-
151. Ankyłosing spondylitis in associated with:
- A) HLA-B27
- (B) HLA-B-8
- (C) HLA-DW4 DR4
- (D) HLA-DR
-
152. Increased alkaline phosphate in seen in
- (A) Multiple myeloma
- B) Primary hyperparathyroidism
- (C) Chronic renal failure
- D) Osteoporosis
-
153. All of the following conditions are premaiignant except
- (A) Ulcerative coiins
- (B) Crohn's disease
- C) Bronchiectasi:s
- (D) Paget disease of bone
-
154. Most common tumor ot the anterior mediastinum tumour
- (A) Thymoma (B) Lymphoma
- (C) Neurogenic tumour (D) Vascular cyst
-
155. RNA fragments are sequenced by
- (A) Eastern-blot
- (B) Western blot
- (C) Northern blot
- (D) Southern-blot
-
156. Most common group of diseases following Mendelian
- inheritance are
- (A) Autosomal dominant
- (B) Autosomal recessive
- (C) X-linked dominant
- (D) X- linked recessive
-
157. Smoking predisposes to ail of the following cancersexcept
- (A) Carcinoma larynx
- (B) Carcinoma bladder
- (C) Carcinoma stomach
- (D) Lymphoma
-
158. α:-Antimypsin deficiency is associated with
- (A) Centriaciner emphysema
- (B) Panaciner-emphysema
- C) Imegularempnysema
- (D) Paraseptal-emphysema
-
159. Most unlikely cause of acute tubuiar necrosis amongstthe rollowing is
- (A) Severe bacteriai-infection
- (B) Massive burn
- C) Severe cursh injury in the-foot
- (D) Rupture of aortic aneurysm
-
160. Sweat chloride levels are increased in all or the followingconditions except
- (A) Ectodermal dysplasia
- (B) G-6 PD-deficiency
- (C) Heriditarynephrogenic-diabetes incipidus
- (D) Obesity
-
161. UMN lesion is characterised by
- (A) Weakness & spasticity
- (B) Fasciculations
- (C) Rigidity
- (D) Localised muscle atrophy
-
162. "Prosopagnosia" is characterised by
- (A) Inability to read
- (B) Inability to identify faces
- (C) Inabiliry to write
- (D) Inability to speak
-
163. Most common cause of sub arachroidhaemorrhageis:
- (A) Hypertension
- (B) A. V. malformatiorn
- C) Berry aneurysm
- (D) Trauma
-
164. A nondiabetic, non hypertensive adult male developssudden severe headache with altered sensorium, likelydiagnosis is
- (A) Brain tumour
- (B) Sub arachnoid haemorrhage
- (C Encephalitis
- D) Meningitis
-
165. Painless burn in hand is a characteristic feature of:
- (A) Syringomgelia
- B) Thalamic syndrome
- C) Cord compression
- (D) Systemic-lupus-erthromatosis
-
166. Triad of normal-pressurre hydrocephalus includes
- (A) Tremor, aphasia dementia
- B) Ataxia, aphasia, gait disorder
- (C) Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, dementia
- D) Gait disorder, urinary inconitinence, lower cranialnerve palsy
-
167. All of the foilowing are known predisposing factors forAlzheimer's disease except
- (A) Down-syndrome
- (B) Low education leve
- (C) Smoking
- D) Female sex
-
168. Alzheimer's Disease is associated with
- (A) Delerium
- (B) Delusion
- (C) Dementia
- (D) Depression
-
169. Gene for myotonic dystrophy is coded on chromosomenumber
-
170. Fatal familial insomnia is associated with:
- (A) Prion disease
- (B) Degenerative disease
- (C) Neoplastic disease
- D) Vascular disease
-
171. All are true about peripheral-neuropathy except
- (A) Glove and stocking anaesthesia
- (B) Poximal muscle weakness
- (C) Nerve-conduction defici
- (D) Decreased reflexes
-
172. All are true about subacute combined degeneration ofspinal cord except
- (A) Due to deficiency of vitamen B
- (B) Posterior column invoivement
- C) Corticospinaiinvoivement
- (D) Absent deep tendon retlexes
-
SURGERY
- 173. Commonest site of peptie ulcer is
- (A) Ist part of Duodenum
- (B) lInd part of duodenum
- (C) Distal 1/3 of stomach
- (D) Pylonus of the stomach
-
174. Common sites for cushing ulcers include all of thefollowing cxcept
- (A) Esophagus
- (B) Stomach
- (C) Ist part-of duodenum
- (D) Distal duodenunm
-
175. Merabolic changes associated with excessive vomiting includes the following
- (A) Metabolic acidosis
- (B) Hyperchloremia
- (C) Hypokalemia
- (D) Decreases bicarbonates
-
176. Dumping syndrome is due to
- (A) Diarrhoea
- (B) Presence of hypertonic content in small intestine
- (C) Vagotomy
- D) Reduced gastric capacity
-
177. Most common site for impaction of gell stones in gallstone lieus is:
- (A) Ist part of duodenum
- (B) 11nd part of duodenum
- (C) Terminal ileum
- D) Colon
-
178. Pyoderma-gangrenosum is most commoniy associated
- (A) Ulcerative colitis
- (B) Crohns disease
- (C) Amoebic colits
- (D) Ischemic colitis
-
179. Colvesical fistula most commoniy arises trom
- (A) Crohn's disease
- (B) Ulcerative colitis
- (C) Carcinoma colon
- (D) Abdomino-perineal resection
-
180. Anchovy sauce pus is a feature of
- (A) Amoebic liver abscess
- (B) Lung abscess
- (C) Splenic abscess
- (D) Pancreatic abscess
-
181. Most common cause of pseudopancrearic cyst inchildren is:
- (A) Chloledochal cyst
- B) Annular pancreas
- C) Drug induced pancreatitis
- D) Traumatic pancreatitis
-
182. whichofthe following causes least irritation of theperitoneal cavity
- (A) Bile
- (B) Blood
- C) Gastric enzyme
- (D) Pancreatic enzyme
-
183. Most common type of Intussusception is
- (A) Dio-colic
- (B) lio-ileal
- C) Colo-colic
- D) Caeco-colic
-
184. I year After cholecystectomy, a patient presented with2.5 cm size stone in CBD, Treament or choice is
- (A) Choledocholithotomy with T- tube drainage
- B)Supraduodenalcholedochotomy with exploration
- C) Trans duodenal choledochojejunostonywith sphincturopiasty
- D) Endoscopic sphincterotomy with stone exraction
-
185. Spigelian hernia is seen in
- (A) Lumbar triangle
- B)Subumblical region
- C) Paraumblical region
- D) Supraumblical region
-
186. A 9 year boy presented with abdominal pain and recurrent UTI, VP reveales duplication ofleft ureter. The mostlikely site of ectopic opening would be
- (A) Prostatic urethra
- (B) Ejaculatory duct
- (C) Seminai vesicle
- (D) Vas-deference
-
187. A 6 week neonate presented with undescended testes onthe right side and normal testes on left side. The treatmentof choice would be
- (A) Orchipexy at 2 years
- (B) Immediately
- (C) 5 year age before going to school
- D) Puberty
-
188. Treatment of extragonadal germ ccilturnour is:
- (A) Chemotherapy
- (B) Radiotherapy
- (C) Surgery
- (D) Immunotherapy
-
189. A 60 year diabetic & hyper tensive male with second gradeprostansm admitted or prostatectomy developedmyocardial infarction. Treatment now would be
- (A) Finasteride
- (B) Terazocin
- C) Finasteride and terazocin
- (D) Diethyl stilbestroi
-
190. A 55 year old diabetic patient presented with impotencewith history of failure to get erection after papaverineintracavemousinjecrion. Colourdoppler shows noabnormality of arteries but shows mild venous run-offTreatment of choice here would be
- (A) ntracavemous injection of papaverine
- (B) Penile prosthetic implants
- (C)Vacuum constriction devic
- (D) Psychotherapy
-
191. A 25 year old married male presents with infertility. Hehad undergone retroperitoneal lymphnodedisection atage of 15 years for embryonal carcinoma of right testisSemen analysis shows-quantity-0.5 ml, no. sperm, nofructose. Biopsy of testis shows normal spermatogenesis. Best treaument here would be
- (A) Artificial insemination ofdonon
- (B) Penile-prosthesis
- (C Microtesticular aspiration and intracytopiasmicInjection
- (D) None of the above
-
192. Which of the following carcinomas is iamilial
- (A) Breast B) Prostate
- (C) CervixD) Vaginal
-
193. Commonest cause of pulmonary emcolism is
- (A) Thrombosis or leg veins
- (B) Thrombosis of prostatic veins
- (C) ⅣCtrolnbosis
- (D) Thrombosis of internal pudendal artery
-
194. CABG is done for all of the folowing indications except
- (A) To reduces symptoms
- (B) To prevent further catastrophics
- (C) To prolong life
- (D) To prevent progress of native biood vessel disease
-
195. Commonest presentation of Hodgkin's lymphoma is
- (A) Painless enlargement oflymphnode
- (B) Pruritis
- C) Fever
- (D) Leuocytosis
-
196. A 50 year old man presented with 3 month history ofright sided cervical lymphnode enlargements. The bestinvetigation to establish the diagnosis in this casewould be:
- (A) FNAC
- B) X-ray
- (C) Tuberaulin test
- (D) Lymph-node biopsy
-
197. Ainhum is seen in
- (A) base of great toe
- (B) Base of fingers tips
- C) Base or toe
- (D) Ankle
-
198. Renal collar which surrounds the aorta has its two limossplit by
- (A) Leftrenal vein
- (B) Left renal artery
- (C) Isthumusot horseshoe kidney
- (D) All of the above
-
199. A lady presented with VVF due to prolong labour oneyear back, on examination ectopic opening is found onthe interuretric bar close to the opening ofright ureter Treatment of choice is:
- (A) Transvaginal repair of VVF
- (B) Transvesicai VVF repair
- (C) Transperitonealtransvesical fistula repair withreimplantationofright ureter
- (D) All the above
-
PAEDIATRICS
- 200. Increased nuchal fold thickness is a feature of
- (A) Paul-Bunnelsyncrome
- (B) De-pan syndrome
- (C) Down's syndrome
- D) Cri-duchat syndrome
-
201. Neural tube defects are prevented by
- (A) Pyridoxin
- (B) Folic acid
- (C) Thiamine
- (D) Iron
-
202. Fragile X-syndrome is characterised by all of thefollowing features except
- (A) Long fece
- (B) Large ear
- (D) Large-testis
-
203. Increase acetyicholinescrase in amniotic fluid indicates
- (A) Open neural tube defects
- (B) Oesophageal atresia
- (C) Down syndrome
- (D) Edward syndrome
-
204. Triple test for diagnosis of down's syndrome includesall of the following except
- (A) β-HCG
- (B) α-Fetoprotein
- (C) Serum HPL level
- (D) Serum oestriolleve
-
205. Kwashiorkar is characterised by all or the following features except
- (A) Edema
- (B) Patchy depigmentation of hair
- C) Fatty liver
- (D) Fatty iniitration of pancreas
-
206. Caloric supplementation required for a severeiymainourished child (per kg-body weight) is
- (A) 100 calkg
- (B) 125 ca/kg
- (C) 150 cal/kg
- D) 175 calkg
-
207. True statement about IUGR is :
- (A) Hepatomegaiy is due to fatty infiltration
- B) Head circumference is 3 cm more than chestcircumference
- (C) Hyaline membrane disease is a common cause of death
- D) Hypothermia does not occur due to good shiveringmechanisms
-
208. Following features may be seen in coldinjury ofneonates except:
- (A) Bradycardia(B) Uncontrolled shivering
- (C) Scleroma(D) Metabolic acidosis
-
209. A neonate born to infected hepatitis-B mother, shouldbe treated with
- (A) Isolation
- (B) Immunogiobulins
- (C) Hepatitis-B-Vaccinc
- (D) Immunoglobuiins& hepatitis-B-vaccine
-
210. In chiidren presence of increased fecal tar excretion andincreased fecal nitrogen levels is a fearure of
- (A) Pancreatic-insufficency
- (B) Bacterior overgrowth syndromo
- (C) Coeliac sprue
- (D) Ulcerative-colitis
-
211. A child presented with headache, dizziness, intermittentclaudication with occassionaldyspnoea. The mostprobable diagnosis in
- (A) ASD
- (B) PDA
- (C) TOF
- (D) Coarctatation of aorta
-
212. True about co-arctation of aorta
- (A) Most common site is distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery
- (B) Most common age of presentation is at 15-20years
- (C) Upper rib notching is due to erosion by dilatedcoilateralvesseis
- D) Right ventricular hypertrophy
-
215. Most common malignancy in chiidren is
- A) Renoblastoma
- B) Lymphoma &leukem
- C) Wilm'stumoun
- D) Neuroblastoma
-
214. Acute lead poisoning in children commonly presentswith all of the following tearures except
- (A) Encephalopathy
- (B) Cerebellar Ataxia
- C) Status epilepticus
- (D) Peripheral neuropahty
-
215. Common posterior-cranial fossa tumours include all ofthe following except
- (A) Medulloblastoma
- B)Oligodendroglioma
- (C) Ependydoma
- D) Cystic astrocytoma
-
216. Porencephaly refers to
- A) Foetaialcohal syndrome
- (B) Dandy-walker-syndrome
- (C) Vascular lession due to degenerative vessel diseaseand head injury
- (D) Neural tube defect
-
217. Treament of the lutein cyst in hydatiformnole is
- (A) Ovarian cystectomy
- B) Ovarioctomy
- C) Suction evacuation
- (D) Ovariotomy
-
218. Red degeneration of fibroma during pregnancy is mostcommonly seen at
- (A) 1st trimester
- B)IInd trimester
- (C) Illrd trimester
- (D) Puerperium
-
219. A pregnant women in 2nd trimester presented with UTIDrug of choice is
- (A) Ampicilline
- (B) Low doses cotrimoxazole
- (C) Ciprofloxacin
- D) Cephaperazone
-
220. Retension of urine in a pregnant women with reroverteduterus is most commonly seen at:
- A) 3-10 weeks
- B) 12-16 weeks
- (C) 20-24 weeks
- (D) 28-32 weeks
-
21. Highest rate of transmission of toxoniasmosis duringpregnancy is seen in
- (A) Ist trimester
- B)Ind trimester
- C) IIrd trimester
- D) Puerperium
-
222. Nonimmumehydropsfoetallils is seen in all of thefollowing conditions excep
- (A) α-Thalassemia
- (B) Parvo-virus-19
- (C) Rh-incompatibility
- (D) Chromosomal anomaly
-
223. Which of the following antiepiieptic is least likely tocause maiformarion in foenis during pregnancy is:
- (A) Phenytoin
- B) Carbamazepine
- (C) Sodium- Vaiproare
- D) Phenobarbitone.
-
224. Which of the following drug may be used to arrest premature labour
- (A) Aspirin
- (B) α- Methyl dopa
- C) Magnesium-suiphata
- D) Diazoxida
-
225. During foetal life maximum growth is caused by
- (A) Growth harmone
- (B) Insulin
- (C) Cortisol
- (D) Thyroxin
-
226. CA -125 is increased in all of the following conditionsexcept
- (A) T.B. of genital organ
- (B) Ovarian cancer
- (C) Endometriosis
- (D) Stein-leventhal-Syndrome、
-
227. All of the following are barnone dependent carcinomaexcept
- (A) Prostate C
- (B) Endomeuium C
- (C) Breast C
- (D) Ovary C
-
228. Gn RH analogue may be given in all of the followingexcept
- (A) Prostate C
- (B) Endometrium C.
- (C) Fibroadenoma-uterus
- D) Precocious puberty
-
229. Carcinoma endomerium with positive superficial inguinallymph node starus is classified as stage
-
230. Long term amoxifen therapy may cause
- (A) Endometium C
- B)Ovar
- C) Cervix
- (D) Vagina-C
-
231. Precocious puberty may be seen in all of the followingconditions except
- (A) Granulosa-cell tunour
- (B) Head-injury
- (C) Corticosteroid intake
- (D) Hyperthyroidism
-
232. Menstruarion is defined as precocious if it starts beforethe child reaches the age of
- (A) 8 years
- B)10 years
- (C) 14 years
- (D) 20 years
-
233. All of the following are classified as primary supports ofuterus except
- (A) Trans cervical ligament
- (B) Pubocervical ligament
- (C) Utero-sacral ligamend
- (D) Broad ligarnent
-
234. Oral contraceptive pills decreases incidence of all of thefollowing conditions except
- (A) Salpingins
- (B) Hepatic adenoma
- (C) Ovary
- (D) Fibroadenosis
-
235. True statement about Minipill is
- (A) Iegular vaginal bleeding may be a side effect
- (B) Used with combination of oral contraceptive pill
- (C) Can not be used in lactation
- (D) Prevents ectopic pregnancy
-
236. True statement about RU-486 is:
- (A) Used for inducing abortion in early weeks ofpregnancy
- (B) Used along with contraceptive pills
- (C) Acts on the cytoplasmic receptors
- (D) Used for prevent ectopic İmplantation
-
237. Characteristic features of Rokitanski-Kuster Hausersyndrome are all of the following except
- (A) Absent uterus
- (B) Absent vagina
- (C) Anovulation
- (D) 46-XX
-
ORTHOPAEDICS
- 238. All of the following are associated with chronicosteomvelitisexceo
- (A) Sequestrum
- (B) Amyloidosis
- C) Myositis-ossificans
- (D) Metastatic abscess
-
239. Most common site of Actinomycosis amongst thefollowing is
- (A) Tibia
- B) Rib
- (C) Mandible
- (D) Femur
-
240. Defective mineralization of proximal zone of cartilageand epinhysis is a feature of
- (A) Rickets (B) Scurvy
- (C) Osteomalacia (D)Syphilis
-
241. Most common site of avascular necrosis amongst the following is:
- (A) Medial candyle of femur#
- (B) Talus#
- (C) Olecranon #
- D) Head of the radius#
-
242. Commonest site of fracture leading to tat-embolism is
- (A) Tibia
- C) Humerus
- (B) Femur
- (D) Ulna
-
243. Jefferson's# is :
- (A) C
- (C) C2C
- (B) C2
- (D) C2 C3
-
244. Ostcoarthritis is associated with all of the followingexcept
- (A) Decrease joint space
- B)Subchondraiscierosis
- (C) Osteophyte formation
- (D) Ca deposition in joint space
-
245. According to a newer hypothesis Ewings sarcoma arisesfrom
- (A) Epiphysis
- (B) Diaphysis
- (C) Medullary cavity
- (D) Cortex
-
246. Most common nerve involvement in volkmann'sischaemic contracture is
- (A) Median nerve
- (B) Radial nerve
- (C) Ulner nerve
- (D) Posterior interosseous nerve
-
OPTHL MOLOGY
- 247. Direct distant ophthalmoscopy is done from distance of
- (A) 10 CTm
- C) 50 cm
- (B) 25 cm
- (D) 1 meter
-
248. Mydriatic used in 3 years old child for refraction is:
- (A) %Atropine drops
- (B) 1%Atropine ointment
- (C) 1% Homoatropine drops
- (D) 1 % Tropicamide drops
-
249. Dendritic Keratitis is characteristic of
- (A) Herpes virus
- (C) Streptococci
- (B) Pseudomonas
- (D) Staphylococci
-
250. Treatment of choice for acute anterior uveitis is
- (A) Local steroids (B) Systemiestoroid
- C) Loc al NSAIDS (D) Systemic NSAIDS
-
251. Treatment for First degree angle closure glaucoma is
- (A) Trabeculectomy(B) Pilocarpine
- C) Laser Irodotomy(D) Timolol
-
252. Function of superior oblique muscle is
- (A) Elevation with eye rotated outwards
- B) Elevation with eye rotated downwards
- C) Depression with inward rotatiorn
- D) Depression with ourward rotation
-
253. III nerve palsy causes all of the following except
- (A) Ptosis
- B)Mydriasis
- (C) Medial deviation of eyeball
- (D) Pupillary reflex lost
-
254. In unilateral Afferent pupilary defect, when light inmoved trom normal to affected eye, there is
- (A) Dilatation in affected side and constrictionin normal eye
- (B) Dilatation in normal eye and constriction inaffected side
- C) Dilatation in both pupils
- D) Constriction in both pupils
-
255. Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateraipapilloedemais a feature ot
- (A) Fischer syndrome
- (B) Foster kennedy syndrome
- (C) Vogr-kayanagi-Haradasyndrome
- (D) WAGR syndrome
-
256. increased ICT is associated with all of the followingexcept
- (A) Disc-oedema
- (B) Macular oedema
- (C) Normal vision
- (D) Afferent pupillary defect
-
257. Ptosis with weakness of orbicularis-oculi is an earlyfeature of
- A) Polymyositis
- (B) Myasthenia.gravis
- (C) Eacen-lambert-myasthenic syndrome
- (D) Thyrotoxicosis
-
258. Weakness of extraocular muscle may be seen in all ofthe following conditions except
- (A) Fisher syndrome
- (B) Myasthenia gravis
- (C Eaten lambert syndrome
- D) Thyrotoxicosis
-
259. In 'cold caloric stimulation test', the cold water, inducesmovement of the eye ball in the following direction
- (A) Towards the opposite side
- (B) Towards the same side
- (C) Upwards
- D) Downwards
-
260. True statement about ASOM is
- (A) Most frequently it resolves wihtoutsequelae
- B)Commonlytoilowspainfuiparotitis
- C) Radical mastoidectomy is required for reatment
- D) Most 3pmimon oganism is pseudomonas
-
261. Acoustic neuroma most commonly arise from
- (A) Supenorvestibuiar nerve
- (B) Interior vestibular nerve
- C) Cochlear nerve
- D) Fascial nerve
-
262. Quinsy is synonymous with
- (A) Parapharyngeal abscess
- (B) Retropharangeal abscess
- (C) Peritonsillarabsces:s
- (D) Paratonsillar abscess
-
263. All are true about tracheostomy tube except
- (A) Consist of2 merallic tube
- (B) Tubes are made of silver alloy and titaniumoxide
- (C) Metailic rubes are idealy changed every 2- days
- D) Curfed tubes used for IPpV
-
264. Montogomery tube used in ENT procedure is a:
- (A) Double barrel tube (B) Lobster tail tube
- C) Airway tube(D) Silicon-T- tube
-
265. A Child was treated for H. Influenza meningitis for 6 month. Most important investigation to be done beforedischarging the patient is
- (A) MRI
- B) Brainstem evoked auditory response
- (C) Growth screening test
- (D) Psychotherapy
-
266. Direction of nasolacrimal duct is
- (A) Downwards, backwards and medially
- B) Downwards. backwards and laterally
- (C) Downwards, forwards and medially
- (D) Downwards, forwards and laterally
-
267. True statement about Rhinosporodiosis is
- (A) Most common organism is klebsicllarhinoscleromatis
- (B) Seen only in immunocompromised patients
- (C) Presents as a nasal polyp
- (D) Can be diagnosed by isolation of organism
-
268. Alkaline nasal douche contains all of the following except
- (A) Sodium chloride
- (B) Sodium bicarbonate
- (C) Sodium biborate
- (D) Glucose
-
SKIN VENERAL DISEASE
- 269. Commonest cause of air born dermatitis in India is
- (A) Parthenium
- (B) Crysophillous
- (C) Calotropis
- (D) Rothrangal
-
270. Patch test is read after
- (A) 2 hours
- (B) 2 days
- (C) 2 weeks
- (D) 4 weeks
-
271. Atopic dermatitis is diagnosed by
- (A) Patch test
- (B) Clinical examination
- (C) Wood's lamp
- (D) Ig B
-
272.Cutancous tuberculous secondary to 'under lying tissueis called as
- (A) Scrofuloderma
- (B) Lupus vulgaris
- C) Tuberculousverrucosa cutis
- (D) Spina-ventosa
-
273. Satellite lession are seen in the following type of leprosy
- (A) Tuberculoid- leprosy
- (B) Lepromatous leprosy
- (C) Borderline ruberculoid leprosy
- (D) Histoid leprosy
-
274. Thalidomide is the drug of choice for
- (A) Lepra type I reaction
- (B) Lepra type II reaction
- (C) Nerve abscess
- (D) Nerve-excision
-
275. Permethrin is used in the treament of
- (A) Scabies
- (B) Leprosy
- (C) Body louse
- (D) Leishmaniasis
-
276. Chancroid may be caused by
- (A) T. Pallidium
- (B) G donovan
- (C) Chlamydia trachomatis
- (D) Herpes virus - hominis
-
277. Cicatricalalonecia is seen in
- A) Taenia-capitis
- (B) Psoriasis
- (C) Discoid lupus erethroamatosís
- (D) Alopesia-areata
-
278. True about endotracheal intubation is
- (A) It reduces the normal anatomical dead space
- (B) It produces resistance to respiration
- (C) Sub-glatticoedema is the most common complication
- (D) All of the above
-
279. Which of the following local anaesthencs causes vasoconstiction
- (A) Procaine
- C) Cocaine
- (B) Lidocaine
- (D) Chlorprocaine
-
280. Repeated use of halothane causes
- (A) Hepatitis (B) Encephaliris
- (C) Pancreatitis D) Bronchitis
-
281. The muscle reiaxant contra-indicated in Renal failures
- A) Gailamine (B) D-tubocurarine
- (C) Vecuronium (D) Acracuriua
-
282. Anatomical dead space is increased by all of thefollowing except
- (A) Atropine
- (B) Halothanc
- (C) Massive pleural effusion
- (D) Inspirarion
-
RADIOLOGY AND RADIOTHERAPY
- 283. NMR based on the principle of
- (A) Proton bean
- (C) Neutron beam
- (B) Electron beam
- (D) Magnetic field
-
284. Impaired renal function is assessed by
- (A) DTPA
- (B) DMSA scan
- (C) lodohippurate
- (D) MAGS
-
285. A patient presented with ARF with compiete anuria, buta normal uitrasound. Next investigarion is
- (A) IVP
- (B) Antegrade pyelography
- (C) Retrograde pyelography
- (D) Radio renogram
-
286. Most common complication of myeiography is
- A) Allergic reaction
- B) Headache
- C) Focal Neurological deficite
- D) Arachanoiditis
-
287. In cerebral angiography the dye is injected through
- A) Femoral-artery (B) Brachial artery
- (C) Axillary artery (D) Radial artery
-
288. Most sensitive investigation for air embolism is
- (A) Decrease tidal volume of CO
- (B) Decrease tidal volume of NO,
- C) Doppler ultrasound
- (D) Central venous pressure
-
289. All may be used in interstitial brachytherapy except
- (A) Co60
- B) Ir 192
- C) Au 198
- (D) Cs 137
-
290. Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy &chemotherapy is best detected by
- (A) ECHO
- (B) Endomyocardial biopsy
- (C) ECG
- D) Radionucieide scan
-
PSYCHIATRY
- 291. Delusion is a disorder of
- (A) Perception
- C) Memory
- (B) Thought
- (D) Judgement
-
292. Hailucination is a disorder of
- A) Perception
- (C)' Intellegence
- (B) Thought
- (D) Memory
-
293. Hallucinations are
- (A) Feeling of familiarity with unfåmiliar things
- (B) A Iteration of perception of ones reality
- (C) Mis-interpretation of stimuli
- (D) Perception occuringwithourextemal stimulation
-
291. Following drugs have abuse liability except
- (A) Buprenorphine
- (B) Alprozolam
- C) Fluoxetine
- (D) Dextropropoxyphene
-
295. Mechanism of 'action of fluoxetine is
- (A) Serotonin uptake inhibitor
- B) MAO- B Inhibitor
- C Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
- (D) Benzodiazcpines antagonist
-
296 Disulfiram:
- (A) Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
- (B) Inhibits aldehyde denydrogenase
- (C) Both
- (D) None
-
297. Kleptomanią means
- (A) Irresistible desire to steai things
- (B) Irresistible desire to drink
- (C) Irresistible desire to dress the opposite sex
- D) Irresistible desire to set-ire
-
298. Irresistibie urge to move about with inner restlessness is called
- (A) Akathisia
- B) Akinesia
- C) Hyperkinesia
- (D) Dyskinesia
-
299. A period ofnormalsyin between two psychotic disorders is a feature of
- (A) Schizophrenia
- (B) Manic depressive psychosis
- (C) Alcoholism
- (D) Depression
-
300. Drug of choice for rapid cycling MDPs
- (A) Lithium
- (B) Carbamazepine
- (C) Sodium valproate
- (D) Haloperidol
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