-
151. All the following are examples of Nominal scale except
- A. Race
- B. Sex
- C. Iris color
- D. Blood pressure
-
152. The most important step in heaith education of a community is
- A. Contact with doctors
- B. Communiry discussion
- C. Announcements to the community by loud speakers
- D. Knowledge of local needs
-
153 Which of the coliowing is not a fearure of Mass-Media education
- A. Deals with local problems of the community
- B. Easiiy understandable
- C. Wide approach
- D. More effective than individual or group method
-
154. Widened anionic gap is not seen in
- A. Acute renal failure
- B. Diarthea
- C. Lactic acidosis
- D. Dianenc ketoacidosis
-
155. Lactic acidosi is not seen in
- A. Methanol poisoning
- B Respuratory faiiure
- C Circulatory failure
- D. Tolbutamide
-
156. Metabouc alkalosis is seen in ail except
- A. Thiazide diuretic therapy
- B. Prolonged vomiting
- C. Uretero-sigmoidostomy
- D. Cushing disease
-
157. Thrombocytopenia is not seen in
- A. H.S. purpura
- B. DIC
- C. Leukemia
- D. Metastasis
-
158. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in
- A. Dilutonal Thrombocytopenia
- 3. Immunogenic Thrombocytopenia
- C. Aplastic Anemia
- D. DIC
-
159. Bacterial endocarditis is rarely seen in
- A. VSD
- B. PDA
- C. MVP
- D. Ostium secundum ASD
-
160. Which the following is nor seen in a chronic case of Sickle cell anemia
- A. Hepatomegaly
- B. Pulmonary hypertension
- C. Cardiomegaly
- D. Splenomegaly
-
161. All are seen is Hemolytic anemia except
- A. Hemosiderinuria
- B. Rericuiocytosis
- C. Spherocytosis
- D. Increased haptoglobin
-
162. Giant 'a' waves in JVP occur in all except
- A. Junctional rhythm
- B.Pulmonary hypertension
- C. Tricuspid regurgitation
- D. Complete heart block
-
163. Differential cyanosis is seen in
- A. ASD
- B VSD
- C. PDA
- D. All of the above
-
164. All the following are radiological features of Chronic Cor pulmonale except
- A. Keriey B lines
- B. Prominent lower lobe vessels
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Cardiomegaly
-
165. All of the following are true about Temporal Arteritis except
- A. Polymyalgia Rheumatica
- B. Anemia
- C. Low ESR
- D. Sudden blindness
-
166. Kawasaki disease is associated with all of the following features except
- A. Erythema
- B. Posterior cervical Lymphadencpathy
- C. Thrombocytopenia
- D Conjunctivitis
-
167. Which of the following is not seen in ARDS
- A. Pulmonary edema
- B. Hypoxemia
- C. Stiff lung
- D. Hypercapnia
-
168. The commonest cause of non-gonococcal urethritis is
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Ureaplasma urealvticum
- C. E. coli
- D. Proteus
-
169. Which of the following statements is true of Rabies
- A. Fluorescent antibody is the test of choice
- B. HDCV is a live attenuated vaccine
- C. Vaccine is given deep I.M in the buttock
- D. Local wound care is of no use
-
170. False-negative tuberculin test is seen in all except
- A. After 4-6 weeks of measles attack
- B. Immunodeficiency state
- C. Miliary tuberculosis
- D. Arypical mycobacterial infection
-
171. All the foilowing may be used in the prophylaxis or Meningococcal infection except
- A. Peniciilin
- B. Suiphonamides
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Rifampicin
-
172 All the following are features of Wiison disease except
- A. Increased copper content in liver
- B. Increased ceruloplasmin
- C. Mental changes
- D. Features of chronic active hepatitis
-
175 Which drug is essential in Sheehan's syndrome
- A. Estrogen
- B. Cortisone
- C. Thyroxin
- D. Growth hormone
-
174 All the foilowing are features of Guillain-Barre syndrome except
- A. Predominant motor involvement
- B. Residual disability
- C. Absence of pleocytosis in CSF
- D. Sparing of bladder function
-
175. Which drug is not used in SIADH
- A. Fludrocortisone
- B. Demeclocycline
- C. Desmopressin
- D. Hypertonic saline
-
176. All the following are features of cerebellar disease except
- A. Intention tremors
- B. Past pointing
- C. Hypertonia
- D. Ataxia
-
177 Which of the following is not seen in Parkinsonisım
- A. Preserved postural reflexes
- B. Hypokinesia
- C. Rigidity
- D. Static tremors
-
178. Drug of choice in phenothiazine-induced Dystonia is
- A. Diphenhydramine
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Trifluperamide
- D. Benztropine
-
179 Osteoporosis is caused by all except
- A. Sarcoidosis
- B. Old age
- C. Hypo-parathyroidism
- D. Steroid therapy
-
180. Ail the following are features of Pseudotumor Cerebri except
- A. Normal-sized ventricles on CT scan
- B. Increased protein in CSF
- C. Papilledema
- D. Absence of focal neurologicai deficit
-
181. Normal pressure Hydrocephalus is characterized by all except
- A. Aphasia
- B. Dementia
- C. Ataxia
- D Urinary incontinence
-
182. Granuiomatous hepatiris may be seen with
- A. Carbamazepine
- B. Allopurinol
- C. Phenvibutazone
- D. All of the above
-
183. Pancreatic cholera is characterized by all excep
- A. Hypochlorhydria
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Giucose intolerance
- D. Hypocalcemia
-
184. Extradural hematoma indicates rupture of which artery
- A. Maxillary artery
- B. Middle meningeal artery
- C. Internal carotid artery
- D. Ophthalmic artery
-
185. In skull fracture. the condition in which an operation is not done immediately is
- A. Depressed fracture
- B. Compound fracrure
- C. CSF leak
- D. Increased size of head
-
186. Best treament modaliry for Warthin's tunor is
- A. Superticiai parotidectomy
- B. Radical parotidectomy
- C. Radiotherapy
- D. Curretage
-
187. Which malignancy of parotid gland spreads through the neural sheath
- A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
- B. Adenocarcinoma
- C. Pleomorphic adenoma with maiignant change
- D. Sarcoma
-
188. The most common presentation of endemic goiter
- A. Hypothyroid
- B. Diifuse goiter
- C. Hyperthyroid
- D. Solitary nodule
-
189. Which type of thyroid carcinoma has the best prognosis
- A. Papillary Ca
- B. Anaplastic Ca
- C. Follicular Ca
- D. Meduilary Ca
-
190. Most probable malignancy, that develops in a case
- oflong-standing goiter is
- A. Follicular Ca
- B. Anapiastic Ca
- C. Papiltary Ce
- D. Meduilary Ca
-
191. All the following are true of DeQuervan's Thyroiditis except
- A. Pain
- B. Increased ESR
- C. Increased radioactive Iodine Uptake
- D. Fever
-
192. The treatment of choice in Duct papilloma of the breast is
- A. Simple mastectomy
- B. Microdochectomy
- C. Local wide excision
- D. Chemotherapy
-
193. Mondor's disease is
- A. Thromoophleibitis of the Supericiai veins of Breast
- B. Carcinoma of the breast
- C. Premalignant condition of the breast
- D. Filariasis of the breast
-
194. Which histological variant of breast carcinoma is multicentric and bilateral
- A. Ductal Ca
- B. Lobular Ca
- C. Mucoid Ca
- D. Colloid Ca
-
195. Muliple painful ulcers on tongue are seen in all except
- A. Aphthous uicers
- B. Tubercuious ulcers
- C. Herpes ucers
- D. Carcinomatous ulcers
-
196. Which neo-acjuvant chemotherapy is used in Esophageal carcinoma
- A. Cispiatin
- B. Cyclophosphamide
- C. Doxorubicin
- D. Methotrexate
-
197. Best substitute of esophagus after esophagectomy is
- A. Stomach
- B. ejunum
- C. Let colon
- D. Right colon
-
198. All he iollowing are true about Meckel's diverticulum except
- A. Bleeding
- B. Intussusception
- C. Arses at the mesentric border
- D. Located 60 cm from the cecai valve
-
199. The most common cause of small intestinal obstruction is
- A. Intussusception
- B. latrogenic adhesions
- C. Trauma
- D. Carcinoma
-
200. Commonest malignancy of the small intestines
- A. Leiomyoma
- B. Lymphoma
- C. Adenocarcinoma
- D. Hemangioma
-
201. Meconium ileus can be caused by
- A. Fibrocystic disease of the pancreas
- B. Liver aplasia
- C. Cirrhosis of the liver
- D. Malnutrition
-
202. All of the following are removed in Whippie's operation except
- A. Duodenum
- B Head of pancreas
- C. Portal vain
- D Common biie duct
-
203. Lithogenic bile has the foilowing properties
- A. Increase Bile and Cholesteroi ratio
- B. Decrease Bile and cholesterol ratio
- C. Equal bile and cholesteroi ratio
- D. Decrease Cholesterol only
-
204. Stone formation in Gall biadder 's enhanced by all except
- A. Clofibrate therapy
- B. Ileal resection
- C. Cholestyramine therapy
- D. Vagal stimulation
-
205. Which of the following does not predispose to Cholangiocarcinoma
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Clonorchis sinensis
- C. Choledochal cyst
- D. Chronic pancreatitis
-
206. Charcot's triad includes all of the following except
- A. Pain
- B. Fever
- C. Jaundice
- D Vomiting
-
207. Triad of Renal colic, Swelling in loin which disappears after passing urine is ca led
- A. Kocher's triad
- B. Saint's triad
- C. Dietel's crisis
- D. Charcot's triad
-
208 Spienectomy is most useful in
- A. Sickle cell anemia
- B. Thallassemia
- C. Hereditary spherocytosis
- D. Acquired auto ammonia hemolytic anemia
-
209. An absolute contraindication for IVP is
- A. Allergy to the drug
- B. Multiple myeloma
- C. Blood urea >200 mg
- D. Renal tumor
-
210. True about Acute Epididymitis is
- A. Associated with urunary intection
- B. Painless
- C. Scrotum size is reduced
- D. Clinicaily does not mimic torsion of testes
-
211. Genetic disorders are diagnosed at II weeks of
- by
- A. Chorionic viilous biopsy
- B. Amniocentesis
- C. Endometrial biopsy
- D. Placentography
-
212. Abnormal a-fetoprotein is seen in
- A. Trisomy 13
- B. Twin pregnancy
- C. Neurai tube defect
- D. All of the above
-
213. Weight of the placenta at term is
- A. 500 gm
- 3. 1000 gm
- C. 120 gn
- D. 500 gm
-
214. Polyhydramnios is seen in all the following except
- A. Diabetes
- B. Renal agenesis
- C. Esopnageal atresia
- D. Hydronephrosis
-
215. A 40-year-old P.2 female has been diagnosed to have H.mole. The treatment would be
- A. Radiotherany
- B. Chemotherapy
- C. Total hysterectomy
- D. Radio- Chemotherapy
-
216. Most common site of spread of Choriocarcinoma is
- A. Lung
- B. Liver
- C. Brain
- D. Bone
-
217. Ectopic pregnancy is most common in
- A. Previcus hio recurrent PID
- B. Previous h/o Abortion
- C. Previous h/o Twin pregnancy
- D. Endormetriosis
-
218. Clinical feanures of pseudocyesis are all of the following except
- A. Quickening
- B. Enlargement of uterus
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. False labor
-
219. In pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH), which test is not done
- A. Roil-over test
- B. Serum uric acid
- C. Shake test
- D. Weight gain kg month
-
220. In Rh incompatibtity, the prognosis depends on
- A. Serum bilirubin
- B. Coomb's test
- C. Blood smear
- D Serum albumin
-
221. All the foilowing ATT are given in pregnancy except
- A. Rifampicin
- B. Ethambutol
- C. INH
- D. Streptomycin
-
222. Which drug is contraindicated in Pregnancy
- A. Methyldopa
- B. Hydraiazine
- C. Captopril
- D. All of the above
-
223. Pap smear in pregnancy is
- A. Contraindicated
- B. Not useful
- C. Routine, as a part of screening
- D. Done in every patient
-
224. All of the folowing indicate Fetal distress except
- A. Thick (pea-soup) meconium
- B. Fetal heart rate 100 minute
- C. Loss of beat-to-beat variation
- D. Fetal skull blood pH>7.32
-
225. Which of the following is the earliest conclusive
- evidence of intrauterine death
- A. Shrinking of body
- B. Intra-aortic gas
- C. Increased curvanire of spine
- D. Spaulding sign
-
226. Fetal biood loss in abnormal cord insertion is seen
- A. Vasa previa
- B. Decidua basalis
- C. Battledore placenta
- D. Succenturiate piacenta
-
227 X-ray pelvimetry is done in ail of the following except
- A. Osteomalacia
- B. Breach presentation
- C. Severe CPD
- D. Outlet obstruction
-
228. The following may be used for pest-coital contraception
- A. Cu-T
- B. RU 486
- C. Estrogen in high doses
- D. All of the above
-
229. Corpus luteum activity is maintained by
- A. FSH
- B. LH
- C. Estrogen
- D. Progesterone
-
230. The hormone responsibie for a positive Fern test' is
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progesterone
- C. FSH
- D. LH
-
231. Which of the following is not used in induction of ovulation
- 4. Danazol
- B. HMG
- C. Uro-folitropin
- D. HCG
-
232. Which ovarian tumor is likely to involve the opposite ovary by metastasis
- A. Granulosa cell tumor
- B. Dysgerminoma
- C. Gynandrobiastoma
- D. Endodermal tumor
-
233. All the foilowing are true about Krukenburg's tumor except
- A. Has a rough surface
- B. Shape of ovary is maintained
- C. Usuaily bilareral
- D. Arises usuaily from stomach carcinoma
-
234. Least observed laboratory finding in Neonatal Sepsis is
- A. C-reactive protein
- B. Neutrophilia
- C. Increased ESR
- D. Increased Immature Neutrophils
-
235. Defective hepatic conjugation is seen in all the following except
- A. Neonatal jaundice
- B. Gilbert syndrome
- C. Crigler-Najar syndrome
- D. Novobiocin therapy
-
236. Peak growth velocity in adolescent girls is seen just after
- A. Appearance of pubic & axillary hair
- B. Breast enlargement
- C. Onset of menstruation
- D. Enlargement of externai genitaiia
-
237. Phocomelia is
- A. Reduplication of bones
- B. Defect in long bones
- C. Cranial malformations
- D. Defect in short bones
-
238. Commonest cause or non-communicating Hydrocephalus in children is
- 4. Congenital anomaly
- B. Perinatal injury
- C. Post-inlammatory obstruction
- D. Brain tumors
-
239. Drug of choice in mycoplasma pneumonia is
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Ampicillin
- C. Gentamicin
- D. Ciprofloxacin
-
240. The most common causative agent of meningitis in the age group of 5 months-3 years amongst the following
- A. Streptococcus
- B. H. influenzae
- C. Staphylococcus
- D. N. gonorrnoeae
-
241. Bull neck's in Diphtheria is due to
- A. Retropharyngeai abscess
- B. Laryngeai edema
- C. Cellulitis
- D. Lymphadenopathy
-
242. Treatment of choice in bronchiolitis in
- A. Ribavirin
- B. Amantadine
- C. Vidarabine
- D. Zidovudine
-
243. Which heart disease is most commonly associated with rubella infection
- A. PDA
- B. VSD
- C. ASD
- D. Eisenmenger's syndrome
-
244 NADA's criteria are used for
- A. Assessment of child for degree of dehydration
- B. Assessment of child for degree of mainutrition
- C. Assessment of chiid for presence of heart disease
- D. Assessment of child for degree of mental retardation
-
245. The most common Intracranial tumor in chiidren
- A. Glioma
- B. Ependymoma
- C. Meningioma
- D. Lymphangioma
-
246. Most common abdominal tumor in neonates is
- A. Wiim's rumor
- B. Hydronephrosis
- C. Neurobiastoma
- D. Bladder tumor
-
47. Brachycephaly is due to fusion of
- A. Parietat suture
- B. Sagittal suture
- C. Lambdoid suture
- D. Coronal suture
-
248. All the following are true about musculocutaneous nerve injury at shouider except
- A. Loss of flexion at shoulder
- B. Loss of flexion of forearmm
- C. Loss of supination of forearm
- D. Loss of sensation on radial side of forearm
-
249. The nerve involved in anterior dislocation of the shoulder
- A. Radial nerve
- B. Axiliary nerve
- C. Ulnar nerve
- D. Musculocutaneous nerve
-
250. The most common type of Supracondylar fracture is
- A. Flexion type
- B. Extension type
- C. Abduction type
- D. Adduction type
-
251. Complications of Colles' fracture are all except
- A. Malunion
- B. Non union
- C. Sudeck's dystrophy
- D. Rupture of extensor policis longus
-
252•The most common site of fracture neck of femur that causes avascular necrosis is
- A. Sub-capital
- B. Intertrochanteric
- C. Trans-cervical
- D. Basal
-
253. Treatment of choice in fracture neck of femur in a 40 year old male presenting after 2 days is
- A. Hemiarthroplasty
- B. Closed reduction and internal fixation by cancellous screw
- C. Closed reduction and Internal fixation by Austin Moore pins
- D. Plaster and rest
-
254. Action of intramedullary "K' nail is
- A. Two-point fixation
- B. Three-point fixation
- C. Compression
- D. Weight concentration
-
255. Which type of injury causes more damage to the semilunar cartilage in the Knee
- A. Fiexion and extension at the ankle
- B. Rotation on a flexed knee
- C. Rotation on an extended knee
- D. Squatting position
-
256 Which of the foliowing is not a benign tumor
- A. Osteoid osteoma
- B. Chondroma
- C. Enchondroma
- D. Chordoma
-
257. Agent used for dilatation of pupil in children is
- A. Atropine
- B. Homatropine
- C. Tropicamide
- D. Phenylephrine
-
258. Treatment of choice in Aphakia is
- A. Spectacles
- B. Contact lens
- C. Intraocular lens
- D. None
-
259. Comeal sensation is lost in
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Conjunctivitis
- C. Fungal infection
- D. Trachoma
-
260. Horner-Tranta's soots are seen in
- A. Vernai conjunctivitis
- B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
- C. Anguiar conjunctivitis
- D. Follicular conjunctivitis
-
261. Antenor lenticonus is found in
- A. Lowe's syndrone
- B. William's syndrome
- C. Alport's syndrome
- D. Down's syndrome
-
262. Steroid induced cataract is
- A. Posterior subcapsular catarac
- B. Anterior subcapsular cataract
- C. Nuclear cataract
- D. Cupuilliform cataract
-
263. Voissius ring is seen in the
- A. Cornea
- B. Anterior capsuie of the lens
- C. Posterior capsule of the lens
- D. Iris
-
264. Treatment of primary angle closure glaucoma is
- A. Trabecuiectomy
- B. Pilocarpine
- C. Timoloi
- D. Iridectomy
-
265. A cherry red spot is seen in fundus in
- A. CRV obstruction
- B. Diabetic retinopathy
- C. Trauma
- D. Retinitis pigmentosa
-
266. A chid presents with sudden loss ot vision with painful ocular movenents. The eye is white and there are no obvious signs on ophthaimoscopy. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Optic nerve glioma
- B. Retrobulbar neuntis
- C. C:aniopharyngioma
- D. Eales disease
-
267. All of the following are components of Horner's syndrome except
- A. Ptosis
- B. Exophthaimos
- C. Anhidrosis
- D. Loss of cilio-spinal reflex
-
268. Treatment of cho.ce tor perforation in pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane with choiesteatoma is
- A. Myringoplasty
- B. MRM
- C. Antibiotics
- D. Radicai mastoidectomy
-
269. Treatment of choice for CSOM with vertigo and facial nerve paisy is
- A. Antibiotics and Labvrinthine sedative
- B. Myringoplasty
- C. Immediate mastoid expioration
- D. Labyrinthectomy
-
270. Otospongiosis causes
- A. U/L conductive deafness
- B. B/L conductive deatness
- C. U/L sensorineural deafness
- D B/L sensorin eurai deafess
-
271. Schwannoma invoives the
- A. Vestibular part of VII nerve
- B. Cochiear part of VIllh nerve
- C. Vagus nerve
- D. Hypoglossai aerve
-
272. All of the following stand true for DNS except
- A. Recurrent sinusitis
- B. Atrophy of turbinate
- C. Epistaxis
- D.Hypertrophy oi turbinate
-
273. Maggots in nasal cavity are most commoniy treated by
- A. Ether
- B. Chloroform
- C. Turpentine oil
- D. Cocaine
-
274. Involvement of neck lymph nodes is seen in all the following except
- A. Hodgkin's lymphoma
- B. Vocal cord carcinoma
- C. Tumors of the hypopharynx
- D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
-
275. Pseudo bubo is seen in
- A. Donovanosis
- B. LGV
- C. Chaneroid
- D. Syphillis
-
276. Frie test is done in
- A. Donovanosis
- B. LGV
- C. Sypnillis
- D. Leprosy
-
277. Discharging sinus is seen in
- A. Syphilis
- B. Herpes
- C. Actinomycosis
- D. Molluscum Contagiosum
-
278. WHO regime for paucibacillary ieprosy
- A. 100 mg Dapsone daily + Rifampcin monthly (600 mg)
- B. Dapsone daiiy + Rifampicin daily
- C. Dapsone Rifampcin Clotazimine daily
- D. Rifampcin +Clofazamine daily
-
279. Skin pigmentation & Ichyosis like side efects are seen in
- A. Rifampcin
- B. Clofazimine
- C. Dapsone
- D. Steroid
-
280. A patient has Bullous Lesion; on Tzank smear
- A. langerhans cells are seen
- B. Acontholysis
- C. leucocytosis
- D. Absens of melanin pigment
-
281. Gonococcus resistant structure is
- A. Urethra
- B. Testis
- C. Fallopian Tube
- D. Ampulla
-
282. Underiying intemal malignancy is not shown by
- A. Acanthosis nigricans & Annular erythema
- B. Bullous pyoderma & migratory necrotizing
- C. Granuloma annulare
- D. Erythema gyratum repens
-
283. Atropine as preanesthesia has all effects except
- A. decrease secretion
- B. Bronchoconstriction
- C. prevent bradycardia
- D. prevebt hypotension
-
284. Least Cardiotoxic anaesthetic agent
- A. Enflurane
- B. Isoflurane
- C. Sevoflurane
- D. Halothane
-
285. Dissociative anesthesia is
- 4. Ketamine
- 3. Haiothane
- C. SCH
- D. d-TC
-
286. Sodium Thiopentone is ultra short acting d/t
- A. Rapid absorption
- B. Rapid metabolisrm
- C. Rapid redistributiorn
- D. Rapid excretion
-
287. Investigation of choice in aortic dissection is
- A. USG
- B. CT Scan
- C. MRI
- D. Digital substraction Angiography
-
238. Chain of lakes appearance in ERCP is seen is
- A. Acute Pancreatitis
- B. Chronic Pancreatitis
- C. Carcinoma Pancreas
- D. Ductal Adenoma
-
289. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by
- A. USG
- B. X Ray Chest
- C. Ventilation - Perfusion Scan
- D. CT Scan
-
290. Most Radio sensitive stage
- A. S2 phase
- B. G2 phase
- C. G2 phase
- D. G2M phase
-
291. Maximum scattering in X Ray plate occurs in
- A. Carbon
- B. Mercury
- C. H+
- D. Cat+
-
292. Drug of choice for obscessive compulsive neurosis
- A. Imipramine
- B. Clomipramine
- C. Chlorpromazine
- D. Chlordiazepoxide
-
293. Drug of choice in depression in old person is
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Buspirone
- C. Amitryptyline
- D. Imipramine
-
294. All of the foilowing are risk factors for suicidal
- tendency in patients with depression except:
- A. Females age<40; unmarried, divorced or widowed
- B. written or verbal communication of suicidal
- C. Early stage of depression
- D.Recovering stage of depression
-
295. In Schizophrenia early onset with poor prognosis is seen in
- A. Simpie
- B. Hebephrenic
- C. Catatonic
- D. Paranoid
-
296. Treatment is not required in withdrawi of
- A. Cannabis
- B. Alcohol
- C. Amphetamine
- D. LSD
-
297. In Prophylaxic of Manic Depressive Psychosis drug used is
- A. Lithium carbonate
- B. Carbamazepine
- C. Valproate
- D. Haioperidol
-
298. In Dissociative Disorder all are seen except
- A. Fuge
- B. Amnesia
- C. Multiple Personality
- D. Hypochondriasis
-
299. Regarding Ganser's syndrome true is
- A. Repeated lying
- B. Approximate answers
- C. Unconscious episodes
- D. Feigning illness
-
300. Labella indifference is seen in
- A. Conversion reaction
- B. Schizophrenia
- C. Manic depressive episode
- D. Depression
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