Mudit1999 Initial

  1. 1. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of
    • (A) Rhomboides
    • (B) Trapezius
    • (C) L. dors
    • (D) Serrarus-anterior
  2. 2. Median nerve supplies all muscles of the thumb excepr
    • (A) Abductor-pollicis-brevis
    • (B) Flexor-pollicisbrevis
    • (C) Opponenspollicis
    • (D) Adductor pollicis
  3. 3. A patient is brought to the emergency with history oftrauma to his right upper limb. Extension ofmetacarpophalangeal is lost. There is no wrist dropand extension of IP joint is normal. The most likely nerve invoived is
    • (A) Ulnar nerve
    • (B) Median nerve
    • (C) Radial nerve
    • (D) Posterior-interosseous nerve
  4. 4.All of the following are branches of subclavian arteryexcept
    • (A) Venebral artery
    • (B) Thyrocervical trunk
    • (C) Subscapular artery
    • D) Internal thoracic artery
  5. 5.Oesophagus receives supply from ail ofthe followingexcept
    • (A) Bronchial artery
    • (B) Intenal mammary artery
    • (C) Inferior phrenic artery
    • D) Interior thyroid artery
  6. 6.Left-gonodal vein drainsinto:
    • (A) Leftrenalin(B) Inferior-vena-cava
    • (C) Azygous-vein (D) liac vein
  7. 7.Shortest part of male urethra is
    • (A) Prostatic
    • (B) Membranous
    • (C) Bulbar
    • (D) Penile
  8. 8. Mandibular nerve passes through following foramen
    • (A) F. ovaie (B) F. rotundum
    • (C) F. spinosum (D) F. lacerum
  9. 9.All of the following nerves pass through Jugularforamen except
    (A) 9m (B) 10n (C) 11nD) 12
  10. 10. The cranial nerve with the largest intra-cranial course is
    • (A) Abducens- nerve (B) Trochlear nerve
    • C) Optic nerve (D) Trngeninal nerve
  11. 11. Basal ganglia consist of all of the following except
    • (A) Caudate nucleus
    • (B) Putamen
    • (C) Thalamus
    • (D) Globus-pallidus
  12. 12. Which of the following are unpaired vessel in CNS
    • (A) Anterior-cerebral artery
    • (B) Basilar artery
    • (C) Posterior-cerebellar artery
    • (D) Posterior-communicating artery
  13. 13. All of the following structures may be compressedduring flexion and abduction of shoulder joint except:
    • (A) Suprascapular nerve
    • (B) Long head of biceps tendon
    • C) Supraspinatus tendon
    • (D) Subacromial-bursa
  14. PHYSTOLOG
    • 14. Co2 is transported in blood mainly as
    • (A) Bicarbonare
    • (B) Carbimino-compounds
    • (C)Free CO
    • (D) Plasma-protein combination
  15. 15. In upper air way obstruction ail of the following changesare seen except
    • (A) Decreased Maximum breathing capacity
    • (B) RV decreased
    • (C) Decreased FEV
    • (D) Decreased vital capacity
  16. 16. CCK-PZ causes all of the followngexcepr:
    • (A) Gall biadder contraction
    • (B) Pancreatic enzyme secretion
    • (C) Increased gastrin secretion
    • (D) Decreased lower esophageal sphinictor
  17. 17.Delta cells of pancreas secretes
    • (A) Glucagon
    • (B) Insulir
    • (C) Somatostatin
    • (D) Pancreatic polypeptide
  18. 18. Which of the following is true about Nephron function
    • (A) Ascending thick limb is permeable to water
    • (B) Descending thin limb is impenreable to water
    • (C) Osmolality of intra-rubular content in DCT is morethan surrounding interstitution
    • (D) Osmolality of intranubular content in PCT isisotonic to surrounding interstitium
  19. 19. Twitch of a single motor unit is called
    • (A) Myoclonic-jerk
    • (B) Fasciculation
    • (C) Tremor
    • (D) Chorea
  20. 20. Sympathetic stimulation causes all of the following except
    • (A) Increase in heart rate
    • (B) Increase in blood pressure
    • (C) Increase in total peripheral resistance
    • (D) Increase in venous capacitance
  21. 21. G-CSF and GMCSF in haematopoisis causes:
    • (A) Leucocytosis
    • (B) Erythrocytosis
    • (C) Leucopenia
    • (D) Thrombocytosis
  22. 22. Pain-sensitive intracranial structure is:
    • (A) Piamater
    • (B) Pialvassels
    • (C) Duramater
    • (D) Brain matter
  23. 23. Parasympatheric stimulation causes
    • (A) Decrease GI secretion
    • (B) Bronchodilation
    • (C) Sweat-secretion
    • (D) Pupillary constriction
  24. 24."Blood brain barrier" is present at all of the followingsites except
    • A) Hebenularnucieus
    • B. Subfonical organ
    • (C) Cerebellum
    • (D) Pontine nucicus
  25. 25.EEG waves from hippocampus are
    • (A) α-Wave
    • (B) B- Wave
    • (C) Theta-Wave
    • (D) Delta-Wave
  26. 26.CSF/plasma glucose ratio is
    • (A) 0204
    • (B) 0.6-0.8
    • C) 12-1.6
    • (D) 1.6-22
  27. 27.Sperm acquires motility in:
    • (A) Seminal vesicle
    • (B) Testes
    • (C) Epidydimis
    • (D) Ejaculatory duct
  28. 28.Antibodies against sperms may develop after
    • (A) Trauma
    • (B) Infection
    • (C) Vasectomy
    • (D) Orchidectomy
  29. 29. The gene coding for androgen receptors is located n
    • (A) Short arm of X-chromosome
    • (B) Short arm or Y-chromosome
    • C) Long arm ofX- chromosome
    • D) Long arm orY-chromosome
  30. 30. Optically inactive Amino Acid is
    • (A) Proline
    • (B) Glycine
    • (C) Lysine
    • (D) Leucine
  31. 31. True statement regarding Nitric oxide is
    • (A) NO is synthesized from arginine
    • (B) NO is spontaneou produced from NO
    • (C) NO causes vasoconstriction
    • (D) NO is released rom mitochondria
  32. 32. Thiamine acts as a cofactor in
    • (A) Conversion of pyruvate to aceryl-CoA
    • (B) Transamination reactions
    • (C) Oxidation in respiratory chain
    • (D) Conversion of pyridoxal to pyridoxalphospha
  33. 33.Following constitute dietary fibres except
    • (A) Pectin
    • (B) Cellulose
    • (C) Hemiceilulose
    • (D) Riboflavin
  34. 34. Which ofthe following aminoacid is excreated in rine inmaple syrup urine disease
    • (A) Tryptophan
    • (B) Phenylalanine
    • (C) Leucine
    • (D) Arginine
  35. 35. Ammonia is detoxified in brain to
    • (A) Urea
    • (B) Glutamine
    • (C) GABA
    • (D) Uric acid
  36. 36.Gaucher's disease in due to deficiency of enzyme
    • (A) Sphingomyelinase
    • (B) βGlucosidase
    • (C) Hexosaminidase-A
    • (D) βGalactosidase
  37. 37. Glucose can be synthesised from all of the following excep
    • (A) Acetoacetate
    • (B) Lacic Acid
    • (C) Giycerol
    • (D) Amino Acid
  38. 38. True about polymerase chain reaction is
    • (A) Enzymatic DNA amplification
    • (B) Recombinent DNA amplification
    • C) Seperarion of protein fragments is senum
    • (D) None
  39. 39. Translation occurs in
    • (A) Ribosomes
    • (B) Mitochondria
    • (C) Nucleus
    • (D) Cytopiasm
  40. 40. Gout is a disorder of:
    • (A) Purine metabolism
    • (B) Pyrimidine metabolism
    • (C) Oxalate metabolism
    • (D) Protein metabolism
  41. 41. Best enzyme marker for chronic alcoholism is:
    • (A) Gamma glutamyl-cransferase
    • (B) SCOT
    • (C) SGPT
    • (D) Aldolase
  42. 42. In cytochrom P-450, P stands for:
    • A) Structural protein
    • (B) Poiymer
    • C) Suostrate protein
    • D) Pigment
  43. 43. Dietery cholesterol is delivered ransported to extrahepatic tissue by
    • (A) VLDL
    • (B) LDL
    • (C) Chylomicrons
    • (D) LDL
  44. 44. Neostigmine is a
    • (A) Primary ammonium compound
    • (B) Secondary ammonium compound
    • (C) Tertiary ammonium compound
    • (D) Quartenary ammonium compound
  45. 45. Drug ofchoice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is
    • (A) Neosigmine
    • (B) Physostigmine
    • (C) Tacrine
    • (D) 4- amino pyridine
  46. 46. Selective c,-A blocker is:
    • (A) Prazosin
    • (B) Terazosin
    • (C) Tamsulosin
    • (D) Indoramine
  47. 47. β1 selective agonist is
    • (A) Terbutaline
    • (B)Albuteroi
    • (C) Dobutamine
    • (D) Isoetharine
  48. 48. All ofthe following are selective B, blockers except:
    • (A) Atenolol
    • (B)Metoprolol
    • (C) Labetaiol
    • D) Betaxolol
  49. 49. Selegilline is a selective inhibitor of:
    • (A) MAO-A
    • (B) MAO-B
    • (C) Dopamine
    • (D) Norepinephrine-uptake
  50. 50. Vigabatrin' a new antiepiieptic agent acts by
    • (A) GABA- antagonism
    • (B) GABA-agónism
    • (C) NMDA antagonism
    • (D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
  51. 51.Quinidine is a
    • (A) Na channel-blocker
    • (B) K +channel blocker
    • (C) Ca channel blocker
    • (D) Cl- channel blocker
  52. 52. All of the following statements are rue about nitratesexcept
    • (A) It releases NO
    • (B) It causes vasodilatatiorn
    • (C) It decreases A.V. conduction
    • (D) It has high first pass metabolism
  53. 53. Dipyndamole acts by
    • A) Adenosine uptake inhibition
    • (B) Inhibiting thramboxane A2
    • (C) Stimulating PGI, synthesis
    • (D) Inhibiting PGI, synthesis
  54. 54. All of the following are examples of bactericidal drugsexcept
    • (A) NH
    • (B) Rifampicin
    • (C Ethambutol
    • (D) Pyrazinamide
  55. 55.All of the following are drugs for ATT except
    • (A) Kanamycin
    • (B) Cycloserine
    • (C) 5-flucytosine
    • (D) Ofloxacin
  56. 56. Mechanism ofaction of erythromycin is interfèrence with:
    • (A) Transcription
    • (B) Translation
    • C) Translocation
    • D) Singnal transduction
  57. 57. Which of the following drugs acts on "motilin receptors:
    • (A) Erythromycin
    • (B) Tetracycline
    • (C) Nortloxacin
    • (D) Chloramphenicol
  58. 58. All of the statements are true about FLUOROQUINOLONES, except
    • (A) Suspected of having teratogenic potential
    • (B) Arthropathy of limb-in children may occur
    • (C) Increase theophylline toxicity
    • (D) Increase neuromuscular blocking action
  59. 59. Difference between action of DEC and Ivermectin in a
    • case of scrotal filariasis is
    • (A) DEC acts more effectively on microfiiariae thanlvemectin
    • (B) DEC acts only on micro filariae and Ivermectinacts only on aduits.
    • (C) DEC acts on both microfilariae and adults whie
    • D) DEC acts on adults and Ivermection on microfilariasvennectin acts on adults only
  60. 60. Cyclosporin acts by inhibiting the proliferation of
    • A) IL1
    • (B) IL2
    • (C) IL6
    • (D) Macrophages
  61. 61. Side-effects of the cis-platinum include all ofthe followingexcept
    • (A) Nausea and vomitting
    • (B) Nephrotoxicity
    • (C) Blindness
    • (D) Ototoxicity
  62. 62. Milk-Alkali syndrome may be caused by ingestion of
    • (A) Calcium-carbonate
    • (B) Magnesium sulphate
    • (C) Aluminiumtrisilicate
    • (D) Aluminium hydroxide
  63. 63. Pancreatitis is a known side effect with administration of
    • (A) L-Asparaginase
    • (B) Corticosteroid
    • C) Cyclophosphamide
    • D) Vincristine
  64. 64. Puunonary infiltration may be seen with all of thefollowing drugs except
    • (A)5FU
    • (B) Bleomycin
    • (C) Busulphan
    • (D) Cyclophosphamide
  65. 65. SLE like syndrome is most commonly associated with administration of:
    • (A) Rifampicin
    • (B) Procainamide
    • C) Digitalis
  66. 66. Prokaryotes are characterised by
    • (A) Absence of nuclear membrane
    • (B) Presence of microvilli on its surface
    • (C) Presence of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    • D) All of the above
  67. 67. Which of the following immunogiobulinscancrosesplacenta
    • (A) IgA
    • (B) IgM
    • (C) IgG
    • (D) IgD
  68. 68. Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation
    • (A) Allograft
    • (B) Autograft
    • (C) Xenograft
    • (D) İsa graft
  69. 69. True statement regarding non-coagulase staphylococci
    • (A) They are non-pathogenic
    • (B) They commoniy infect indwelling prosthesis
    • (C) They may cause scarlet fever
    • (D) They are seperated by gram staining
  70. 70. True statement regarding Pneumococcusis
    • (A) Virulence is due to poiysaccharide capsule
    • (B) Capsuie is protein in nanure
    • (C) Antibodies against capsule are not protective
    • (D) Resistance to antibodies has not yet beenreported
  71. 71. True statement about diptheria toxin is
    • (A) Phage toxin is mediated
    • (B) Toxin is required for local infection
    • C) Endotoxaemia causes systemic manifestation
    • (D) Toxin Acts by inhibiting synthesis of capsule
  72. 72. Most common organism responsible for gas gangrene is
    • (A) Clostridium-perfringens
    • (B) Clostridium- difficile
    • (C) Clostridium tetani
    • D) Clostridium septicum
  73. 73. Most common organism responsible for pseudomembranous colitis is
    • (A) Clostridium difficile
    • (B) Clostridium botulism
    • (C) Clostridium bifermentans
    • (D) Clostridium histolyticum
  74. 74. Which of the following statement ?vibniochoiarae
    • (A) There is no narural reservoir
    • (B) Transpored in aikaline peptone water medium
    • (C) Halophilic
    • D) Oxidase negative
  75. 75. True statement about Widal test in typhoid is
    • (A) O-antigen titre remains positive for several months& reaction to it is rapid
    • (B) H- antigen titre remains positive for several months& reaction to it is rapid
    • (C) Both remain positive for several months & reactionto both is rapid
    • (D) None
  76. 76. True statement about widal test in cyphoid is
    • A) Widal test is confirmative in endemic areas
    • (B) Antibiotic treatment doesnot alter widal test resuits
    • (C) Previous infection aiterswidal test
    • (D) Widal test does not alter with prior vaccination
  77. 77. Shigella can be differenciated from E.Coii by ail of thefollowing features except:
    • (A) Shigella does not produce gas from glucose
    • (B) Shigella does not ferment lactose
    • C) Shigella does not ferment mannitol
    • D) Shegeila has no flageila is non motie
  78. 78. Which of the tollowing statement regarding shigelladysentriae type I is true
    • (A) It can lead to haemolyticuramic syndrome
    • (B) It produces an invasive enterotoxin
    • (C) It is anfaculative aerobes
    • (D) it is MR negative
  79. 79. All of the following bacteria test "Urease posiive" except
    • (A) E.Cali
    • (B) Proteus
    • (C) Kleibsella
    • (D) Staphylococcus
  80. 80. True statement about Influenza-A is
    • (A) It has a double stranded sogmented RNA
    • (B) Pandemic are caused by antigenic dnit
    • (C) Nucleocapsid antibody is not speciñc
    • (D) Hemaglutinin and Neuraminidase is strain specifitc
  81. 81. Herpes Zoster is caused by
    • (A) Herpes-simpiex type
    • (B) Herpes-simplex type II
    • (C) Epstein-barr virus
    • (D) Variceila
  82. 82. Cryptococcus-neoformans is a
    • (A) Protozoa
    • (B) Fungus
    • (C) Parasite
    • (D) Mycoplasma
  83. 83. Commonest parasite of CNS in india is
    • (A) Schistosomiasis
    • (B) Cysticercosis
    • (C) Tricheneila-spiralis
    • (D) Hydatid cyst
  84. 84. Commonest helmithic infection in AIDs is
    • (A) Trichurisrichura
    • (B) Strongyloidesstercoralis
    • (C) Enterobiusvermicularis
    • (D) Nector-americana
  85. PATHOLOGY
    • 85. Programmed cell death is also called as:
    • (A) Apoptosis
    • (B) Necrosis
    • (C) Degeneration
    • (D) Calcificarion
  86. 86. Haemorrhagic infarct may be seen in
    • (A) Brain
    • (B) Lung
    • C) Spleen
    • 4D) Hearr
  87. 87. All of the following constitute familial cancer syndromeexcept
    • (A) Xeroderma- pigmentosum
    • (B) Retinobiastom:a
    • (C) Neurofioromatosis
    • (D) MEN-I
  88. 88. Howel-Joily bodies may be seen arter
    • (A) Hepatectomy
    • (B)Splenectomy
    • (C) Pancreatectomy
    • D) Cholecystectomy
  89. 89. Intermediate form' of Non hodgkin's lymphoma i:s
    • (A) Small noncleaved cell
    • (B) Diffuse, small cleaved cell
    • (C) Lymphoblasu
    • (D) Large cell immunobiastic
  90. 90. 'Hairy cell leukemia' is a neoplastic proliferation of
    • (A) T.cells
    • (B) B.cells
    • (C) Myeloid cells
    • D) Macrophages
  91. 91. Characteristic feanure of Rheumatic carditis is
    • (A) Pericardinis
    • (3) Endocarditis
    • C) Myocarditis
    • (D) Pancarditis
  92. 92 Most common tumour of heart is
    • (A) Myxoma
    • (B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
    • (C) Fibroma
    • (D) Leiomyosarcoma
  93. 93. Almost always associated with one of the followingconditions
    • (A) Diabetes-mellitus
    • (B) Analgesic-nephropathy
    • (C) Chronic pyelonephritis
    • (D) Post streptococcal GN
  94. 94. Which of the foilowing types of glomerulonephritis ismost likely to cause CRF all except
    • (A) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    • (B) Membranous GN
    • (C) Membrano proliferative GN
    • D) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  95. 95. In Leprosy most common remal lesion seenis
    • (A) MGN
    • (B) MPGN
    • C) Focal glomeruloselerosis
    • D) Diffuse glomeruloscierosis
  96. 96. Centrilooular necrosis of liver may be seen with:
    • (A) Phospnorus
    • (B) Arsenic
    • (c) CCl4
    • D) Ethanol
  97. 97. Kaposi sarcoma associated with gut may be seen in
    • (A) Nonhodgkin's lymphoma
    • (B) HIV- infection
    • C) Eungal infection
    • (D) Keratoacanthosis
  98. 98. Must common histological types of lung carcinoma in India is
    • (A) Squamous cell C
    • (B) Adeno carcinoma
    • (C) Small cell C
    • D) Large Cell C
  99. 99. Which of the following histological type lung carcinomahas worst prognosis
    • (A) Squamous cell CA
    • (B) Adenocarcinoma
    • (C) Alveolar-carcinoma
    • (D) Small cell carcinoma
  100. 100. Characteristic pathological feature of Parkinson'sdisease is presence of
    • (A) Lewy bodies
    • (B) Babes nodule
    • (C) Neurofibrillarytangie
    • D) Negri-bodies
  101. 101. Pathological manifestation of chronic alcoholism include ail or the following except:
    • (A) Piecemeal necrosis
    • (B) Balloning degeneration
    • C)Microvesicular fatty changes
    • (D) Central hyaline scierosis
  102. 102. Suspended animation may be seen with
    • (A) Electrocution
    • (B) Stranguation banging
    • (C) Drowning
    • (D) Burn
  103. 103. Paltaufshaemorhage may be seen in
    • (A) Hanging
    • (B) Drowning
    • (C) Strangulation
    • (D) Carbon Monoxide poisoning
  104. 104. Contre-coup injury is a feature of injury to
    • (A) Brain
    • (B) Stomach
    • (C) Spleen
    • (D) Heart
  105. 105. Lucid Interval may be seen in
    • (A) Intracerebralhaemorrhage
    • (B) Insanity
    • (C) Subdural haemorrhage
    • (D) Alcohol intake
  106. 106. BAL is used as an antidoreposisoning by
    • (A) Morphine
    • (B) Aconite
    • (C) Phenol
    • D) Mercuny
  107. 107. Karvotyping of foetus may be done from all of thefollowing except
    • (A) Lymphocyte
    • (B) Monocyte
    • (C) Amniocyte
    • (D) Fibrobiast
  108. 108. Transvestism is
    • (A) Wearing clothes of opposite sex
    • (B) Touching ones own private parts to others
    • (C) Desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies
    • (D) Orgasm from visualisation part of the bodyof a womarn
  109. SOCIALAND PREVENTILE MEDICINE
    • 109. Indicators of physical quality of life index', includes allof the following except
    • (A) Infant mortality
    • (B) Life expectancy at age one
    • (C) Literacy
    • (D) Percapita gross national product
  110. 110. Best comparision of health starus of two population is by:
    • (A) Crude death rate
    • (B) Proportional crude death
    • C)Standarised mortality rate
    • (D) Specific death rate
  111. 111. Study of time, place and person is called as:
    • (A) Experimantal epidemiology
    • (B) Analyticai epidemiology
    • (C) Descriptive epidemiolog
    • (D) Randomised controlled trial
  112. 112. Bhopal gas tragedy is an exampie of:
    • (A) Point source epidemic
    • (B) Propagated epidemic
    • (C) Continous epidemic
    • D) Modern epidemics
  113. 113. Reconstituted measies vaccine should be used with in
    • (A) 1 hour
    • (B) 3 hour
    • C) 6 hour
    • (D) 12 hour
  114. 114. The diluent used for BCG is
    • (A) Distilled -water
    • B) Normal saline
    • (C) Dextrose solution
    • D) Ringer-lactate
  115. 115. Active immunisationfolowing exposure is given most commoniy for
    • (A) Rabies
    • (B) Polio
    • (C) Plague
    • (D) Measles
  116. 116. All of the following rabies vaccines are commerciallyavailable except
    • (A) Killed sheep brain vaccine
    • (B) Human diploid cell vaccine
    • (C) Vero continous cell vaccine
    • (D) Recombinant glycoprotein vaccine
  117. 117. Following facts true stand for coronary heart diseasein India, except
    • (A) CHD presents a decade later than in westerncountries
    • (B) Diabetes mellitus in the commonest cause
    • (C) More common in males than females
    • (D) Heavy smoking is an etiological factor
  118. APGME Examination Questions 1999277
    • 118. Commonest cause of infant mortality rate in india is
    • (A) Premarurity
    • (B) Diarrhoea
    • (C) Respiratory infection
    • D) Congenital maiformation
  119. 119. Exta calorie requiments for a lactating mother are:
    • (A) 300 Kcal/day
    • (B) 400 Kcal/day
    • (C) 550 Kcal/day
    • (D) 600 Kca/day
  120. 120.Which of the following trace element cannot be completelysupplemented by diet in pregnancy
    • (A) Fe
    • (B) Ca
    • (C) Zn
    • (D) Manganese
  121. 121. Colostrum is rich in the following constituents as comparedto breast milk
    • (A) Minerals
    • (B) Proteins.
    • (C) Fats
    • D) Carbohydrates
  122. 122. The child survival and safe mother hood (CSSM)programme includes all excep
    • (A) Essential newbom care
    • (B) Acute respiratory disease control
    • (C) Nutrition supplementation
    • (D) Universal immunization
  123. 123. In reproductive and child health programme, districts aredivided on the basis of
    • (A) Crude birth rate & infant mortality rate
    • (B) Crude birth rate & female literacy rate
    • (C) Crude death rate & crude birth rate
    • (D) Couple protection rate & in fant mortality rate
  124. 124, NALGONDA technique' is used in
    • (A) Endemic-fluorosis
    • (B) Epidemic-dropsy
    • (C) Endemic-ascites
    • (D) Neurolathyrism
  125. 125. Post contamination of water is indicated by
    • (A) Free and saline ammionia
    • (B) Dissolved H.S
    • (C) Nitrites
    • (D) Nitrates
  126. 126. Osmolality of WHO ORS is
    • (A) 240
    • (B) 280
    • (C) 300
    • (D) 330
  127. 127. Under the registration act of 1969. Death is to be registeredwith in
    • (A) 7 days
    • B) 14 days
    • C) 21 days
    • D) 28 days
  128. 128. Confidence limit includes:
    • (A) Range & standard deviation
    • B) Median and standard error
    • (C) Mean and standard error
    • (D) Mode and standard deviation
  129. 129. 95 % of confidence limitexist between
    • A) ± 1 S.D
    • B) ± 2 S.D
    • C) ± 3 S. D
    • D) ± 4 S.D
  130. 130. Predictive value of a positive test is defined as
    • (A) True ve/true +ve false-ve x 1 00
    • B)True+ve/true ve false -ve x 100
    • (C) False ve/true vefaise +ve x 100
    • (D) False+ ve/true ve false-ve x 100
  131. 131. Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is
    • (A) 20,000
    • (B) 30,000
    • (C) 40,000
    • D) 25,000
  132. 132. Difference between Dispensary and PHC is that a PHC
    • (A) Gives integrated services
    • B) Is confined to particular area
    • C) is managed by medical officer
    • D) Is located in rural areas
  133. 133. Retrospective evaluation ofmedical performance is known
    • (A) Medical audit
    • B) Medical evaluation
    • C) Performance evaluation
    • (D) Professional screening
  134. 134. Sickness benefit under ESI is available for a period of
    • (A) 30 days
    • (B) 46 days
    • (C) 56 days
    • (D) 86 days
  135. 135. Sanitation barrier' implies
    • (A) Segregation of faeces
    • (B) Personal hygiene
    • C) Elemination of flies
    • (D) Water pollution
  136. 136. "Hospice" refers to
    • (A) Group of professionals who provide counselling tofamilies
    • (B) "Colostomy bag" provision by an associationof colostomy patient in USA
    • C) Euthansia for cancer patient
    • (D) Special grounofpeopleheiping the old anderminally ill patients
  137. MEDICINE
    • 137. LVH is commonly seen with:
    • (A) Pure mitral stenasis
    • (B) ASD with fossa-ovalis
    • (C) Aortic incompetance
    • (D) Carcinoid syndrome
  138. 138. True statement about cardiac myxoma is
    • (A) Commonest site is left atrium
    • (B) Rarely recurrs after excision
    • (C) Distant metastasis are seen
    • (D) More common in females
  139. 139. In gram negative septicemia, early findings settingbefore shock of florid is
    • (A) ↑Cardiac output, ↑ Total peripheral resistance
    • (B) ↑Cardiac output, ↓ Total peripheral resistance
    • (C) ↓Cardiac out put, ↑Total peripheral resistance
    • (D) ↓Cardiac out put,↓ Total peripheral resistance
  140. 140. Hepatic-encephalopathy may be precipitated by all ofthe following except
    • (A) Anemia
    • (B) Barbiturates
    • (C) Hyper kalemia
    • (D) Hypothyroidism
  141. 141. Budd-chiari syndrome is rnost commonly due to
    • (A) Hepatic vein obstruction
    • (B) Acute portal hypertension
    • (C) Congenital portal hypertension
    • (D) IVC-obstruction
  142. 142. Maximum increase in α-fetoprotein increased is seenwith:
    • (A) Hepato-cellular-carcinoma
    • (B) Benign-mature teratoma
    • (C) Chorio-carcinoma
    • (D) Teratoma
  143. 143. Which of the following statements is not true regardingc-tetoproteun
    • (A) High levels are seen in fibrolamellar hepatic carcinoma
    • (B) Pre-operative high level indicates worse prognosis
    • (C) High level are seen in stomach carcinoma
    • (D) Levels may be increased in Hepatitis
  144. 144. H. pylori is known to cause all of the following except
    • (A) Gastric uicer
    • (B) Duodenal ulcer
    • (C) Gastric lymphoma
    • (D) Fundal gastritis
  145. 145. Diagnostic tests for H. Pylori include all of the followingexcept:
    • (A) Urea-breath test
    • B) Rapid urease test
    • C) Gastric biopsy &Warthin-starry stain
    • D) SAFA test
  146. 146. Epidemiologicai studies of H. pylori are done by using:
    • A) Urea-breath test
    • B) Serological markers
    • (C) Culture
    • D) Gastric-biopsy urease test
  147. 147. Acute infection with HBV is characterised by
    • (A) HBs Ag
    • B) Anti HBs Ag
    • (C) IgM anti HBc Ag and HBs Ag
    • (D) Anti HBe Ag
  148. 148. Most important investigation ror diagnosis of ZollingerEllison-syndrome is
    • (A) Ca infusion test
    • (B) Secretin injection tes
    • (C) ACTH stimuiation test
    • D) Steroid assay
  149. 149. Most common CNS manifestation of Whippie's disease
    • A) Cerebellar ataxia
    • B)Supranuclearophthaimoplegia
    • C) Seizure
    • D) Dementia
  150. 150. Megaioblastic anemia in biind loop syndrome is due to:
    • (A) Vitamen B Talabsorpuon
    • (B) Bacterial overgrowh
    • (C) Frequent diarrhoez
    • D) Decrease iron intake
Author
adarsha
ID
355774
Card Set
Mudit1999 Initial
Description
mudit khanna 1999 initial
Updated