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Full Fetal echo pathology

  1. What dysrhythmia is most likely brought on by maternal stress or fever?
    Sinus tachycardia
  2. What is sinus tachycardia?
    A heart rate greater than 180 bpm with normal atrial and ventricular activation
  3. What is the definition of fetal hydrops?
    Fluid seen in two or more fetal body cavities.
  4. What is anasarca?
    Diffuse interstitial edema
  5. What are the two types of fetal hydrops?
    • Immune: caused mainly by alloimmune hemolytic disease and RH isoimmunizatio
    • Nonimmune: the result of a pathologic condition that disrupts the normal homeostatic mechanisms that control the fetal bodies ability to manage fluid. Most commonly the result of fetal cardiovascular disease
  6. Cardiomyopathy‘s account for approximately what percentage of all cases of heart disease in live born patients?
    2%
  7. What is considered a normal left ventricular systolic shortening fraction? Right ventricular?What does the shortening fraction asses?
    • .30
    • .25
    • Heart function
  8. What form of cardiomyopathy is associated with endocardial fibroelastosis?
    Restrictive
  9. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are generally associated with what 4 things?
    • 1. Maternal diabetes
    • 2. Noonan Syndrome
    • 3. Glycogen storage disease
    • 4. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
  10. What are the 2 most common type of cardiomyopathy?
    Congestive and dilated
  11. What maternal disease is most commonly associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
    Maternal diabetes
  12. What 4 views may be helpful in evaluating fetal arrhythmias? Which one is not helpful? And why is this not helpful?
    Helpful: Long axis view of Ao, short axis view of great vessels, apical 5ch view, & apical 4ch view.

    Not helpful: short access view of ventricles.

    Why: to observe fetal arrhythmias, atrial & ventricular activity must be examined simultaneously. The short axis view of the ventricles does NOT image the atria.
  13. Which syndrome is associated with a complex heart defect in 95%-100% of cases, may progress to bradycardia & a complete heart block, & has the a high mortality rate?
    Asplenia
  14. What is Asplenia?
    Absence of a spleen or functional spleen
  15. What is Noonan Syndrome?
    Prevents normal development in various parts of body, unusual facial characteristics, short stature, heart defects, other physical problems & possible developmental delays
  16. What is Patau syndrome aka & it’s characteristics?
    • Trisomy 13
    • intellectual disability and physical defects.
  17. What is Ivemark Syndrome?
    • -asplenia or hypoplasia of the spleen (underdevelopment)
    • -malformations of heart
    • -abnormal arrangement of internal organs
  18. What is polysplenia?
    • -Presence of 2 < spleens in fetus
    • -association with various organ abnormalities in abdomen & chest.
    • -In about 20% cases of polysplenia syndrome situs inversus is present
  19. What is Ebstein anomaly?
    -Rare heart defect in which the tricuspid valve isn't formed properly & blood leaks back through the valve & into the right atrium.
  20. What fetal dysrhythmia is Ebstein anomaly associated with?
    Supraventricular tachycardia
  21. What 3 dysrhythmias are associated with cardiomyopathy?
    • -Bradycardia
    • -Complete heart block
    • -Supraventricular tachycardia
  22. What is a complete heart block?
    -atrioventricular (AV) node is damaged & electrical signal can't pass normally from the atria
  23. Which dysrhythmia is characterized by a non-conducted premature atrial contraction that occurs every other beat?
    Atrial bigeminy
  24. What is a heart rhythm with an atrial beat that’s not followed by a ventricular be considered?
    Blocked premature atrial contraction
  25. What is the most common fetal dysrhythmia?
    Premature atrial contractions
  26. What is the leading cause of infant morbidity and more mortality from birth defects?
    Congenital heart disease (CHD)
  27. What is defined as persistent fetal tachycardia?
    Heart rate above 180 BPM
  28. What is defined as persistent Fetal Bradycardia or heart block?
    Heart rate lower than 120 BPM
  29. What is the size of nuchal translucency that is a risk factor for congenital heart disease?
    NT >3.5mm or greater
  30. What gestational size indicates a risk factor for congenital heart disease?
    GA >99th percentile
  31. What are the 4 basic areas involved in sequential segmental analysis of the fetal heart?
    • 1. Situs
    • 2. Atria
    • 3. Ventricles
    • 4. Great arteries and their connection
  32. What does an atrial heart rate of 300 to 500 bpm with varying ventricular response suggest?
    Atrial flutter
  33. What is atrial bigeminy?
    The atrial rate is irregular (alternating sinus and premature beats) while the ventricles beat at a regularly slow pace (60-80bpm)
  34. A fetus has a heart rate of 198 bpm with normal atrioventricular activation. What does this suggest?
    Sinus tachycardia
  35. What is sinus tachycardia?
    A heart rate greater than 180 bpm with normal atrial and ventricular activation
  36. Which dysrhythmia has an early atrial beat that is not followed by a ventricular beat?
    Non-conducted premature atrial contraction
  37. What is a non-conducted premature atrial contraction?
    It’s an early atrial contraction and it is not followed by a ventricular contraction
  38. What is the most common type of pathologic tachycardia?
    Supraventricular tachycardia
  39. What is the second most common dysrhythmia?
    Fetal tachycardias
  40. What is the most common tachycardia?
    Sinus tachycardia
  41. What is sinus tachycardia?
    The fetal heart rate is above 180 bpm but usually less than 200 bpm, with normal conduction (the electrical signal transmits normally from the upper chambers to the lower chambers).
  42. What describes dissociation (disconnection) between atrial and ventricular complexes, with the atrial rate being faster than them ventricular rate?
    Complete heart block
  43. When is a complete heart block present?
    When there is dissociation between the atrial and ventricular complexes. The atrial rate is faster than the ventricular rate
  44. What two conditions account for 96% of all bradycardia’s?
    Second-degree heart block and third-degree heart block
  45. What 3 things define atrial fibrillation?
    • 1. Atrial rate greater than ventricular rate
    • 2. Atrial rate of 300 to 500 bpm
    • 3. Both Regular & variable ventricular rates
  46. What four lesions have abnormal blood flow and are considered progressive heart lesions?
    • 1. Aortic stenosis
    • 2. Pulmonic stenosis
    • 3. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
    • 4. Coarctation of the aorta
  47. What is transposition of the great arteries (a.k.a. great vessels)?
    The pulmonary trunk arises from the left ventricle and the aorta arises from the right ventricle
  48. What is the most common type of aortic stenosis?
    Valvular aortic stenosis
  49. Endocardial fibroelastosis, smaller ventricle, mitral stenosis, and small aorta are all features of what heart lesion in the pediatric population?
    Aortic valve stenosis
  50. If the diameter of the pulmonary orifice is 50 to 80% of the aortic orifice diameter, what abnormality exist?
    Mild to moderate pulmonary stenosis
  51. What fetal heart valve is ideal to evaluate for pulmonic valve insufficiency?
    • -Apical long axis view of the pulmonary artery
    • -short access view of the great vessels
  52. Why does embryologic pulmonic stenosis occur?
    Abnormal intracardiac blood flow
  53. What is the most common type of pulmonic stenosis?
    Valvular pulmonic stenosis.
  54. What heart defect is most commonly associated with double outlet right ventricle?
    pulmonic stenosis
  55. What is a double outlet right ventricle?
    The aorta and the pulmonary artery both arise from the right ventricle
  56. What is the definition of tricuspid atresia?
    Complete agenesis of the tricuspid valve
  57. What 3 things is tricuspid atresia most commonly associated with?
    • 1. Ventricular septal defect‘s (VSD)
    • 2. Pulmonary atresia/stenosis
    • 3. Hypoplasia of the right ventricle
  58. What is the most common morphologic variant of the tricuspid valve associated with tricuspid atresia?
    Muscular atresia of the right atrial floor
  59. Tricuspid a treasure is classified into three types based on what?
    The relationship of the great arteries
  60. 1) How many tricuspid atresia is type 1?
    2) What is their relationship with the great arteries?
    3)What 3 things can happen w/type 1 tricuspid atresia?
    • 1. 69%
    • 2. Normal
    • 3. -Pulmonary atresia without VSD
    • -Small (restrictive) VSD w/pulmonary atresia
    • -Large (non-restrictive) VSD w/o pulmonary
    • stenosis
  61. 1) How many tricuspid atresia is type 2?
    2) What is their relationship with the great arteries?
    3)What 3 things can happen w/type 2 tricuspid atresia?
    • 1. 28%
    • 2. D-transposition of great arteries
    • 3. -Pulmonary atresia with VSD
    • -Pulmonary stenosis with VSD
    • -VSD with no pulmonary stenosis
  62. 1) How many tricuspid atresia is type 3?
    2) What is their relationship with the great arteries?
    3)What 2 things can happen w/type 3 tricuspid atresia?
    • 1. 3%
    • 2. L-transposition of great arteries
    • 3. -sub pulmonary stenosis with VSD
    • -Sub aortic stenosis with VSD
  63. With Tricuspid a treasure where is the pulmonary artery in relation to the aorta?
    Anterior and to the left
  64. Which 4 things will cause an enlarged right atrium?
    • 1. Tricuspid insufficiency
    • 2. Uhl anomaly
    • 3. Tricuspid atresia
    • 4. Tricuspid Stenosis
  65. Which anomaly will cause an enlarged right atrium plus an epically displaced tricuspid valve?
    Ebstein anomaly
  66. What is UHL Anomaly?
    A total absence of right ventricular myocardium resulting in apposition (things being side by side) of the endocardium & epicardium.
  67. What is the most common great artery relationship in tricuspid valve atresia?
    Type 1, normally related great arteries
  68. In Epstein anomaly which leaflet has a sail-like (or stretched) appearance? Why?
    • -Anterior leaflet of the tricuspid valve
    • -b/c of the insufficiency of the tricuspid valve
  69. What is the risk of a heart defect in cases of situs in versus with extreme Levocardia?
    Nearly 100%
  70. If the fetal ABD organs are properly arranged but fetal heart is positioned in right chest what is the risk that the fetus has a heart defect?
    95%
  71. What is the risk for a heart defect if the fetal situs is situs solitus?
    1%
  72. What is situs solitus?
    Normal body configuration
  73. When the fetal heart is in the right thorax & the abdominal organs are not properly arranged the fetal situs what would be?
    Situs ambigus
  74. What 3 malformations is ectopia cordia associated with?
    • 1. Pentalogy of Cantrell
    • 2. Limb body wall complex
    • 3. Amniotic band syndrome
  75. What is Ectopia Cordis?
    • -complete or partial displacement of the heart outside the thoracic cavity.
    • -heart is displaced from the chest cavity
  76. What four things are associated with extreme Levocardia?
    • 1. Tetralogy of Fallout
    • 2. Ebstein anomaly
    • 3. Truncus arteriosus
  77. What is situs ambiguous also known as?
    Heterotaxy
  78. What 4 things causes an abnormal heart position in the fetal chest?
    • 1. Congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)
    • 2. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
    • 3. Bronchopulmonary sequestration
    • 4. Plural effusion
  79. What is the most common congenital heart defect other than bicuspid aortic valve?
    Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
  80. Atrial septal defect‘s constitute what percentage of all congenital heart defect‘s?
    6.7%
  81. Of all newborns with a congenital heart defect, what percentage of aortic stenosis?
    3-6%
  82. What is a ostium secundum atrial septal defect caused by?
    Excessive reabsorption of the septum primum
  83. Which cardiac lesion has a hemodynamic communication between the right and left ventricles?
    Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
  84. What is the most commonly recognized cardiac defect? What is the most common cardiac defect (not necessarily recognized)?
    • -Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
    • -bicuspid aortic valve
  85. In tetralogy of fallot what is the most common location of a ventricular septal defect?
    Subaortic
  86. What is the most common type of atrial septal defect?
    Ostium secundum
  87. What type of atrial septal defect generally occurs as part of a more complex type of congenital heart defect such as in atrioventricular canal defect?
    Ostium primum
  88. Which anomaly accounts for approximately 30 to 50% of all congenital heart defects?
    Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
  89. What type of interrupted aortic arch is commonly associated with a ventricular septal defect (VSD)?
    Type B
  90. What is the most severe form of coarctation of the aorta?
    Interrupted aortic arch
  91. What cardiac lesion is most common in a fetus with double outlet right ventricle?
    Ventral septal defect (VSD)
  92. Where is the most common location for ventricular septal defect (VSD) in a fetus with double outlet right ventricle?
    Subaortic
  93. What is the most common type of ventricular septal defect (VSD)?
    Membranous
  94. What is the most common location for ventricular septal defect (VSD) in double outlet left ventricle?
    Subaortic
  95. What 3 congenital heart defects associated with subvalvular aortic stenosis?
    • 1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
    • 2. Coarctation of the aorta
    • 3. Interrupted aortic arch
  96. What is a persistent left superior vena cava often associated with?
    Coronary sinus atrial septal defect
  97. Univentricular heart accounts for what percentage of all cardiac heart defects?
    1-3%
  98. What 4 things are considered tissue migration abnormalities?
    • 1. Double outlet right ventricle
    • 2.Tetralogy of Fallot
    • 3. Truncus arteriosus
    • 4. D-transposition of the great arteries
  99. What two defects are not thought result from cell death abnormalities?
    • 1. Ostium primum atrial septal defect
    • 2. Atrial septal defect
  100. What 2 defects are thought to result from cell death abnormalities?
    • 1. Muscular Ventricle septal defect
    • 2. Ebstein anomaly
  101. Embryologically what is an atrioventricular septal defect considered?
    Extracellular matrix abnormality
  102. With an extracellular matrix abnormality what area of the heart does it affect?
    Endocardial cushions of the heart
  103. What congenital heart defect results from the failure of the endocardial cushions to fuse properly?
    Atrioventricular septal defect
  104. What is the most common embryologic tissue migration abnormality?
    Tetralogy of Fallot
  105. What heart lesion is in most cases due to disturbances in the bulboventricular loop development during the embryonic stage?
    Univentrucular heart
  106. What a 5 heart defects are considered to be a conotruncal heart defect?
    • 1. Tetralogy of Fallot
    • 2. Double outlet right ventricle
    • 3. Truncus arteriosus
    • 4. Transposition of the great arteries
    • 5. Ventricular septal defect
  107. What cardiac defect is classified by the pulmonary artery or arteries originating off a single great vessel arising from the heart?
    Truncus arteriosus
  108. In truncus arteriosus a single truncal valve may arise but it is least likely to arise over what?
    Left ventricle
  109. What are the two most common places for the trunk is arteriosus to arrive from in the heart?
    • 1. Middle of the heart just superior to a VSD
    • 2. Over the right ventricle
  110. What is the most common type of atrioventricular septal defect in a live newborn?
    Incomplete/partial
  111. In D transposition of the great arteries where is the aorta?
    It is connected to the right ventricle
  112. What happens to the aorta & ventricles in L-transposition of the great arteries?
    • -The aorta is connected to the morphologic right ventricle
    • -The ventricles are inverted
  113. Univentricle heart is classified by the presence or absence of what?
    A rudimentary ventricular chamber
  114. In truncus arteriosus the truncal valve most commonly has how many cusps?
    3 cusps
  115. The Collett & Edwards classification of truncus arteriosus is based on what?
    The origin of the pulmonary arteries
  116. What are the four classifications by Colette and Edwards for truncus arteriosus? Which is the most common
    • -Type I: Single short main pulmonary artery arises off the left lateral trunk
    • -Type II: two separate pulmonary arteries arise off the posteriolateral trunk
    • -Type III: widely spaced pulmonary arteries come off the lateral trunk
    • -Type IV: pulmonary arteries come off the descending aorta
    • -Type I is the most common
  117. In both corrected and complete transposition of the great arteries, what is connected to the morphologic left ventricle? Right ventricle?
    • -Aorta
    • -pulmonary artery
  118. With transposition of the great arteries which 2 fetal heart views will be abnormal?
    • Short access view of the great vessels
    • Long access view of the great vessel
  119. What is the most common abnormality in children born with cyanotic heart disease?
    Tetralogy of Fallot
  120. With D transposition of the great arteries post natal circulation is best described as what?
    Parallel… The pulmonary and systemic circulation‘s are parallel in complete transposition of the grade arteries the right ventricle serves as a systemic ventricle
  121. With L transposition of the great arteries post natal circulation is best described as what?
    Parallel
  122. The great vessels will be seen parallel to each other in what 4 cardiac heart defects?
    • 1. Double outlet right ventricle
    • 2. D transposition of the great arteries
    • 3. L transposition of the great arteries
    • 4. Double outlet left ventricle
  123. What cardiac defect are the great vessels NOT seen parallel to each other?
    Tetralogy of Fallot
  124. With abnormal intracardiac blood flow in volume through the left side of the heart what 4 lesions could be seen?
    • 1. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
    • 2. Aortic valve stenosis
    • 3. Mitral valve atresia
    • 4. Coarctation of the aorta
  125. What lesion would not cause abnormal intracardiac blood flow in volume through the left side of the heart?
    Pulmonary atresia
  126. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is associated with what for conditions?
    • 1. Aortic atresia
    • 2. Hypoplastic aorta
    • 3. Small left ventricle
    • 4. Coarctation of the aorta
  127. Which form of interrupted aortic arch is the most common?
    Type B
  128. In double outlet right ventricle associated with Tetralogy of Fallot what is the relationship of the great vessels?
    Normally related great arteries— pulmonary artery is anterior and left of the aorta. The aorta overrides the septum to the right by 50% or more. Pulmonary stenosis is common in this form.
  129. What is the cardiac anomaly most commonly associated with hypoplastic left heart syndrome?
    Coarctation of the aorta
  130. In coarctation of the aorta, the aortic narrowing occurs at what level approximately 98% of the time?
    Between the left subclavian artery in the ductus arteriosus
  131. What are 3 classic features of Tetralogy of Fallot SEEN in utero? What feature may not be seen in utero?
    • 1. VSD
    • 2. Overriding Aorta
    • 3. Pulmonic stenosis

    1. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  132. What is the most common cardiac cause of death in early neonates?
    Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
  133. Why would right ventricular hypertrophy not be seen in utero with Tetralogy of Fallot?
    Because of the patent Ductus arteriosus in the fetal circulation keeps the right Ventricle at systemic pressure
  134. Coarctation of the aorta is found in 70% of patients with what?
    Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
  135. What is the most common associated cardiac Defect in a fetus with coarctation of the aorta?
    Bicuspid aortic valve
  136. A fetus with aortic atresia is seen with a poorly contracting left ventricle. The walls appear hyperechoic and the left ventricle is dilated what does this presentation describe?
    Endocardi fibroelastosis
  137. What is the most severe form of obstructive lesion of the left side of the heart?
    Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
  138. What three things are considered a ventricular info abnormality?
    • 1. Cor triatriatum
    • 2. Parachute mitral valve
    • 3. Supravalvular mitral ring
  139. What is a common indirect sign of core Tatian of the aorta? Why would this occur?
    • -Right ventricular diameter greater than the left ventricular diameter
    • -aorta narrows causing decreased flow thru it > causes elevated left atrial pressure > blood shunts LT to RT across foramen ovale back into RT Atrium > goes across tricuspid valve > fills right ventricle > causes increased volume in RT > increases RT ventricular diameter
  140. What is the most common form of a univentricle heart?
    Double in-let single single Ventricle, left ventricle morphology
  141. What are considered the great arteries?
    • Aorta
    • Pulmonary artery
  142. What cardiac anomaly is demonstrated by two of the great arteries coming off the left ventricle?
    Double outlaw left ventricle
  143. Which type of Univentricle heart is most lethal?
    Type C
  144. What are the 4 types of a univentricle heart? Describe each.
    • Type A: absent right ventricular sinus (w/D-loop
    • or L-loop)
    • Type B: absent left ventricular sinus (w/D-loop
    • or L-loop)
    • Type C: absent or rudimentary ventricular
    • septum (w/D-loop or L-loop)
    • Type D: absent right and left ventricular sinuses
    • an absent ventricular septum (w/D-loop
    • or L-loop)
  145. What is the least frequent occurrence of interrupted aortic arch? Where is this?
    • Type C interruption.
    • Occurs at between the I innominate & LT CCA
  146. With severe hypoplastic left heart syndrome what 4 things would you expect to see during the intracardiac fetal heart survey?
    • 1. Small left Ventricle
    • 2. Enlarged RT heart
    • 3. Left to right shunting at the atrial level
    • 4. Hypoplastic aorta
  147. What do you think will always be seen in a total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR)?
    • -An atrial septal defect
    • -A right to left shunt at the atrial level
  148. What is the most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR)?
    Supracardiac
  149. What is Infracardiac partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection associated with?
    Scimitar Syndrome
  150. What is Scimitar Syndrome?
    Anomalous venous drainage of the right lower and middle lobe‘s occurring in association with right lung hypoplasia
  151. What is partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection from the right lung almost always present with?
    Sinus venosus a atrial Septal Defect
  152. What are two of the first signs of total anomalous pulmonary venous (TAPVR) return in the fetus?
    • 1. Enlarged right ventricle
    • 2. Prominent pulmonary artery
  153. Which type of total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR) is almost always associated with a severe obstruction?
    Infracardiac
  154. What type of total anomalous venous return (TAPVR) is rarely obstructed?
    Supracardiac
  155. What cardiac defect is found in all cases of total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR)?
    Atrial septal defect
  156. What type of atrial septal defect is always present with partial anomalous pulmonary venous return?
    Coronary sinus atrial septal defect
  157. An enlarged right atrium and apically displaced Tricuspid Valve are classic features of what congenital heart defect?
    Ebstein Anomaly
  158. Classic features of this heart defect include a plate like pulmonic valve, massive distention of the pulmonary artery & its branches, & commonly a right sided aortic arch.
    Absent for pulmonic valve syndrome
  159. Hypoplasia of the right ventricle most commonly results from what?
    Pulmonary atresia with an intact interventricular septum
  160. What cardiac defect is most commonly associated with double outlet right ventricle (DORV)?
    Pulmonary stenosis
  161. It’s a ventricular septum bows towards the left ventricle what two things does this indicate?
    • 1. Severe tricuspid regurgitation
    • 2. Ebstein Anomaly
  162. What is the cardiac Defect most commonly associated with truncus arteriosus?
    Agenesis of the ductus arteriosus
  163. What is the most common relationship of the great vessels in double outlet right ventricle?
    Side by side
  164. What are the four types of double outlet right ventricle? What are these based on?
    • 1. Aorta right and posterior to pulmonary artery;
    • normal
    • 2. Aorta right and lateral to pulmonary artery;
    • side-by-side and most common
    • 3. Aorta left and anterior to pulmonary artery;
    • levomalposition
    • 4. Aorta anterior to pulmonary artery;
    • dextromslposition
    • -they are based on the relation ship of the great arteries
  165. What 4 things have been associated with right sided aortic arch?
    • 1. Truncus arteriosus—50%
    • 2. Tetralogy of Fallot—25%
    • 3. D-transposition of the great arteries—20%
    • 4. Pulmonary atresia-5%
  166. If there is a complex heart defect and the aorta is seen overriding the left ventricle by more than 50%, what 4 things may the defect be?
    • 1. Pulmonary atresia with ventricular septal
    • defect
    • 2. Tetralogy of Fallot
    • 3. Truncus arteriosus
    • 4. Double outlet right ventricle
  167. What is the most common type of double outlet right ventricle?
    Double outlet right ventricle with a subaortic in Ventricle Septal Defect
  168. Taussig-Bing is a combination of what?
    Subpulmonic ventricular septal defect with side-by-side great vessels
  169. What cardiac anomaly are more than 65 to 70% of cases of double outlet right ventricle associated with?
    Pulmonic Stenosis
  170. More than 60% of the cases of Epstein anomaly what is it associated with?
    Pulmonic stenosis
  171. Exposure to what drug is thought to be associated with Ebstein Anomaly? And what is this drug often used for?
    • Lithium
    • Bipolar disorder
  172. What arises from the right ventricle in double outlet right ventricle (DORV)?
    The aorta & the pulmonary artery
  173. If you see two vessels posterior to the heart in the 4ch heart view, what anomaly do you suspect?
    Interrupted inferior vena cava with azygous vein continuation
  174. What syndrome is associated with an interrupted IVC and an azygous vein continuation?
    Polysplenia
  175. With a sinus venosus defect of the superior vena cava, 80-90% of fetuses will have what defect?
    Anomalous pulmonary venous connections
  176. When a dilated IVC is seen what is the suspected diagnosis?
    Agenesis of the ductus venosus
  177. Where would bloodflow if the fetus has a agenesis of the ducts venosus?
    Blood entering the fetus through the umbilical vein would flow into the IVC and abruptly be terminated because of the absence of the ductus venosus
  178. Where would a coronary sinus atrial septal defect be located?
    Right Atrium
  179. What is a coronary sinus atrial septal defect generally associated with?
    Left superior vena cava which enters the upper left aspect of the left atrium
  180. What is the most common cardiac venous Anomaly?
    Persistent left superior vena cava
  181. In a Ford chamber heart view around cyst like structure in the left atrium may indicate what?
    Persistent left superior vena cava
  182. What may a dilated coronary sinus be associated with?
    Persistent left superior vena cava
  183. What 2 syndromes are associated with an interrupted inferior vena cava and an azygos vein continuation?
    • 1. Left atrial isomerism
    • 2. Polysplenia
  184. What is the most common cardiac tumor found in a fetus question
    Rhabdomyoma
  185. What are rhabdomyoma‘s commonly associated with?
    Tuberous sclerosis
  186. What heart lesion is defined by a large lobulated cystic mass attached to the base of the heart by a stock in a company by pericardial effusion?
    Intra-pericardial teratoma
  187. What cardiac tumor is generally not found in a fetus?
    Myxoma
  188. What is not considered a cardiac tumor but often seen in the heart?
    Echogenic foci
  189. What are 2 other names for polysplenia Syndrome?
    • 1. Left atrial isomerism
    • 2. Bilateral left sideness
  190. What syndrome are atrial septal defect commonly associated with?
    Holt-Oran Syndrome (heart-hand syndrome)
  191. What syndrome describes a fetus with abnormal situs, multiple spleens, and both atria with left atrial features?
    Polysplenia
  192. What 3 congenital heart defect have a strong association with aneuploidy?
    • 1. Atrioventricular Septal Defect
    • 2. Tetralogy of Fallot
    • 3. Double outlet right ventricle
  193. What 3 things are Turner syndrome associated with?
    • 1. Coarctation of the aorta
    • 2. Aortic stenosis
    • 3. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
  194. What syndrome is commonly associated with a dysplastic pulmonic valve?
    Noonan syndrome
  195. What is a complete heart block with an atrioventricular Septal Defect suggestive of?
    Polysplenia syndrome
  196. What is an atrial ventricular septal defect with tetralogy of Fallot associated with?
    Trisomy 21 down syndrome
  197. What is an atrial ventricular septal defect with a double outlet right ventricle associated with?
    Asplenia
  198. When the inferior vena cava is seen anterior to the aorta in a 4ch view what 2 things is this suggestive of?
    • 1. Asplenia
    • 2. Right atrial isomerism
  199. What 4 things is univentricle heart often associated with?
    • 1. Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)
    • 2. Asplenia
    • 3. Polysplenia
    • 4. Coarctation of the aorta
  200. If a type B aortic arch abnormality is combined with a VSD, 50% or more of these cases will be associated with what syndrome?
    DiGeorge syndrome
  201. Supravalvular aortic Stenosis is associated with what?
    Williams syndrome
  202. What is pulmonic stenosis associated with?
    Noonan syndrome
  203. What syndrome is associated with truncus arteriosus?
    DiGeorge syndrome
  204. What syndrome is associated with an atrioventricular Septal Defect and a B double outlet right ventricle?
    Asplenia Syndrome
  205. What 4 things are commonly associated with Shone Syndrome in utero?
    • 1. Parachute mitral valve
    • 2. Subaortic Stenosis
    • 3. Supravalvular mitral membrane
    • 4. Coarctation of the aorta
  206. What is Shone syndrome?
    It’s a series of 4 obstructive or potentially obstructive left-sided cardiac lesions
  207. What are 3 other names for asplenia syndrome?
    • 1. Bilateral right sidedness
    • 2. Right atrial isomerism
    • 3. Ivemark syndrome
  208. What is a complete heart block with an atrial ventricular septal defect associated with?
    Polysplenia
  209. What syndrome is associated with double outlet right ventricle, atrioventricular canal defect, total anomalous pulmonary venous return, and right sided heart obstruction?
    Right atrial isomerism
  210. What syndrome is associated with an interrupted IVC and left sided heart obstruction?
    Polysplenia
  211. Noonan syndrome is commonly associated with what cardiac lesion?
    Pulmonic valve stenosis
  212. When increased NT persists into the 2nd trimester, this thickening is termed nuchal cystic hygroma. Fetuses with cystic hygroma persisting into the 2nd trimester, 75% have a chromosomal abnormality. In this group what is the most common abnormality?
    Turner syndrome
Author
kirbykat
ID
355793
Card Set
Full Fetal echo pathology
Description
Davies
Updated

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