-
1. Regarding the anatomical snuff box which of the followingis true
- (A) Abductor Pollicistosgus forms the posterior wall
- (B) Abductor pollicislongus and Extensor polilicisbrevis form the anterior wall
- (C) Basilus vein forms the roof
- (D) Floor is formed by Extensor carpi radialislongus andbrevis
-
2. Ape thumb deformity is seen in involveпent of
- (A) Median nerve
- (B) Ulnar nerve
- (C) Radial nerve
- (D) Axillary nerve
-
3. Trapezius is attached to all structures except
- (A) Firstrib
- (B) Clavicle
- (C) Scapula
- (D) Occiput
-
4. Trendelenberg sign is positive in paralysis of all except
- (A) Gluteus medius
- (B) Gluteus minimus
- (C) Gluteus maximus
- D) Tensor facialata
-
5. True regarding the hip joint is
- (A) Medial rotation and Abduction is caused byGluteus medius and Gluteus minimus
- B) Medial rotation and Adduction is caused byGluteus medius and Gluteus minimus
- (C) Lateral rotaters of thigh are supplied by femoral nerve
- (D) Hyperextension of Hip is prevented by capsular thickening
-
6. Anterior cruciate ligament prevents
- (A) Anterior dislocation of tibia
- (B) Posterior dislocation of tibia
- (C) Anterior dislocation of femur
- (D) Posterior dislocation of femur
-
7. True about upper end of tibia is all except:
- (A) Ossification centre at the upper end fuses by 20 years
- (B) It gives attachment to meniscal cartilage onintercondylar ridge
- C) It gives attachement to semi-membranosus
- D) Posterior aspect of patella articulates with upper endof tibia laterally
-
8. All are true about Thoracolumbar facia except
- (A) Attached to spinus process of lumbar vertebra
- (B) Attached to transverse process of lumbar verterbra
- (C The facia lies posterior to posterior abdominal wall
- D) Gives attachnent to Transverse abdominal andmuscles
- Internal oblique
-
9.All are component of Spermatic cord except:
- (A) Pauparts ligament
- B) Genito-femoral nerve
- (C) Vas deferens
- (D) Pampiniform plexus
-
10. True regarding common bile duct is all except:
- (A) Opens 10 cm distal to the pylorus
- (B) Lies anterior to I.V.c
- C) Portal veig lies posterior to it
- (D) Usualy opens into duodenum separate from themain pancreatic duct
-
11. All are component of urogenital 'diaphragm except
- (A) Left transverse pereniiprofundus
- (B) Right transverse pereniiprofundus
- (C) Sphincter Urethrae
- D) Transverse pereniisuperficialis
-
12. Craniai Nerve which emerges from dorsal surface orbrain
-
13. True statement about orbital articulation is
- (A) Medial wail of orbit is formed by maxilla, sphenoidethmoid and the lacrimal bone.
- (B) Floor is formed by maxilla, zygomatic and ethmoid
- (C) Lateral wall of orbit is formed by the frontal bonezygomatic bone, and greater wing of sphenoid.
- D) Inferior orbival fissure is formed between the medialwall and the floor of orbit.
-
14. The Haversian system is found in:
- (A) Diaphysis of long bones
- (B) Cancellous bone
- C) Epiphysis
- (D) Spongy bones of children
-
15. True about hyaline cartilage
- (A)Hyaline cartilage covers thearticular surface ofSynovial joints.
- (B) Hyaline cartilage is present in all synovial joints.
- (C) Articular carrilage may undergo ossification withaging.
- D) Articular cartilage limits the mobility ofthe joint.
-
16. Which is true about synovial joint
- (A) Stability is inversely proportional to mobility
- (B) Hyaline cartilage covers articular surface ofallsynovial joints
- C) Metacarpo-phalangeal joint is a hinge joint.
- D) Cartilage usually divides the joint into two cavities
-
17. True statement is
- (A) Osteoblasts gives rise to osteocytes.
- (B) Growth of bone occurs at diaphysis.
- (C) Epiphysis is present between metaphysis anddiaphysis
- (D) Interphalangeal joint is a saddle joint.
-
18. During Flight or Fight reaction, which of the followingsresponsible for increase in local blood flow
- (a) Sympathetic system mediated Cholinergic release
- (b) Local hormones
- (c) Para-sympathetic cholinergic
- d) Endocrine factors only
-
19. 'Flare' in Triple response is mediated by
- (a) Axon reflex
- (b) Arteriolar dilation
- (c) Histamine release
- (d) Local hormones
-
20. Surfactant is produced by
- (a) Type II pneumocytes
- (b) Type I pneumocytes
- (c) Macrophages
- (d) Endothelial cells
-
21. During exercise increase in 02 delivery to muscles isbecause of ail except
- (a) Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to left
- (b) Increased stroke volume
- (c) Increased extraction of oxygen from the blood
- (d) Increased blood flow to muscles
-
22. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right in all except:
- (a) Diabetic ketoacidosis
- (b) Blood transfusion
- (c) High altitude
- (d) Anaemia
-
23. True statement regarding Pulmonary ventilation is
- (a) Pao, is maximum at the apex.
- b) ViQ is maximum at the base
- (c) Ventilation per unit lung volume is maximum at theapex
- d) Blood circulation is minimum at the base
-
24. At the end of isometric relaxation phase
- (a) Atnoventricular valves open
- (b) Atrioventricular valves close
- (c) Corresponds to peak of "C" wave in JVP
- (d) Corresponds to T wave in ECG
-
25. Which of the following statements is true about capillaries
- (a)Contain 5% oftotal blood volume
- (b)Contain 10 % of total blood volume
- (c)Velocity of blood flow is maximum
- (d)Offer maximum resistance to blood flow
-
26. Fat in the duodenum lumen:
- (a)Stimulates gail bladder contraction
- (b)Inhibits gail bladder contraction
- (c)Inhibits CCK secretion
- (d)Releases Secretin. *.
-
27. The Principal site ofabsorption of Sodium is
- (a) Proximal convoluted tubule
- (b) Distal convoluted tubule
- (c) Loop of Henle (thick portion)
- (d) Collecting duct
-
28. The Principal site of acidification of urine is
- (a) Distal convoluted tubule
- (b) Proximal convoluted cubule
- (c) Loop of Henle
- (d) Collecting duct
-
29. Nightmare is seen in
- (a)REM sleep
- (b)Stage II NREM sleep
- (c)Stage IV NREM sleep
- (d)Stage INREM sleep
-
30. Salivation by dog seen when food is given along withringing of a bell is
- (a) Conditioned reflex
- (b) Innate reflex
- (c) Reinforcement
- (d) Habinuation
-
31. Concious proprioception is carried by
- (a) Dorsal column fibres
- (b) Anterior spinothalamic tract
- (c) Lateral spinothalamic tract
- (d) Vestibular tract
-
32. Function of Stapedius is:
- (a) Protects the ear from loud frequency sound
- (b) Helps in hearing sounds of low frequency
- (c) Helps in hearing sounds of high frequency
- (d) Helps in hearing whispered words
-
33. Regarding thyroid hormone all are true except:
- a) T, is more avidly bound to nuclear receptors than T
- b) T, has the maximum plasma concentration
- c) T, is more active than T
- (d) T, has shorter haif life than T
-
34. True about High roughage in diet is
- (a) Decreases stooi transit time
- (b) Increase stool tan sit time
- (c) Normalise stool transit
- (d) No effect on stool transit time
-
35. Most non polar Amino Acid is
- (a) Leucine
- b) Glycine
- (c) Arginin
- d) Lysine
-
36. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except
- (a) Hydroxyproline
- (b) Methionine
- (c) Cystine
- (d) Lysine
-
37. The Similarity between Vit C&VitKis:
- a) Both help in conversion of proline to hydroxylproline
- b) Both help in post-transiational modification
- (c) Both have anti infectiveactiviry
- (d) Both are involved in coagulation cascade
-
38. The primary defect in Xerodermapigmentosa is
- (a) Formation of thymidine dimers
- b) Poly ADP ribose polymerase is defective
- (c) Exonuclease is defective
- (d) Formation of adenine dimers
-
39. Null mutation is:
- (a) Mutation occuring in Non Coding region.
- (b) Mutation that does not change the amino acid orend produc
- (c) Mutation that codes for a change in progenywithout any chromosomal change
- (d) Mutation that leads to no unctional gene product
-
40. The hormone using an enzyme receptor for its action
- (a) Insulin
- (b) Steroid
- (c) Oestrogen
- (d) Thyroxine
-
41. Inchymotrypsine molecule, if serine 195 is substirutedfor alanine then:
- (a) Chymotrypsin will not bind to substrate but willcleave the substrate
- (b)Chymotrypsin will bind but will not cleave
- (c)Chymotrypsin will neither bind to substrate nor cleave
- (d)Chymorypsin will bind and cleave both
-
42. Pyruvate can be converted directly into all the followingexcept
- (a) Phosphoenol pyruvate
- (b) Alanine
- (c) Acetyl CoA
- (d) Lactate
-
43. The rate-limiting enzyme in Glycolysis is:
- (a) Phosphofructokinase
- b) Glucose-6-dehydrogenase
- (c) Glucokinase
- (d) Pyruvate kinase
-
44. All are actions of insulin except
- (a) Gluconeogenesis
- (b). Glycalysis.
- (c) Glycogenesis
- (d) Lipogenesis
-
45. Insulin does not facilitate glucose uptake in the followingexcept
- (a) Liver
- (b) Heart
- (c) RBC
- (d) Kidney
-
46. Which helps in the transport of chylomicrons fromintestine to liver
- (a) Apaprotein B
- (b) Apoprotein A
- (c) Apoprotein C
- (d) Apoprotein E
-
47. Mechanism or action of Nitric oxide is through
- (a) cGMP
- (b) CAMP
- (c) Cat+
- (d) Tyrosine
-
48. DNA fragments formed by the action of RestrictionEndonucleases, are separated by
- (a) Gel electrophoresis
- (b) Agarose gel eletrophoresis
- (c) Paper Chromatography
- (d) High pressure liquid chromatography
-
49. Regarding a crystal, the true statement is:
- A) Molecules are arranged in same orientation withdifferent confirmation
- B) Molecules are arranged in different oreintation withdifferent confirmation
- C) Molecules are arranged in same orientation andsame conbrmation
- D) Molecules are arranged in different oreintation butwith same confirmation
-
50. Regarding Newtonian force, true is
- (a) Viscocity is directly proportional to velocity
- (b) Viscosity is inversly proportional to velocity
- (c) Viscosity is equal to the velocity
- (d) There is no relation between the two
-
51. All are pharmacogenetic conditions, except
- (A) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
- (B) Malignant hyper-pyrexia
- (C) Coumarin insensitivity
- (D) G6PD deficiency
-
52. Which of the following is true?
- (A) As the concentration of a drug increases over thetherapeutic range, the bound form of the drug increase
- (B) The bound form is not available for metabolizm butis available for excretion
- (C) Acidic drug binds to albumin; and basic drugbinds zeta globulin
- D) Binding sites are non-specific and one drug candisplace the other
-
53. True about teratogenecity of a drug is all except:
- (A) It is geneticaily predetermined
- (B) Environmentinfluences it
- (C) Related to the dose of the teratogenic drug
- D) Affects specifically at a particular phase ofdevelopment of fetus
-
54. β blocker with peripheral vasodilator action is
- (A) Carvedilol
- (B) Propranolol
- (C) Atenolal
- (D) Acebutalol
-
55. Diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis is by using:
- (A) Edrophonium
- (B) Neostigmine
- (C) Succinylcholine (SCh)
- (D) Atropine
-
56. Coronory steal phenomenon is caused by
- (A) Dipyridamole(B) Diltiazem
- (C) Propanolol (D) Verapamil
-
57. The Nitrate which does not undergo first pass metabolism
- (A) Isosorbidemononitrate
- (B) Nitroglycerine
- C)Pentaerythritoltetranitrate
- (D) Isosorbidedinitrate
-
58. Enalapril is contraindicated in all of the following except:
- A) Diabetic nephropathy with albumunuria
- B) Single kidney (C) Bilateral renal artery stenosis
- (D) Hyperkaiamia
-
59. A 6 yrold child presents with malignanthypertension TheDrug of choice is
- (A) Na Nitroprusside
- (B) Sublingual Nifedipine
- (C) Frusemide
- (D) Enalapril
-
60. Which of the following is not given in a patient withpheochromocytoma
- (A) Atenolol
- B)Prazosin
- C)Nitroprusside
- (D) Metyrosine
-
61. Drug causing Hirsuiism and Gyriaecomastia
- (A) Spironolactone
- (B) Rifampicin
- (C) Penicillin
- (D) Bumetanide
-
62. Spironolactone is contraindicared with of the following
- (A) Enalapri
- (B) Ateneloi
- (C) Verapami
- D) None of the above
-
63. Which one of the following drug causes increasedoncentration of Nat &Cl- in urine with normal
- bicarbonate
- (A) Ethacrynic acid
- (B) Frusemide
- (C) Acetazolamide
- (D) Bumetanide
-
64. A patient is taking 40 mg Famotidine OD, Sucralfateand Antacid tablets TDS, This treatment is irrational,because of
- (A) Sucraifate decreases the absorption of famotidine
- (B) Sucralfate increases the toxicity of famotidine
- (C) Suralfate decreases absorption of antacids
- (D) Suralfactepolymerises only when gastric pH is lessthan 4
-
65. A patient has Hepatic Encephalopathy. The drug used forgut sterilization in this patient is
- (A) Neomycin
- (B) Netilmycin
- (C) Bleomycin
- (D) None of the above
-
66. A patient taking Ketoconazole &Terfenadine both, is prone
- (A) Cardiac arrhythmia
- (B) Toxicity of ketoconazole
- (C) Congestive cardiac failure
- (D) All of the above
-
67. Drug of choice for Epilepsy in pregnancy is
- (A) Carbamazepine
- (B) Sodium valproate
- C) Phenobarbitone
- (D) Phenytoin
-
68. A patient of parkinsonism is managed with L-dopa If Vit.B-complex is administered concurrently
- (A) The action of L-dopa in brain will be potentiated
- (B) Decarboxylation of L-dopa in brain will be decreased
- (C) Side effects will be ameliorated
- (D) Decreased efficacy waltrkuit
-
69. The treatment of contacts of meningococcal meningitis is
- (A) Rifampicin
- (B) Erythromycin
- (C) Penicillin
- (D) Cephalosporins
-
70. Drug of choice for Malaria during pregnancy is:
- (A) Chloroquine
- (B) Qunine
- (C) Primaquine
- (D) Mepaquine
-
71. Which of the following is not an anti-pseudomonal agent?
- (A) Vancomycin
- (B) Ticarcilin
- (C) Ceftazidime
- D) Tobramycin
-
72. Which anti HIV drug does not cause peripheral neuropathy
- (A) Lamivudine
- (B) Stavudine
- (C) Didanosine
- (D) Zalcitabine
-
73. A 35 year old patient has Ca lung, with a past history oflung disease. Which drug should not be given
- (A) Bleomycin
- (B) Vinblastin
- (C) Mithramycin
- (D) Adriamycin
-
74. Mesna is given with cyclophosphamide to
- (A) Increase absorption
- (B) Decrease excretion
- (C) Amolieratehaemorrhagic cystitis
- (D) Decrease metabolism
-
PATHOLOGY
- 75. Irreversible cell injury is indicated by
- (a) Accumulation of calcium in mitochondria
- (b) Myelin figures
- (c) ATP depletion
- (d) Shifting of ribosomes
-
76. Wound contraction is mediated by:
- (a) Myofibroblasts
- (b) Epithelial cells
- (c) Collagen
- (d) Elastin
-
77. Gene inhibiting apoptosis is
- (a) bcl2
- (b) p53
- (c) ras
- (d) n-myc
-
78. The marker for B lymphocyte is
- (a) CD 19
- (b) CD68
- (C) CD 34
- (d) CD4
-
79. True statements are ail except:
- a) Chromosome 6 haroours the gene for MHC
- b) Genes encoding compliments are located adjacentto class-I molecules
- c) Monocytes have MHC class II antigens on theirsurfaces
- (d) Class III MHC does not encode complement
-
80. All increase the chances ef Deep Vein Thrombosis except:
- (a) Oral contraceptaive pills
- (b) Hypertension
- (c) Superficial thrombophlebitis
- (d) Myocardial In faction
-
81. Firm warty vegetarionsalong the line of closure of valvesis due to:
- (a) Rheumatic beart disease
- (b) Libman Sacks Endocarditis
- (c) NETE
- (d) Infective Endocardits
-
82. Flat vegetations in pockets of valves are due to
- (a) Rheumatic heart disease
- (b) Libman sacks Endocarditis
- (c) NBTE
- (d) Infective endocarditis
-
83. True about Minimal change disease is
- (a)Appears normal under light microscopy butelectron microscope shows loss of foot processes.
- (b) Mesangial deposits
- (c) Tram Track appearance
- (d) Gross haematuria
-
84. Increased IgA deposits are seen in
- (a) HenochSchonleinPurpura
- b) Minimal Change Glomemlonephritis
- (c) Chronic Pyelonephritis
- (d) Haemolyic Uremic Syndrome
-
85. Wire loop lesions are seen in:
- (a) SLE
- (b) Diabetic nephropathy
- (c) Wegner's granulonatosis
- (d) Polyarteritisnodosa
-
86A Organisedglomemler deposits in kidney is present in allexcept:
- (a) Amyloidosis
- (b) Diabetes millitus
- (c) IgA nephropathy : .
- (d) Cryoglobulinemia
- 86. Proliferative giomerular deposits in kidney are found in
- (a) Amyloidosis
- (b) Diabetes millitus
- (c) IgA nephropathy
- (d) Membranous giomerulonephritis
-
87. Which is not pre-malignant at the same site
- (a) Bronchiestasis
- (b) Cholelethiasis
- (c) Ulcerative colitis
- d) Leukopiakia
-
88. In PAN, cysts are seen in all except
- (a) Lung
- (b) Pancreas
- (c) Liver
- (d) Heart
-
89. Which is not seen in Iron deficiency anaemia:
- (a) Hyper-segmented neutrophil
- (b) Microcytosispreceedshypochromia
- (c) MCHC 250%
- (d) Commonest cause of anaemia in India
-
MICROBIOLOGY
- 90. L -2 is produced by
- (a) T cells
- (b) B cells
- (c) Monocytes
- (d) Neutrophils
-
91. In a patient of orbital cellulitis, micro-organism on cultureshow greenish colonies and optochin sensitivity. The most likely organism is
- (a) Strep. viridans
- (b) Staphylococcus
- (c) Pseudomonos
- d) Pneumococcus
-
92. True regarding pseudomembranous colitis are all except:
- (A) It is caused by clostridium difficile
- (B) The organism is a normal commensal of gut
- (C) It is due to production of phospholipase A
- (D) it is treated by vancomycin
-
93. E.coli gets attached to a surface with the help otf
- (A) Fucose
- (B) Concavatin
- (C) Phytohaemagglutinin
- (D) Lactin
-
94. Chlamydia does not cause
- (A) Q. fever
- (B) Non gonococcal urethritis
- (C) Trachoma
- (D) Salpingitis. »
-
95. Which is true about arboviral diseases
- (A) Yellow fever is endemic in India
- (B) Dengue virus have only one serotype
- C) KFD is transmitted by ticks
- (D) Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by Aedes
-
96. Rotavirus infection is diagnosed by the presence of
- (A) Antigen in stool by ELISA
- (B) Virus in stool
- (C) Antigen in blood
- (D) Antibody in sto0
-
97. A patient with Sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnel test.The causative organism is
- A) EBV
- (B) Herpes virus
- (C) Adeno virus
- D) Cytomegalovinis
-
98. A patient presents with diarrhoea. Analysis of stool onwet mount shows mobile protozoa withour RBCs and puscells. The Diagnosis is
- (A) Balantidium coli
- B) Giardiasis
- (C) Trichomonashominis
- (D) Entamoebahistolytica
-
99. Latex agglutination study of the antigen in CSF helps inthe diagnosis of
- (A) Cryptococcus
- (B) Candidiasis
- (C) Aspergillosis
- (D) Histoplasmosis
-
100. A company executive, who travels world wide, presentswith upper abdominal mass and +vecasoni's test. Theorganism 1s
- (A) Echinococcus
- (B) Entamoebahistolytica
- (C) Heparitis
- (D) Ascariasis
-
101. Pulomonary eosinophilia is seen in the following parasiticinfections except
- (A) Babesiosis
- (B) Hook worm infection
- C) Strongyloidiasis
- (D) Visceral larva migrans
-
102. A child from Bihar comes with fever. Blood examinationshows sheathed microfilaria with nuclei upto tail tip. Thediagnosis is
- (A) B. malayi
- (B) W. bancrofti
- C) Loa loa
- (D) Oncocercavolvulous
-
103. Autoinfection is a mode of transmission in:
- (A) Trichinella
- (B) Cycticercosis
- (C) Ancylostoma
- (D) Ascaris
-
104. Pigs are reservoir for
- (A) T. Solium
- (B) T. Saginata
- (C) Trichinellaspiralis
- (D) Ancyclostoma
-
105 Majorty of finger prints in Indians are
- (A) Loop
- B)Whori
- (C) Arch
- (D) Composite
-
106. Correct order of putrefaction:
- (A) Brain, Heart, Uterus
- (B) Brain, Uterus, Heart
- C) Uterus, Heart, Brain
- (D) Brain, Uterus, Heart
-
107. Putrefaction is delayed in poisoning due to
- (A) Carbolic acid
- (B) Organophosphorus
- (C) Lead
- (D) Nux vomica
-
108. All are tests done on blood except:
- (A) Acid phosphatase test
- (B) Benzidine test
- (C) Hemochromogen test
- (D) Teichmann's test
-
109. A 24 year old man gets married with 14 year old femaleHaving sex with her will be considered rape because
- (A) No consent taken from wife
- (B) Wife age 14 year
- (C) Wife age < 15 year
- (D) Wife age < 17 year
-
110. A 22 year old lady died. The postmortum appearancethat will indicate that she has had delivered a child areall. except
- (A) Walls ofuterus are convex from inside
- (B) Cervix is irregular and external os is patulous
- (C) Body of uterus is twice the length of cervix
- (D) Uterus is buiky, large and heavy than nullipara.
-
111. Best indicator of antemortum drowning is
- (A) Froth in mouth and nostrils
- (B) Cutis anserina
- (C) Washerman's hand
- (D) Water in nose
-
112. Pugilistic attitude is due to:
- (A) Coagulation of proteins of muscle
- (B) Loss of sodium from muscles
- (C) Loss of water from muscles
- (D) Loss of potassium from muscles
-
113 All are features of lead poisoning, except
- (A) Diarrhoea
- (B) Abdominalpain
- (C) Encephalopathy
- (D) Nephropathy
-
114. An addicted patient presenting with viusal and tactilehailucinations, has black staining of tongue and teeth.The agent is
- (A) Coccaine
- (B) Cannabis
- (C) Heroin
- D) Opiunm
-
115. A farmer was brought to the casuality with restlessness& agitation. Examination shows temp. 1030F , flushed faces pupils dilated and fixed. The diagnosis is
- (A) Dhatura poisoning
- B)Organophosphorus poisoning
- (C) Diazepam poisoning
- (D) Opium poisoning
-
116. Pond's fracture is most common in:
- (A) Children
- (B) Elderiy
- (C) Adolescent
- (D) Middle aged women
-
117. Physical Quality of life Index (PQLI) includes all excepr
- (A) Gross Doemestic Product
- (B) Literacy rate
- (C) Infant mortality rate
- D) Life expectancy at age 1 year
-
118. Primary prevention does not include:
- (A) Early diagnosis and treatment
- (B) Health promotion
- C) Specific protection
- (D) Health education
-
119. Primordial prevention is done in population
- (A) With risk factors
- (B) Without risk factors
- (C) Whole population with low prevalance of disease
- (D) Population with disease
-
120. Gap berween a Primary and a Secondary case is
- (A) Serial interval
- (B) Generation time
- (C) Incubation period
- (D) Sccondary attack rate
-
121. In Culex mosquito the type ofbiological transmission for filarial parasite is
- (A) Cyclo-developmental
- (B) Cyclo-propagarive
- (C) Propagarive
- (D) Cyclical
-
122. All are true regarding Point-source Epidemic except
- (A) All cases occur abruptly and simultaneously
- (B) Children are most commonlyaffected
- (C) Occurs within a specified period
- (D) No secondary waves
-
123. False regarding a Propagated epidemic is
- (A) No secondary waves
- (B) Spread depends on herd immunity
- C) Person to person transmission oceurs
- D) Slow rise
-
124. Prevalence of all clinical cases of polio can be estimated by multiplying the no.ofresidual paralytic cases by
- (A) 133
- (B) 125
- (C) 3.00
- (D) 199
-
125. Reverse Cold Chain is used for
- (A) Carrying stool samples ofpolio patients from a PHCto the lab
- B) Transporting outdated vaccines from PHC todistrict hospital
- (C) Transporting vaccines to lab. to check its potency
- (D) Transporting vaccine form camps co sub-centre
-
126. Commonest complication ofMumps is
- (A) Orchitis&Oopheritis
- B) Encephalitis
- C) Preumonia
- (D) Myocarditis
-
127. Vector control for Yellow fever around an airport is doneupto a distance of
- (A) 400m
- B) 200m
- C) 500m
- (D) 100m
-
128. The best measure of incidence of T.B. in a community is:
- (A) Tuberculin conversion index
- (B) Mantouxpostitivity
- (C) Sputum positivity
- (D) Prevalence of tuberculosis
-
129. Tuberculin test denotes:
- A) Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle proteins
- (B) Parient is resistant to tubercuiosis
- (C Person is suscegible to tuberculosis
- (D) Protective immune status of individual againsttuberculosis
-
130. Regarding Rabies, true is
- (A) ncubation period depends on the site of bite.
- B) Diagnosis is by eosinphilicintranuclear inclusion bodies
- C It is a DNA virus
- D) Caused only by dogs.
-
131. Definition of Blindness by WHO includes:
- (A) Visualacuity 3/60
- (B) Visual acuity <6/60
- C) Visual acuity <4/60
- (D) visual acuity <5160
-
132. All are true regarding direct standardization except:
- A) Age soecific death rate is required for comparison
- B) Age composition of population is required
- (C) Vital statistics are required
- (D) Without knowledge of the age compositions, the two populations can be compared
-
133. Specificity of a test means, all except
- (A) Identifies those without disease
- B) True positive
- (C) True negative
- (D) Anideal screeningtest should have 100% specificity
-
134. All are rue regarding Normal Standard Distribution Curve,except
- (A) One standard deviation including 95% of the values
- B) Median is the mid value
- (C) Mode is the commonest recurring value.
- (D) Mean, median and mode coincide
-
135. Ail are true regarding Students t-test, except
- (A) Standard Error of Mean is not estimated
- B) Standard population is selected
- (C) Two samples are compared
- D) Student's t-test map is required for calcularion
-
136. A Health Guide works at:
- (A) Each village level
- (B) Sub-centre level
- (C) PHC level
- D) Community level
-
137. Village Health Guide measures the state of malnutrition in an under-5 child by using
- A) Mid arm circumference
- (B) Weight for age
- (C) Skin fold thickness
- (D) Height for age
-
138. Primary Health Care includes all, except:
- (A) Treatment is done by a doctor
- (B) Equitable distribution
- (C) Intersectoral coordination
- (D) Appropriate technology
-
139. Community Diagnosis is based on all the foilowing except
- (A) Health care delivery
- (B) Age & sex distribution
- (C) Vital statistics
- (D) Incidence and Prevalance
-
140. False regarding Health For All by 2000 A.D. is
- A) All people will be healthy by 2000AD
- B) All people are accessible to health care services
- (C) All will have socially and economically productivelife
- D) Equal health status for people and countries
-
141. All are TRUE regarding Net Protein Utilization, except:
- (A) It is the increase in weight per unit weight orprotein consumed
- B) NPU of cow milk is81%
- C) NPU of average Indian foods is 50-80%
- D) IfNPU is low, more protein is required
-
142. True about Pasteurization of milk is all excep:
- (A) Does not kill thermoduric bacteria
- (B) Does not kill spores
- (C) Cause > 95% decrease in bacterial count
- (D) Kills tubercle bacillus
-
143.Food Poisoning within 6 hours of intake of milk is caused
- (A) Stapylococcusaureus
- (B) Bacillus cereus
- (C) Clostridium
- (D) Salmonella
-
144. Universal precaution is applied to
- (A) Stool
- (B) Sputum
- (C) Semen
- (D) Urine
-
145. ESI act is not applicable for
- (A) Educational institutions
- (B) Power working factory empioying 10 people or more
- (C) Non power working factory employing 20 people ormore
- D) Newspaper establishments
-
146. The Behavioural Science used extensively in PSM is
- (A) Anthropology
- (B) Economics
- (C) Politics
- (D) Law
-
147. Which of the following is Autosomal Dominant
- (A) Retinoblastoma
- (B) Ataxia telangectasia
- (C) Bloom's syndromê
- (D) Xerodermapigmentosa
-
148. All the following diseases are associated with HILA B-27& Uveitis, except
- (A) Bechcer's syndrome
- (B) Psoriasis
- C) Ankylosing Spondylitis
- (D) Reiters syndrome
-
149. A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat,diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The bestinvestigation to rule out HIV is
- (A) P24 antigen assay
- (B) ELISA
- (C) Western biot
- (D) Lymph node biopsy
-
150. Reserve trancriptase sequence in HIV is best described as
- (A) RNA-DNA-RNA
- (B) DNA-RNA
- (C) DNA-RNA-DNA
- (D) RNA-DNA
-
151. Multifocaltumour of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS
- (A) Kaposi sarcome
- (B) Asırocytoma
- (C) Gastric carcinoma
- (D) Primary CNS lymphoma
-
152. A patient with HIV has diarrhoea with AFB +ve organismin stool. The most likely organism is
- (A) Mycobacterium aviuminuracellulare
- (B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- (C) Mycobacterium leprae
- (D) Mycoplasmas
-
153. Devi, a 28 year female, has diarrohea, confusion. highgrade fever with bilateral pneumonitis. The diagnosis is
- A) Legionella
- (B) Neisseria meningitidis
- C) Streptoccocospneumoniae
- D) H. influenzae
-
154. Hepatitis C virus is associated with:
- (A) Anti LKM-1 antibody
- (B) Scleroderma
- C)Cryoglobulinemia
- (D) Polyarteritisnodosa
-
155. Chronic liver disease is caused by
- (A) Hepatitis B
- (B) Hepatitis A
- (C) Hepatitis C
- (D) Hepatitis E
-
156. Non-parenteral hepatitis is:
- (A) Heparins B
- (B) Hep B
- (C) Hep C
- (D) Hep D
-
157. Reserve transcriptase of hepatitis B virus is coded on thefollowing gene
- (A) C gene
- (B) S gene
- O P gene
- (D) X gene
-
158. A blood donor is not considered for safe transfusion, if he
- (A) Anti HBs Ab +ve
- (B) Anti HBs Ab and HBc Ag +ve
- (C) HbsAg+ve, &IgM anti HBc +ve
- (D) Anti HBe +ve
-
159. During an epidemic of hepatitis E, Fatality is maximum in
- (A) Pregnant womern
- (B) Intanrs
- (C) Malnourished malae
- (D) Adolescents
-
160. Arsenic causes
- (A) Basal cell carcinoma
- (B) Malignant melanoma
- (C) Mesotheliorma
- (D) Sezeary Syndrome
-
161. Arsenic causes:
- (A) Portal hypertension
- (B) Cirrhosis
- (C) Exua hepatic portal vein obstruction
- (D) Hepatic carcinoma
-
162. Increased B, level is seen in all, except
- (A) Cirrhosis
- (B) Primary heparocellularCa
- (C) Hepatitis
- (D) Cholestatic jaundice
-
163. 38 year old man Babbu, a chronic alcoholic. presents withpain in abdomen. On examination his liver is enlarged andserum a fetoprotein is elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
- (A) Hepatocellular parcinoma
- B) Liver cell hyperplasia
- (C) Hepatic adenoma
- (D) Hepatitis
-
164. Cause of acute loss of vision in a patient of alcoholicpancreatitis is:
- (A) Purstchner's Retinopathy
- (B) Sudden AlcohoiWithdrawi
- (C) Acute Congestive Glaucoma
- (D) Central Retinal Artery Obstruction (CRAO)
-
165. All the following can cause GIT cancers except
- (A) Hepatitis B virus
- (B) EBV
- (C) HIV
- (D) H. pylori
-
166. Hypoglycemic unawareness that occurs in diabeticpatients when transfered from oral hypoglycemics toinsulin, is due to
- (A) Autonomic neuropathy
- (B) Insulin resistance
- (C) Lipodystrophy
- (D) Somogi phenomenon
-
167. Choose the best Lab value for a patient with central diabetes insipidus
- Urinary Osmolalin&Serum Osmzolalin
- A) 50 300
- B) 500 260
- C) 50 260
- D) 500 100
-
168. Inappropriate ADH secretion is characterised by thefollowing except
- (A) Hypo-osmolar urine
- (B) Water intoxicaion
- (C) Expanded fluid volume
- (D) Hypomagnesemia
-
169. Thymoma is associated with
- (A) Myasthenia gravis
- (B) Scleroderma
- (C) Oesophagealatrasia
- (D) Hyper-gammaglobulinemia
-
170. The Lab investigation of patient shows .T3, LT4. &TSH. It cannot be:
- (A) Primary hypothyrodism
- (B) Pan-hypopinitarism
- C) Liver disease
- (D) None of the above
-
171. Asymptomatic hyper-calcemia in a 30 year old young maleis due to
- (A) Occuit primary malignancy
- (B) Primary Hyperparathyroidism
- C) Familial hypocalciuria
- D) Hyper-nephroma
-
172. Ail cause ascending motor paralysis except
- (A) Diabetes mellitus
- B) Diphtheria
- (C) GuillienBarre syndrome
- D) Porphyria
-
173. Subdural empyema is most commonly caused by
- (A) H influenza
- B)Staphylococusaureus
- (C) Streprococcuspenumoniae
- (D) E.Coli
-
174. Pure motor paralysis is seen in
- (A) Polio
- (B) GullienBarre syndrome
- (C) Diabetes mellitus
- (D) Sub-Acute Combined Degeneration
-
175. A patient presents with a cavitatory lesion in right upperlobe of Lung. The best investigation is
- (A) Branchoscopy, lavage and brushing.
- (B) C.T. scan
- (C) X ray
- (D) FNAC
-
176. A patient presents with secondaries to the adrenals.
- The most common site of primary is:
- (A) Lung
- (B) Kidney
- (C) Breast
- (D) Stomach
-
177. A drug is to be delivered by a nebuliser. The size of adroplet for its humidification is
- (B) 5-10 μ
- (C) 10-15 u
- (D), 15-20 μ
-
178. Coomb's +ve Hemolytic Anaemia is seen in except
- (A) Alcoholic cirrhosis
- (B) Chronic active hepatitis
- (C) Primary biliary cirrhosis
- (D) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
-
179. All are true regarding Anaemia of Chronic Diseases. except
- (A) Decreased serum Fe
- (B) Decreased Ferritin
- C) Decreased Total Fe Binding Capacity
- D) Increased Bone Marrow Fe
-
180. All are true of HenochScholein'spurpura, except
- (A) Thrombocytopenia
- (B) Abdominal pain
- C) Arthritis
- D) GI bleed
-
181. All are true regarding Hodgkin's lymphoma, except
- (A) CNS is the commonest site of involvement
- (B) Characteristic cell is a Reed Sternberg cel
- (C) Mediastinal involvement is common in nodular-sclerosis type
- (D) Eosinophils, plasma cells and neutrophils increase
-
182. Intermediate grade ofNHL are all except
- (A). Diffuse small cell cleaved
- (B) Diffuse large cell
- C) Mycosis fungoides
- (D) Diffuse mixed
-
183. All are true about Hyperrophic ObstructiveCardiommyopathy, except
- (A) 3 agonists are useful
- (B) Asymmetricai hypertrophy of septum
- (C) Dynamic L. V. outflow obstrucnon
- (D) Double apical impulse
-
184. Which is most likely to be increased in Vit K deficiency:
- (A) PTT
- (B) PT
- (C) Platelet count
- (D) Fibrinogen time
-
185. All are true of Nephrotic syndrome, except
- (A) RBC casts in urine
- (B) Hypo-proteinemia
- (C) Oedema
- (D) Hyperlipidenia
-
186. An 8 yrs old boy presents to casualty with history ofdiarrhoea, followed by decreased urine output. Bloodexamination shows thrombocytes 90,000/cmDiagnosis is
- (A) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
- (B) Disseminated Intravasculer Coagulation
- (C) Hemophilia
- D) Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
-
187. True about Post-Streptocoeeal Glomerulonephritis is
- (A) 50% of cases occur after pharyngitis
- (B) Early treatment of Pharyngitis eleminates the risk ofPS.GN
- (C) Glomerulonephrinis, secondary to skin infection, ismore common in summer
- (D) Recurrence is seen
-
188. Salt losing nephritis is a feature of
- (A) Interstitial nephritis
- (B) Renal Amyloidosis
- (C) Lupus nephritis
- (D) Post StreptococcolGlomerulonebhritis
-
189. All are causes of Osteoporosis, except
- (A) Thyrotoxicosis
- (B) Hypothyroidism
- (C) Chronic heparin therapy
- (D) Old age
-
190. Erosive arthritis is seen in all, except:
- (A) SLE
- (B) Gout
- (C) Osteoarthritis
- (D) Old age
-
191. A 35 year old male patient develops involvementofproximal and distal interphalangeal joints and 1stcanpometacarpal joints with sparing of wrist andmetacarophalangeal joint. The Diagnosis is
- (A) Osteoarthritis
- (B) Psoriatic arthropathy
- (C) Rheumatoid arthritis
- (D) Pseudogout
-
192 A 45 year old nan, known case of chronic renal failuredevelops rugger jersy spine. The probable cause it:
- A) Aluminium intoxication
- B) Secondary hyperparathyroidism
- (C) Osteoporosis
- D) Osteomalacía
-
193. False +ve VDRL is seen in
- (A) Lepromatous Leprosy
- (B) Infectious mononucleosis
- (C) HIV
- (D) Pregnancy
-
194. All are true about FTA-ABS in Syphilis, except
- (A) FTA-ABS becomes negative after treatment
- (B) Present in secondary syphilis
- (C) It is a specific test
- (D) May be positive in Lyme's disease
-
SURGERY
- 195. A patient on total parenteral nutrition for 20 days presentswith weakness, vertigo and convulsions. Diagnosis is
- (A) Hypomagnesemia
- (B) Hyperammonemia
- (C) Hypercalcemia
- D) Hyperklalemia
-
196. Structures preserved in Radicai Neck Dissection is
- (A) Vagus nerve
- (B) Submandibular gland
- C) Sternocleidomastoid
- (D) Internal Jugular Vein
-
197. Allare true about skin grafting, except
- A) Partial thickness graft involves epidermis and partof dermis
- (B) Full thickness graft includes epidermis, dermis, without subcutaneous tissue.
- C) For large areas full thickness graft is used.
- (D)Full thickness graft has cosmetic value
-
198. An elective surgery is to be done in a patient takingheavy doses of Aspirin. Management consists of
- (A) Proceed with surgery
- (B). Stopping aspigin for 7 days and then do surgery
- (C) Preoperative platelet transfusion
- (D) Intra operative Platelet transfusion
-
199. Post operative Pulmonary Thromboembolism is seen inall, except
- (A) Tall and thin man
- (B) Obese male
- (C) Pregnant female
- (D) Oestrogen therapy
-
200. A 25 year male presents with ophthalmologic signs ofThyrotoxicosis. All are possibilities, except
- (A) Diffused Thyroid goitre
- (B) Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
- (C) Riedel's Thyroditis
- (D) Adenomatous Goire
-
201 Cardiovaseular findings in an elderly Thyrotoxicosispatient are all, except
- (A) Early diastolic murmer
- (B) Systolic ejection murmur
- (C) Scratch in left 2nd inter costal space
- (D) Lrregularly Irregular pulse
-
202. A Post-Thyroidectomy patient develops signs andsymptoms of Tetany. The management is
- (A) IN. Calcium gluconate
- (B) Bicarbonate
- (C) Calcitonin
- (D) Vitamin D
-
203. Most common cause of Thyroiditis is:
- (A) Reidl's Thyroiditis
- (B) SubacuteThyroditis
- (C) Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
- (D) Viral thyroiditis
-
204. All are true regarding Early Post-cibal syndrome, except
- (A) Distension of abdomen
- (B) Managed conservatively
- (C) Hypernotility of intestine is common
- (D) Surgery is usually indicated
-
205. Massive bleeding per rectum in a 70 yr old patient is due
- (A) Diverticulosis
- (B) Carcinoma colon
- (C) Colitis
- (D) Polyps
-
206. A 42 year old company executive presents with suddenupper GI bleed (5 litres)of bright red blood, with nosignificant previous history. The diagnosis is:
- (A) Oesophagealvarices
- (B) Duodenal ulcer
- (C) Gastritis
- (D) Gastric erosion
-
207. Massive colonic bleeding in a patient with Diverticulosis is from
- (A) Inferior mesenteric artery
- (B) Superior mesentric artery
- C) Coeliac artery
- (D) Gastro-duodenal artery
-
208. Gangrene of intestine is seen in all the following conditions,except
- (A) Tricuspid Valve Endocarditis
- (B) Shock
- (C) Mesenteric Artery Thrombosis
- (D) Voivuius
-
209. All are true regarding Supeior Mesenteric ArterySyndrome, except
- (A) Caused by compression of distended duodenum
- (B) Common in young females
- (C) Does not occur in obese individuals
- (D) Most common in 6 7th decade.
-
210. Multiple strictures in intenstine are found in:
- (A) Radiation enteritis
- (B) Duodenal ulcer
- (C) Ulcerative colitis
- (D) Gastric erosion
-
211. A patient presents with malena, hyperpigmentation overlips, oral mucosa and skin; and his sister is also havingsimilar complaints. The diagnosis is
- (A) PeutzJegher's Syndrome
- (3) Familial A denomatous Polyposis
- (C) Gardner's Syndrome
- (D) Villous Adenoma
-
212. Most common Surgical cause of Obstructive Jaundice is
- (A) CBD stone
- (B) Stricture in CBD
- (C) Alcoholism
- (D) Maiignancy
-
213. A patient presents with Abdominal pain, Jaundice and
- malena. The Diagnosis is
- (A) Hemobilia
- (B) Acute cholangitis
- (C) Carcinoma gailbiadder
- (D) Acute pancreatitis
-
214. Most common Tunor of Spleen is
- (A) Lymphoma
- (B) Sarcoma
- C) Hemangioma
- (D) Metastasis
-
215. Which of the following is not an Absolute indication ofSplenectomy:
- (A) Splenic abscess
- (B) Hereditary Spherocytosis
- (C) Fibrosarcoma
- (D)Autoimmune Hemolytic Anaemia
-
216. Organism causing infection in patients followingsplenectomy
- (A) Strep pneumoniae
- (B) Staphylococcosaureus
- (C) H. Influenzae
- (D) Pseudomonas
-
217. Most common cause of Rupture of Tendon is
- (A) Overuse
- (B) Trauma
- (C) Congenital defect
- (D) Fall from height
-
218. Meconium Ileus is associated with
- (A) Fibrocystic disease of the Pancreas
- (B) Duodenal Atresia
- (C) Pyloric Stenosis
- (D) Hirschsprung's disease
-
219. A 17 year old girl presents with history of generalized abdominal pain, fever, recurrent vomiting On
- examination, she has a temperature of 103°F, Right Iliacfossa tenderness; and WBC are 19600/mm
- (A) Ruptured Appendicular Abscess
- (B) Twisted Ovarian cyst
- (C) Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy
- D) Intussusception
-
220. All are true regarding Fibrocystic disease of Breast, except
- (A) There is 10-12 times increased risk of Ca breast
- (B) Most common age is 30-40 years
- (C) FNAC is helpful in the diagnosis
- (D): Excision biopsy may be done
-
221. Full term, Small-for-Date Babies are at high risk ot
- (A) Hypoglycemia
- (B) Intravertricularhaemorrhage
- (C) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
- (D) Hyperthermia
-
222. A 4 year old child has a history of a Blue patch aver eyelids,which disappeared at age of 1 year. The diagnosis is
- (A) Strawberry Angioma
- (B) Salmon patch
- (C) CavemousHemangioma
- (D) Port wine stain
-
223. What should be measured in a newborn who presentswith hyperbilirubinemia
- (A) Total & Direct bilirubin
- (B) Total bilirubin only
- (C) Direct bilirubin only
- (D) Conjugated bilirubin only
-
224. Management ot a newborn when Mother has activeTuberculosis & is taking ATT
- (A) BCG -Rifampicin INH+ Breast Feeding
- (B) BCG+Isolation of baby
- (C) BCG INH for 6 week + Breast Feeding
- (D) BCG INH+ withhoid Breast Feeding
-
225. True statement about DuctusArteriosus is
- (A) It undergoes anatomic closure within 24 hrs. of birth
- (B) Forms the ligamentumvenosum in later life
- (C) It is induced to close by high levels ofprostaglandins
- D) May cause a machinary murmur by its patency
-
226. A 4 month old female child presents with grade ⅣVesico-Ureteral Reflux (VUR); without dialation ofurinary bladder The Treatment of choice is
- (A) Septran +Follow up
- (B) Re-implantation of ureter
- (C) Injection of coilagen at ureteric orifices
- D) Bilateral Ureterostomy
-
227. A 6 year old girl presents with Recurrent E.coli infectionin urine. Ultrasound of abdomen shows Hydroureter andHydronephrosis. Micturatingcysto-urethrogam showsfilling defect in urinary bladder. The likely diagnosis is
- (A) SacrococcygealTeratoma
- (B) Vesicoureteric Reflux grade II
- (C) Duplication ofUreter
- (D) Ureterocele
-
228. All ofthe followings are seen in Systemic Juvenile Arthritisexcept
- (A) Rheumatoid Factor +ve
- (B) Hepatosplenomegaly
- (C) High fever with rash
- (D) Elevated E.S.R
-
229. True statement regarding Brain Tumor in children is
- (A) Mostly is infra-tentorial
- (B) Papilledema is rare
- (C) Is the most common tumour in children
- (D) Hydrocephalus is rare
-
230. True statement regarding a 3 week old child with Phenylketonuria is all, except
- (A) Provocative protein meal tests helps in the diagnosis
- (B) Tyrosine becomes an Essential amino-acid in diet
- (C) Serum Phenylalanine is increaed and urinaryPhenyl Pyruvate level is elevated
- D) Phenylalanine should be completely stopped in diet
-
GYNAECOLOGY
- 231. A girl presents, with cystic swelling at the junction oflower 1/3 rd and upper 2/3 rd of anterior wall of vagina at 10 O'clock position. The diagnosis is:
- (A) Bartholin's cyst
- (B) Gartmet'syst
- (C) Adeno carcinoma
- (D) Vaginal Inclusion Cyst
-
232. The Sequence of development of puberty in girls is
- (A) Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche
- (B) Pubarche, Theiarche, Menarche
- C) Pubarche, Menarche, Thelarche
- (D) Menarche, Thelarche, Pubarche
-
233. A 15 yrsoid girl presents with weight gainoligomenorrhoea and hirsuitism. The Diagnosis is
- (A) Polycystic ovarian disease
- (B) Cushing's syndrome
- (C) Adrenogenital syndrome
- (D) Testicular feminization syndrome
-
234. A 16 yr old female presents with Primary AmenorheaExamination shows a Short Blind Vagina, with absentUterus. The Next Investigation of choice is
- (A) Karyoryping
- (B) IVP
- (C) Gonadotrophinlevles
- (D) Serum Prolactin
-
235. A woman treated for infertility, presents with 6 weekamenorrhea with urinary retention. The most likely etiology
- (A) Retroverted uterus
- (B) Pelvic hematocoele
- (C) Impacted Cervical Fibroid
- (D) Carcinoma Cervix
-
236. A female having 6 weeks ammorrhea presents with ovariancyst. The proper management is
- (A) Immediate ovariotomy
- (B) Ovariotomy at Dndtrimestes
- (C) Ovariotomy after 24 hour after delivery
- (D) Ovariotomy with cesarean
-
237. A21 yrs old girl with 8 weeks Amenorrhoea, now comes inShock. The likely diagnosis is
- (A) Rupured Ectopic Pregnancy
- (B) Incarcerated Amnion
- C) Twisted Ovarian cyst
- (D) Threatened Abortion
-
238. A woman presents with a thick curdy-white vaginaldischarge. The best treatment for her is
- (A) Miconazole
- B) Metronidazole
- (C) Nystatin
- (D) Doxycycline
-
239. Prophylactic Chemotherapy is indicated afterEvacuation ofH. Mole in all, Except
- (A) Initial level ofurine HCG is 40,000 IU after 6 week ofevacuation
- (B) Ircrease in HCG titre 24,000 IU after 10 week ofevacuation
- C) Metastasis
- (D) Nulliparus lady
-
240. A32 year old femake with a history of 2 mid-trimesterabortions, comes now with 32 weeks of pregnancy andlabour pains with Os dilated 2 cm. All are done, except
- A) Immediate circlage
- B)Beanethasone
- (C) Antibiotics
- (D) Tocolytics
-
241. Prognosis of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease dependson all, except
- A) Number of living children
- (B) Blood group
- (C) Parity
- (D) Previous HCG titre.
-
242. The Stage of Ca Endometrium with Invasion of 10 mm ofMyometrium is
- (A). la
- (B) Ib
- C) IIb
- (D)IIa
-
243. Best investigation to establish the diagnosis ofEndometriosis is
- (A) Laporoscopy
- (B) Ultrasonography
- (C) X-ray pelvis
- (D) CT scan
-
244. A 35 year old female with a previous history of birth of achild with Down's syndrome, presents with 18 weeksAmenorrhoea. The Investigation of choice rule out Down'ssyndrome in the present pregnancy is
- (A) Tripie test
- (B) Amniocentesis
- C) Cordocentesis
- (D) Chorionic villous biopsy
-
245. A woman at 32 weeks of pregnancy. presents with Labourpains. On examination, her cervix is dilated and Uterinecontractions are felt. The Management is:
- (A) Isoxsuprinehydrochloridez
- (B) Dilation and Evacuation
- (C) Termination of Pregnancy
- (D) Wai and Watch
-
246. Ventouse in 2nd stage of labour is contra indiatedin :
- (A) Persistent occipito-posterior position
- (B) Heart disease
- (C) Uterine inertia
- (D) Pretemlabour
-
247. Characteristic problem in females takingNor-ethisterone is:
- (A) Irregular bleeding
- (B) Thromboemolism
- (C) Hirsuitism
- D) Weight gain
-
248. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease occurs least common with
- (A) CCPs
- B) Condom
- C) UCD
- D) Diaphragm
-
249. Side effect of Depot MPA are ail, EXCEPT
- (A) Weight gain
- (B) Irregular bleeding
- (C) Amenorrhea
- D) Hepatitis
-
250. A woman is suffering from Rheumatic heat disease withone live issue. The Contraceptive of choice is
- (A) Minilap
- B) Condom with spermicidal jelly
- (C) IUCD
- (D) LaproscopicSterilisaton
-
251. Tue statement regarding Fracture of clavicle is
- (A) Most common Complication is Malunion
- (B) Occurs at the jn.of medial 1/3 rd& lateral 2/3 rd
- (C) Usually occurs due to fall on elbow
- (D) Communitted fracture is common
-
252. A boy fell down from a tree and has fracture of neckof bumerus. He connot raise his arm because of theinvolvement of
- (A) Axillary nerve
- (B) Supraspinatus nerve
- (C) Musculocutaneus nerve
- (D) Radial nerve
-
253. In children, all are true except
- (A) Dislocations are rare
- B) Comminuted fractures are common
- (C) Thick periosteum
- (D) Soft bones
-
254. An 3 yrs old child is brought by parents to the casualtywith a spiral fracture of Femur and varying degree ofBechymosis all over body. The Etiology is:
- (A) Hit & run accident
- (B) Battered Baby Syndrome
- (C) Hockey Stick injury
- (D) Fall from height
-
255. Trendelenberg's sign is -ve in an Inter-Trochantericfracture because of:
- (A) Gluteus medius
- (B) Gluteus maximus
- (C) Gluteus minmus
- (D) Tensor fascia lata
-
256. Post Poliomyelitis, a patient has grade II power in Gastrocnemius, grade III is Peroneus, grade IV in
- TibialisApterior. The deformity is
- (A) Calcaneovalgus
- (B) Equirovarus
- (a) Calcaneovarus
- (D) Genu valgus
-
257. Decreased mineraksation of Epiphyseal plate in a growing
- (A) Rickets
- (B) Osteomalacia
- (C) Scurvw
- D) Osteoporosis
-
258. Chondroblastoma is a tumour of
- (A) Epiphysis
- (B) Metaphysis
- C) Diaphysis
- (D) Flat bone
-
259. Chordoma can occur over all the following sites, except
- (A) Rib
- (B) Clivus
- (C) Sacrum
- (D) Vertebral body
-
260. Unilateral watery discharge from the eye of a new born,with no edema or chemosis is due to
- (A) Chamydia
- (B) Gonoccocos
- C) Sticky eye
- D) Chemical conjuntivitis
-
261. Dislocation of lens is seen in all the following conditionsexcept
- A) Congenital Rubella
- (B) Marchesani's Syndrome
- C) Marfan Syndrome
- (D) Homocystinuria
-
262. All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except
- (A) Rifampicin
- B) Digoxin
- (C) Chloroquine
- (D) Ethambutol
-
263. Which action of extra-ocular muscle is spared ininvolvement of Occulomotornerve:
- (A) Abduction,
- (B) Depression
- (C) Elevation
- (D) Adduction
-
264. A patient with Detachment of Retina with photopsia withfloaters in the eye. The diagnosis is:
- (A) Vitreous haemorrhage
- (B) Exudative retinal detachmen
- C) Rhegmetogenousrerinal detachment
- D) Tractionaretinaidetachmen
-
265. A 40 year old lady presents with bilateral PapilledenaCT scan shows normal ventricles. Diagnosis is
- (A) Benign intracrahial hypertension
- (B) Malignant hypertension
- (C) Papillus
- D) Raised intraocuiar pressure
-
266. Sauce and cheese retinopathy is seen in
- (A) CMV
- (B) Rubeua
- (C) Toxoplasmosis
- (D) Congenital Syphitis
-
267. Most common cause of Acute Epiglottitis:
- (A) H.Influenzae
- (B) Pneumococcos
- (C) Pseudomonas
- D) Staphylococcos
-
268. Most common site of origin of NasapharyngealAngiofibroma is
- (A) Roof of Nasopharynx
- (B) At sphenopalatine foramen
- (C) Vault of skull
- (D) Lateral wail of nose
-
269. Treatment of Ca larynx in stage. T, M,N, is
- (A) Radiotherapy
- (B) Surgery
- (C) Cliemotherapy
- (D) Radiotherapy Chemotherapy
-
270. in Esophageal speech, the dynamic component is:
- (A) Buccai segment
- (B) Pharyngo-esophageal segment
- (C) Trachea
- (D) Pharynx
-
271. Primary treatment of Middle Ear Cholesteatoma is
- (A) Surgery
- (B) Medical and Surgery
- (C) Radiotherapy
- D) Chemotherapy
-
272. A patient with Pancoast'stumour. develops loss of voiceafter radiation. It is due to
- (A) Vocal cord infilration with secondaries
- (B) Invoivernent of recurrent laryngeal nerve
- (C) Irradiation to vocal cords
- (D) Radiation stenosis of larynx.
-
273. AnAutoimmune Disease ispfitcagy
- (A) Pemphigus vulgaris
- B) Psoriasis
- (C) Lichen Planus
- D) Aene vulgaris
-
274. Palpable purpura is seen in all the followingconditions except:
- (A) Giant Ceil Areries
- (B) Cryo-giobulinuria
- (C) Henochscholeinpurpura
- (D) Drug induced vasculiris
-
275. Regarding Lichen Planus all are true, except
- (A) Hypopigmentation in residual disease
- (B) Lymphatic infiltration in supradermaijayer
- C) ithcy polygonal, purple Papule
- D) Skin, har and oral mucosa commonly invovled
-
276. Regarding Erythema Multiforme, all are true except
- (A) No vesicles
- (B) Target lesions are seen
- (C) Involves face and neck regions
- (D) Is a sign of internal malignancy
-
277. All otthe following are seen in Tuberous Sclerosis, except:
- (A) Iris Nodule
- B) Renal Cortical Cyst
- (C) Rhabdomyoma ofheart and lung
- (D) AdnomaSebaceum
-
278. All are true regarding Psoriasis, except
- (A) Head, neck and face are not involved
- (B) Arthritis is seen in 5% of cases
- (C) Abscess are seen in lesions
- (D) Non-scaly, red lesions are seen in intra mammarand natal regions
-
279. A patient has Builous eruption on lower limb and trunk.Biopsy shows epidermal bullae. The correct statement is
- (A) Penphigoid
- B)Pehphigus vulgaris
- (C) Impetigo
- (D) Rule out internal malignancy
-
280. Which of the following is wrong statements
- (A) Koilonychia in Vit B deficiency
- (B) Oncholysis in Psoriasis
- (C) Meeslinesin Arsenic poisoning
- (D) Pterygtuntor nails in Lichen Planus
-
281. Which of the following is contraindicated in AndrogenicAlopecia
- (A) Testosterone
- (B) Cyproteronc
- (C) Acetate Finasteride
- (D) Minoxidil
-
ANAESTHESIA
- 282. Which anaesthetic agent causes increase in intracranial pressure
- (A) Ketamine
- (B) Thipentone
- (C) Halothane
- (D) Propofol
-
283. Which anaesthetic agent has the least cardiovascular sideeffect:
- (A) Isofluranc
- (B) Entlurane
- (C) Trilene
- (D) Ketamine
-
284. Shortest acting non-depolarising skeletal muscle relaxant
- (A) Mivacurium
- (B) Vecuronium
- (C) Atracurium
- (D) Succinyl choline
-
285. in Magil circuit. Airflow is
- (A)Equal to Minuce Alveolar Ventilation
- (B)Half of the Minute Volume
- (C)Equal to Minute Volume
- (D)Twice the Minute Volume
-
286. For High Pressure Storage of compressed gayCynlinders are made up of
- (A) Molybdenum steel
- (B) Iron +molybedenum
- (C) Cooper steei
- (D) Iron
-
287. Malampatti Grading is for
- (A) To assess mobility of cervical spine
- (B) To assess mobility if atlantotaxial joint
- (C) For assessment of free rotation of neck beforeintubation.
- (D) Inspection of oral cavity before intubation
-
RADIOLOGY
- 288. Figure of 8 in chest X-Ray is seen in
- (A) Total anomalous pulomonary venous connections
- (B) Ebstein's anomaly
- (C) Tetrology of Fallot
- (D) Transposition of great vessels
-
289. Left Cardiac Border bulge can be seen in all, except
- (A) Enlarged Azygous Vein
- (B) Left Appendicular overgrowth
- (C) Coronary Artery Aneurysm
- (D) Pericardial defect
-
290. Ail are seen in Congestive Cardiac Failure, except
- (A) Kerly B lines
- (B) Prominent lower lobe vessels
- (C) Pleural effusion
- D) Cardiomegaly
-
291. Calcification of Intervertebral Disc is seen in
- (A) Alkaptonuria
- (B) Gout
- C) Rheumatoid arthritis
- (D) Psoriasis
-
PSYCHIATRY
- 292. Best test for diagnosis of Organic Mental Disorders
- (A) Sentence completion test
- (B) Bender Gestalt
- (C) Rorshach test
- (D) Themanic Appreciation Test
-
293. Amnesia typically occurs in
- (A) Head injury
- B) Schizophrenia
- (C) Psychobneurotic states
- (D) Mania
-
291. Korsakoffs psychosis is diagnosed by
- (A) Peripheral Neuropathy
- (B) Visual Hallucinarion
- (C) Impairment ofshort term memory
- D) Seizures
-
295. Systemic de-sensitizarion therapy is used for
- (A) Phobia
- (B) Schizophrenia
- C) Depression
- (D) Organic brain syndrome
-
296. A patient is always preoccupied with feeling of illness.The Diagnosis is
- (A) Hypochondriasis
- (B) Somatisation disorder
- (C) Conversion disorder
- (D) Obscession
-
297. A patiení of Schizophrenia is getting Chlorpromazine, buthis auditory hallucinations are nor controlled. Thenext drug to be given is
- (A) Haloperidol
- (B). Clozapine
- (C) Sulpride
- (D) Tianeptin
-
298. A man hits his neighbour, next day, he feels that police isbehind him and his brain is being controlled by radio wavesby his neighbour. The probable diagnosis is
- (A) Personality disorder
- (B) Passivity feeling
- (C) Delusion of Persecution
- D) Organic brain syndrome
-
299. A lady, while driving a car, meets in an accident. She wasadmitted in an ICU for 6 months. After being dischargedshe often gets up in the night and feels terrified and hasfear to sit in a car again.
- The Diagnosis is
- (A) Panic disorder
- (B) Phobia
- (C) Conversion disorder
- (D) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
-
300. Semen's Squeeze Technique is used for
- (A) Premature ejaculation
- (B) Impotence
- (C) Infertility
- (D) Praprisom
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