-
1. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of
- (A) Rhomboides
- (B) Trapezius
- (C) L. dors
- (D) Serrarus-anterior
-
2. Median nerve supplies all muscles of the thumb excepr
- (A) Abductor-pollicis-brevis
- (B) Flexor-pollicisbrevis
- (C) Opponenspollicis
- (D) Adductor pollicis
-
3. A patient is brought to the emergency with history oftrauma to his right upper limb. Extension ofmetacarpophalangeal is lost. There is no wrist dropand extension of IP joint is normal. The most likely nerve invoived is
- (A) Ulnar nerve
- (B) Median nerve
- (C) Radial nerve
- (D) Posterior-interosseous nerve
-
4.All of the following are branches of subclavian arteryexcept
- (A) Venebral artery
- (B) Thyrocervical trunk
- (C) Subscapular artery
- D) Internal thoracic artery
-
5.Oesophagus receives supply from ail ofthe followingexcept
- (A) Bronchial artery
- (B) Intenal mammary artery
- (C) Inferior phrenic artery
- D) Interior thyroid artery
-
6.Left-gonodal vein drainsinto:
- (A) Leftrenalin(B) Inferior-vena-cava
- (C) Azygous-vein (D) liac vein
-
7.Shortest part of male urethra is
- (A) Prostatic
- (B) Membranous
- (C) Bulbar
- (D) Penile
-
8. Mandibular nerve passes through following foramen
- (A) F. ovaie (B) F. rotundum
- (C) F. spinosum (D) F. lacerum
-
9.All of the following nerves pass through Jugularforamen except
(A) 9m (B) 10n (C) 11nD) 12
-
10. The cranial nerve with the largest intra-cranial course is
- (A) Abducens- nerve (B) Trochlear nerve
- C) Optic nerve (D) Trngeninal nerve
-
11. Basal ganglia consist of all of the following except
- (A) Caudate nucleus
- (B) Putamen
- (C) Thalamus
- (D) Globus-pallidus
-
12. Which of the following are unpaired vessel in CNS
- (A) Anterior-cerebral artery
- (B) Basilar artery
- (C) Posterior-cerebellar artery
- (D) Posterior-communicating artery
-
13. All of the following structures may be compressedduring flexion and abduction of shoulder joint except:
- (A) Suprascapular nerve
- (B) Long head of biceps tendon
- C) Supraspinatus tendon
- (D) Subacromial-bursa
-
PHYSTOLOG
- 14. Co2 is transported in blood mainly as
- (A) Bicarbonare
- (B) Carbimino-compounds
- (C)Free CO
- (D) Plasma-protein combination
-
15. In upper air way obstruction ail of the following changesare seen except
- (A) Decreased Maximum breathing capacity
- (B) RV decreased
- (C) Decreased FEV
- (D) Decreased vital capacity
-
16. CCK-PZ causes all of the followngexcepr:
- (A) Gall biadder contraction
- (B) Pancreatic enzyme secretion
- (C) Increased gastrin secretion
- (D) Decreased lower esophageal sphinictor
-
17.Delta cells of pancreas secretes
- (A) Glucagon
- (B) Insulir
- (C) Somatostatin
- (D) Pancreatic polypeptide
-
18. Which of the following is true about Nephron function
- (A) Ascending thick limb is permeable to water
- (B) Descending thin limb is impenreable to water
- (C) Osmolality of intra-rubular content in DCT is morethan surrounding interstitution
- (D) Osmolality of intranubular content in PCT isisotonic to surrounding interstitium
-
19. Twitch of a single motor unit is called
- (A) Myoclonic-jerk
- (B) Fasciculation
- (C) Tremor
- (D) Chorea
-
20. Sympathetic stimulation causes all of the following except
- (A) Increase in heart rate
- (B) Increase in blood pressure
- (C) Increase in total peripheral resistance
- (D) Increase in venous capacitance
-
21. G-CSF and GMCSF in haematopoisis causes:
- (A) Leucocytosis
- (B) Erythrocytosis
- (C) Leucopenia
- (D) Thrombocytosis
-
22. Pain-sensitive intracranial structure is:
- (A) Piamater
- (B) Pialvassels
- (C) Duramater
- (D) Brain matter
-
23. Parasympatheric stimulation causes
- (A) Decrease GI secretion
- (B) Bronchodilation
- (C) Sweat-secretion
- (D) Pupillary constriction
-
24."Blood brain barrier" is present at all of the followingsites except
- A) Hebenularnucieus
- B. Subfonical organ
- (C) Cerebellum
- (D) Pontine nucicus
-
25.EEG waves from hippocampus are
- (A) α-Wave
- (B) B- Wave
- (C) Theta-Wave
- (D) Delta-Wave
-
26.CSF/plasma glucose ratio is
- (A) 0204
- (B) 0.6-0.8
- C) 12-1.6
- (D) 1.6-22
-
27.Sperm acquires motility in:
- (A) Seminal vesicle
- (B) Testes
- (C) Epidydimis
- (D) Ejaculatory duct
-
28.Antibodies against sperms may develop after
- (A) Trauma
- (B) Infection
- (C) Vasectomy
- (D) Orchidectomy
-
29. The gene coding for androgen receptors is located n
- (A) Short arm of X-chromosome
- (B) Short arm or Y-chromosome
- C) Long arm ofX- chromosome
- D) Long arm orY-chromosome
-
30. Optically inactive Amino Acid is
- (A) Proline
- (B) Glycine
- (C) Lysine
- (D) Leucine
-
31. True statement regarding Nitric oxide is
- (A) NO is synthesized from arginine
- (B) NO is spontaneou produced from NO
- (C) NO causes vasoconstriction
- (D) NO is released rom mitochondria
-
32. Thiamine acts as a cofactor in
- (A) Conversion of pyruvate to aceryl-CoA
- (B) Transamination reactions
- (C) Oxidation in respiratory chain
- (D) Conversion of pyridoxal to pyridoxalphospha
-
33.Following constitute dietary fibres except
- (A) Pectin
- (B) Cellulose
- (C) Hemiceilulose
- (D) Riboflavin
-
34. Which ofthe following aminoacid is excreated in rine inmaple syrup urine disease
- (A) Tryptophan
- (B) Phenylalanine
- (C) Leucine
- (D) Arginine
-
35. Ammonia is detoxified in brain to
- (A) Urea
- (B) Glutamine
- (C) GABA
- (D) Uric acid
-
36.Gaucher's disease in due to deficiency of enzyme
- (A) Sphingomyelinase
- (B) βGlucosidase
- (C) Hexosaminidase-A
- (D) βGalactosidase
-
37. Glucose can be synthesised from all of the following excep
- (A) Acetoacetate
- (B) Lacic Acid
- (C) Giycerol
- (D) Amino Acid
-
38. True about polymerase chain reaction is
- (A) Enzymatic DNA amplification
- (B) Recombinent DNA amplification
- C) Seperarion of protein fragments is senum
- (D) None
-
39. Translation occurs in
- (A) Ribosomes
- (B) Mitochondria
- (C) Nucleus
- (D) Cytopiasm
-
40. Gout is a disorder of:
- (A) Purine metabolism
- (B) Pyrimidine metabolism
- (C) Oxalate metabolism
- (D) Protein metabolism
-
41. Best enzyme marker for chronic alcoholism is:
- (A) Gamma glutamyl-cransferase
- (B) SCOT
- (C) SGPT
- (D) Aldolase
-
42. In cytochrom P-450, P stands for:
- A) Structural protein
- (B) Poiymer
- C) Suostrate protein
- D) Pigment
-
43. Dietery cholesterol is delivered ransported to extrahepatic tissue by
- (A) VLDL
- (B) LDL
- (C) Chylomicrons
- (D) LDL
-
44. Neostigmine is a
- (A) Primary ammonium compound
- (B) Secondary ammonium compound
- (C) Tertiary ammonium compound
- (D) Quartenary ammonium compound
-
45. Drug ofchoice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is
- (A) Neosigmine
- (B) Physostigmine
- (C) Tacrine
- (D) 4- amino pyridine
-
46. Selective c,-A blocker is:
- (A) Prazosin
- (B) Terazosin
- (C) Tamsulosin
- (D) Indoramine
-
47. β1 selective agonist is
- (A) Terbutaline
- (B)Albuteroi
- (C) Dobutamine
- (D) Isoetharine
-
48. All ofthe following are selective B, blockers except:
- (A) Atenolol
- (B)Metoprolol
- (C) Labetaiol
- D) Betaxolol
-
49. Selegilline is a selective inhibitor of:
- (A) MAO-A
- (B) MAO-B
- (C) Dopamine
- (D) Norepinephrine-uptake
-
50. Vigabatrin' a new antiepiieptic agent acts by
- (A) GABA- antagonism
- (B) GABA-agónism
- (C) NMDA antagonism
- (D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
-
51.Quinidine is a
- (A) Na channel-blocker
- (B) K +channel blocker
- (C) Ca channel blocker
- (D) Cl- channel blocker
-
52. All of the following statements are rue about nitratesexcept
- (A) It releases NO
- (B) It causes vasodilatatiorn
- (C) It decreases A.V. conduction
- (D) It has high first pass metabolism
-
53. Dipyndamole acts by
- A) Adenosine uptake inhibition
- (B) Inhibiting thramboxane A2
- (C) Stimulating PGI, synthesis
- (D) Inhibiting PGI, synthesis
-
54. All of the following are examples of bactericidal drugsexcept
- (A) NH
- (B) Rifampicin
- (C Ethambutol
- (D) Pyrazinamide
-
55.All of the following are drugs for ATT except
- (A) Kanamycin
- (B) Cycloserine
- (C) 5-flucytosine
- (D) Ofloxacin
-
56. Mechanism ofaction of erythromycin is interfèrence with:
- (A) Transcription
- (B) Translation
- C) Translocation
- D) Singnal transduction
-
57. Which of the following drugs acts on "motilin receptors:
- (A) Erythromycin
- (B) Tetracycline
- (C) Nortloxacin
- (D) Chloramphenicol
-
58. All of the statements are true about FLUOROQUINOLONES, except
- (A) Suspected of having teratogenic potential
- (B) Arthropathy of limb-in children may occur
- (C) Increase theophylline toxicity
- (D) Increase neuromuscular blocking action
-
59. Difference between action of DEC and Ivermectin in a
- case of scrotal filariasis is
- (A) DEC acts more effectively on microfiiariae thanlvemectin
- (B) DEC acts only on micro filariae and Ivermectinacts only on aduits.
- (C) DEC acts on both microfilariae and adults whie
- D) DEC acts on adults and Ivermection on microfilariasvennectin acts on adults only
-
60. Cyclosporin acts by inhibiting the proliferation of
- A) IL1
- (B) IL2
- (C) IL6
- (D) Macrophages
-
61. Side-effects of the cis-platinum include all ofthe followingexcept
- (A) Nausea and vomitting
- (B) Nephrotoxicity
- (C) Blindness
- (D) Ototoxicity
-
62. Milk-Alkali syndrome may be caused by ingestion of
- (A) Calcium-carbonate
- (B) Magnesium sulphate
- (C) Aluminiumtrisilicate
- (D) Aluminium hydroxide
-
63. Pancreatitis is a known side effect with administration of
- (A) L-Asparaginase
- (B) Corticosteroid
- C) Cyclophosphamide
- D) Vincristine
-
64. Puunonary infiltration may be seen with all of thefollowing drugs except
- (A)5FU
- (B) Bleomycin
- (C) Busulphan
- (D) Cyclophosphamide
-
65. SLE like syndrome is most commonly associated with administration of:
- (A) Rifampicin
- (B) Procainamide
- C) Digitalis
-
66. Prokaryotes are characterised by
- (A) Absence of nuclear membrane
- (B) Presence of microvilli on its surface
- (C) Presence of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
- D) All of the above
-
67. Which of the following immunogiobulinscancrosesplacenta
- (A) IgA
- (B) IgM
- (C) IgG
- (D) IgD
-
68. Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation
- (A) Allograft
- (B) Autograft
- (C) Xenograft
- (D) İsa graft
-
69. True statement regarding non-coagulase staphylococci
- (A) They are non-pathogenic
- (B) They commoniy infect indwelling prosthesis
- (C) They may cause scarlet fever
- (D) They are seperated by gram staining
-
70. True statement regarding Pneumococcusis
- (A) Virulence is due to poiysaccharide capsule
- (B) Capsuie is protein in nanure
- (C) Antibodies against capsule are not protective
- (D) Resistance to antibodies has not yet beenreported
-
71. True statement about diptheria toxin is
- (A) Phage toxin is mediated
- (B) Toxin is required for local infection
- C) Endotoxaemia causes systemic manifestation
- (D) Toxin Acts by inhibiting synthesis of capsule
-
72. Most common organism responsible for gas gangrene is
- (A) Clostridium-perfringens
- (B) Clostridium- difficile
- (C) Clostridium tetani
- D) Clostridium septicum
-
73. Most common organism responsible for pseudomembranous colitis is
- (A) Clostridium difficile
- (B) Clostridium botulism
- (C) Clostridium bifermentans
- (D) Clostridium histolyticum
-
74. Which of the following statement ?vibniochoiarae
- (A) There is no narural reservoir
- (B) Transpored in aikaline peptone water medium
- (C) Halophilic
- D) Oxidase negative
-
75. True statement about Widal test in typhoid is
- (A) O-antigen titre remains positive for several months& reaction to it is rapid
- (B) H- antigen titre remains positive for several months& reaction to it is rapid
- (C) Both remain positive for several months & reactionto both is rapid
- (D) None
-
76. True statement about widal test in cyphoid is
- A) Widal test is confirmative in endemic areas
- (B) Antibiotic treatment doesnot alter widal test resuits
- (C) Previous infection aiterswidal test
- (D) Widal test does not alter with prior vaccination
-
77. Shigella can be differenciated from E.Coii by ail of thefollowing features except:
- (A) Shigella does not produce gas from glucose
- (B) Shigella does not ferment lactose
- C) Shigella does not ferment mannitol
- D) Shegeila has no flageila is non motie
-
78. Which of the tollowing statement regarding shigelladysentriae type I is true
- (A) It can lead to haemolyticuramic syndrome
- (B) It produces an invasive enterotoxin
- (C) It is anfaculative aerobes
- (D) it is MR negative
-
79. All of the following bacteria test "Urease posiive" except
- (A) E.Cali
- (B) Proteus
- (C) Kleibsella
- (D) Staphylococcus
-
80. True statement about Influenza-A is
- (A) It has a double stranded sogmented RNA
- (B) Pandemic are caused by antigenic dnit
- (C) Nucleocapsid antibody is not speciñc
- (D) Hemaglutinin and Neuraminidase is strain specifitc
-
81. Herpes Zoster is caused by
- (A) Herpes-simpiex type
- (B) Herpes-simplex type II
- (C) Epstein-barr virus
- (D) Variceila
-
82. Cryptococcus-neoformans is a
- (A) Protozoa
- (B) Fungus
- (C) Parasite
- (D) Mycoplasma
-
83. Commonest parasite of CNS in india is
- (A) Schistosomiasis
- (B) Cysticercosis
- (C) Tricheneila-spiralis
- (D) Hydatid cyst
-
84. Commonest helmithic infection in AIDs is
- (A) Trichurisrichura
- (B) Strongyloidesstercoralis
- (C) Enterobiusvermicularis
- (D) Nector-americana
-
PATHOLOGY
- 85. Programmed cell death is also called as:
- (A) Apoptosis
- (B) Necrosis
- (C) Degeneration
- (D) Calcificarion
-
86. Haemorrhagic infarct may be seen in
- (A) Brain
- (B) Lung
- C) Spleen
- 4D) Hearr
-
87. All of the following constitute familial cancer syndromeexcept
- (A) Xeroderma- pigmentosum
- (B) Retinobiastom:a
- (C) Neurofioromatosis
- (D) MEN-I
-
88. Howel-Joily bodies may be seen arter
- (A) Hepatectomy
- (B)Splenectomy
- (C) Pancreatectomy
- D) Cholecystectomy
-
89. Intermediate form' of Non hodgkin's lymphoma i:s
- (A) Small noncleaved cell
- (B) Diffuse, small cleaved cell
- (C) Lymphoblasu
- (D) Large cell immunobiastic
-
90. 'Hairy cell leukemia' is a neoplastic proliferation of
- (A) T.cells
- (B) B.cells
- (C) Myeloid cells
- D) Macrophages
-
91. Characteristic feanure of Rheumatic carditis is
- (A) Pericardinis
- (3) Endocarditis
- C) Myocarditis
- (D) Pancarditis
-
92 Most common tumour of heart is
- (A) Myxoma
- (B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
- (C) Fibroma
- (D) Leiomyosarcoma
-
93. Almost always associated with one of the followingconditions
- (A) Diabetes-mellitus
- (B) Analgesic-nephropathy
- (C) Chronic pyelonephritis
- (D) Post streptococcal GN
-
94. Which of the foilowing types of glomerulonephritis ismost likely to cause CRF all except
- (A) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
- (B) Membranous GN
- (C) Membrano proliferative GN
- D) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
-
95. In Leprosy most common remal lesion seenis
- (A) MGN
- (B) MPGN
- C) Focal glomeruloselerosis
- D) Diffuse glomeruloscierosis
-
96. Centrilooular necrosis of liver may be seen with:
- (A) Phospnorus
- (B) Arsenic
- (c) CCl4
- D) Ethanol
-
97. Kaposi sarcoma associated with gut may be seen in
- (A) Nonhodgkin's lymphoma
- (B) HIV- infection
- C) Eungal infection
- (D) Keratoacanthosis
-
98. Must common histological types of lung carcinoma in India is
- (A) Squamous cell C
- (B) Adeno carcinoma
- (C) Small cell C
- D) Large Cell C
-
99. Which of the following histological type lung carcinomahas worst prognosis
- (A) Squamous cell CA
- (B) Adenocarcinoma
- (C) Alveolar-carcinoma
- (D) Small cell carcinoma
-
100. Characteristic pathological feature of Parkinson'sdisease is presence of
- (A) Lewy bodies
- (B) Babes nodule
- (C) Neurofibrillarytangie
- D) Negri-bodies
-
101. Pathological manifestation of chronic alcoholism include ail or the following except:
- (A) Piecemeal necrosis
- (B) Balloning degeneration
- C)Microvesicular fatty changes
- (D) Central hyaline scierosis
-
102. Suspended animation may be seen with
- (A) Electrocution
- (B) Stranguation banging
- (C) Drowning
- (D) Burn
-
103. Paltaufshaemorhage may be seen in
- (A) Hanging
- (B) Drowning
- (C) Strangulation
- (D) Carbon Monoxide poisoning
-
104. Contre-coup injury is a feature of injury to
- (A) Brain
- (B) Stomach
- (C) Spleen
- (D) Heart
-
105. Lucid Interval may be seen in
- (A) Intracerebralhaemorrhage
- (B) Insanity
- (C) Subdural haemorrhage
- (D) Alcohol intake
-
106. BAL is used as an antidoreposisoning by
- (A) Morphine
- (B) Aconite
- (C) Phenol
- D) Mercuny
-
107. Karvotyping of foetus may be done from all of thefollowing except
- (A) Lymphocyte
- (B) Monocyte
- (C) Amniocyte
- (D) Fibrobiast
-
108. Transvestism is
- (A) Wearing clothes of opposite sex
- (B) Touching ones own private parts to others
- (C) Desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies
- (D) Orgasm from visualisation part of the bodyof a womarn
-
SOCIALAND PREVENTILE MEDICINE
- 109. Indicators of physical quality of life index', includes allof the following except
- (A) Infant mortality
- (B) Life expectancy at age one
- (C) Literacy
- (D) Percapita gross national product
-
110. Best comparision of health starus of two population is by:
- (A) Crude death rate
- (B) Proportional crude death
- C)Standarised mortality rate
- (D) Specific death rate
-
111. Study of time, place and person is called as:
- (A) Experimantal epidemiology
- (B) Analyticai epidemiology
- (C) Descriptive epidemiolog
- (D) Randomised controlled trial
-
112. Bhopal gas tragedy is an exampie of:
- (A) Point source epidemic
- (B) Propagated epidemic
- (C) Continous epidemic
- D) Modern epidemics
-
113. Reconstituted measies vaccine should be used with in
- (A) 1 hour
- (B) 3 hour
- C) 6 hour
- (D) 12 hour
-
114. The diluent used for BCG is
- (A) Distilled -water
- B) Normal saline
- (C) Dextrose solution
- D) Ringer-lactate
-
115. Active immunisationfolowing exposure is given most commoniy for
- (A) Rabies
- (B) Polio
- (C) Plague
- (D) Measles
-
116. All of the following rabies vaccines are commerciallyavailable except
- (A) Killed sheep brain vaccine
- (B) Human diploid cell vaccine
- (C) Vero continous cell vaccine
- (D) Recombinant glycoprotein vaccine
-
117. Following facts true stand for coronary heart diseasein India, except
- (A) CHD presents a decade later than in westerncountries
- (B) Diabetes mellitus in the commonest cause
- (C) More common in males than females
- (D) Heavy smoking is an etiological factor
-
APGME Examination Questions 1999277
- 118. Commonest cause of infant mortality rate in india is
- (A) Premarurity
- (B) Diarrhoea
- (C) Respiratory infection
- D) Congenital maiformation
-
119. Exta calorie requiments for a lactating mother are:
- (A) 300 Kcal/day
- (B) 400 Kcal/day
- (C) 550 Kcal/day
- (D) 600 Kca/day
-
120.Which of the following trace element cannot be completelysupplemented by diet in pregnancy
- (A) Fe
- (B) Ca
- (C) Zn
- (D) Manganese
-
121. Colostrum is rich in the following constituents as comparedto breast milk
- (A) Minerals
- (B) Proteins.
- (C) Fats
- D) Carbohydrates
-
122. The child survival and safe mother hood (CSSM)programme includes all excep
- (A) Essential newbom care
- (B) Acute respiratory disease control
- (C) Nutrition supplementation
- (D) Universal immunization
-
123. In reproductive and child health programme, districts aredivided on the basis of
- (A) Crude birth rate & infant mortality rate
- (B) Crude birth rate & female literacy rate
- (C) Crude death rate & crude birth rate
- (D) Couple protection rate & in fant mortality rate
-
124, NALGONDA technique' is used in
- (A) Endemic-fluorosis
- (B) Epidemic-dropsy
- (C) Endemic-ascites
- (D) Neurolathyrism
-
125. Post contamination of water is indicated by
- (A) Free and saline ammionia
- (B) Dissolved H.S
- (C) Nitrites
- (D) Nitrates
-
126. Osmolality of WHO ORS is
- (A) 240
- (B) 280
- (C) 300
- (D) 330
-
127. Under the registration act of 1969. Death is to be registeredwith in
- (A) 7 days
- B) 14 days
- C) 21 days
- D) 28 days
-
128. Confidence limit includes:
- (A) Range & standard deviation
- B) Median and standard error
- (C) Mean and standard error
- (D) Mode and standard deviation
-
129. 95 % of confidence limitexist between
- A) ± 1 S.D
- B) ± 2 S.D
- C) ± 3 S. D
- D) ± 4 S.D
-
130. Predictive value of a positive test is defined as
- (A) True ve/true +ve false-ve x 1 00
- B)True+ve/true ve false -ve x 100
- (C) False ve/true vefaise +ve x 100
- (D) False+ ve/true ve false-ve x 100
-
131. Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is
- (A) 20,000
- (B) 30,000
- (C) 40,000
- D) 25,000
-
132. Difference between Dispensary and PHC is that a PHC
- (A) Gives integrated services
- B) Is confined to particular area
- C) is managed by medical officer
- D) Is located in rural areas
-
133. Retrospective evaluation ofmedical performance is known
- (A) Medical audit
- B) Medical evaluation
- C) Performance evaluation
- (D) Professional screening
-
134. Sickness benefit under ESI is available for a period of
- (A) 30 days
- (B) 46 days
- (C) 56 days
- (D) 86 days
-
135. Sanitation barrier' implies
- (A) Segregation of faeces
- (B) Personal hygiene
- C) Elemination of flies
- (D) Water pollution
-
136. "Hospice" refers to
- (A) Group of professionals who provide counselling tofamilies
- (B) "Colostomy bag" provision by an associationof colostomy patient in USA
- C) Euthansia for cancer patient
- (D) Special grounofpeopleheiping the old anderminally ill patients
-
MEDICINE
- 137. LVH is commonly seen with:
- (A) Pure mitral stenasis
- (B) ASD with fossa-ovalis
- (C) Aortic incompetance
- (D) Carcinoid syndrome
-
138. True statement about cardiac myxoma is
- (A) Commonest site is left atrium
- (B) Rarely recurrs after excision
- (C) Distant metastasis are seen
- (D) More common in females
-
139. In gram negative septicemia, early findings settingbefore shock of florid is
- (A) ↑Cardiac output, ↑ Total peripheral resistance
- (B) ↑Cardiac output, ↓ Total peripheral resistance
- (C) ↓Cardiac out put, ↑Total peripheral resistance
- (D) ↓Cardiac out put,↓ Total peripheral resistance
-
140. Hepatic-encephalopathy may be precipitated by all ofthe following except
- (A) Anemia
- (B) Barbiturates
- (C) Hyper kalemia
- (D) Hypothyroidism
-
141. Budd-chiari syndrome is rnost commonly due to
- (A) Hepatic vein obstruction
- (B) Acute portal hypertension
- (C) Congenital portal hypertension
- (D) IVC-obstruction
-
142. Maximum increase in α-fetoprotein increased is seenwith:
- (A) Hepato-cellular-carcinoma
- (B) Benign-mature teratoma
- (C) Chorio-carcinoma
- (D) Teratoma
-
143. Which of the following statements is not true regardingc-tetoproteun
- (A) High levels are seen in fibrolamellar hepatic carcinoma
- (B) Pre-operative high level indicates worse prognosis
- (C) High level are seen in stomach carcinoma
- (D) Levels may be increased in Hepatitis
-
144. H. pylori is known to cause all of the following except
- (A) Gastric uicer
- (B) Duodenal ulcer
- (C) Gastric lymphoma
- (D) Fundal gastritis
-
145. Diagnostic tests for H. Pylori include all of the followingexcept:
- (A) Urea-breath test
- B) Rapid urease test
- C) Gastric biopsy &Warthin-starry stain
- D) SAFA test
-
146. Epidemiologicai studies of H. pylori are done by using:
- A) Urea-breath test
- B) Serological markers
- (C) Culture
- D) Gastric-biopsy urease test
-
147. Acute infection with HBV is characterised by
- (A) HBs Ag
- B) Anti HBs Ag
- (C) IgM anti HBc Ag and HBs Ag
- (D) Anti HBe Ag
-
148. Most important investigation ror diagnosis of ZollingerEllison-syndrome is
- (A) Ca infusion test
- (B) Secretin injection tes
- (C) ACTH stimuiation test
- D) Steroid assay
-
149. Most common CNS manifestation of Whippie's disease
- A) Cerebellar ataxia
- B)Supranuclearophthaimoplegia
- C) Seizure
- D) Dementia
-
150. Megaioblastic anemia in biind loop syndrome is due to:
- (A) Vitamen B Talabsorpuon
- (B) Bacterial overgrowh
- (C) Frequent diarrhoez
- D) Decrease iron intake
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