercourse,a person develops pain inthe left testes that does not get relieved on elevation ofscrotum. Diagnosis is
    • A. Epididymo-orchitis
    • B. Torsion testis
    • C. Fourniers gangrene
    • D. Tumor testes
  183. 183. A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is, most likelyto be
    • A. Germ cell tumor
    • B. Sertoli cell tumor
    • C. Teratocarcinoma
    • D. Lymphoma
  184. 184. A patient presents with B/L proptosis, heat intolerance andpalpitations; most unlikely diagnosis here would be
    • A. Hoshimoto's thyroiditis
    • B. Thyroid adenoma
    • C. Diffuse thyroid goitre
    • D. Reidel's thyroiditis
  185. 185. A patient with long standing multinodular goitre developshoarseness of voice; also,the swelling undergoes sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis is
    • A. Follicular ca
    • B. Papillary ca
    • C. Medullary ca
    • d. Anaplastic ca
  186. 186.A pt, presents with swelling in the neck following a thyroidectomy: what is the most likely resulting
    • complication:
    • A. Resp. obstruction
    • B Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
    • C. Hypo volumia
    • D. Hypocaicemia
  187. 187. A patient on the same evening following thyroidectomypresents with a swelling in the neck aud difficultbreathing. Next management would be
    • A. Open immediatly
    • B Intubate oro-tracheally
    • C. Wait and watch
    • D. Administer oxygen by mask
  188. 188. Patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress few hours after a thyroidectomy surgery. Nextmanagement would be:
    • A. Open immediatly
    • B. Trecheostomy
    • C. Wait and watch
    • D. Oxygen by mask
  189. 189. A patient undergoes thyroid surgery, following which hedevelops perioral tingling. Blood Ca is 8.9 meq; Next step
    • A Vit D orall
    • B. Oral Ca and vit D
    • C Intravenous calcium gluconate and serialmonitoring
    • D.Wait for Ca to decrease to <7.0 before takingfurther action
  190. 190. A case of blunt trauma is brought to the emergency, in asate of shock; he is not responding to IV crystailoias;next step in his management would be
    • A. Immediate laparotomy
    • B. Blood transfusiorn
    • C. Albumin transfusion
    • D. Abdominal compression
  191. 191. Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of road traffic accident He is hypotensive. Most likely rupturedorgan is
    • A. Spleen
    • B. Mesentry
    • C Kidney
    • D. Rectum
  192. 192. A pt is brought to the emergency as a case of headinjury,following a head on collision road traffic
    • accident.His BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia ispresent. Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. EDH
    • B. SDH
    • C. Intracranial hemorrhage
    • D. Intraabdominal bleed
  193. 193 Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is
    • A. Marjolins
    • B. Rodent
    • C Melanoma
    • D Curlings
  194. 194. Anelderly man presents with h/o abdominal pain.He is found to have a fusiform dilatation of the descendingaorta. Likely cause is
    • A. Trauma
    • B. Atherosclerosis
    • C. Right ventricular failure
    • D. Syphilitic aortitis
  195. 195. All of the toiloing are correct reyarding AV fisru a except
    • A. Arterialisation of the veins
    • B. Proximal compression causes increase in heartrate
    • C. Overgrowth ofa limb
    • D. Causes LV enlargement and LVF
  196. 196. All of the following are correct about axillary veinthrombosis except
    • A. May be caused by a cervical rib
    • B. Treated with iV anticaoguiant
    • C Embolectomy is done in all cases
    • D. May occur following excessive exercise
  197. 197.A 80 year old patient presents with amidline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He isedentulous. Rx of choice is:
    • A. Hemimaucibulectomy
    • B. Commando operation
    • C. Segmental mandiblectomy
    • D. Marginai mardibulectomy
  198. 198. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27yr old male is
    • A. Warthins tumor
    • B. Pleomorphic adenoma
    • C. Adenccarcinoma
    • D. Haemangioma
  199. 199. A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobilelump in the breast.Next investigation is
    • A. FNAC
    • B. USG
    • C. Mammography
    • D. Excision biopsy
  200. 200. A 45 yrs old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes enlargement, since 3 mouths, mostdiagnostic investigation is
    • A. X ray soft tissue
    • B. FNAO
    • C. Lyrmph node biopsy
    • D. None of the above
  201. 201. All of the following are true about fibrolamellarcarcinoma ofthen liver except
    • A. More common in females
    • B. Better prognosis than HCC
    • C. AFP levcls aiways greater than 1000
    • D Occur in younger individuals
  202. 202. A child presents with an expansile swelling on medialside of the nose. Likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Teratoma
    • B. Meningcuele
    • C. Dermoid cyst
    • D. Lipoma
  203. 203. Rokitansky Kuster hauser syndrome is associated with
    • A. Ovarian agenesis
    • B. Absent tailopian tube
    • C. Vaginal atresia
    • D. Bicomuate uterus
  204. 204. A patient of 47 XXY karyorype presents with featuresofhypogonadism; likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Turners syndrome
    • B. Klinefelters svndrome
    • C. Edwards syndrome
    • D. Down syndrome
  205. 205. A girl presents with: primary amenormhea grade Vthelarche, grade lI pubarche; no axillary hair, likelydiagnosis is
    • A.Testicular feminisation
    • B. Mullerian agenesis
    • C. Turners syndrome
    • D. Gonadal dysgenesis
  206. 206. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks durationand lump in the right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice
    • A. USG abdomen
    • B. Laparoscopy
    • C. CT scan
    • D. Shielded X-ray
  207. 207. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration; lower abdominal pain, facial pallor fainting andshock. Diagnosis is
    • A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
    • B Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
    • C. Threamed abortion
    • D. Septic abortion
  208. 208. A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents withmass abdomen. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is
    • A. Ovarian cyst
    • B. Octopic pregnancy
    • C. Complete abortion
    • D. None of the above
  209. 209. A 30 yrs old female, presents to the emergency withcomplaint of sudden severe abdominal pain; anabdominal mass is palpable on examination: Most likelydiagnosis is
    • A. Torsion of subserous fibroid
    • B. Twisted ovarian cyst
    • C. Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
    • D. Rupture of ovarian cyst
  210. 210. Basanti, a 28yrs aged female with a history of 6 weeks ofthe amenorrhea presents with pain in abdomen, USG showsfluid in pouch of doghlous. Aspiration yields dark colourblood that fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is
    • A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
    • B. Ruprured ectopic pregnanc
    • C. Red degeneration of fibroid
    • D. Pelvic abscess
  211. 211. A patient complains of post coital bleed no growth isseen, on per speculum examination; next step should be
    • A. Colposcopy biopsy
    • B. Conisation
    • C. Repeat pap smea
    • D. Cuidoscopy
  212. 212. A 50 yrs old woman presents with post coital bleedingvisible growth on cervix is detected on per speculumexamination. Next investigation is
    • A. Punch biopsy
    • B. Colposcopic biopsy
    • C. Pap smear
    • D. Cone biopsy
  213. 213. Rekha, a 45 yrs woman has , negative pap smear with+ve endocervical curratage; Next step in managementwill be
    • A. Colposcopy
    • B. Vaginal hysterectomy
    • C. Conisation
    • D. Wartheims hysterectomy
  214. 214. A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having hiccups. likely cause is
    • A. Septicemia
    • B. Uremia
    • C. Raised ICT
    • D. None of the above
  215. 2I5. Bilaceral ovarian cancer with capsule breached; ascitespositive for malignantcells: Stage is:
    • A. I
    • B. II
    • C. III
    • D. IV
  216. 216. The true regarding adenomyosis :
    • A.more common in nullipara
    • B. progestins are the agents of choice for medicalmanagement
    • C. presents with menrrhagia. dysmenorrhia and anenlarged uterus
    • D. more common in young women
  217. 217. In an infertile woman. endometrial biopsy revealsproliferative changes. Which Hormone should be
    • crefered?
    • A. MDPA
    • B. Desogestrol
    • C. Norethisteron
    • D None of the above
  218. 218. A pts. Semen sample reveals : I 5 million sperms. 60 %normal mortnology,60% motile, sperm volume is 2 mlno agglutination is seen; diagnosis is
    • A. Azospermia
    • B. Aspermia
    • C Oligospermia
    • D. Normospermia
  219. 219. Primury peritonitis is more common in females because
    • A.Ostia of Follopian tubes communicate withabdominal cavity
    • B. Peritoneum overlies the uterus
    • C. Rupture of functional ovarian cysts
    • D. None of the above.
  220. 220. False statement regarding HCG is
    • A. It is secrered by cytotrophoblasts
    • B. It acts on same receptor as LH
    • C. It has luteotrophic action
    • D. It is a glycoprotein
  221. 221. All ofthe following statements are true except
    • A.Oxytocin sensitivity is increased during delivery
    • B. Prosglandins may be given for inducing abortionduring III trimester
    • C.In lactating women genital stimulation enhancesoxytocin release
    • D. Oxytocin is used for inducing abortion in 1sttrimester
  222. 222. Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in
    • A. Hydatidiform mole
    • B, Ectopic pregnancy
    • C. Anencephaly
    • D. None of the above
  223. 223. All ofthe following are indications for termination ofpregnancy in APH patient except
    • A. 37 weeks
    • B. IUD
    • C. Transverse iie
    • D. Continous bleeding
  224. 224. A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented withbleeding per vagina. Invetigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:
    • A. Immediare C.S
    • B. Blood transtusion
    • C. Conservative
    • D. Medical induction of labour
  225. 225. A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid; Management is:
    • Myomectomy
    • B. Conservative
    • C. Hysterectomy
    • D. Termination of pregnancy
  226. 226. An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant woman;management is
    • A. Immediate removal bylaprotomy
    • B. Wait and watch
    • C. Removal by laparotomy in second trimester
    • D. Remove at time of cesarean section
  227. 227. Most useful investigation in the first Trimester to identify
    • risk of fetal maiformanoo a ferus of a diabeic mother
    • A. Glycosylated H
    • B. Ultrasound
    • C. MSAFP
    • D. Amniocentesis
  228. 228. A pregnant diabetic on oral selphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin. All of the foilowings are true regardingthis, except
    • A. Oral hypoglycaemics cause PIH
    • B. Insulin does not cross piacenta
    • C. Cross placenta and deplete foetal insulin
    • D. During pregnancy insulin requirement increasesand cannot be met with sulphonyl ureas
  229. 229. Condition associated with lack ofa single pelvic aia is:
    • A. Robert's pelvis
    • B. Naegele's peivis
    • C. Rachitic pelvis
    • D. Osteomaiacic peivis
  230. 230. Consequence of matemal use of cocaines
    • A. Hydrops
    • B. Sacral agenesis
    • C. Cerebrai infarction
    • D. Hypertrichosis
  231. 231. DNA analysis of chorionic villus / amniocentesis is notlikelv to detect:
    • A. Tay sachs disease
    • B. Hemoph:iiaA
    • C. Sickle cell disease
    • D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  232. 232. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk ofhaving a third one is:
    • A.0%
    • B. 10%
    • C. 20%
    • D. 50%
  233. 233. A neonate presents with jaundice and clay white stools
    • On liver biopsy giant cells are seen.Most likely diagnosis
    • A. Physiological jaundice
    • B. Neonatal hepatitis with extrabiliary atresia
    • C. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
    • D. Extrabiliary atresia
  234. 234. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratorydistress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is:
    • A.Tracheoesophageal fistula
    • B. Tetraiogy of fallo
    • C Respiratory distress syndrome
    • D. None of the above
  235. 235. Ramu, a 8 yr old boy presents with upper GI bleeding. Onexamination,he is foundto have splenomegaly;there areno signs of ascites, or hepatomegaly; esophageal varicesare found on UGIE.Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Budd chiari syndrome
    • B. Non cihotic portal fibrosis
    • C. Cirrhosis
    • D. Veno-occlusive disease
  236. 236. A 5 year old child suffering from nephrotic syndrome isresponding well to steroid therapy. What would be themost likely finding on light microscopy:
    • A. No finding
    • B. Basement membrane thickning
    • C. Hypercellular glomeruli
    • D. Fusion of foot processes.
  237. 237. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a maleinfant is:
    • A. Anterior urethral valves
    • B. Posterior urethral valves
    • C. Stone
    • D. Stricture
  238. 238. A 5 yr old child presents with a calculus oi size 2 cm. inthe upper ureter. He aiso complains of haemaruria. USGshows no further obstruction in the urinary tract. TT orchoice for this patient would be
    • A. Ureterolithotomy
    • B. Endoscopic removai
    • C. ESWL
    • D. Observation
  239. 239. A patient presents with LVH. and pulmonary complications. ECG, shows left axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis
    • A. TOF
    • D. Tricuspid atresia
    • C. TAPvC
    • D. VSD
  240. 240. Potts shunt is
    • A. Rt subclavian artery to rt pulmonary artery
    • B. Descending aorta to left pulmonary artery
    • C.Left subclavian to left pulmonary artery
    • D. Ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery
  241. 241. A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restlessirritability and diaphoresis on feeding, Cardiac auscultationreveals a nonspecific murmur.He is believed to be at riskfor M.I. Likely diagnosis here is
    • A. Asd
    • B. Vsd
    • C. Tof
    • D. Anomalous coronary artery
  242. 242. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral blood smeartarget cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcyticpicture and Hb of 6 gm%. He also has 'a positive familyhistory Next investigation of choice is
    • A. Hb electrophoresis
    • B. Coombs test
    • Liver function tests
    • D. Osmatic fragility test
  243. 243. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral blood smeartarget cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcyticpicture and Hb of 6 gm%He also has a positive familyhistory' Next investigarion of choice is
    • A. Hb electrophoresis
    • B. Coombs test
    • C. Liver function tests
    • D. Osmatic fragility test
  244. 244. Most common cause of meningitis in children between 6months to 2 years of age is
    • A. Pneumococcus
    • B. Staphylococcus
    • C. H influenza
    • D. E.coli
  245. 245. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis. lytic skulllesions, ear discharge and hepatosplenomegaly; likelydiagnosis
    • A. Leukemia
    • B. Lymphoma
    • C. HistiocytosisX
    • D. Multiple myeloma
  246. 246. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism
    • A. Short limbs compared to trunk
    • B.Proportionate shortening
    • C. Short limbs and short stature
    • D. Short limbs and long stature
  247. 247. Manifestations of endemic cretinism include
    • A. Deafness and facial nerve involvement
    • B. Blindness and hypothyroidism
    • C. Strabismus and spastic diplegia
    • D. Multinodular goitre and mental retardation
  248. 243. A 10 day old male pseudohermaphrodite chiid with 46 XYkaryotype presents with BP of 110/80 mmHg. Most likelyenzyme deficiency is
    • A. 21 hydroxylase
    • B. 17 hydroxylase
    • C 1 hydroxylase
    • D. 3-beta hydroxylase
  249. 249. Treatment of kawasaki disease in children is
    • A. Oral steroids
    • B. IV steroids
    • C. IV Ig
    • D. mycophenolate mefentil
  250. 250. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, is put on a ventilatorX-ray shows 'white out lung' and ABG reveals PO, of 75Ventilator settings are an, FiO, of 70, and rate of 50/minute. Next step to be taken should be ?
    • A. Increase rate to 60 per minute
    • B. Increase Fi02 to 80
    • C. Continue ventilation with the same settings
    • D. Weaning ventilator
  251. 251. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder,a ptdevelops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack ofsensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injure
    • A. Radial nerve
    • B. Musculocutaneous nerve
    • C. Axillary nerve
    • D. Ulnar nerve
  252. 252, Babloo a l 0 year old boy presents withof humerusXray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. Likelycondition is:
    • A Unicameral bone cyst
    • B. Osteosarcoma
    • C. Osteoclastoma
    • D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
  253. 253. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 yrs backhe now presents with valgus deform ity in the elbow andparesthesias over the medial border of the hand. Theinjury is likely to have been
    • A. Supraconavlara humerus
    • B. Lateral condyle humerus
    • C. Medial condyle#humerus
    • D. Postr dislocation of the humerus
  254. 254. A woman aged 60 yrs suffers a fail:her lower limb isextended and externally rotated; likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Neck of femur
    • B. Intertrochanteric femur #
    • C Postr dislocation of hip
    • D. Anterior disiocation of hip
  255. 255. Triple arthrodesis invoives:
    • A.Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
    • B.Tibiotaiar, calcaneocuboid and taionavicuiar
    • C.Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
    • D.None of the above
  256. 256. Babu a 19 yrs old male has a small circumscribedsclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur likely
    • agnosis is:
    • A. Osteoclastoma
    • B. Osteosarcoma
    • C. Ewings sarcoma
    • D. Osteoid osteoma
  257. 257. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is
    • A. Femur, upper end
    • B. Femur, Jower end
    • C. Tibia, upper
    • D. Tibia, lower end
  258. 258. Involvement of PIP jt, DIP jt and the carpo-mcpjt of baseof thumb with sparing the wrist is seen in
    • A• Rheumatold arthritis
    • B. Osteoarthritis
    • C. Psoriatic arthritis
    • D. Pseudogour
  259. 259. The pivot test is for
    • A. Anterior cruciate ligament
    • B. Posterior cruciate ligament
    • C. Medial meniscus
    • D. Lateral meniscus
  260. 260. A patient has a miotic pupi, IOP-25.normal anterior chamber, hazy comea and a shallow anterior chamber infellow eye. Diagnosis is
    • A. Acute anterior uveitis
    • B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
    • C. Acute open angle glaucoma
    • D. Senile cataract
  261. 261. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights inthe evening, with nausea and vomiting, rOP is normal:Diagnosis is
    • A. Incipient stage glaucoma open angle
    • B. Prodrornal stage, closed angle glaucoma
    • C. Migraine
    • D. Raised ICT
  262. 262. Babloo a 5 yrs old child presents with large coraea,lacrimation and photophobia:Diagnosis is
    • A. Megalocornea
    • B. Congenital glaucoma
    • C. Congenital cataract
    • D. Anterior uveitis
  263. 263. Ocular symptom not seen in Herpes zoster is:
    • A. Nummular keratitis
    • B. Glaucoma
    • C. Uveitis
    • D. Cranial nerve palsies
  264. 264. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in
    • A. Marfan's syndrome
    • B. Myaesthenia gravis
    • C Myotonic dystrophy
    • D. Kearns sayre syndrome
  265. 265. Eye is deviated laterally and downwards; patientis unable to look up or medially; likely nerve
    • involved is:
    • A. Trochiear
    • B. Trigeminal
    • C. Oculomotor
    • D. Abducert
  266. 266. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in leasion of
    • A.Right frontal lobe
    • B.Right occipetal lobe
    • C.Left occipetal lobe
    • D.Left frontal lobe
  267. 267. An elderly male with heart disease presents with suddenloss of vision in one eye; examination reveals cherry redspot; diagnosis is:
    • A. Central rerinal vein occlusion
    • B. Central retinal artery occlusion
    • C Amaurosis fugax
    • D. Acure ischemic optic neuritis
  268. 268. Which of following. is not a feature in diabeticretinopathy on fundus examination
    • A. Microaneurysms
    • B. Retinai hemorrhages
    • C. Arteriolar dilatation
    • D. Neovascuiarisation
  269. 269. Vitamin B 12 deficiency is likely to cause:
    • A. Bitemporal hemianopia
    • B. Binasal bemianopía
    • C. Heteronymous hemianopia
    • D Centrocecal scotoma
  270. 270. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
    • A. Decreased visual acuity
    • B. Decreased pupillary refiex
    • C. Abnormal clectro retin ogram
    • D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
  271. 271. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen inall except
    • A. syphilis
    • B. lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
    • C post papiledema optic neuritis
    • D. traumatic injury to the optic nerve
  272. 272. A 3 month old child presents with intermittent stridor.Most likely cause is
    • A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
    • B. Laryngomalacia
    • C. Respiratory oostruction
    • D. Foreign body aspiraton
  273. 273. A patient presents with facial nerve palsy followinghead trauma with fracture of the mastoid: best
    • tervention here is:
    • A. Immediate decompression
    • B. wait and watch
    • C. Facial sling
    • D. Steroids
  274. 274. A case of bells palsy on steroids shows no improvementafter 2 weeks; the next step in management should be
    • A. Vasodilators and ACTH
    • B. Physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
    • C. Increase steroid dosage
    • D. Electrophysiological nerve testing
  275. 275. Chandu a 15 year aged boy presents with unilateral nasalblockade, mass in the cheek and epistaxis: likelydiagnosis Is
    • A. Nasopharyngeal ca
    • B. Angiofibroma
    • C. Inverted papilloma
    • D. None of the above
  276. 276. A 40 year old diabetic presents with blackish nasaldischarge and a mass in the nose:likely diagnosis is
    • A. Mucormycosis
    • B. Actinomycosis
    • C. Rhinosporiodosis
    • D. Histopiasmosis
  277. 277. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is:
    • A. Supraglottic ca
    • B. Ca glottis
    • C. Ca nasopharynx
    • D. Subglottic ca
  278. 278. A man aged 30years presents with, alopecia, boggy scalpswelling and easily pluckable hair. Next step in establishing Diagnosis would be
    • A. KOH smear
    • B. Cuiture sensitivity
    • C. Biopsy
    • D. None of the above
  279. 279. Most common organism causing tinea capitis is
    • A. Trichophyton tonsurans
    • B. Microsporum
    • C. Eoidennophyton
    • D. Candida albicans
  280. 280. A young nan aged 19 years develops a painless penile ulcer 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professionalsex worker;likely diagnosis is
    • A. Chancroid
    • B. Herses
    • C. Chancre
    • D. Traumatic ulcer
  281. 281. An infant presents with itchy lesions over the groin andprepuce All of the following are indicated in this patient except
    • A. Bathe and apply scabicidal solution
    • B. Treatment should be extended to all family members
    • C.Dispose all clothes by burning
    • D.Start the patient on IV antibiotics
  282. 282. A boy aged 8 years from Tamil Nadu presents with awhite.non anesthetic.nonscaly,hypopigmented maculeon his face; likely diagnosis is
    • A. Pityriasis alba
    • B. Picyriasis versicolor
    • C. Indeterminate leprosy
    • D. Pure neuntic leprosy
  283. 283. A. 20 yrs old, male pt, from jaipur, presents with anerythematous lesion on the cheek with central
    • crusting:likely diagnosis is
    • A. SLE
    • B. Lupus vuigaris
    • C. Chilblains
    • D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
  284. 284. A 19year aged girl presents with light brown pigmentation over the malar eminences; likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Chloasma
    • B.SLE
    • C. Melasma
    • D. Melanoma
  285. 285. A girl, aged 19, presents with arthritis and a photosenstive rash on the cheek; Likely diagnosis is:
    • A. SLE
    • B. Chloasina
    • C. Steven johnsons syndrome
    • D. Lymes disease
  286. 286. All of the following agents can be given for induction ofanaesthesia in children except:
    • A. Halothane
    • B. Servodurane
    • C. Morphine
    • D. Nitrous oxide
  287. 287. Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal failure is
    • A. Methoxyflurane
    • B. Isoflurane
    • C. Enflurane
    • D. None of the above
  288. 288. A man with alcoholic liver faiiure requires general anesthesiafor surgery. Anaesthetic agent of choice is:
    • A. Ether
    • B. Halothane
    • C. Methoxyflurane
    • D. Isoflurane
  289. 289. All of the following are true except
    • A. Haiothane is good as an analgesic agen
    • B. Halothane sensitises the heart to action ofcatacholamines
    • C. Halothane relaxes brochi & is preterred in anaesthetics
    • D. Halothane may cause Liver cell necrosis
  290. 290. A neonate presents with respiratory distresscontralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filledlesions in the chest. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
    • B. Congenital lung cysts
    • C. Pneumonia
    • D. None of the above
  291. 291. Ground glass appearance is not seen in
    • A. Hyaline membrane disease
    • B. Pneumonia
    • C. Left to right shunt
    • D. Obstructive TAPVC
  292. 292. Drug that is radioprotective:
    • A. Paclitaxe
    • B. Vincristine
    • C. Amifostine
    • D. Etoposide
  293. 293. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is:
    • A. Ca kidney
    • B. Ca colon
    • C. Ca pancreas
    • D. Ca cervix
  294. 294. A pt with pneumonia for 5 days is admitted to thehospital. He suddenly ceases to recognize the doctorand staff, thinks that he is in jail and complains ofscorpions artacking him.He is in altered sensorium,thiscondition is:
    • A. Acute delirium
    • B. Acute dementia
    • C. Acute schizophrenia
    • D. Acute paranoia
  295. 295. A person missing from home, is found wandering purposefully. He is well groomed, and denies of having anyamnesia.Most likely diagnosis is:
    • A. Dissociative fugue
    • B. Dissociative amnesia
    • C. Schizophrenia
    • D. Dementia
  296. 296. Babu, a 40 years aged male complains of sudden unsetpalpitations and apprehension. ie is sweating for thelast 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis
    • A. Hysteria
    • B. Cystic fibrosis
    • C Panic attack
    • D. Generalized anxiety disorder
  297. 297. A lady, while driving a car meets with an accident. Sheadmitted in an ICU for 6 moths. After being dischargedshe often gets up in night and feels terrified She is afraidto sit in a car again. The diagnosis i
    • A.Panic disorder
    • B.Phobia
    • C.Conversion disorder
    • D.Post traumatic stress disorder
  298. 298. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism andrigidity. Diagnosis is
    • A. Catatonic schizophrenia
    • B. Paranoid schizophrenia
    • C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
    • D. Simple schizophrenia
  299. 299. Chandu, age 32 presents with abdominal pain andvomiting. He also complains of some psychiaric symptoms and visual hallucinations. Most likely diagnosis is
    • A. Intermittent, Porphyria
    • B. Hypothyroidism
    • C. Hyperthyroidisnm
    • D. Hysteria
  300. 300. Basanti 27 years aged , female thinks her nose is ugly;her idea is fixed and not shared by anyone elseWhenever she goes out of home, she hides her face witha cloth. She visits a Surgeon. Next step would be
    • A. Investigate and then operate
    • B. Refer to psychiatrist
    • C. Reassure the patient
    • D. Immediate operation.
Author
adarsha
ID
355845
Card Set
Mudit 2001
Description
mudit khanna 2001
Updated