-
A. True about the Serrarus anterior muscle is
- A. Originates from the lower four ribs
- B. Bipennate muscle
- C. Supplied by the subscapular nerve
- D. Heips in forced inspiration
-
2. The action of the Anconeus muscle is
- A. Screwing movements
- B. Elbow flexion
- C. Forearm-supination
- D. Adduction
-
3. The lert gastro-epiploic artery is a branch of
- A. Splenic artery
- B. Hepatic artery
- C. Celiac artery
- D. Superior mesenteric artery
-
4. Which organ has dual blood supply
- A. Liver
- B. Pancreas
- C. Testes
- D. Duodenum
-
5. The viteiline vein forms the
- A. Hepatic vein
- B. Azygos vein
- C. Inferior mesenteric vein
- D. Splenic vein
-
6. Al are Anterior relations of the Right kidney except
- А. Suprarenalgland
- B. Heparic flexure of the colon
- C. Third part of the duodenum
- D. Liver
-
7. The danger area of the face is so called because of the connection of the facial veins to the cavernous sinus through the
- A. Transverse facial vein
- B. Superior ophthalmic vein
- C. Maxillary vein
- D. Ethmoidal vein
-
8. The parotid duct can be palpated when
- A. Angle of the mandible is depressed
- B. Anterior margin of the masseter is tensed
- C. Posterior margin of the masseter is relaxed
- D. Through the buccal mucosa
-
9. All are branches of the maxillary artery except
- A. Anterior tympanic artery
- B. Posterior ethmoidal artery
- C. Middle meningeai artery
- D. Infraorbitai artery
-
10. All the following branches of the trigeminal nerve supply the Duramater except
- A. Anterior ethmoidal
- B. Posterior ethmoidai
- C. Auriculotemporal
- D. Mandibular
-
11. The Glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the posterior part of the tongue because it develops rom the
- A. Hyoid arch
- B. Tuerculum impar
- C. Mandibular arch
- D. Hypobranchial eminence
-
12. The subarachnoid space ends at
-
13. Implantation occurs at the stage of
- A. Zygote
- B. Morula
- C. Blastocyst
- D. Primary villi
-
14. Lowest threshold potential in a motor aerve fibre is
- A. Dendrite
- B. Body
- C. Axon hillock
- D. Axon
-
15. Heat loss from the body depends mostly on
- A. Thermoregulatory centre
- B. Warming of air during inspiration
- C. On the environmentai temperarure
- D. Radiation and evaporation
-
16. All are true regarding capillaries xcent
- A. Have large total cross-sectional area
- B. Contain larger quantity of blood than veins
- C. Site of gaseous exchange
- D. Lined by endothelium
-
17. Mouth-to-mouth respiration provides an oxygen concentration of
-
18. Hyaline membrane contains
- A. Albumin
- B. Fibrn
- C. Giobulin
- D. WBCs
-
19. Surfactant is secreted by
- A. Type-I pneumocytes
- B. Type-II pneumocytes
- C. Bronchial goblet cells
- D. Endothelium of pulmonary vasculature
-
20. Which is the best parameter for analysis of Hypoxic hypoxia
- A. Arteriai PO
- B. Arterial PCO2
- C. Venous PO2
- D. A-V Difference
-
21. Which compound shifts the Oxygen dissociation curve to the right
- A. 1, Phosphoglycerate
- B. 2. 3 DPG
- C. 1, 3 DPG
- D. Glyceraldehyde
-
22. All of the following cause Hyperventilation except
- A. Decreased pH in CSF-
- B. Decreased plasma HCO,
- C. CO poisoning
- D. Increased adrenergic levels
-
23. Sertoii ceils secrete
- A. Testosterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Androstenedione
- D. Inhibin
-
24. Secretion of Prolactin is affected by
- A. GnRH analogue
- B. Dopamine
- C. Serotonin
- D. FSH
-
25. All are feature of Pyramidal tract lesion except
- A. Clasp knife rigidity
- B. Increased tone
- C. Babinski sign + ve
- D. Involuntary movement
-
26. Features of Neuroglia cells include all except
- A. Protoplasmic astrocytes are found in grey matter
- B. Oligodendrocytes are derived from ectoderm
- C. Microglia are mesodermal in origin
- D. Central neuroglial cells are derived from Schwann Cells
-
27. Kinesthetic sensation is
- A. Transmitted by the ß-type of sensory nerve
- B. Located in Merkl's disc
- C. Transmitted by Meissner's corpuscles
- D. Means abnormal perception of sensation
-
28. Cerebeilar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell
- A. Golgi cells
- B. Basket cells
- C.. Purkinje ceils
- D. Oligodendrocytes
-
29. Output from the cerebellum is soiely fronm
- A. Basket cells
- B. Granular cells
- C. Treitz cells
- D. Purkinje cells
-
30. Renin secretion is increased by ail of the foilowing
- A. Na in PCT
- B. Afferent arteriolar low pressure
- C. Na in DCT
- D. Sympathetic nerve stimulation
-
31. Sperms acquire motility in
- A. Epididymis
- B. Seminai vesicle
- C. Rete testes
- D. Vas deferens
-
32. Structurai proteins are
- A. Fibrous
- B. Giobular
- C. Branched
- D. Compound
-
33. The Tertiary structure of proten is most commonly detected by
- A. X-ray crystallography
- 8. Spectrophotometry
- C. Electrophoresis
- D. Chromatography
-
34. Flexibility of protein depends on
- A. Giycine
- B. Tryptophan
- C. Phenylalanine
- D. Histidine
-
35. Catabolism of H202 is carried out by
- A. Peroxisomes
- B. Mitachondria
- C. Endoplasmic reticulum
- D. Lysosomes
-
36. Hydroxyethyl starch is a
- A. Vasodilator
- B. Inotrope
- C. Plasma expander
- D. Diuretic
-
37. Function oi Metabolism includes all excap
- A. Extraction of nutrients frorm food
- B. Breakdown ot substrate
- C. Equilibrium of biochemical with intracellular components
- D. Using building blocks for synthesis
-
38. Which biochemical reaction does not occur in the mitochondria
- A. Kreb's cycle
- B. Urea cycie
- C. Gluconeogenesis
- D. Fatty acid synthesis
-
39. Energy source used by brain in later days of Starvation is
- A. Glucose
- B. Kerone bodies
- C. Giycogen
- D. Fatty acids
-
40.In collagen synthesis, hydroxylation of Proline to Hydroxyproline requires all except
- A. Pyridoxai phosphate
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Oxygen
- D. Di-oxygenase
-
41. Which of the foilowing is luminous
- A. Porphyrin
- B. Zymogen
- C. Chromatin
- D. Albumin
-
42. Which is not found in DNA
- A. Adenine
- B. Thymine
- C. Guanine
- D. Uracil
-
43. On complete hydrolysis of DNA, we will get all of the following except
- A. Adenosine
- B. Purine base
- C. Phosphoric acid
- D. Dexose pentose sugar
-
44. The vitamin used for post-translational modification of giutamic acid to y Carboxy-glutamate is
- A. Vitamin D
- B. Vitamin E
- C. Vitamin A
- D. Vitamin K
-
45. Bile acids are derived from
- A. Fatty acids
- B. Cholestero
- C. Bilirubin
- D. Proteins
-
46.Aneupioidy is due to
- A. Non-disjunction at meiosis
- B. Mosaicistm
- C. Deletion
- D. Translocation
-
47. Aikaline phosphatase is produced by
- A. Liver
- B. Bone
- C. Placenta
- D. All of the above
-
48. Paie infarct is not seen in
- A. Heart
- B. Lung
- C. Kidney
- D. Spleen
-
49. In an inflammatory response, Macrophages are usually derived from
- A. Monocytes
- B. Reticuloendothelial cells
- C. Neutrophils
- D. Lymphocytes
-
50. Heart failure cells contain
- A. Hemosiderin
- B. Lipofuschin
- C. Myoglobin
- D. Albumin
-
51. The most common site of Myocardial infarction is
- A. Anterolateral
- B. Interventricular septum
- C. Posterior wall
- D. Inferior wail
-
52. Most common cause of Abdominal aneurysm is
- A. Atheroscierosis
- B. Trauma
- C. Marfan's syndrome
- D. Congenital
-
53. Commonest cause of SVC obstruction is
- A. Fibrosis of SVC
- B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
- C. Pericardial fibrosis
- D. Hepatoceiluiar carcinoma
-
54. The cells seen after 72 hours in the Infarcted area in MI are
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Macrophages
- D. Monocytes
-
55. The least common site of Berry aneurysın is
- A. Antenor communicaing artery
- B. Vertebral artery
- C. Basiiar artery
- D. Middle cerebral artery
-
56.The commonest tumor of the myocardium is
- A.. Myxoma
- B. Rhabdomyoma
- C. Sarcoma
- D. Fibroma
-
57. All of the following decrease in Nephrotic syndrome
- A. Fibrinogen
- B. Thyroxin
- C. Transferrin
- D. Albumin
-
58. All are features of RPGN except
- A. Rapid recovery
- B. Crescent formation
- C. Hypertension
- D Non-selective proteinuria
-
59. Which characteristic feature is seen in the kidney in Malignant hypertension
- A. Hyaline necrosis
- B. Fibrinoid necrosis
- C. Medial wail hyperplasia
- D. Micro-aneurysm
-
60. Most common factor in development of Diabetic nephropathy is
- A. Previous kidney disease
- B. Associated hypertension
- C. Duration of diabetes
- D. Controi with treatment
-
61. The HLA important in DDM is
- A. HLA-A
- B. HLA-B2
- C. HLA-DR3/DR4
- D. HLA-W1
-
62. The commonest Soft tissue tumor in adults is
- A. Lipoma
- B. Histiocytoma
- C. Fibroma
- D. Leiomyoma
-
63. Malignancy of the Breast is likely to be associated with
- A. Sclerosing adenosis
- B. Atypical epithelial hyperplasia
- C. Cystic change
- D. Apocrine metaplasia
-
64. All of the following Paraneoplastic syndromes are seen in Carcinoma lung ercent
- A. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
- B. Myasthenia gravis
- C. Cushing's syndrome
- D. Hypoglycemia
-
65.The commonest site of Pleomorphic adenoma is
- A. Parotid salivary giand
- B. Submandibular salivary gland
- C. Sublingua! gland
- D Submaxillary gland
-
66. MEN type I includes tumors of all except
- A. Parathyroid
- B. Piruitary
- C. Pancreas
- D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
-
67. Primary pleural tumor is
- A. Mesothelioma
- B. Myxoma
- C. Lipoma
- D. Fibroma
-
68. Mucin is not secreted by
- A. Goblet cell
- B. Paneth cell
- C. Brunner's gland
- D. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
-
69. Pseudopolyps are features of
- A. Crohn's disease
- B. Ulcerative colitis
- C. Celiac sprue
- D. Whipple's disease
-
70. Transport of lipids from the intestine to other tissues is by
- A. Chylomicrons
- B. LDL
- C. HDL
- D. VLDL
-
71.All are Glycoproteins ercen
- A. Immunoglobulins
- B. Albumun
- C. hCG
- D. Complements
-
72.DNA is detected by
- A. Southern blot
- B. Northern blot
- C. western blot
- D. Eastem blot
-
73. In Respiratory and GIT infection, which is the most affected immunoglobulin
-
74. The commonest Primary immunodeticiency is
- A. Common variable immunodeficency
- B. Isolated IgA immunodeficiency
- C. Wiskott-Aidrich syndrome
- D. AIDS
-
75. The reaction between antibody and soluble antigen is demonstrated by
- A. Aggiutination
- B Precipitation
- C. Compiement fixation test
- D. Hemagglutination test
-
76. C-reactive protein is
- A. An antibody produced as a resuit of pneumococcal infection
- B. Derived from pneumoconiosis
- C. Detected by precipitation reaction
- D. Increased in pneumococcal infection
-
77. Bacteria which does not strictly follow Koch's postulate is
- A. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
- B. Mycobacterium avium intercellulare
- C. Mycobacterium leprae
- D. Baciilus anthracis
-
78. All the foilowing are true about Nosocomial nfections except
- A. May manifest within 48 hours of admission
- B. May develop after discharge of patient from the hospital
- C. Denote a new condition which is unrelated to the patient's primary conditions
- D. May aiready present at the time of admission
-
79. All the following are true of Tuberculosisexceot
- A . For sputum to be positive, bacilli shouid be > 10 4 ml
- B. Niacin test differentiates M. tuberculosis and M bovis
- C. Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M. tuberculosis and M.bovis
- D.Cuiture techniques have low sensitivity
-
80. All the following are true regarding Vibrio cholera except
- A. Transported in acidic medium
- B. Gram-negative
- C. Aerobic organism
- D. Ferments glucose
-
81. All the following are true about Chlamydia except
- A. Gram-positive
- B. Causes trachoma
- C. Causative organism of psittacosis
- D. Are also called basophilic viruses
-
82. All the following are general properties of Viruses
- A. May contain both DNA and RNA
- B. Form extraceilular intectious particles
- C. Heat labiie
- D. Not atfected by antibiotics
-
83. Which of the following is true about Rotavirus
- A. Commonly affects children
- B. Double-stranded
- C. Can be grown easiiy on cell culture
- D. Egg shell appearance under electron microscope
-
84.Most common agent responsiole for Bronchioiitis is
- A. RSV
- B. Adenovirus
- C. Herpes virus
- D. Influenza virus
-
85. A Discharging sinus is seen in
- A. Sporotrichosis
- B. Cryptococcosis
- C. Histoplasmosis
- D. Mycetoma
-
86. Which of the following is not true of Actinomycosis
- A. Demonsration of filaments
- B. Caused by actinomyces israelii
- C. Organism cannot be cultured
- D. Suiphur granuies in pus
-
87. All of the following disease may be acquired by ingestion except
- A. Teniasis
- B. Guinea worm
- C. Toxopiasmosis
- D. Leishmaniasis
-
88. Which of the foilowing Parasites does nos pass through the human lung
- A. Ancylostoma
- B. Ascaris lumbricoides
- C. Trichuris trichura
- D. Stronglyiordes
-
89. All are inhabitants of Liver except
- A. F. heparica
- B. F. buski
- C. Clonorchis sinensis
- D. Opisthorchis felincus
-
90. First-pass effect' is seen with which route of administration
- A. Oral
- B. Sublingual
- C. Intramuscular
- D. Intravenous
-
91. All are -adrenergic agonists except.
- A. Mephentermine
- B. Ritodrine
- c. Methoxamine
- D. Phenylephrine
-
92. All the following affect the metabolism of Theophylline except
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Smoking
- C. Cimetidine
- D. Steroids
-
93. All are side effects of Lisinopril ercept
- A. Dizziness
- B. Jaundice
- C. Cough
- D. Angioneurotic edema
-
94 Adrenal steroids are contraindicated in all except
- A. Severe hypertension
- B. Osteoporosis
- C. Diaberes mellitus
- D. Cushing's syndrome
-
95. Which of the following drugs is known to cause vaginal adenocarcinoma in female offspring when given to a pregnant woman
- A. Chlorpropamide
- B. Progesterone
- C. Diethylstilbestrol
- D. Chloramphenicol
-
96. Which drug has the least anti-cholinergic side- effects
- A. Imipramine
- B. Doxepin
- C. Fluoxetine
- D. Clomipramine
-
97. L-dopa is given along with Carbidopa
- A. To prevent peripheral decarboxylation of L-dopa
- B. To reduce side effects
- C. To increase compliance
- D. To increase half-life
-
98. All the following displace imipramine from protein binding sites except
- A. Aspirin
- B. Propranoiol
- C. Glibenclamide
- D. Lithium
-
99. The dose of Digoxin should be reduced when given along with
- A. Quinidine
- B. Rifampicin
- C. Indomethacin
- D. Antacids
-
100. Rapidly progressive pulmonary fibrosis is seen in
- A. Paracetamol poisoning
- B. Kerosene poisoning
- C. Amiodarone poisoning
- D. Chloroquine toxicity
-
101 A Cardiotoxic drug is
- A. Adriamycin
- B. Cyclophosphamide
- C. 5-FU
- D. All of the above
-
102. Digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by
- A. Phenytoin
- B. Quinidine
- C. Calcium
- D. Verapamii
-
105. Tocainide has the foilowing properties except
- A. Used in ventricuiar tachycardia
- B. Prolongs APD
- C. Used as lidocaine analogue
- D. Used orally
-
104. Which of the foilowing is the drug of choice for PSVT
- A. Lignocaine
- B. Verapamil
- C. Flecainide
- D. Tocavide
-
105. Furosemide causes all excep
- A. Hyperuricemia
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypercaicemia
- D. Hypokalernia
-
106. All the following are used in Motion sickness
- A. Cyclizine
- B. Hyoscine
- C. Domperidone
- D. Meclizine
-
107. The commonest side-effect of Cisapride is
- A. Abdominal cramps
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Convulsions
-
Side effects of Clofazimine are all except
- A. Skin pigmentation
- B. GI disturbance
- C. Ichthyosis
- D. Anemia
-
109. Mebendazole is used in all of the following except
- A. Hook worm
- B. Round worm
- C. Strongyloides
- D. Trichuris trichura
-
110. The dnig inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in Mycobacteria is
- A. INH
- B. Rifampiein
- C. Ciprorloxacin
- D. Ethionamide
-
111. Which of the tollowing is a common side-effect of Cisplatin
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Vomiting
- C. Puimonary fibrosis
- D. Alopecia
-
112. Megaloblastic anemia is a side-effect of long term therapy with
- A. Diazeparm
- B. INH
- C. Phenobarbitone
- D. Lithiunm
-
113. Which analgesic is not used in Acute myocardial infarction
- A. Morphine
- B. Pentazocine
- C. Pethidine
- D. Buprenorphine
-
114. Which organ Putreties last in females
- A. Prostate
- B. Uterus
- C. Brain
- D. Breast
-
115. Hyoid fracture is common in
- A. Hanging
- 8. Stranguiation
- C. Throttling
- D. Choking
-
116. In which of the toilowing conditions is a person heid responsible for a crime
- A. Alcoholic paranoia
- B. Delirium tremens
- C. Voluntary drunkenness
- D. Dhatura intoxication
-
117. All the following are Cardiac poisons except
- A. Aconite
- B. Opium
- C. Oleander
- D. Nicotine
-
118. The most poisonous Mercury sait is
- A. Chloride
- B. Oxide
- C. Cyanide
- D. Chromate
-
119. The earliest manifestations or Chronic lead poisoning include
- A. Colic and Constipation
- B. Encephalopathy
- C. Punctate basophilia
- D. Lower limb paralysis
-
120.A sea snake is
- A. Neurotoxic
- B. Hemotoxic
- C. Musculotoxic
- D. All of the above
-
121. Clinical features of Organophosphorus poisoning
- include all except
- A. Pinpoint pupiis
- B. Marked miosis
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Clinical picture simulating Bronchial Asthma
-
122. Kuppuswami's classification is based on all except
- A. Income
- B. Occupation
- C. Education
- D. Type of house
-
123. Which of the following is a Live vaccine
- A. Salk polio vaccine
- B. HDCv
- C. Hepatitis B vaccine
- D. 17-D vaccine
-
124. In Longitudinal studies, which ot the foliow ing is
- A. Easy to conduct
- B. Detects only one risk factor
- C. Determines incidences of disease
- D. Have increased bias
-
125. All of the following are features of Cross-Over studies except
- A. All patients receive the new therapy
- B. Not suitable if drug on interest cures the disease
- C. Not suitable if drug is effective only curing a certain stage of disease
- D.Not suitable if disease does not change radicaily during the srudy
-
126. Which of the following is true about Secular rend
- A. Road side accident is a good exampie
- B. Due to environmental factors
- C. Is due to normally occuring variation in herd immunity
- D. Consistent change in a particular direction over a period of time
-
127.Which of the foilowing is not true of Case-contro studies
- A. Relatively cheap
- B. Relative risk can be calculated
- C. Used for rare disease
- D. Odd's ratio can be calcuiated
-
128. The health status of children between 0 and 4 years in a community will be adversely affected by all except
- 4. Malnutrition
- B. Birth weight of less than 2.5 Kg
- C. Maternai hemoglobin 12 gm/d/
- D. Infections
-
129. In a epidemic of Poliomyelitis, the best way to stop spread is by
- A. Injection of killed vaccine
- B. OPV drops to all children
- C. Isolation of cases
- D. Chlorination of all wells
-
130. Chandler index is used for
- A. Ancylostoma duodenale
- B. Ascariasis
- C. Guinea worm infestations
- D. Filariasis
-
131. All of the following are true about Classical dengue fever except
- A. Case fatality is low
- B. Break bone fever
- C. Positive tourniquet test
- D. It is a self limiting disease
-
132. In India, the vector of Japanese encephalitis is
- A. Aedes. aegypti
- B. Aedes culcifaciens
- C. Cuiex vishnui
- D. Mansonoides
-
133. Under NMEP, the function of fever depot treatment
- A. Diagnosis of cases + spraying
- B. Coilection of slides + treatment of fever
- C. Trearment of fever cases only
- D. Treament slide collection + spraying
-
134. Under the NMEP, the minimum annual blood
- examination rate should be
- A. 10%
- B. 12%
- C. 14%
- D. 18%
-
135. All of the following are commonly used Filarial indices except
- A. Microfilaria rate
- B. Filarial disease rate
- C. Filarial epidemicity rate
- D. Mosquito intection ate
-
136. The safe limit of Fluorine in drinking water is
- A. 0.2-0.5 mg L
- B. 0.5-0.8 mg L.
- C. 0.3-1 2 mg.L
- D. 1.2-2.0 mg/L
-
137. Rabies can be transmitted by all the foilowing routes except
- A. Aerosol
- B. Bites
- C. Ingestion
- D. Licks
-
138. The numher of dose of HDCV for pre-exposure prophylaxis of Rabies is
-
139. The following disease require isolation to break transmission except
- A. Measles
- B. Mumps
- C. Chicken pox
- D. Tetanus
-
140.Still birth rate inctudes babies dead arter
- A. 20 weeks
- B. 24 weeks
- C. 28 weeks
- D. 32 weeks
-
141. Protein efficiency ratio is
- A. Gain in weight per unit of protein consumed
- B. Product of digestibiity coefficient and biological value divided by 100
- C. Percentage of nitrogen retained out of the nitrogen absorbed
- D. Percentage of protein absorbed after digestion
-
142. Highest biological value of protein is seen in
- A. Eggs
- B. Fish
- C. Soyabean
- D. Gram
-
143. In a demographic cycle, Late expanding stage
- indicates
- A. High birth and death rates
- B. Decreasing DR and stationary BR
- C. Decreasing BR and decreasing DR
- D. Low DR and BR
-
144. Under the registration Act of 1969, Birth should be registered within
- A. 7 days after birth
- B. 20 days after birth
- C. 14 days after birth
- D. 21 days after birth
-
145. All the foilowing are Standards laid down by the
- Factories Act except
- A. Minimum 500 cubic feet space per worker
- B. Maximum working hours including overtime per week 60 hours
- C. Defines any factory that employs 10 or more workers where power is not used
- D. Prohibition of employment of children below 14 years of age
-
146. Controlled Tipping is a method of disposal of
- A. Sewage
- B. Sulage
- C. Human excreta
- D. Refuse
-
147. Increased 'anion gap" is not seen in
- A. Salicylate poisoning
- B. Renal tubular acidosis
- C. Lactic acidosis
- D. Ethylene glycol poisoning
-
148. All the following are features of Anorexia Nervosa
- A. Predominantly seen in females
- B. There is Loss of weight at the time of presentation
- C. Amenorrhea is rare
- D. Avoidance of high calorie foods
-
149. All the following are used in the treatment of Pneumocysis carinii except
- A. Pentamidine
- B. Dapsone
- C. Cotrimoxazoie
- D. Fluoroquinoiones
-
150. The drug of choice in Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Zidovudine
- C. Amantadine
- D. Vidarabine
-
151.All the following are features of Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia except
- A. Eosinophilia > 3000/mm3
- B. Microfilaria in blood
- C. Paroxysmal cough and wheezing
- D. Bilateral chest mottling and increased broncho- vascular markings
-
152. Osteoporosis is seen in all the following
- A. Thyrotoxicosis
- B. Rheunatoid arthritis
- C. Hypoparathyroidism
- D Steroid therapy
-
153. Osteoporosis is seen in
- A. Thyrotoxicosis
- B. Cushing's disease
- C. Menopause
- D. All of the above
-
154. The most common manifestation of osteoporosis is
- A. Compression fracture of the spine
- B. Asymptomatic, detected incidentally by low serum Calcium
- C. Bowing of legs
- D. Loss of weight
-
155. Which part of the spine is most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis
- A. Cervical
- B. Lumbar
- C. Thoracic
- D. Sacral
-
156. All the following are true about Rheumatoid arthritis except
- A. Positive for Anti-igG antibody
- B. Juxta-articuiar osteoporosis
- C. Morning stiffness
- D. C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis
-
157. Which of the following is true regarding Rheumatoid arthritis
- A. Typically involves small and large joints symmetrically but spares the cervical spine
- B. Causes pleural effusion with low sugar
- C. Pulmonary noduies are absent
- D. Enthesopathy prominent
-
158. Gold salts can be used in
- A. Ankylosing spondylitis
- B. Rheumatoid arthritis
- C. Osteoarthritis
- D. Behçet's syndrome
-
159. All the foilowing are feanures of Bechet's syndrome except
- A. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
- B. Muiti-system involvement
- C. Seen only in the tropics
- D. Common in youngsters
-
160. All the following are features of Marfan's syndrome
- A. Arachnodactyly
- B. Joint hypermobility
- C. High palate
- D. Flat foot-pes pianus
-
161. In Thyrotoxicosis, B-blockers do not control
- A. Anxiety
- B. Tremors
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Oxygen consumpion
-
162. SIADH secretion is seen in all except
- A. Lung abscess
- B. Interstitiai Nephritis
- C. Vinka alkaloids
- D Bronchial adenoma
-
163. Henoch Schönlein purpura is characterized by ail
- A. Thrombocytopenia
- 3. Glomerulonephritis
- C. Arthralgia
- D. Abdominal pain
-
164. Al the following are true about multiple myeloma
- A. Osteolytic bone disease
- B. t(8-14) translocation
- C. Light chain proliferation
- D Bence-Jones proteins in urine
-
165. In the JVP, 'a' waves are absent in
- A. Atrial fibrilation
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Tricusoid atresia
- D. Sick sinus syndrome
-
166. Angina pectoris and Syncope are most likely to be associated with
- A. Mitral stenosis
- B. Aortic stenosis
- C. Mitral regurgitation
- D. Tricuspid stenosis
-
167. Acute Aortic regurgitation is seen in all the following except
- A. Marfan's syndrome
- B. Acute myocardial infarction
- C. Bacterial endocarditis
- D. Ankylosing spondylitis
-
168. Decreased maximum mid-expiratory flow rate indicates obstruction in
- A. small airways
- B. Trachea
- C. Large airways
- D. Trachea & Bronchi both
-
169. All the following are true about Chronic Obstructive lung disease except
- A. Decreased FeV
- B. Decreased MEFR
- C. Increased RV
- D. Decreased diffusion capacity
-
170. Normal portal venous pressure is
- A. 3-5 cm saline
- B. 5-10 cm. saline
- C. 10-15 cm saline
- D. 15-20 cm saline
-
171. Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by
- A. Anti-HBsAg
- B. HBsAg HBeAg
- C. Anti-HBsAg Anti-HBc
- D. Anti-HBeAg - Anti-iibsAg
-
172. All the following are causes of Acute Pancreatitis
- A. Gall stones
- B. Alcohol
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Hypercalcemia
-
173. The most common site of Berry aneurwsm is
- A.Junction of anterior communicating artery with anterior cerebral artery
- B. Junction of posterior communicating artery with internal carotid artery
- C. Bifurcation of middle cerebral artery
- D. Vertebrai artery
-
174. A common site for intracranial hemorrhage is
- A. Putamen
- B. Cerebellum
- C. Mid-brain
- D. Pons
-
175. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of the area of distribution of the
- A. Anterior cerebrai artery
- B Middle cerebrai artery
- C. Posterior cerebral artery
- D. Anterior communicating artery
-
176. All the following are feaures of Pseudotumor cerebri except
- A. Increased intracraniai tension
- B. Convulsions
- C. Papilledema
- D. Normal CT scan
-
177. The characteristic feature of a frontal lobe tumor is
- A. Abnormal gait
- B. Aphasia
- C. Distractibility
- D. Antisocial behavior
-
178. Neuronophagia is seen in
- A. Amoebic encephalitis
- B. Poliomyelitis
- C. Tuberculous meningoencephalitis
- D. Cerebral malaria
-
179. All the following are true of Craniopharyngioma except
- A. Derived from Rathke's pouch
- B. Contains epitheliai ceils
- C. Present in sella or infra-sellar location
- D. Causes visual disrurbances
-
180. Thymoma is associated with all except
- A. Pure Red-cell aplasia
- B. Aplastic anemia
- C. Hypergammagiobulinemia
- D. Myasthenia gravis
-
181. Thymoma is associated with
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Scieroderma
- C. Cesophageal atrasia
- D. Hyper-gammaglobulinemia
-
182.Immediate management of a patient with Multiple fracture and Fluid loss includes the infusion of
- A. Blood
- B. Dextran
- C. Normal saiine
- D. Ringer lactate
-
183. Which of the following is the best parameter to assess fluid intake in a poly-trauma patient
- A. Urine output
- B. BP
- C. Pulse
- D. Puise oximetry
-
184. Cleft palate is best repaired at
- A. Soon after birth
- B. At I month
- C. At 6-8 months
- D. Berween 1-1.5 years
-
185. The commonest site of Branchial cysts is
- A. Upper 1/3d of the SCM
- B. Lower 1/3 rd of the SCM
- C. Upper 2/3 of the SCM
- D. Lower 2/3 " of the SCM
-
186.Which of the following cutaneous malignancies do not metastasize through the lymphatics
- A. Squamous ce!l carcinoma
- B. Basal cell carcinoma
- C. Melanoma
- D. Kaposi's sarcoma
-
187. Lymph node metastasis is least commonly seen with
- A. Papillary Ca Thyroid
- B. Medullary Ca Thyroid
- C. Follicular Ca Thyroid
- D. Anaplastic Ca Thyroid
-
188. One of the following will always present with Bilious vomiting
- A. Pyloric stenosis
- B. Esophageal atresia
- C. Atresia of the 3"d part of the duodenum
- D. Malrotation of the gut
-
189. A neonate with a scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress has
- A. Congenital pyloric stenosis
- B. Diaphragmatic hernia
- C. Voivulus
- D. Wilm's umor
-
190. Meckei's diverticuium is a derivative of
- A. Allantoic diverticulum
- B. Vitellointestinal duct
- C. Ventral mesogastrium
- D. Ductus arteriosus
-
191. Acute mesenteric lymphadenitis is caused by
- A. E. coli
- B. α-hemolytic streptococci
- C. Hemophilus
- D. Yersinia
-
192. The commonest site of obstruction in Gall stone ileus is
- A. Proximal iieum
- B. Distal ileum
- C. lleocecal junction
- D. Transverse colon
-
193.Resection of 90% of the ileum and jejunum causes all the following except
- A. Hypogastrinemia
- B. Steatorrhea
- C. Anemia
- D. Extracellular volume depletion
-
194. The most unlikely clinical feature of Hepatocellular carcinoma is
- A. Hepatomegaly
- B. Raised α-fetoprotein leves
- C. Raised alkaline phosphatase
- D. Jaundice
-
195. α-fetoprotein increases in ail the following except
- A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- B. Seminoma of the testes
- C. Gl neoplasims
- D. Embryonal cell carcinoma
-
196.Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is due to tumor of the
- A. α cells
- B. B cells
- C. PP cells
- D. G-cells
-
197. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by all of the following except
- A. Post bulbar ulcer
- B. Recurrent duodenal ulcer
- C. Severe diarrhea
- D. Massive HCL in response to histamine injection
-
198. Pancreatic pseudocyst most commonly occurs after
- A. Trauma
- B. Pancreatiis
- C. Pancreatic surgery
- D. Pancreatic malignancy
-
199. Painiess gross hematuria occurs in
- A. Renal cell carcinoma
- B. Polycystic kidney
- C. Stricture of urethra
- D. Wilm's tumor
-
200. A 75-year-old frail elderly man underwent TURP The biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma. What is the next line of management
- A. Radiotherapy
- B. Surgery followed by Hormonal replacement therapy
- C. Constructive treatment
- D. Surgery followed by radiotherapy
-
201. Trousseau's sign is seen in ail the following except
- A. Ca Lung
- B. Ca Stomach
- C. Ca Pancreas
- D. Liposarcoma
-
202.All of the following produce Osteoblastic secondaries excep
- A. Ca Prostate
- B. Carcinoid tumors
- C. Ca Breast
- D. Multiple myeloma
-
203. Bleeding from the umbilicus in an adult female during menstruation is suggestive of
- A. Bleeding diathesis
- B. Vicarious menstruation
- C. Persistent urachus
- D. Purpura
-
204. What is the commonest site for secondary metastasis in Choriocarcinoma
- A. Vagina
- B. Urethra
- C. Lungs
- D. Brain
-
205. All the following can be used in Preterm labor
- A. Ritodrine
- B. Magnesium sulphate
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Chlorpiomazine
-
206. Which is the commonest site of ectopic pregnancy
- A Isthmus
- B. Ampulla
- C. Inftundibuilum
- D. Abdominal
-
207. α-Fetoprotein is increased in all the following except
- A. Increased matemai weight
- 8 Multiple gestation
- C. Matermal hepatoma
- D. Abdominal wall defect
-
208.Which Heart disease has the highest mortality in pregnancy
- A. Eisenmenger complex
- B. Mitral vaive prolapse
- C. Mitral stenosis
- D. Mitrai regurgitation
-
209. Trial of labor in contraindicated in all the following except
- A. Rachitic pelvis
- B. Malnresentation
- C. Previous LCS
- D. Myltigraviia
-
210. The commonest cause of breech présentarion is
- A. Hydramnios
- B. Oligohydramnios
- C. Prematurity
- D. Contrac:ed pelvis
-
211. Forceps are applied in all the following except
- A. Afterr comming head in breech presentation
- B. Face presentation
- C. Occipitoposterior
- D. Brow presentation
-
212. Maximum breast milk secretion at months
- A. months
- B. 6 months
- C. 9 months
- D. 12 months
-
213. The use of steroids in neonates is required in
- A. Bronchopuimonary dysplasia
- B. Meconium aspiration syndrome
- C. Congenitai polycystic disease
- D. Craniopharyngioma
-
214. Which of the foilowing is true regarding precocious puberty
- A. Sexual maturity is attained early
- B. Mental function is increased
- C. No reproductive function
- D. Body proportions are enlarged
-
215. All the following are primary support of the uterus except
- A. Utero-sacrai ligament
- B. Pelvic floor
- C. Broad ligament
- D. Antiflexion
-
216. Stress incontinence is best corrected by
- A. Colpo-suspension
- B. Hysterectomy
- C. Bladder neck repair
- D. Bladder exercise
-
217. Gonococcai infection spreads by
- A. Ascending route
- B. Hematogenous route
- C. Lympnaics
- D. Involvement of adjacent structures
-
218. Ail the following are features of progesterone pills except
- A. Acts by altering cervical mucous secretion
- B. Break ovulation cycle
- C. Failure rate is equal to that seen with OCP's
- D. Irreguiar bleeding is a known complications
-
219. A woman has 20 ml menstrual blood loss every 35 days. She suffers from
- A. Metrorrhagia
- B. Menome:orhagia
- C. Oligomenorrhea
- D. Menorrhagia
-
220. Treatment of Endometriosis involves gil excen
- A. Estrogens
- B. Gonadotropins
- C. Progestins
- D. Danazol
-
221. The commonest avarian tumor complicating pregnancy is
- A. Fibroma
- B. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
- C. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
- D. Dermoid
-
222. In Kwashiorkor, which immunoglobuin is most affected
-
223. Which of the following STDs cause fetal abnormality
- A. Herpes
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Gonococci
- D. Syphilis
-
224. In the iCU, the commonest cause of pneumonia is
- A. Streptococcus
- B. Staphylococcus
- C. Pseudomonas
- D. E. coli
-
225. All the following are features of Down's syndrome except
- A. Brushfield's spots in ris
- B. Simian crease
- C. Mental retardation
- D. Hypertonicity
-
226. Infective endocarditis is nor seen in
-
227. Which of the following is true regarding Typhoid in
- children
- A. Leukocytosis is characteristic
- B. Encephalitis is common
- C. Mild splenomegaly is usual
- D. Urine culture is positive in 4 to 6 days
-
228. Hypokalemia in an infant may be due to all of the following except
- A. Adrenal tumor
- B. Acute renal failure
- C. Thiazide therapy
- D. Diarrhea
-
229. A 2-year-old child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, bilateral infiitration on chest X-ray and hepatasplenomegaly. The probabie diagnosis is
- A. Mucopolysaccharidosis
- B. Cretinism
- C. Histiocytosis X
- D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
-
230. Which is the commonest abdominai mass in neonates
- A. Wilm's tumor
- B. Polycystic kidney
- C. Neurobiastoma
- D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
-
231. A 1-year-old child presented with a swelling in the left flank with episodes of flushing, diarrhea. sweating and bone pain. The diagnosis is
- A. Neuroblastoma
- B. Wilm's tumor
- C. Medulicblastoma
- D. Pheochromocytoma
-
232. Wilm's tumor is associated with all the following
- except
- A. Aniridia
- B. Beckwith syndrome
- C. Polycystic kidney
- D. Hemi-hypertrophy
-
233. All of the following are features of juveniie CML except
- A• Thrombocytopenia
- B. Fetal Hb is increased
- C. Philadelphia chromosome is positive
- D. Lymphadenopathy
-
234. L-asparaginase is particularly used in which type of
- A. AMIL
- B. CML
- C. ALL
- D. CLL
-
235. Which intracranial tumor has good prognosis in
- chlldren
- a. Glioma muliforme
- b. Cerebellar astrocytoma
- c. Medulloblastoma
- D. Ependymoma
-
236. The CSF findings in TB meningitis incl ude
- A. High sugar + low protein
- 8. Low sugar high protein and Lymphocytosis
- C. High sugar + high chloride
- D. Low sugar high protein and Lymphopenia
-
237. All the following drugs are used for Absence seizures except
- A. Clonazepam
- 3. Phenytoin
- C. Valproate
- D. Ethosuximide
-
238. Pseudohermaphroditism in a female child is most commonly due to
- A. 21-hydroxyiase deficiency
- B. 17-hydroxylase deficiency
- C. 11-hydroxylase deficiency
- D. 3-hydroxylase deficiency
-
239. Damage to the radial nerve in the spinal groove spares which muscle
- A. Lateral head of triceps
- B. Long head of triceps
- C. Medial head of triceps
- D. Anconeus
-
240. Meralgia paresthetica is due to the invol vement of
- A. Ulnar nerve
- B. Median nerve
- C. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
- D. Laterai peroneal nerve of thigh
-
241 Cubitus varus is commonly caused by
- A. Supracondylar fracture ofhumerus
- B. Fracture of the lateral epicondyle
- C. Chronic osteomyelitis
- D. Acute epiphysitis
-
242. Management of Smith's fracture is
- A. Open reduction and fixation
- B. Plaster cast with forearm in pronation
- C. Closed reduction with below-eibow cast
- D. Above-elbow cast with forearm in supination
-
243. Ortolani's test is done for
- A. Congenital dislocation of hip
- B. Traumatic dislocation of hip
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Tuberculous arthritis
-
244. Treatment of choice for one week old fracture neck femur at 65 years age is
- A. Hemi-replacement arthroplasty
- B. Closed reduction and internal fixation by cannulated cancellous screws
- C. Closed reduction and internai fixation by Austin more pins
- D. Total hip repiacement
-
245. All the following are benign tumors except
- A. Chondroma
- B. Chordoma
- C. Teratoma
- D. Meningioma
-
246. Solitary bone cyst is most common in the
- A. Upper end of humerus
- B. Lower end of hunerus
- C. Upper end of fibula
- D. Lower end of femur
-
247. Erosion of bone is seen with all of the following except
- A. Gout
- B SLE
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
-
248. Which of the following is true regarding a phantom
- A. Occurs in leprosy
- B. Follows amputation
- C. Follows a psycaiatrnc iliness
- D. After filariasis
-
249. The length of the eye ball is
- A. 12mm
- B. 16 mm
- C. 20 mm
- D. 24 mnm
-
250. Sunflower cataract is seen in
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diabetes
- C. Trauma
- D. SLE
-
251. Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in
- A. Epidemic dropsy
- B. Marfan's syndrome
- C. Hypertension
- D. Diabetes
-
252. The type of synechiae in iris bombe is
- A. Ring
- B. Total
- C. Goniform
- D. Filiform
-
253. Fundoscopic features of papilledema include all the following except
- A. ill-defined disc margin
- B. Deep physiologicai cup
- C. Absent venous puisation
- D. Bending of blood vessels
-
254. In papiiledema, ail the following are true EXCEPT
- A. Blurring of the disc
- B. Congestion of retinal veins
- C. Soft white exudates around the disc
- D. Sudden loss of vision
-
255. 5% guanethidine is used for
- A. Ptosis
- B. Neuro-paralytic keratiris
- C. Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy
- D. Horner's syndrome
-
256. Cherry red spot is seen in
- A. Eale's disease
- B. Retinitis pigmentosa
- C. Central retinal artery thrombosis
- D. Central retinai vein occlusion
-
257. All the fol lowing changes are caused inthe retina by benign hypertension except
- A. Narrowing of arterioies
- B. Exudates
- C. Cotton wool spots
- D. Retinal hemorrhage
-
258. Which of the following can cause Superior quadrantopia
- A. Temporal lobe tumor
- B. Frontal lobe tumor
- C. Pituitary tumor
- D. Craniopharyngioma
-
259. All the following are true of Eale's disease excep
- A. Occurs in the young
- B. Vitreous hemorrhage is present
- C. Retinal detachment
- D. Optic neuritis
-
260. Cholesteatoma is commonly caused by
- A. Atico-antral perforation
- B. Tubo-tympanic disease
- C. Central perforation of tympanic membrane
- D. Meniere's disease
-
261. Treatment of choice in Central safe perforation is
- A. Modified mastoidectomy
- B. Radical mastoidectomy
- C. Myringopiasry
- D. Clearance and antibiotics
-
262. All the following are true of Antrochoanai polyp
- A. Common in children
- B. Single & Unilateral
- C. Bleeds on touch
- D. Treatment involves Avuision
-
263. Excessive hemorrhage from tonsillectomy is due to injury of the
- A. External palatine vein
- B. Ascending palatine artery
- C. Facial artery
- D. Intermal carotid artery
-
264. Tonsillectomy is indicated in
- A. Acute tonsillitis
- B. Aphthous ulcers in the pharynx
- C. Rheumatic tonsillitis
- D. Physioiogical enlargement
-
265. All the foilowing are true about Laryngeai carcinoma except
- A. More common in females
- B. Common in patients over 40 years of age
- C. After laryngectomy, esophageal voice can be used
- D. Poor prognosis
-
266. Ludwig's angina is characterized by all the
- following except
- A. Celluiitis of the floor of the mouth
- B. Caused by anaerobic organisns
- C. Aphthous uicers in the piarynx
- D. Infection spreads to Retinopharyngeal space
-
267. Primary bullous lesions is seen in which type of syphilis
- A. Primary
- B. Secondary
- C. Tertiary
- D. Congential
-
268. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in
- A. Chancroid
- B. Granulorna Inguinale
- C. LGV
- D. Syphilis
-
269. Treatment of choice in nodulocystic acne is
- A. Systemic Steroids
- B. Retinoic Acid
- C. Benzoyl Peroxide
- D. Estrogen
-
270. Treatnent of choice in Pustuar psoriasis
- A. Psorialin + uv therapy
- B. Systemic steroid
- C. Methotrexate
- D. Estrogen
-
271. Treament of Acute neuritis in Lepra I reaction is A/E
- A. Dapsone
- B. Steroid
- C. Thalidomide
- D. incision and Drainage
-
272. Muitidrug therapy is given for
- A. Syphiis
- B. leprosy
- C. Herpetiformis
- D. Icthvosis Vulgaris
-
273. Drug induced pemphigus is seen in A/E
- A. Penicllin
- B. Phenopthelein
- C. lodine
- D. Frusemide
-
274. Mouth Lesion are seen in
- A. Psoriasis
- 8. Lichen Planus
- C. Basal Cell Ca
- D. Icthyosis Vulgaris
-
275. Conc. of Lidocaine used in spinal enesthesia
-
276. L.A. causing Meth Haemoglobinemia
- A. Procaine
- B. Prilocaine
- C. Bupivacaine
- D. Cocaine
-
277. Longest acting L.A
- A. Bupivacaine
- B. Tetracaine
- C. Xvlocaine
- D. Procaine
-
278. Anesthesia agent with least analgesic property
- A. NO
- B. Halothane
- C. Ether
- D. Propane
-
279. Post Spinal Headache can last for
- A. upto 10 min
- B. upto 10 hours
- C. 7-10 days
- D. upto 10 months
-
280. Drug with Ceiling effect
- A. Morphine
- B. Buprenorphine
- C. Fentanyl
- D. Alfentany
-
281. Best investigation for cardiac temponade is
- A. 2-D Echocardiography
- B. M-Mode Echocardiography
- C Real time echocardiography
- D. USG
-
282. Earliest congenital malformation that may be detected on USG is
- A. Down's syndrome
- B. Hydrocephaious
- C. Anencephaiy
- D. Sacral Agenesis
-
283. Earliest sign of fetai life is best detected by
- A. X-ray
- B. Fetoscopy
- C. Real time USG
- D. Doppler
-
284. Acoustic shadow in USG is due co
- A. Artefact
- B. Absorption
- C. Reflection
- D. Refraction
-
285. Haif life of I 131 is
- A. 4 hours
- B. 8 days
- C. 4 days
- D. 10 days
-
286. Best view for visualizing sella turcica on X-Ray
- A. A P View
- B. Town's view
- C. Lateral view
- D. Open mouth view
-
287. Schizophrenia with late onset and good prognosis
- A. Simple SZP
- B. Hebephrenic
- C. Catatonic SZP
- D. Paranoid SZP
-
288. Side effects of fluoxetine are A/E
- A. Weight gain
- B. Sweating
- C. Urinary rerention
- D. Diarrhoea
-
289. Drug of choice in OCD is
- A. Doxapin
- B. Clomipramine
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Dothipin
-
290. Morbid Jealousy is seen with
- A. Alcohoi
- B. ODium
- C. Cannabis
- D. Amphetamine
-
291. True about dementia is A/E
- A. Often irreversible
- B. Hallucination are not common
- C. Clouding of consciousness is common
- D. Nootropics have limited role
-
292. Hypochondriasis is
- A. Normai pre occupation with abnormal body function
- B. Abnormal pre occupation with abnormal body function
- C. Normal pre occupation with normal body function
- D.Abnormai preoccupation with normal body function
-
293. Prophylactic maintenance serum level of lithium is
- A. 0.2-0.8 meq/I
- B. 0.7-1.2 meq/L
- C. 1.2 2.0 meq/L
- D. 2.0-2.5 meq/L
-
294. Akathesia is treated by AVE
- A. Trihexyphenidy
- B. Diazepam
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Promethazine
-
295. Psycho-somatic illness can be differentiated from hysteria by
- A. Altered Sensorium
- B. Aumomi disturbance
- C. involuntary movements
- D. Skeletal muscles atrophy
-
296. Abnormal thought possession is found in
- A. Organic Brain syndrome
- B. Hysteria
- C. Obsessive compuisive disorder
- D. Neuroasthenia
-
297.The difference berween malingering and hysteria is
- A. Hypnosis
- B. Malingering has poor prognosis
- C. Hysteria is more common in females
- D. Consciousmotive in maiingering
-
298. The presence of delusion. hallucination anddisturbed cognitive functions indicate.
- A. Paranoid Psychosis
- B. OCD
- C. Organic Brain Syndrome
- D. Dissociative disorder
-
299. Treatment of choice in depression with sucidal tendencies
- A. TCA
- B. MAO-Inhibitiors
- C. Fluoxetine TCA + MAO-inhibitor
- D. Electro convulsive therapy
-
300. True about obsession - compulsive disorder are A/E
- A. Ego-alien
- B. Patient tries to resist against
- C. Ego syntonic
- D.Insight is present
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