-
151. All of the foilowing statements about digitalis are true except
- (A) Excrecion is mainly renal
- (B) Oral absorption is good
- (C) Actively metabolized in liver
- D) Lipid soluble
-
152. All of the tollowing may precipitate digitalis toxicity except:
- (A) Hypocalcemia
- (B) Hypokalemia
- (C) Hypomagnecemia
- (D) Hypothyroidism
-
153. Treatment of digoxin over dose includes administration of ail of the following except
- (A) Potassium
- (B) Lignocaine
- (C) Phenyton
- (D) Hemodialysis
-
154. Co-arctation of aorta may be associated with all of the following except
- (A) Bicuspid aortic value
- (B) Tumer syndrome
- C) Renal artery stenosis
- (D) PDA
-
155. Mitral stenosis is associated with
- (A) Right ventricular hyper trophy
- (B) Left ventricular hypertrophy
- (C) Left axis deviation
- (D) ORS complex
-
156. Most common type of hepatitis responsible for epidemics in India is
- (A) Hepatitis A
- (B) Hapatitis B
- (C) Hepatitis C
- (D) Hepatitis E
-
157. Commonest cause of Budd Chiary syndrome is
- (A) Valve in the IVC
- (B) Hepatocellular carcinoma
- (C) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
- (D) Renal cell carcinoma
-
158. Adult polycystic kidney is inherited as
- (A) Autosomai-co-dominant
- (B) Autosomal dominant
- (C) Autosomal recessive
- (D) X-linked dominant
-
159. Most common cause of amoebic lung abscess is
- (A) Aspiration
- (B) Direct spread from liver
- (C) Hematogenous spread from liver
- (D) Hematogenous spread from gut
-
160. Ail of the following may be associated with thymoma except
- (A) Myasthenia-gravis
- (B) Pure red cell aplasia
- (C) Superior mediastinal compression syndrome
- (D) Hypergammaglobulinemia
-
161. Indication of systemic steroids in rheumatoid arthritis is
- (A) Mononeuritis muitiplex
- (B) Carpu! tunnel syndrome
- (C) Presence of deformities
- (D) Articular cartilage involvement
-
162. Least common site to be involved in osteoarthritis amongst the following is
- (A) Hip joint
- (B) Knee joint
- (C) Carpometacarpal joint of thumb
- (D) Metacarpophalangeai joint
-
163. Low doses of aspirin therapy is essentially advised for all ofthe following conditions except
- (A) SLE
- (B) IUGR
- (C) Post myocardinal infarction
- (D) Pre ecclampsia
-
164. B/L hilar lymphadenopathy, along with non caseating granuiomas is a characteristic feature of
- A) Sarcoidosis
- (B) Scleroderma
- (C) SLE
- (D) Stein-leventhal syndrome
-
165. Increased amylase may be seen in all of the following except:
- (A) Pancreatic pseudocyst
- (B) Appendicitis
- (C) Perforated peptic ulcer
- (D)Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
-
166. Most common cause of mediastinitis is
- (A) Tracheal rupture
- (B) Esophageal rupture
- (C) Drugs
- (D) Idiopathic
-
167. Featuers not seen in Cushing's Syndrome is
- (A) Hypoglycemia
- (B) Hypertension
- (C) Frank psychosis
- (D) Hypokalemia
-
168. Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is
- (A) Solitary adenoma
- (B) Chief cell hyperplasia
- (C) Muitiple adenoma
- (D) Werner's syndrome
-
169. Hypercalcemia is not a feature of one of the following conditions
- (A) Primary hyperparathyroidism
- (B) Mutiple myeloma
- (C) Tumouriysis syndrome
- D) Sarcoidosis
-
170. All of the following are known to cause hyperprolactenemia except
- (A) Methyldopa
- (B) Phenothiazines
- (C) Bromocriptine
- (D) Metociopramide
- 171. Hyponatremia may be seen in all of the following condiions except
- (A) Mucoviscidosis
- (B) SIADH
- (C) Diabetes insipidus
- D) Adrenal hyperplasia
-
172. Parkinsonism is characterised by all of the following characteristic features except
- (A) Rigidity
- (B) Akinesia
- (C) Tremors at rest
- (D) Past pointing
-
173. Cinicai feaures of normai pressure hydrocephalus include all of the following except
- (A) Dementia
- (B) Aphasia
- (C) Gait disturbance
- (D) Urinary incontinence
-
174 All of the following tumors are malignant except
- (A) Glioma
- (B) Astrocytoma
- (C) Hemangioblastoma
- (D) Ependymoma
-
175. Spinal segment in knee jerk include all of the following except
-
176. Following homonal levels are increased in small cell carcinoma of lung except
- (A) ACTH
- (B) Growth hormone
- (C) ANF
- (D) AVP
-
177. Best test for Small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates is
- A) Lund meal test
- (B) Shilling test
- C) D-Xylose test
- D) Follacin test
-
178. Obesity is associated with all of the following except:
- (A) Osteoarthritis
- (B) Hypertension
- (C) Gall stones
- (D) Pancreatitis
-
179. An X-linked recessive disease is characterised by the following inheritance
- (A) Vertical transmission
- (B) 50% female carriers if male is affected and female is normal
- (C) 50% male affected if female is carrier and male is normal
- (D) 50% male carriers if female is affected and male
-
180. Tuberculous pleural effusion is characterised by all of the following features except effusion
- (A) Harmorrhagic effusion
- (B) Pleural fluid LDH more than 60% that of serum LDH
- (C) Protein in apirated fluid is increased.
- (D) Mesothelial cells.
-
181. Kala-azar is not responding to primary reatment. The
- treatnent should now consist or
- (A) Doubie dose of antimony
- (B) Amphotericin-B
- (C) Ketoconazoie
- (D) Splenectomy
-
182. Which type of haemangioma resolves spontaneousiy
- (A) Port wine stairn
- (B) Strawberry angioma
- (C) Cavermous angioma
- (D) Plexiform angioma
-
183. True statement for axiai flap is:
- (A) Cames its own vessels within it
- (B) Kept in limb
- (C) Transverse lap
- (D) Carries its own nerve in it
-
184. All of the following statements about malignant melanoma are true except
- (A) Prognosis is better in female than in male
- (B) Acral lentiginous melanoma carrier a good prognosis
- (C) Stage IIA shows satellite deposits
- (D) Most common type is superficiai spreading melanoma
-
185. Carcinoma of buccal mucosa commonly drain to the following lymph node sites
- (A) Sub mental
- (B) Sub mandibular
- (C) Supraclavicuiar
- (D) Cervical
-
186. Treatment of pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is
- (A) Superfacial parodictomy
- (B) Radicai removal
- (C) Deep lobe removal
- (D) Total removal
-
187. Lymphnode metastasis is a common feature with the following variant of soft tissue sarcoma
- (A) Fibrosarcoma
- (B) Angiosarcoma
- (C) Liposarcoma
- (D) Neurofibrosarcoma
-
188. MEN-I is seen with the following type of thyroid carcinoma
- (A) Papilary
- (B) Medullary
- (C) anaplastic
- (D) Follicular
-
189. Screening method for medullary carcinoma thyroid is
- (A) Serum calcitonin
- (B) S. calcium
- (C) S. alkaine phosohate
- (D) S acid phosphatase
-
190. All of the foilowing are required for visualization of gall bladder in an oral cholecystogram except
- (A) Motor mechanism of gall biadder
- (B) Patency of cystic duct
- (C) Ability to absorb water
- (D) Functioning hepatocytes
-
191. Most common site of gall stone impactation is
- (A) Duedenojejunal junction
- (B) Proximal to iliocaecal junction
- (C) Distal to iliocaecal junction
- (D) Colon
-
192. The treatment of choice for silent stones in Gall bladder
- (A) Observation
- (B) Chenodeoxy cholic acid
- (C) Cholecytectomy
- (D) Lithotripsy
-
193. All of the following are known predesposing factors for cholangiocarcinoma except
- (A) CBD stones
- C) Clonorchis sinensis
- (c) Ulcerative colitis
- (D) Primary scierosing choiangitis
-
194. All of the following statements about Pseudopancreatic cysts are true except
- (A) Percutaneous aspiration is trearment of choice
- (B) Cystojejunostomy is treatment of choice
- (C) Serum amylase levels are increased
- (D) Presents as an epigastric mass
-
195. True statements about congeniatal megacolon include all of the following except
- (A) Dilatation &hyper trophy of pelvic clolon
- (B) Loud borborygmi
- (C) Symptoms appear with in 3 days following birth
- (D) Large stool
-
196. All of the following are features of exstrophy of the bladder except
- (A) Epispadias
- (B) Cloacal membrane is present
- (C) Posterior bladder wail protrudes through the defects
- (D) Umbiical and inguinal hernia
-
197. Best indication for Testicular biopsy in a male is
- (A) Polysperamia
- (B) Oligospermia
- (C) Necrospermia
- D) Azoospermia
-
198. All of the following statements regarding bronchial cysts are true except
- (A) Seen in mediastinum
- (B) 50-70% occur in lung
- (C) Are Commonly infected
- (D) Multiocular
-
199. Orthobaric oxygen is used in
- (A) CO poisoning
- (B) Ventilation faiiure
- (C) Anerobic infectiorn
- (D) Gangrene
-
200. Most common cancer in India
- (A) Ca cervix
- (B) Ca breast
- (C) Ca lung.
- (D) Ca oral cavity
-
201. Clinical feature of fracture of Zygomatic bone inciude all of the following except
- (A) Dipiopia
- (B) Trismus
- (C) Bleeding
- (D) C.S.F. rhinorhea
-
202. β2-microglobulin is an marker for prognosis in
- (A) SLE
- (B) Muitipie myeloma
- (C) AIDS
- (D) Chronic pancreatitis
-
203. Increased anticholinesterase enzyme is seen in
- (A) Neural tube defects
- (B) Diaphrgmatic henia
- (C) Cardiac defect
- (D) Oesophgeal atresia
-
PEDIATRICS
- 204. Vomiting on the first day of baby's life may be caused by all of the foilowing except
- (A) Pyloric stenosis
- (B) Eesophageai atersia
- (C) Aerophagy
- (D) Amniotic gastritis
-
205. Meconium aspiration is done for 3 times but no breathing occurs. Next step in resuscitation would be
- (A) Chest compression
- (B) O, inhaiation
- (C) Bag & mask intubation
- (D) Trikling of sole
-
206 . Most common cause of cholestatic janudice in newborn
- (A) Hypoplasia of biliary tract
- (B) Neonatal heptitis
- (C) Choledochai cyst
- D) Physiological
-
207. Height of chidlcren in 2-10 years af age is increased by
- (A) 2 cm/year
- (B) 4 cm/year
- (C) 6 cm/year
- (D) 10 cm/year
-
208、Chandu, a one year old child should be admited in hospital for following complains except:
- (A) Retusal of feed
- (B) Respiratory rate of 50 perminute with chest rerraction
- (C) Fever 39C
- (D) Difficulty in wakinig
-
209. A child present with antimongoioid siant, pulmonary stenosis, short stature and undescended testis. Most likely diagnosis is
- (A) Kinefeiter's syndrome
- (B) Noonan's syndrome
- (C) Turner's syndrome
- (D) Down syndrome
-
210. Hemophilic A have following diagnostic features except
- (A) ↓ VIII tactor
- (B) Increase PTT
- (C) Increase PT
- (D) Normal BT
-
211. Most common cause of stustained hypertension in children is
- (A) Co-actation of aorta
- (B) Parenchymal disease of kidney
- (C) Phaeochromocytoma
- (D) Drug-induced
-
212. A.l of the following statements regarding total anomalous puimonary connection are true except
- (A) The total pulmonary venous blood reaches right atrium
- (B) Always associated with a VSD
- (C) The oxygen saturation of the blood in the pulmonary artery is higher than that in the aorta
- (D) Infracardiac type is always obstructive
-
213. Obstruction in pulmonary stenosis may occur at the following sites
- (A) Supravaivular
- (B) Valvular
- (C) Subvalvular
- (D) All of the above
-
214. A case of nephritis, presents with haemaruria & hemoptysis. Antincuiear membrane antibody are present Likely diagnosis is
- (A) Good pasteur syndrome
- (B) Nephritic syndrome
- (C) Nephrotic syndrome
- (D) Gullian barre syndrome
-
215. Suprasellar caic:fication is seen in
- (A) Craniophyaryng:oma
- (B) Medulloblastoma
- (C) Papilloma ofthe choroid piexus
- (D) Oligodendroglioma
-
216. All of the following are known complications of tuberculous meningitis except
- (A) Craniai nerve palsy
- (B) Cerebral infarction
- (C) Ptosis
- (D) Parkinsonism
-
217. Which of the following types of leukemia prophylautic methotrexate tor CNS prophylaxis is administered.
- (A) ALL
- (B) AML
- (C) CLu
- (D) CML
-
218. Drug of choice in sumpie partiai seizure is
- (A) Phenytoin
- (B) Valproic acid
- (C) Carbemazepine
- (D) Phenobarbitone
-
219. Most common posterior fossa tumour in chitdren i
- (A) Meduiloblastoma
- (B) Gioblastoma muitiiormae
- (C) Astroytoma
- (D) Meningioma
-
220. Tumor associated with best prognosis in children is
- (A) Medullobiastoma
- (B) Ependymoma
- (C) Cerebellar astrocytoma
- (D) Glioblastoma-multiformi
-
221. All of the following are components or manning score except
- (A) Non stress rest
- (B) Oxytocin chailenge test
- (C) Fetal body movement
- (D) Respiratory acavity of child
-
222. All of the following can be used for establishing antenatai diagnosis except
- (A) Fetal blood
- (B) Maternal blood
- (C) Amniotic ilud
- D) Decidua
-
223. Shortest diameter of fetal skull is
- A) Suboccipito-bregmatic
- (B) Bitemporal
- (C) Sub occipito frontai
- (D) BPD
- 1:07 PM
-
224. Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy:
- (A) Mitral stenosis
- (B) Mitrai regurtation
- (C) Patent ductus arteriosus
- (D) Tatralogy of fallot's
-
225. Most common congenital malformation seen in a diabetic pregnant woman amongst the following are
- (A) Cardiac defect
- (B) Renal defect
- (C) Liver defect
- (D) Lung defect
-
226. One of the following features can be used to define a contracted pelivs
- (A) Transverse diameter of 10 cm
- (B) AP diameter of 12 cm
- (C) Platypelloid pelvis
- (D) Gynacoid pelvis
-
227 Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of 'face of pubis' delivery
- (A) Gynaecoid peivis
- (B) Anthropoid pelvis
- (C) Android pelvis
- D) Plarypelloid pelvis
-
228. Commonest cause of breech presentation is
- (A) Prematurity
- (B) Post maturity
- (C) Diabets mellitus
- (D) Osteomalacia
-
229. Rupture of membrane is said to be premature when it occurs at
- (A) 38 weeks of pregnancy
- (B) 32 weeks of pregnancy
- (C) Prior of Ist stage to labour
- (D) II stage of labour
-
230. Likely size of uterus at 8 weeks post partum is
- (A) 100 gm
- (B) 500gm
- C) 700 gm
- D) 900gm
-
231. Postpartum decidual secretions present are referred to
- (A) Lochia
- (B) Bleeding per vaginum
- (C) Vasa-previa
- (D) Decidua-capsularis
-
232. IUGR is defined when:
- (A) Bith weight is below the tenth percentile of the average of gestational age
- (B) Birth weight is below the 20 percentile of the average of gestational age
- (C) Birth weight is below the 50 percentile of the average of gestational age
- (D) Weight of baby is less than 1000 gm
-
233. Absoiute contraindication for IUCD inciudes all of the following except
- (A) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
- (B) Suspected pregnancy
- (C) Congenital maiformation of uterus
- (D) PID
-
234 Asymptomatic carrage of gonococcal infection in female is commoniy seen in
- (A) Endocervix
- (B) Vagina
- (C) Urethra
- (D) Fornix
-
235. All of the following conditions are associated with primary amenorhea except
- (A) Testicular feminization syndrome
- (B) Stein-leventhai svndrome
- (C) Turner's syndrome
- (D) Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome
-
236. Least common complication of fibroid uterus is
- (A) Malignant change
- (B) Hyaline change
- (C) Torsion
- (D) Cystic degeneration
-
237. Carcinoma cervix extends upto lateral pelvic wall. The stage would be
- (A) Stagei
- (B) Stagel
- (C) Stageill
- D) Stage IV
-
238. A 42 year olg femaie P3+0+0+3 is found to have carcinoma in situ. Best treatment would be
- (A) Hysterectomy
- (B) Wertheim's bysterectomy
- (C) Conisation
- (D) Wait and watch
-
239. Which of the foilowing are masculizing tumours of the ovary:
- (A) Granulosa ceil tumour
- (B) Dysgerminoma
- (C) Dermoid Cyst
- (D) Arrbenoblastoma
-
240. Best prognosis for reversibility is seen in
- (A) Isthemic-isthemic type
- (B) Isthemic-ampullary type
- (C) Ampullary-forneacial type
- (D) Ampullary-fimbrial type
-
241. A middle aged female presents with increasing visua loss, breast enlargment & irregular menses.Investigation of choices would be
- (A) S. calcitonin
- (B) S. prolactin
- (C) S. haemogiobin concentration
- (D) S. calcium
-
242. Most common nerve to be damaged in dislocation of shoulder is
- (A) Axillary nerve
- (B) Radiai nerve
- (C) Median nerve
- (D) Musculocutaneous nerve
-
243. Most common joint to undergo recurrent dislocation is
- (A) Shoulder jount
- (B) Patela
- (C) Knee joint
- (D) Hip join
-
244. Most common complication of colle's fracture is
- (A) Stiffness of fingers
- (B) Sudeck's dystrophy
- (C) Nonunion
- (D) Tendon rupture
-
245. Tennis elbow', is characterized by
- (A) Tendemess over the medial epicondyle
- (B) Tendinits of common extensor origin
- (C) Tendinitisof common lexor origin
- (D) Painful flexion and extension
-
246. Open reduction & internal fixation is done for all of the following # except
- (A) Patella #
- (B) Olecranon#
- (C) Von barton's #
- (D) # Lateral condyle of humerus
-
247. All of the following factors fascilitate non union except
- (A) Haematoma formation
- (B) Periosteal injuries
- (C) Absence of nerve supply
- (D) Chronic infection
-
248. Most common site of scaphoid fracture is
- (A) Waist
- (B) Proximal Fagment
- C) Distai fragment
- D) Titing of the lunate
-
249. First symptom in tuberculous cord compression is
- (A) Sensory change
- (B) Decrease tendon reflex
- (C) Spastic:ty
- (D) Lower limb weakness
-
250 Most common charcot's joints invoived in diabetes mellitus are those of
- (A) Shoulder
- (B) Ankle
- (C) Knee
- (D) Foot
-
251. Characteristic crystals in pseudogout arse
- (A) Calcium pyrophosphate
- (B) Sodium monourate
- (C) Potassium urate
- (D) Sodium pyrophasphate
-
252. Power of a reduced eye is normally
- (A) 20-D
- (B) 35-D
- (C) 18-D
- (D) -58-D
-
253. All of the following are examples or mycriaricsexcept
- (A) Atropine
- (B) Homatropine
- (C) Tropicamide
- (D) Pirenzepine
-
254. All of the following are cycloplegics excep
- (A) Phenyiephrine
- (B) Atropine
- (C) Homatropine
- D) Cocaine
-
255. Most important factor determining convergence of light rays on retina is
- (A) Lengh of eyeball
- (B) Diptor power of lens
- (C) Refractive index of cornea
- (D) Physical state of vitreous
-
256. In Cataract, spectacles are advised after following number of weeks after operation
- (A) 6 weeks
- (B) 10 weeks
- (C) 12 weeks
- (D) 14 weeks
-
257. Sunflower type cataract is characteristicaily seen in
- (A) Chalcosis
- (B) Diabetes
- (C) Stragardt's disease
- (D) Congenital syphilis
-
258. Lateral rectus palsy is characterized by
- (A) Crossed diplopia
- (B) Uncrossed diplopia
- C) Suppression of eye ball
- D) Upward rotated eye bail
-
259. Snow blindness is caused by
- (A) Ultravotlet rays
- (B) Infrarads
- (C) Microwaves
- (D) Defect in mirror
-
260. Flourscent dye for ophthaimological disgnosis is injected
- (A) Antecubital vein
- (B) Poplereal vein
- (C) Femoral vein
- (D) Subclavian vein
-
261. Best investigation for optic nerve damage amongst the following is
- (A) Opthalmoscopy
- (B) Flourscence angiograhy
- (C) Ultrasound
- (D) Perimety
-
262. First sign in sympathetic ophthamitis is
- (A) Presence of aquous flare
- (B) Presence of precipitates
- (C) Constriction of pupil
- (D) Retrolental fare
-
263. Most commoniy employed treatment for cortvocavernous fistula nowadays is
- A) Ballon embolization
- (B) Ligation of internal artery
- C) No treatment availabie
- D) Fistulectomy
-
264. Characteristic clinical features of meniers disease include all of the following except
- (A) Verigo
- (B) Deafness
- C) Tinnitus
- (D) Unconsciousness
-
265. All of the following steps are done in radical mastoidectomy except:
- (A) Lowering of faciai ndge
- (B) Removal of middle ear mucosa and muscles
- (C) Removal of all ossicles except stapes foot plate
- (D) Maintainance of patency of eustachean tube
-
266. A 2 years child presents with B/L nasal pink masses Most important investigation prior to
- (A) C.T Scan
- (B) FNAC
- (C) Biopsy
- (D) Ultrasound
-
267. An old man with diabetes meilitus presents with blackish nasal discharge aiong with necrosed nienor turbinate Most likely diagnosis is
- (A) Mucormycosis infection
- (B) Celuiar osteomyelitis
- (C) Midline granuloma
- (D) Syphilis
-
268. Most common presentation in nasopharyngeal carcinoma is with:
- (A) Epistaxis
- (B) Hoarseness of voice
- (C) Nasal stuffiness
- D) Cervical lymphadenopathy
-
269 Commonest etiological agent of acute epiglottitis is
- (A) H. inluenza
- (B) Respuratory syncytiai virus
- (C) Influenza virus
- (D) Parainflunza virus
-
270. Greyish white membrane in throat may be seen in all of the following infections except:
- (A) Streptococcal tonsilitis
- (B) Dipthera
- C) Adenovirus
- D) Ludwig's angina
-
271. Best management for inhaled foreign body in an infant is
- (A) Bronchoscopy
- (B) I.P.P.V & intubation
- C) Steroid
- D) Tracheostomy
-
272. All of the following diseases may be caused by staphylococcus except
- (A) Impetigo
- (B) Erysipeias
- (C) Ecthyma
- (D) Scalded skin syndrome
-
275. Donovanosis is caused by
- (A) Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis
- (B) T pertunae
- (C) Chlamydia trachomaris
- (D) Haemophillus-ducreyi
-
274, Skin biopsy in leprosy is characterized by
- (A) Pariappendegeal bacilli
- (B) Pariappendegeal lymphocytosis
- C) Perivascular lymphocytosis
- D) Any of the above
-
275. Skin smear reports negative following pattern of leprosy
- (A) Indeterminate leprosy
- (B) Neuritic type leprosy
- C) Lepromatous leprosy
- (D) Border line leprosy
-
276. All of the foilowing lesions may be seen in leprosy except
- (A) Erythematous macules
- (B) Vesicles
- (C) Hypopigemented patches
- (D) Flat & raised patches
-
277. A 25 year old female has palatal ulcers & skin blisters. most likeiy diagnosis is
- (A) Pemphigus vulgarisis
- (B) Pemphigus follacious
- C) Dermatitis herpenformis
- D) Pemphigoid
-
278. Fasciculation are known to be caused by
- (A) Suxamethonium
- (B) Vecuronium
- (C) Pancuronium
- D) Atracumium
-
279. Maximum analgesic action is seen with
- (A) Catecholamine
- (B) Propofol
- (C) Ketamine
- (D) Thiopentone
- 280. If thiopentone is injected accidentaily into an artery the first symptom is
- (A) Anaigesia
- (B) Paralysis
- C) Skin ulceratiorn
- D) Pain
-
281. Spinal anaesthesea should be injected into the space between
- (A) T12 - L1
- (B) L1 - L2
- (C) L3 - L4
- (D) L5S1
-
282. Shortest acting local anaesthetic agent is
- (A) Procaine
- (B) Leidocaine
- (C) Teracaine
- (D) Bupivacaine
-
283. Principle used in radiotherapy is
- A) Cytoplasmic coagulation
- (B) fonization of molecules
- (C) DNA damage
- (D) Necrosis of tissue
-
281. In MRI the tield used is
- (A) 0.5 Tesla
- (B) 1.1 Tesla
- (C) 5 tesla
- (D) 11 tesla
-
285. Ion which scatters X ray most is
-
286. Most common presentation of radiation carditis is
- (A) Percardial effusion
- (B) Atheromatous plaques
- (C) Myocardial fibrosis
- (D) Pyogenic pericarditis
-
287. Most improtant investigation for pericardial effusion is:
- (A) Cardiac catheterisation
- (B) Ultrasound
- (C) Echocardiograph
- (D) Lateral view of Xray chest
-
288. Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice is:
- (A) ERCP
- (B) Ultrasound
- (C) Cholecystography
- (D) X-ray
-
289. Popcorn calcification is characterstically seen in
- (A) Pulmonary hemartoma
- (B) Fungal infection
- (C) Metastasis
- (D) Tuberculosis
-
290. Which investigation should not be done in a patient suspected of brain tumor
- (A) CT scan
- (B) Lumbar puncture
- (C) MRI
- (D) Xray-skull
-
291. Cognition is
- (A) Perception
- (B) Thought
- C) Behavior
- (D) Feeling
-
292. A patient of schizophrenia treated for 5 years developed perioral movenents. Likely diagnosis is
- (A) Tardive dyskinesia
- (B) Muscular dystonia
- (C) Akathisia
- (D) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
-
293. A patient presents with a one month history of abnormal hallucination, and delusion. The patient lacks insight to his changed behaviour and symptoms. Likely diagnosis
- (A) Psychosis
- (B) Schizophrenia
- (C) Paronia
- (D) Depression
-
294. Delusions of nihilism and eariy morning insominia are characteristic features of
- (A) Major depresion
- (B) Schizophrenia
- (C) Mania
- (D) Personality disorder
-
295. All of the following agents are antidepressants except
- (A) Trazodone
- (B) Amitriptyline
- (C) Fluoxitine
- (D) Pimozde
-
296. Treatment of choice for phobic disorder is
- (A) Behaviour therapy
- (B) Benzodiazepines
- (C) Psychotherapy
- (D) 5-HT reuptake inhibitors
-
297. A young female presented with halo's. abdominal pain and amnesia, she is likely to be suffering from
- (A) Conversion disorder
- (B) Dissociative disorder
- (C) Depersonalization disorder
- (D) Psychogenic pain disorder
-
298. Operant condition where paradigm pain stimulous are given to a child for decreasing a certain undesired behaviour can be classified as
- (A) Positive rein forcement
- (B) Negative reinforcement
- (C) Punishment
- (D) Negotiation
-
299. All of the following statements about clozapine are true except
- (A) It is used in schizophrenia
- (B) May precipitate séizures
- C) May cause Agranulocytosis
- D) Extrapyramidal side effects may be seen
-
300. Carbamazepine may be used in all of the following conditions except:
- (A) Mania
- (B) Alcohol withdrawl
- C) Schizophrenia
- D) Trigeminal neuralgia
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