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1. A 2 year old child whose weight is 6.7 kg was brought to the hospital with a history of diarrhea and vomiting for 2 days. On examination the skin when pinched up took almost 3 seconds to return to normal. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. No dehydration b. Some dehydration
- c. Severe dehydration d. Only skin pinching is not reliable in making a diagnosis
-
2. In which of the following conditions, transient rash is seen :
a. Chickenpox b. Exanthem subitum c. Scarlet fever d. Eczema herpeticum
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3. A half- year –old develops high grade fever which subsided after three days following which there was appearance of a generalized rash which also subsided after 48 hours without any residual pigmentation. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Rubella b. Measles c. Roseola infantum d. Fifth disease
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4. Which of the following is the drug of choice in status epilepticus in children;
a. Carbamazepine b. Diazepam c. Phenobarbitone d. Phenytoin
-
5. In India which of the following is not an important cause of post-neonatal mortality:
a. Tetanus b. Diarrhea c. Malnutrition d. Respiratory infection
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6. Renal biopsy was done of a child less than 6 years of age having nephritic syndrome, which is responsive to steroids. Under light microscopy what will be seen:
a. Nothing b. Loss of foot process c. Tubule atrophy d. Crescents
-
7. All of the following causes of neonatal convulsion have bad prognosis except:
- a. Brain tumor b. Intraventricular hemorrhage
- c. Late hypocalcema d. Meningitis
-
8. Best prognosis in neonatal seizures is due to which of the following causes:
a. Hypomagnesemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypoglycemia
-
9. Acute febrile convulsion in children is treated with:
a. Ethosuximide b. Diazepam c. phenobarbitone d. Phenytoin
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10. Which of the following is true regarding febrile convulsions:
- a. It is a benign condition
- b. If first episode is not treated then recurrence occurs
- c. Phenobarbitone is given for 2 years
- d. Focal neurological deficit
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11. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of simple febrile seizure:
- a. Convulsions are always generalized
- b. In treatment aspirin should be avoided
- c. Seizure does not last for > 15 minutes
- d. Convulsions are related with degree of elevation of temperature
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12. All are false regarding simple febrile convulsions except:
- a. No spontaneous remission b. Follow high fever
- c. Recurrent in nature d. Occurs at 6 years onwards
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13. A three –year –old child presented with fever and a history of recurrent seizures in past. Which of the following steps should be taken to prevent recurrence of seizures:
- a. Paracetamol 6 hourly b. Phenobarbitone
- c. Paracetamol 6 hourly and diazepam 12 hourly d. Continue diazepam infusion
-
14.Child doubles the height at the age of….years:
a. 5 ½ b. 4 ½ c. 3 ½ d. 2
-
15.Which of the following causes furuncle:
a. Pseudomonas b. Escherichia coli c. streptococcus d. Staphylococcus
-
16. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice in which of the following conditions:
- a. Absence attacks b.. Partial complex seizure
- c. Infantile spasm d. Post-anoxic myoclonus
-
17. Drug of choice in temporal lobe epilepsy is:
a. Ethosuximide b. Phenytoin c. Carbamazepine d. Phenobarbitone
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18. In petit mal (absence) epilepsy the drug of choice is:
a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Valproic acid d. Ethosuximide
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19. Drug not used in absence seizure is:
a. Ethosuximide b. Valproate c. Phenytoin d. Clonazepam
-
20. Coarctation of aorta is common in:
- a. Noonnan’s syndrome b. Down syndrome
- c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Turner syndrome
-
21. Tonic neck reflex disappears at…weeks;
a. 36 b. 32 c. 24 d. 18
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22. Moro’s reflex disappears by…month:
a. 7 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8
-
23. Danger in epiglottitis is:
a. Defect in drinking b. Defect in speech c. Respiratory obstruction d. Aspiration
-
24. Which of the following is true regarding dawn phenomenon:
- a. Early morning hyperglycemia b. Early morning hypoglycemia
- c. Hypoglycemia is followed by hyperglycemia d. Insulin dose is decreased in treatment
-
25. In which of the following conditions, iceberg phenomenon is seen:
a. Filaria b. Malaria c. PEM d. None of the above
-
26. Ostemalacia is due to deficiency of:
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin C
-
27. Which of the following in the primary aim of neonatal resuscitation:
- a. To include spontaneous cry b. To retain color
- c. To maintain breathing d. To restore heart rate
-
28. Not a feature of friedreich’s ataxia:
- a. Posterior column involvement
- b. Corticospinal tracts involvement
- c. Spinocerebellar tracts involvement
- d. None of the above
-
29. Which of the following is true regarding AML:
- a. Prognosis is good b. Peak incidence in childhood
- c. Auer rods present d. Philadelphia chromosomes
-
30.Neonatal hydrocephalus is not seen in:
a. AIDS b. Brain tumor c. Aqueductal stenosis d. Intraventricular hemorrhage
-
31. Which of the following is false regarding thalassemia major:
- a. Target cells present b. Increased fetal hemoglobin
- c. Microcytosis d. Iron deficiency
-
32. Deficiency of which of the following leads to pellagra:
a. Pyridoxine b. Nicotinamide c. Riboflavin d. Thiamine
-
33. Fetal hemoglobin is increased in which of the following:
- a. Hereditary spherocytosis b. Pure red cell aplasia
- c. Polycythemia vera d. juvenile CML
-
34. Not a feature of juvenile CML:
- a. LYmphadenopathy b. Philadelphia chromosome positive
- c. Fetal hemoglobin is increased d. Thrombocytopenia
-
35. Which of the following is true regarding juvenile CML;
- a. Philadelphia chromosome b. High fetal hemoglobin content
- c. Low acid phosphatase d. Massive splenomegaly
-
36. Which of the following is false regarding tricuspid atresia:
- a. Severe cyanosis b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- c. Left axis deviation d. Right axis deviation
-
37.In which of the following conditions left axis deviation with left ventricular hypertrophy is seen :
a. VSD b. Coarctation of aorta c. Tricuspid atresia d. TOF
-
38. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of acute rheumatic fever :
a. Hemoptysis b. Tender nodule c. Pan-systolic murmur d. Erythema marginatum
-
39. Which of the following is not a major criterion of rheumatic fever:
a. Chorea b. Subcutaneous Nodules c. Stretococcal antibodies d. Polyarthritis
-
40. Which of the following is an essential criterion in rheumatic fever:
a. Chorea b. Arthralgia c. Erythema marginatum d. Acute streptococcal infection
-
41. Rib notching is seen in:
a. Tricuspid regurgitation b. ASD c. VSD d. Coarctation of aorta
-
42. Shakir’s tape is used for measurement of:
a. Height b. Length of infant c. Mid arm circumference d. Head circumference
-
43. At shakir’s tape the red zone indicates ….cm;
a. 14.5 b. 13.5 c. 11.5 d. less than 12.5
-
44. Toxic shock syndrome mat occur due to:
a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Measles vaccine c. DPT vaccine d. BCG vaccine
-
45. Which of the following is the absolute contraindication for DPT vaccine:
a. Cerebral palsy b. Progressive neurological disease c. ADD d. Febrile convulsion
-
46. Croup is not associated with:
a. Polio virus b. Adenovirus c. Influenza virus d. RSV
-
47. Which of the following is false regarding neuroblastoma:
a. Hepatomegaly b. Hypertension c. Café au lait sots d. Opsomyoclonus
-
48. Which of the following is false regarding neuroblastoma:
a. Hepatomegaly b. Abdominal swelling c. Massive splenomegaly d. Proptosis
-
49. A child present with change in color of hair, blue eyes and mental retardation .he is suffering from :
a. Cystinuria b. PKU c. Malonyl urea d. Hemocystinuria
-
50. Which of the following inborn error of metabolism is associated with mental retardation :
a. PKU b. Duchenne’s syndrome c. Down syndrome d. McArdle syndrome
-
51. Which of the following is false regarding Gilbert’s syndrome:
- a. Unconjugaed hyperbilirubinemia b. Normal liver biopsy
- c. Normal LFT d. Mild conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
-
52. Rectal polyps usually presents with which of the following :
a. Bleeding b. perforation c. Obstruction d. Malignant changes
-
53. In children most common cause of bleeding per rectum is:
a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. Foreign body c. Intussusception d. Rectal polyp
-
54. Which of the following is the most common cause of community acquired neonatal meningitis:
a. klebsiella pneumoniae b. Neisseria c. Entamoeba coli d. Pseudomonas
-
55. Organism which commonly causes meningitis in 6 month to 2 years of age is:
a. Staphylococcus b. Neisseria c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Streptococcus
-
56. An eight year old girl presented with low grade fever, vomiting, headache and convulsions. Her CSF finding revealed protein 105mg%, sugar 40 mg% , chloride 52mg% with predominant lymphocytes. The diagnosis is:
- a. Traumatic meningitis b. Viral meningitis
- c. Acute bacterial meningitis d. Tubercular meningitis
-
57. Most common cause of neonatal death in India is:
a. Birth injury b. Malabsorption c. Prematurity d. Congenital malformation
-
58. Which of the following is not caused by thiamine deficiency in children:
- a. Infantile tremor syndrome b. Wernickle’s encephalopathy
- c. Korsakoff’s psychosis d. Congestive heart failure
-
59. Bull neck in diphtheria occurs due to:
- a. Cellulitis b. Lymphadenopathy
- c. Retropharygeal abscess d. Laryngeal edema
-
60. Diphtheric neuropathy occurs in…..week of infection:
a. 4th b. 3rd c. 2nd d. 1st
-
61. Which of the following is a common cause of bronchiolitis :
a. Mycoplasma b. Parainfluenza virus c. Adenovirus d. RSV
-
62. Blast cells of acute lymphocytic leukemia in childhood have:
a. Excessive mitochondria b. Antibodies of WBC c. CALLA +ve d. Surface antigen
-
63. Cirrhosis is not seen in:
a. Cystinuria b. Alpha,-antitrypsin deficiency c. Wilson disease d. Galactosemia
-
64. Thiamine deficiency causes:
a. Glossitis b. Cheilosis c. Angular stomatitis d. Beriberi disease
-
65. Mayer –Rokitansky-Kuster –Hauser syndrome is due to:
a. 45 XO b. 47 XXY c. 46 XX d. Trisomy 18
-
66. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is:
a. AR b. AD c. X-linked d. Y-linked
-
67. Which of the following is not an X-linked disorder:
- a. Ocular albinism b. Hemophilia A
- c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. Testicular feminization
-
68. Which of the following drug does not cause hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency:
a. Nitrofurantoin b. Dapsone c. INH d. Primaquine
-
69. In a child with bronchial asthma, steroid should be given:
a. Orally b. Subcutaneously c. Aerosol d. Intravenously
-
70. The chest X-ray film of a newborn with respiratory distress showing multiple air containing lesions in left hemithorax and mediastinal shift indicates:
- a. Congentital lung cysts b. Pneumatoceles
- c. Neonatal emphysema d. Diaphragmatic hernia
-
71. A newlyborn child with respiratory distress and apgar score of 3 in one minute is resuscitated with IPPR. On examination he has cyanosis, apex beat shifted to right side and scaphoid abdomen. The diagnosis is:
a. TOF b. Dextrocardia c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Pneumothorax
-
72. In down syndrome,defect is:
a. Trisomy 18 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 13 d. 45 XO
-
73. Which of the following is the most Common renal lesion in children and young adults:
- a. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome b. Minimal change nephritic syndrome (MCNS)
- c. MPGN d. Interstitial nephritis
-
74. Best treatment for a neonate born to hepatitis B infected mother is:
- a. Immunoglobulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B Vaccine b. Hepatitis B vaccine
- c.. Immunoglobulin d. Isolation
-
75. A newborn of HBsAg positive mother should be vaccinated at:
a. One year b. 6 months c. 1 month d. Birth
-
76. False regarding childhood polycystic kidney is:
- a. It can be diagnosed by USG
- b. It presents with hypertension and renal insufficiency
- c. Abdominal mass present
- d. It is autosomal dominant
-
77. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease in children:
- a. Spleen is always markedly enlarged b. x-linked recessive trait
- c. Neuropsychological defects in the child d. Deficiency of glucosylceramide β-Glucosidase
-
78. A child can climb steps with alternate limb at:
a. 4 years of age b. 3 years of age c. 2 years of age d. 1 year of age
-
79. Which of the following is used to assess the motor function of a 4 year old child:
- a. Ascends with alternate step from staircase with holding the railing
- b. Skips smoothly
- c. Stands on single leg for 15 seconds
- d. Hopes
-
80. Ossification centre which develops before birth is:
- a. Lower end of femur b. Lower part of tibia
- c. Talus d. Coracoid
-
81. Which of the following is true regarding microcephaly ;
- a. It is a metabolic disease b. It is a familial disorder
- c. Autosomal recessive disease d. Result of mild encephalitis
-
82. Which of the following maternal disorders may lead to microcephaly:
a. Rubella b. SLE c. Hurler syndrome d. Hepatitis A
-
83. Breastfeeding should be started earliest by… hours:
a. More than 24 b. More than 48 c. 2-4 d. More than 72
-
84. Fatty liver does not occur in:
a. Alcoholic liver disease b. Diabetes mellitus c. Marasmus d. Kwashiorkor
-
85. A child presents with increased oral secretion and chocking . he has:
- a. Cyanotic heart disease b. Pyloric stenosis
- c. TRacheoesophageal fistula d. Achalasia cardia
-
86. Hair on end appearance on skul X-ray and greatly expanded diploe is seen in:
a. Meningioma b. Multiple myeloma c. Congenital hemolytic anemia d. Paget’s disease
-
87. Which of the following is not treated by steroids:
- a. MPGN b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
- c. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis d. Lupus glomerulonephritis
-
88. In children, cushing syndrome is best diagnoses by:
- a. Steroid assay b. Dexamethasone suppression test
- c. CT scan d. ACTH level
-
89. IN hypothyroidism which of the following appears first:
a. Decreased BMR b. Decreased T3 c. Increased TSH d. Delayed ankle jerk
-
90. Congenital hypothyroidism is diagnosed earliest by which of the following :
- a. Decreased T3 level in blood b. Increased TSH level in blood
- c. Increased radioactive iodine uptake d. Protein bound iodine estimation in blood
-
91. Not a causative agent of lung absences:
a. Entamoeba Histolytica b. Pneumococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Klebsiella
-
92. Long- standing unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia of newborn is not caused by:
- a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Cretinism
- c. Septicemia b. Breast milk jaundice
-
93. Which of the following conditions is not associated with prolonged unconjugated byperbilirubinemia in a newborn:
a. Breast milk jaundice b. Hypothyroidism c. Septicemia d. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
-
94. Wilm’s tumor is not associated with:
a. Beckwith syndrome b. Aniridia c. Polycystic kidney d. Hemihypertrophy
-
95. False regarding wilms tumor is:
- a. Derived from renal blastema b. Always associated wit hematuria
- c. Fever may be present d. Abdominal mass present
-
96. Koplik’s spots are pathognomic of :
a. Chickenpox b. Typhoid c. Rubeola d. Rubella
-
97. Which of the following is false regarding measles:
- a. Koplik’s spots b. Incubation period 20-22 days
- c. sequence of appearance of rash is characteristic d. Caused by paramyxovirus
-
98. Not a feature of Wilson’s disease in children :
- a. Hemolytic anemia b. Chronic active hepatitis
- c. Fanconi syndrome d. Sensory changes
-
99. Not included in apgar score in neonates:
a. Color b. Muscle c. Respiratory rate d. heart rate
-
100. Calculate the apgar score of a newborn with heart rate 110, good cry, blue extremities, active movement and grimace:
a. 9 b. 8 c. 6 d. 4
-
101. Isolation period of mumps is until:
a. Headache subsides b. Swelling subsides c. Pain subsides d. Fever subsides
-
102. Which of the following is false regarding mumps:
- a. Swelling persists for 3-7 days b. Incubation period is of 2-3 weeks
- c. Unilateral swelling is common d. Painful parotid swelling
-
103.In children which of the following is the most common complication of mumps:
a. Aseptic meningitis b. Otitis media c. Myocarditis d. Orchitis
-
104. Cardiac anomaly commonly seen in congenital rubella is:
a. TOF b. ASD c. PDA d. VSD
-
105. All are associated with congenital rubella except:
a. Pulmonary stenosis b. Patent ductus arteriosus c. ASD d. VSD
-
106. IN which of the following diseases saber-shaped tibia is seen:
a. Renal osteodystrophy b. Gonorrhoea c. Rickets d. Congenital syphilis
-
107. Which of the following is not beneficial in the management of acute attack of bronchial asthama in children:
- a. IV Hydrocortisone b. Sodium cromoglycate nebulisation
- c. High concentration of oxygen d. Salbutamol nebiulisation
-
108. Pneumatoceles are commonly associated with:
- a. Viral pneumonia b. Klebsiella pneumonia
- c. Staphylococcal pneumonia d. Pneumococcal pneumonia
-
109. Which of the following is the most common cause of empyema in children less than 2 years of age :
a. pseudomonas b. Staphylococcus c. Escherichia coli d. Pneumococcus
-
110. Which of the following shows the most specific findings in pediatric age with nutritional/malabsorption state:
a. Malnutrition b. Giardiasis c. Abetalipoproteinemia d. Tropical sprue
-
111. Most common cause of convulsion in a newborn on first day of life is:
a. Head injury b. Anoxia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypocalcemia
-
112. Not a feature of necrotizing enterocolitis:
a. Abdominal distention b. blood in stool c. Bilious vomiting d. Increased bowel sound
-
113. Which of the following is not seen in congenital rubella syndrome:
a. PDA b. Deafness c. Aortic stenosis d. Mental retardation
-
114. Pincer grasp develops by… months:
a. 5-7 b. 9-12 c. 8-9 d. 12-24
-
115. Cyanosis with plethora is not seen in:
- a. Transposition of great vessels b. Total anomalous pulmonary damage
- c. Ebstein anomaly d. TOF
-
116. In children suprasellar calcification suggests:
a. Meningioma b.Neuroblastoma c. Craniopharyngioma d. Glioma
-
117. Not a characteristic feature of infantile pyloric stenosis :
- a. More common in male child b. Vomiting at birth
- c. Visible peristalsis d. Presence of lump
-
118. Which of the following is the treatment of choice in infantile myoclonus:
a. CLonazepam b. Phenytoin c. Phenobarbitone d. ACTH
-
119. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in children is:
- a. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis b.21-Hydroxylase deficiency
- c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Testicular feminization
-
120. False regarding systemic juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. Rheumatoid factor positive b. Leukocytosis c. Hepatosplenomegaly d. Fever
-
121. Which of the following types of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is associated with iridocyclitis:
a. Rheumatoid factor +ve b. Systemic c. Pauciarticular d. Polyarticular
-
122. Which of the following is the most common complication of amebic liver absences in children:
- a. Secondary infection b. Rupture into peritoneal cavity
- c. Recurrence d. Rupture into right lung
-
123. In kwashiorkor the diagnosis is based on which of the following :
- a. Edema and mental changes b. Edema and skin changes
- c. Bitot’s spots and hepatomegaly d. Weight loss and mental changes
-
124. False negative tuberculin reaction does not occur in children in which of the following condition:
- a. Atypical mycobacteria b. 4-6 weeks following measles
- c. Patient on corticosteroid therapy d. Very severely malnourished child
-
125. In children which of the following is not used in treatment of asthma :
a. Sedatives b. Salbutamol c. Adrenaline d. Steroids
-
126. A newborn exclusive fed with goat’s milk will develop which of the following disease as compared to being fed with breast milk:
a. Megaloblastic anemia b. Microcytic anemia c. Rickets d. Scurvy
-
127. Cerebrospinal fluid examination of a one day old term male baby reveals a cell count of 10RBCs/HPF,sugar 45 mg/dl and protein 40 mg/dl. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Hypoglycemia b. Intracranial bleed c. Meningitis d. none of the above
-
128. In which of the following ossification centre appears first:
a. Upper end of tibia b. Femur c. Talus d. Ossicles
-
129. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine ;
a. ATS b. Salk c. BCG d. DTP
-
130. Which of the following is true regarding neonatal herps:
- a. Spontaneous recovery occurs b. Caused by HSV II
- c. Hepatosplenomegaly is diagnostic d. All are correct
-
131. A child has pedal edema ++ facial edema. His blood pressure is 190/110. he has gross hematuria but ascites is absent. He is suffering from:
a. CRF b. Renal vein thrombosis c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Acute glomerulonephritis
-
132. For a 2 –year –old child calories as supplied in ICDS diet are:
a. 1000Kcal b. 500-600 kcal c. 300-400 Kcal d. 200 kcal
-
133. False regarding sacral myelmeningocele is:
- a. Lax anal sphincter is seen b. Bladder incontinence
- c. Hydrocephalus d. Spasticity is a feature of lower limb
-
134. False regarding myelomeningocele in children is:
- a. Absent hydrocephalus b. Fecal and urinary incontinence
- c. Areflexic paraparesis d. Neural tube defect
-
135. Zinc deficiency causes:
- a. Hypogonadism b. Impaired glucose tolerance
- c. CArdiomyopathy d. Tetany
-
136. A 2-year old child presented with respiratory distress. On examination there is wheezing. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. RSV infection b. Severe pneumonia c. Adenovirus d. Rhinovirus
-
137. In bronchiolitis, the treatment of choice is:
a. Zidovudine b. Vidarabine c. Amantidine d. Ribavirin
-
138. Not a complication of chickenpox:
a. Enteritis b. Pneumonia c. Encephalitis d. Reye syndrome
-
139. Which of the following is the most common complication of chickenpox:
a. Diarrhea b. Encephalitis c. Secondary bacterial infection d. Pneumonia
-
140. Which of the following is true regarding klinefelter syndrome:
a. Breast adenoma b. Subnormal intelligence c. Pituitary adenoma d. Short stature
-
141.In which of the following syndromes nuchels fold thickness is increased:
- a. Paul Bunnel syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome
- c. Turner syndrome d. down syndrome
-
142. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of fragile X syndrome:
a. Large testis b. Large nose c. Large eyes d. Long face
-
143. Not seen in neonatal septicemia :
a. Band-neutrophils b. Increased ESR c. Increased CRP d. Leukocytosis
-
144. IUGR is not caused by:
a. CRF b. Diabetes c. Smoking d. Alcohol
-
145. phenytoin is not used for which of the following conditions;
- a. Focal cortical epilepsy b. Psychomotor epilepsy
- c. Petit mal epilepsy d. Grand mal epilepsy
-
146. In vitamin A deficiency X 3A means:
a. Corneal scar b. Corneal ulcer c. Corneal xerosis d. conjuctival xerosis
-
147. Diarrhea in children is most commonly caused by;
a. Pneumococcus b. Rotavirus c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio cholerae
-
148. Neonatal jaundice at birth or before 24 hours is commonly due to:
a. Physiological b. Biliary atresia c. Congenital hyperbilirubinemia d. Erythroblastosis
-
149. Defective hepatic conjugation is not seen in :
- a. novobiocin therapy b. Crigler Najjar syndrome
- c. Gilbert’s syndrome d. Neonatal jaundice
-
150. False regarding childhood ITP is;
- a. Splenectomy for chronic case b. Decreased bone maroow megakaryocytes
- c. preceding viral infection d. Prolonged bleeding time
-
151. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia is not seen in:
a. Beta thalasssemia b. CRF c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Lead poisoning
-
152. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is not seen in;
a. Hemolytic anemia b. Hypothyroidism c. Dubinn Johnson syndrome d. Giltbert’s syndrome
-
153. Not found in TOF :
- a. Severity of cyanosis is directly related to severity of pulmonary stenosis
- b. Ventricular septal defect
- c. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- d. Pulmonary stenosis
-
154. False regarding polio is:
- a. Fasciculation seen b. Normal sensorium
- c. Autonomic involvement d. 70% of cases have muscle paralysis
-
155. In rheumatic fever most common valvular lesion is:
- a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis
- c. Mitral regurgitation d. Mitral stenosis
-
156. False regarding rheumatic heart disease in India:
- a. Most common MR b. Aortic valve is most commonly involved
- c. Progresses rapidly d. Starts in young age
-
157. True regarding AIDS in children is:
- a. Presents with lymphademopathy b. Pneumonitis often important
- c. Kaposi sarcoma rarely occurs d. All are correct
-
158. In which of the following disorders deficiency of glucuronyl transferase is seen in :
- a. Intrahepatic cholestasis b. Rotor syndrome
- c. Dubin Johnson syndrome d. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
-
159. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is not seen in:
- a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. G6Pd deficiency
- c. Rotor syndrome d. Thalassemia
-
160. Most common chromosomal anomaly is:
a. Fragile X syndrome b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
-
161. Mycoplasma pneumonia is treated with:
a. Oral penicillin b. Erythromycin c. Co-Trimoxazole d. Rifampicin
-
162.Not a major criterion of rheumatic fever:
a. Arthritis b. Subcutaneous nodule c. Carditis d. Increased ASO titre
-
163. In children most common cause of subdural effusion is:
a. Meningococcus b. Streptococcus c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Staphylococcus
-
164. A child on 10th day of birth was found to have 10% decrease in weight after exclusive breastfeeding. It was passing golden yellow soft stools. Anxious parents report to the pediatrician . the most appropriate advice is:
- a. Start the child on high protein diet b. more frequent breastfeeding
- c. Reassurance d. Investigate for lactic acidosis
-
165. Mediastinal widening is seen in:
- a. Prolymphatic leukemia b. T cell ALL
- c. CML with blast crisis d. Historic lymphoma
-
166. Obstructive hydrocephalus in children is most commonly caused by:
- a. Aqueductal stenosis b. Arnold-chiari malformation
- c. Meningitis d. Dandy walker syndrome
-
167. Which of the following is the most common cause of portal hypertension in children ;
- a. Postnecrotic b. Veno-occlusive disease
- c. Budd-chiary syndrome d. Extrahepatic compression
-
168. Which of the following is the most common organism causing neonatal septicemia in USA :
- a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus viridans
- c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Group B streptococci
-
169. The height of children in 2-10 years increases:
a. 10 cm/year b. 6 cm/year c. 2 cm/year d. 4 cm/year
-
170. Not a feature of Down’s syndrome:
a. Hypertonicity b. Mental retardation c. Simian crease d. Brushfield spots
-
171. Correct sequences of development in puberty in girls is:
- a. Menarche, pubarche,thelarche b. Thelarche, menarche, pubarche
- c.pubarche, thelarche, menarche d. Thelarche, pubarche, menarche
-
172. IN girls the first sign of puberty is:
a. Clitorache b. Ditroanche c. Menarche d. Thelarche
-
173. Which of the following is the earliest sign of puberty in males;
a. Change in voice b. Moustaches c. Pubarche d. Testicular enlargement
-
174. Bronze baby syndrome occurs due to:
a. Phototherapy b. Wilson’s disease c. Hemchromatosis d. Aortic regurgitation
-
175. In which of the following leulemias, chloroma is seen ;
a. CML b. AML c. ALL d. CLL
-
176. False regarding transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN) is:
- a. Reticulogranular pattern are seen b. Fluid in intralobar fissure
- c. Mild pleural effusion d. Prominent perihilar streaking
-
177. Not a characteristic feature of petit mal seizures:
- a. 3 HZ spike and wave pattern in EEG b. Onset after the age of 14 years
- c. Absence of motor activity during seizures d. Short duration of seizure
-
178. Infant triples weight at the age of … months:
a. 5 b. 11 c. 18 d. 24
-
179. Not seen on systemic Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis:
a. Iridocycllitis b. High fever c. Rheumatoid rashes d. Hepatosplenomegaly
-
180. Characteristic feature of still disease is;
a. Maculopapular rash b. Renal involvement c. Neutropenia d. Rheumatoid factor +ve
-
181. Which of the following is true regarding porencephaly:
- a. Neural tube defects
- b. Vascular lesion due to degenerative vessal disease and head injury
- c. Dandy-walker syndrome
- d. Fetal alcohol syndrome
-
182. A child presented with diarrhea followed by development of rashes and petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Giardia b. Shigella c. Campylobacterr d. Vibrio
-
183. A child has anti-mongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis, short stature and undescended testis. This child has:
a. Down syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Noonan’s syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome
-
184. Secondary lactose intolerance is seen with which of the following:
a. Yersinia enterocolitis b. Entamoeba c. Shigella infection d. Rotavirus diarrhea
-
185. False regarding thumb sucking is;
- a. Must be treated vigorously in the first year of life
- b. It is a sign of insecurity
- c. It is a source of pleasure
- d. Can lead to malocclusion
-
186. A two year old HIV positive boy presents with history of croup, fever, cough, diffuse wheezing and crypts all over . examination reveals hyperinflated chest. His management should be started with:
a. Ganciclovir b. Erythromycin c. Co-Trimoxazole d. nebulished ribavirin
-
187. Which of the following congenital disease is characterized by reduced production of RBCs:
- a. Sickle cell anemia b. Diamond Blackfan syndrome
- c. Polycythemia vera d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
-
188. Thalassemia is because of:
- a. Deficiency of spectrin b. Defect in spleen
- c. Defect in hemoglobin synthesis d. All of the above
-
189. True about β thalassemia is:
- a. Decreased α chain, decreased β chain
- b. Increased β chain, increased α chain
- c. Decreased β chain increased α chain
- d. Increased β chain decreased α chain
-
190. Wilm’s tumor commonly metastasis to which of the following organ :
a. Liver b. Brain c. Lymph node d. Lung
-
191. A 5 year old child of normal intelligence presents with features of hypotonia. There were fasciculation in his tongue and he keeps his body in a frog like position. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Limb girdle atrophy b. Spinal muscular atrophy
- c. GB syndrome d. Down syndrome
-
192. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy is a group of disorders which affect:
a. Motor neurons b. Pyramidal tracts c. Peripheral nerves d. Neuromuscular junctions
-
193. Not a feature of treacher- Collins syndrome:
- a. Deafness b. Colobomas of lower eyelid
- c. Hypoplasia of zygomatic bone d. Mongoloid slant of palpable fissure
-
194. Which of the following is used for treating Wilson’s disease:
a. Penicillamine b. EDTA c. BAL d. All of the above
-
195. Which of the following is the marker for neural tube defect:
- a. Acetyl phosphatidyl esterase b. Acetyl cystine
- c. Acetyl glucorinidase d. Acetyl cholinesterase
-
196. Increased levels of acetyl cholinesterase in amniotic fluid indicate which of the following:
a. Edward syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Esophageal atresia d. Open neural tube defects
-
197. The age of onset of JRA is before:
a. 16 years b. 13 years c. 8 years d. 12 years
-
198. Inborn error of metabolism associated with mental retardation is:
a. Scheie syndrome b. homocystinuria c. Penosuria d. Alkaptonuria
-
199. Trans-placental transmission is not seen in:
a. Toxoplasma b. Rubella c. Mump d. Syphilis
-
200. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by:
- a. USG b. Bilirubin contents of amniotic fluid
- c. Amniocentesis d. L/S ratio
-
201. Central cyanosis with systolic murmur at birth is seen in which of the following conditions:
- a. Endocardial cushion defect b. TGA
- c. Ventricular septal defect d. PDA
-
202. Not seen in nephritic syndrome :
- a. Hypercholesterolemia b. Massive proteinuria
- c. Hypoalbuminemia d. Hematuria
-
203. Not seen in a child with nephritic syndrome :
a. Reduced serum calcium b. uremia c. Hyperlipidemia d. Hypoproteinemia
-
204.Which of the following is the most common malignancy in children:
a. Neuroblastoma b. Wilm’s tumor c. Lymphoma and leukemia d. Retinoblastoma
-
205. Which of the following is true regarding brain tumor in children :
- a. Hemiparesis is present b. Usually causes papilledema
- c. Usually infratentorial d. Most common tumor in children is Wilm’s tumor
-
206. Which of the following is the first constant symptoms of brain tumor in children :
a. Personality disturbances b. Headache c. Vomiting d. Increased head size
-
207. Which of the following intracranial tumors in children has poor prognosis:
a.. Hemangioma b. Medulloblastoma c. Glioma d. Glioma multiforme
-
208. Most common infratentorial tumor in children is:
a. Ependymoma b. Medulloblastoma c. Glioma of midline of celebellum d. Astrocytoma
-
209. In children most common posterior fossa tumor is:
a. Meningioma b. Astrocytoma c. Glioblastoma multiforme d. Medulloblastoma
-
210. Most common childhood tumor is:
a. Lymphagioma b. Meningioma c. Ependymoma d. Glioma
-
211. Which of the following is not a tumor of first decade of life:
a. Ameloblastoma b. Rhadomyosarcoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Retinoblastoma
-
212. Not a feature of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis:
a. Pneumoperitoneum b. Metabolic acidosis c. Increased bowel sound d. Abdominal distention
-
213. Combination of retinitis pigmentosa and icthyosis is seen in:
a. Down syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Refsum’s disease d. Mohr’s syndrome
-
214. A mother while kissing her baby found that the baby’s skin is salty. Baby is suffering from:
- a. Niemann-pick disease b. Cystic fibrosis
- c. Thalassemia d. Fanconi syndrome
-
215. False regarding cystic fibrosis is:
a. Increased sweat Na + concentration b. Dry mouth c. Steatorrhea d. Sterility
-
216. Which of the following do not regress:
- a. Salmon patch b. Strawberry angioma
- c. Port wine stain d. Lymphangiomatosis circumscripta
-
217. In bed wetting the drug of choice is:
a. Trazodone bb. Tranylcypromine c. Imipramine d. Selegiline
-
218. Most common cause of nocturnal enuresis in children is:
a. NIDDM b. Spina bifida c. UTI d. Psychological stress
-
219. Most common renal lesion in children is:
- a. Diffuse glomerulonephritis b. Focal glomerulonephritis
- c. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis d. Lipoid nephrosis
-
220. Which of the following is true regarding erysipelas:
- a. Anaerobic infection b. Subcutaneous inflammation due to streptococcus
- c. lymphagitis due to streptococcus d. Lymphangitis due to staphylococcus
-
221. In a newborn, Harlequine skin change is due to:
a. Polycythemia b. Septicemia c. Autonomic dysfunction d. Icthyosis
-
222. False regarding breath holding spells is:
- a. Attacks of cyanosis can occur b. Child may lose consciousness
- c. Antiepileptic treatment is necessary d. Occurs between 6 months to 5 years of age
-
223. False regarding breath holding spells in children is:
- a. It must be immediately attended to prevent hypoxia and onset of seizure
- b. Parents are advised to ignore and not to reinforce these attacks
- c. It does not contribute to increased risk of seizure disorder
- d. It is fairly common in the first two years of life
-
224. In X-ray batwing appearance is due to;
- a. Pulmonary embolism b. Mitral stenosis
- c. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema d. Bronchial asthma
-
225. Not a constituent of ORS:
a. Glucose without salt b. glucose with salt c. Na+ d. K+
-
226. Dandy-walker syndrome is because of obstruction of:
- a. Arachnoid granulations b. Foramen of magendie and luschka
- c. Foramen of mugro d. Foramen of morgagni
-
227. Not a clinical feature of dandy –walker syndrome ;
- a. Arachnoid cyst b. Agenesis of cerebellar vermis
- c. Hydrocephalus d. Posterior fossa cyst
-
228. Minimum level of bilirubin to start phototherapy in a 3-day –old full term baby with jaundice is:
a. 15 mg% b. 18 mg% c. 12mg% d. 9mg%
-
229. Neonatal jaundice seen after 48 hours of birth with bilirubin ,5 mg% is due to:
- a. Physiological jaundice b. Neonatal hepatitis
- c. Hemolytic disease of newborn d. ABO incompatibility
-
230. One gram of hemoglobin librates how many milligram of bilirubin:
a. 55 b. 34 c. 10 d. 40
-
231. Normal caloric requirement of a five- year old child is:
a. 2000 calories b. 1500 calories c. 800 calories d. 1000 calories
-
232. Earliest manifestation of rickets is:
a. Harrison’s groove b. Craniotabes c. Pigeon chest d. Rachitic rosary
-
233.Which of the following is true regarding TOF:
- a. Spells associated with hypoxia and cyanosis b. Usually present after 7 years
- c. No supportive treatment is required d. Murmur intensity during spells
-
234. In children hydrocephalus is commonly caused by:
a. Brain tumors b. Postinflammatory obstruction c. Perinatal injury d. congenital anomaly
-
235.Not a sign of hydrocephalus in a neonate:
a. Depressed fontanelle b. Crack pot sign c. Sunset sign d. Enlarged head
-
236. In an AIDS patient, diarrheal syndrome can be due to:
a. Cryptosporidium b. Adenovirus c. Rotavirus d. Escherichia coli
-
237. In human milk the percentage of lactose is:
a. 4.5gm% b. 7.2 gm% c. 8.0gm% d. 6.7gm %
-
238. True regarding hemorrhagic disease of newborn:
a. Prolonged bleeding time b. Defective platelet count c. Prolonged thrombin time d. Prolonged prothrombin time
-
239.Abnormal finding seen in classical hemorrhagic disease in children is:
a. Fibrinogen activated partial thromnoplastin time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Thrombin time d. platelet count
-
240. Kwashiorkor is not characterized by:
a. Fatty infiltration of pancreas b. Fatty liver c. Patchy depigmented hair d. Edema
-
241. Watson-Schwartz test is used to diagnosis:
a. Wilson’s disease b. Hemochromatosis c. Acute intermittent porphyria d. All of the above
-
242. In G6PD deficiency, hemolytic anemia does not occur with:
a. Estrogen b. Nitrofurantoin c. Primaquine d. Salicylates
-
243.False regarding tricuspid atresia is:
a. Split S2 b. Pulmonary oligemia c. Patent foramen ovale d. Left axis deviation
-
244. Not a feature of neonatal tetanus:
- a. Mortality is 95% b. Refused to feed is common initial symptom
- c. Usually occurs in first 8 days of life d. It is caused by clostridium tetani
-
245. Chronic iriodocylitis is present in:
- a. Pauciarticular rheumatoid factor +ve b. Juvenile systemic Rh – Ve arthritis
- c. polyarticular Rh factor +ve d. Pauciarticular type I
-
246. Prior to discharge of a patient of Haemophilus influenza meningitis, which of the following essential investigation should be done:
a. Development screening test b. ECG c. ABER d. EEG
-
247. In acute poliomyelitis the most common cause of death is;
- a. Intercostal muscle paralysis b. Respiratory failure
- c. Cardiac arrest d. Convulsions
-
248. Drug of choice in community acquired neonatal phenumonia is:
- a. Metronidazole + amikacin b. Ampicillin + chloramphenicol
- c. Cefotaxime +amikacin d. Ampicillin+ Gentamicin
-
249. Persistent Moro’s reflex at 12 weeks indicates:
a. Normal child b. Brain damage c. Irritable child d. Hungry child
-
250. Asymmeteric moro’s reflex is not seen in:
a. Hemiparesis b. Fracture of clavicle c. Stermastoid tumor d. Brachial plexus injury
-
251. Bacterial kendocarditis is most commonly seen in:
a. AS b. ASD c. VSD d. PDA
-
252. infective endocarditis is least common with:
a. Aortic regurgitation b. Small ventricular septal defect c. Atrial septal defect d. Ventricular septal defect
-
253. All are false regarding typhoid in children except;
- a. Urine culture positive in 4-6 days b. Mild splenomegaly is usual
- c. Meningitis is always seen d. Leukocytosis is characteristic
-
254.False regarding pseudotumor cerebri:
- a. CT scan shows ring enhancing lesion b. Ventricular system is of normal size or small
- c. No focal neurological deficit d. ICT is raised
-
255. False regarding cartilage hair hypoplasia syndrome:
a. T cell dysfunction b. Lymphocytosis c. Sparse hair d. Short limb dwarfism
-
256. Not a clinical feature of VSD :
- a. A loud pan systolic murmur is present at the right sternal border
- b. Infective endocarditis is also seen
- c. Congestive cardiac failure is common
- d. Second heart sound is split and variable with respiration
-
257. In children lactase deficiency is characterized by:
a. Low lactic acid level in blood b. High pH of stool c. Abdominal bloating craps and diarrhea d. Dumping syndrome
-
258. An eight year old boy takes part in an icecream competition comes to the hospital with pain in abdominal distention and bloating . he also has previous similar episodes on eating icecream/ milk products which of the following enzymes is deficient?
a. Maltase b. Salivary amylase c. Lactase d. Sucrase
-
259.The characteristic feature of lactase deficiency in children is:
a. Low lactic level in blood b. High pH of stool c. abdominal distention, cramps and diarrhea d. Dumping syndrome
-
260. Which of the following is affected by lactase deficiency:
a. Soya bean b. Meat c. Cereals d. Milk ingestion
-
261. Characteristic feature of lactase deficiency is:
a. Acidity of stool b. Abnormal muscle cells c. Abdominal pain, distension and diarrhea after meat ingestion d. Decreased serum lactic acid
-
262. Erythromycin is not the drug of choice in which of the following childhood infections:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Pneumocystis carinii c. Bordetella pertussis d. Mycoplasma pneumonia
-
263.Nadas criteria are used for:
a. Malnutrition b. Dehydration c. Mental retardation d. Presence of heart disease
-
264. False regarding hemolytic –uremic syndrome is:
a. Viral prodrome b. Burr cells are seen c. ARF d. Always fatal
-
265. An infant with a history of diarrhea 15 days back, presented with fever, purpuric rash, anemia and tachycardia. The diagnosis is:
a. Prerenal azotemia b. Henoch-schonlein purpura c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
-
266.Microcytic hypochromic anemia is not seen in:
a. Fanconi anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Thalassemia major d. Lead poisoning
-
267. Not a clinical feature of scurvy in children:
a. Retrobulbar hemorrhage b. Intracerebral hemorrhage c. Perifollicular hemorrhage d. Hemorrhage into periosteum of long bones
-
268.Delayed eruption of teeth is seen in:
a. Down syndrome b. Hypopituitarism c. Hypothyroidism d. All of the above
-
269. In a child with attack of severe acute asthama, the treatment of choice is:
a. IV hydrocortisone b. Sc adrenaline c. IV thophylline d. Nebulised salbitamol
-
270. Not a feature of Laurence –Moon –Bield syndrome:
a. Retinitis pigmentosa b. Polydactyly c. Diabetes insipidus d. Mental retardation
-
271.False regarding fetal alcohol syndrome is:
a. Growth retardation b. Micronathia c. Brachycephaly d. Altered palmer crease patterns
-
272.Not a feature of Down syndrome:
a. Respiratory tract infection b. Pigmented birth marks c. Hypotonia d. Clinodactyly
-
273. False regarding down syndrome is:
a. Duodenal atresia b. Deceased femur length c. Decreased humerus length d. Decreased nuchal fold thickness
-
274.Apt test is done for:
a. neonatal tachypnea b. Fetal hemoglobin c. Neonatal asphyxia d. Fetal maturation
-
275. According to Indian academy of pediatrics, PEM grade III is:
a. 50-60% b. 70-80% c. 60-70% d. 80-90%
-
276. Spaulding sign is n indication of:
a. Dead fetus b. macerated fetus c.. Battered fetus d. putrefied fetus
-
277. Which of the following is the most common cause of fecal soiling(encopresis) in a child;
a. Chronic constipation b. Hirschsprung’s disease c. Gastroparesis d. Gastrocolic reflex
-
278.s Which of the following is true regarding coarctation of aorta:
- a. Right ventricular hypertrophy b. Upper rib notching due to erosion by dilated collateral vessels c. Most common distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery
- d. Most common presentation at 15020 years of age
-
279. notching of 4-9th ribs with double bulging is found in:
a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Coarctation of aorta c. Aortic dissection d. Aortic aneurysm
-
280. pleomorphic rash is characteristic of:
a. Erythema subitum b. Erythema infectiosum c. Chickenpox d. Smallpox
-
281.Which of the following is true regarding tuberculoma in childhood:
- a. No macrophages are seen b. Always associated with extracerebral tuberculosis
- c. Most common inn brainstem d. Always associated with meningitis
-
282. In india most common cause of intracerebral calcification in children is:
a. Toxoplasmosis b. Av. Malformation c. Tuberculoma d. Hyperparathyroidism
-
283. Which of the following should not be done if a women having tuberculosis delivers a baby:
a. Disposal of sputum by burning b. Give ATT c. Stop breastfeeding d. Give baby BCG
-
284. Antibodies seen in a neonate after an intrauterine infection are:
a. IgD b. IgA c. IgM d. IgG
-
285. The correct dose of chloroquine in 4-6 years of age
- group is:
- a. 600mg b. 520 mg c. 400 mg d. 150 mg
-
286. Secondary hypertension in children is most commonly caused by;
a. Adrenal tumors b. Systemic vasculitis c. Renal artery stenosis d. Renal disease
-
287. Which of the following fetty acids is necessary during 0-6 months of age:
a. Arachidonic acid b. Linolenic acid c. Linoleic acid d. Palmitic acid
-
288. A child has recurrent hypoglycemic attacks and hepatomegaly. He is most likely suffering from:
a. Neonatal hepatitis b. Neonatal diabetes c. Von Gierke disease d. Galactosemia
-
289. Preterm infant with PDA should be treated with:
a. Corticosteroids b. Indomethacin c. Aspirin d. Prostaglandin E2
-
290. Which of the following is not an indication for antibiotics in diarrhea:
a. Organism with darting motility b. Septic focus c. Severe dehydration d. Bloody diarrhea
-
291. Upper and lower portion of body disproportion with growth retardation is characteristic of:
a. congenital hypothyroidism b. Silver Russell syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Down syndrome
-
292.Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a pathognomic feature of which of the following conditions:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoparathyroidism
-
293. in tuberculous meningitis the CSF finding includes:
- a. Low sugar+ high protein and lymphopenia b. High sugar + high chloride
- c. Low sugar+ high protein and lymphocytosis d. High sugar + low protein
-
294.L Asparaginase is particularly used in:
a. CLL b. ALL c. CML d. AML
-
295. Hypokalemia in an infant is not due to:
a. Diarrhea b. Thiazide therapy c. ARF d. β 2 agonists
-
296. Which of the following is a preventable cause of mental retardation in children:
a. Cerebral palsy b. Hypothyroidism c. Down syndrome d. All of the above
-
297.False regarding typhoid is:
a. Recurrence is common b. Localize in gallbladder c. Chronic carrier state lasts for 3-4 months d. Fecal carrier are more than urinary carrier
-
298.In a 2 year old child seizure with chorioretinitis is suggestive of:
a. hypoxia b. Tay-sachs disease c. congenital toxoplasmosis d. Galactosemia
-
299.False regarding childhood malignancies:
a. AML is the most common type of leukemia b. Neuroblastoma occurs in first 4 years of life c. Lymphoma commonly presents with CNS symptoms d. 66% of leukemia have aplenomegaly
-
300. Decreased serum alpha-fetoprotein level is seen in:
a. Exomphalos b. Fetal death c. Meningomyelocele d. Down syndrome
-
301. Congenital heart disease which causes death in the first week of life is:
a. Ventricular septal defect b. Tetralogy of fallot c. Ebstein’s anomalogy d. Hypoplastic left ventricle syndrome
-
302.In an infant congestive cardiac failure is diagnosed by:
a. Basal crypts b. elevated JVP c. Pedal edema d. Liver enlargement
-
303. In meningitis subdural effusion is most commonly due to:
a. Meningococcal b. Pneumococcal c. Haemophilus d. Tuberculous
-
304.The national schedule of immunization in a child begins at birth and end at:
a. 3rd year b. 4th year c. 5th year d. 10th year
-
305.First permanent tooth to erupt is:
a. First premolar b. first molar c. First incisor d. Second premolar
-
306.The diagnosis of rheumatic fever is best confirmed by:
a. ASO titer b. ECG changes c. Raised ESR d. Throat swab culture
-
307. Which of the following is necessary for diagnosis
- rheumatic fever:
- a. Prior history of rheumatic fever b. Recent sore throat infection
- c. One major and two minor criteria d. Erythema marginatum
-
308. A child presents with migratory polyarthritis, the investigation of choice to confirm the diagnosis is:
a.ESR b. ASO titre c. pharyngeal swab for culture and sensitivity d. ECG
-
309. In congenital rubella most commonly occurring defect is:
a. Blindness b. Mental retardation c. Deafness d. Microcephaly
-
310.Rubella maximally infects the fetus if the mother contacts the disease during….. weeks of pregnancy:
a. 5-6 b. 12-13 c. 20 d. 9-12
-
311.IUGR can be caused by all except:
a. Captopril b. Caffeine c. Atenolol d. Phenothiazine
-
312.Feature of petit mal epilepsy in EEG is:
a. Spike and dome b. Continuous stunted spikes c. Waves at the rate of 10/seconds d. continuous tall spikes
-
313. An 8 month old child will not be able to do:
a. Pincer grasp b. Says mama baba c. Stand without support d. Sitting stably
-
314. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most affected in kwashiorkor:
a. IgM b. IgE c. IgA d. IgD
-
315. The percentage of calories to be supplied by proteins is:
a. >20% b. 10-15% c. 15-20% d. 5-10%
-
316. Early sign of rickets at 6 months of age is:
a. Craniotabes b. Bent tibia c. Double malleoli d. knock knees
-
317.Most common cause of bronchiolitis :
a. Respiratory syncytial virus b. Pneumococcus c. Haemophilus d. enterovirus
-
318.Hyaline membrane in the lung is seen in:
- a. respiratory distress syndrome b. Pneumococcal pneumonia
- c. acute viral hepatitis d. Pulmonary edema
-
319.Leukemoid reaction is seen in:
a. Acute infection b. Erythroleukemia c. Myelomatosis d. Hemorrhage
-
320. The malignancies of childhood include:
a. AML b. Wilms tumor c. ALL d. All of the above
-
321.In assessment of gestational age of neonate the following are seen except:
a. Ocular b. Breast bud c. Genitalia d. Scrotal skin
-
322.The mechanism of diarrhea in giardiasis is prevention of absorption of fat by:
- a. Mechanical coating of the walls o intestine b. Production of exotoxins
- c. Production of endotoxins d. Secondary bacterial infection
-
323.bronchiolitis is treated with:
a. Humidified oxygen b. Steroids c. Antibiotics d. All of the above
-
324.most common cause of meningitis in neonates is:
a. Streptcoccus b. Haemophilus c. Escherichial coli d. Meningococcus
-
325. In children most common complication of measles is:
a. ASOM b. orchitis c. Meningitis d. bronchopneumonia
-
326.Post-measles bronchopneumonia is treated with:
a. Antibiotics and oxygen b. No treatment is necessary c. Steroid d. Only oxygen
-
327. Syphilis attack the fetus after the ….. month:
a. 2nd b . 7th c. 4th d. 3rd
-
328. Child changes rattle from on hand to another at:
a. 1 year b. 6 month s c. 3 months d. 2 year
-
329.Most common complication of mumps in children is:
a. Orchitis b. Aseptic meningitis c. Myocarditis d. Pancreatitis
-
330.Asperger’s disorder is a :
a. Development delay b. Neuromuscular disease c. Degenerative disorder d. Metabolic disorder
-
331. Drug of choice initially in juvenile chronic arthritis is:
a. Salicylates b. Prednsolone c. Phenylbutazone d. Indomethacin
-
332. Steroids are useful in:
- a. Rapidly progessing glomerulonephritis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
- c. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis d. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
-
333.Transient tachypnea of the newborn develops in:
- a. Term baby by spontaneous vaginal delivery b. Term baby by forceps
- c. Preterm baby by cesarean section d. Preterm with ventouse
-
334. In childhood thyroxicosis treatment of choice is:
a. Radioiodine b. Lugol’s iodine c. Carbimazole d. Surgery
-
335.Sitting height is equal to:
a. Head circumference b. Upper segment c. Chest circumference d. Crown rump length
-
336. Infantile diarrhea is not caused :
a. Adenovirus b. Reovirus c. Rotavirus d. Caliciviruses
-
337.s Blood and muscle in stools are not seen with:
a. shigella shigae b. Escherichia coli c. entamoeba histolytica d. Vibrio cholera
-
338. Not a cause nephritic syndrome:
a. Membranous gloerulonephritis b. focal glomerulosclerous c. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis d. Minimal lesion glomerulonephritis
-
339. Poisoning with which of the following can cause unexplained ataxia in a child:
a. Salicylate b. Lead c. Mercury d. Arsenic
-
340. not a characteristic feature of kwashiorkor:
a. Edema b. Flag sign c. Dermatitis d. Alertness
-
341.in newborn most common cause of pneumothorax is:
a. Resuscitaiton b. hyaline membrane disease c. Pneumonia d. Meconium aspiration
-
342. The clinical sign in measles which appears last is:
a. Coryza b. Fever c. Rash d. koplik’s spot
-
343.A child has mental age of 7 and chronological age of 7 years. His IQ is:
a. 100 b. 80 c. 120 d. 145
-
344. not a characteristic feature of thalassemia major:
a. Target cells b. Splenomegaly c. Hypochromic microcytic anemia d. Decreased serum iron
-
345. In the females, congenital adrenal hyperplasia causes which of the following conditions:
a. Infant Hercules b. Macrogenitosomia paraecox c. Female pseudohermaphroditism d. None
-
346.Most common cause of aplastic anemia is:
a. Idiopathic b. Patroleum products c. Phenylbutazone d. Chloramphnicol
-
347. A mother is presenting to breastfeed her infant, it would be of value to her, if she knows;
a. Grasp reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Moro’s reflex d. Cough reflex
-
348. The essential feature in nephritoc syndrome is:
a. Proteinuria b. Hyperlipidemia c. Edema d. Hypoalbuminemia
-
349. Not a characteristic feature of Lowe’s syndrome:
a. Defect in CNS and eye b. Undescended testes c. Mental deterioration d. Hypophosphatemic rickets
-
350. Most common complication following meningococcal meningitis is:
a. Hydrocephalus b. Arthritis c. Subdural effusion d. Waterhouse fredrickson syndrome
-
351. Oligohydramnios is associated with which of the following conditions:
a. Esophagel atresia b. Renal agenesis c. Anencephaly d. All of the above
-
352. Flag sign is seen in which of the following disease:
a. Kwashiorkor b. Pellagra c. Hypothyroidism d. Marasmus
-
353. The etiological agent for roseola infantum is:
a. Parvovirus b. EBV c. CMV d. Human herpes virus 6
-
354. most common cause of aseptic meningitis is:
a. Arbovirus b. Enterovirus c. Adenovirus d. Herpes virus
-
355.In an infant with galactosemia which of the following should be avoided:
a. Egg b. Rice c. Milk d. Gluten
-
356. False regarding Reye’s syndrome is:
- a. Frequently complicates viral infection b. Deep jaundice is present
- c. Prothrombin time is prolonged d. disease may be precipitated by salicylates
-
357. brachycephaly occurs due to fusion of:
a. Coronal suture b. Lambdoid suture c. Sagittal suture d. parietal suture
-
358. Autohemolysis test is positive in which of the following conditions:
a. sickle cell disease b. Vitamin E deficiency c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. β thalassemia
-
359.Meconium is excreted by a newborn till:
a. 6 days b. 3 days c. 5 days d. 2 days
-
360. A 2 year old child has a weight of 6.4 kg and has vitamin A deficiency. The grade of malnutrition in this child is:
a. Second degree b. Fourth degree c. Third degree d. First degree
-
361.In kernicterus which is increased:
a. Conjugated bilirubin b. Unconjugated bilirubin c. None d. Both
-
362. Rotavirus immunity to children occurs above:
a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 3 years d. 7 years
-
363. Diarrhea in infants is most commonly caused by which of the following viruses:
a. Rotavirus b. Rhadovirus c. Myxovirus d. Adenovirus
-
364.Not caused b RSV :
a. Pneumonia in elderly b. Cold in children c. Coryza in adult d. ARDS
-
365.Phenylketonuria is diagnosed by:
a. Guthrie test b. Vanillylmandelic acid in urine c. Gerhard’s test d. Ferric chloride test
-
366.Most common type of cerebral palsy is:
a. Spastic b. Atonic c. Extrapyramidal d. None
-
367. Sexual maturity rate(SMR) in girls does not include:
a. breast development b. Onset of menarche c. Weight velocity d. pubic hair development
-
368.Ghon’s focus is:
a. Primary complex b. Miliary TB c. TB lymph nodes d. postprimary TB
-
369. all the following milestones are seen in a 16 weeks child except:
- a. Kicks the ground on placing it on its feet b. Brings objects to the mouth
- c. Polysyllabic vowel sounds d. Laughs loudly
-
370. not a characteristic feature of cretinism:
a. Macroglossia b. Dwarfism c. Hyperpyrexia d. Mental retardation
-
371.A child with IQ of 50 is graded as:
- a. Moderately intelligent b. Moderate mental retardation
- c. Severe mental retardation d. Mild mental retardation
-
372. Earliest change in raised intracranial tension in a child is:
- a. Posterior clinoid erosion b. Erosion of sella
- c. silver beaten appearance d. Sutural separation
-
373. Which of the following is true regarding phocemelia:
a. It is a defect in long bones b. Absence of brain c. It is a defect in short bones d. Reduplication of bones
-
374.Not seen in myotonic dystrophy:
a. Cardiac defect b. Cataract c. Respiratory failure d. Enlarged testes
-
375. False regarding Reye’s syndrome :
a. bilirubin of more than 3 mg% b. Microfatty changes in liver without inflammatory changes c. Increased prothrombin time d. Cerebral edema
-
376. Which of the following does not predispose to malignancy:
a. Down’s syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. klinefelter syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome
-
377.False regarding pierre robin syndrome is:
a. Mandibular hypoplasia b. Cloloboma irides c. Cleft palate d. Respiratory distress
-
378. True regarding nutritional rickets is:
- a. Decreased cortical bone b. Decreased calcification of mature bone
- c. Decreased calcification of growing bone d. Decreased production of steroid
-
379. True regarding a 2 month old child is:
- a. Sustain head level with body when placed in ventral suspension
- b. Hold head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows
- c. Lift head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows
- d. Show a positive parachute protective reflex
-
380.Empyema in a child less than 2 years is most commonly caused by:
a. klebsiella b. Staphylococcus c. Escherichia coli d. Pneumococcus
-
381. False regaridgn Henosh-Schonlein purpura:
a. Nephritis b. Centrifugal rash c. Thrombocytopenia d. Arthritis
-
382. Not a cause of floppy baby:
a. Prader willi syndrome b. Little’s disease c. Werding –Holfman syndrome d. Down syndrome
-
383. True regarding disphragmatic hernia is:
- a. More common on right side b. Vomiting occurs early
- c. Chest X-ray is not diagnostic d. Pulmonary hypoplasia is seen
-
384. Which of the following is the most common age group affected by infantile colic:
a. 4-6 months b. 0-3 months c. 6-9 months d. 9-12 months
-
385.In which of the following conditions, combination chemotherapy is not indicated:
- a. Immunologically suppressed patients b. Primary complex
- c. Acute epiglottitis d. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
-
386. Not a usual feature of asscariasis:
a. Intussusception b. Loeffer’s syndrome c. Anemia d. Abdominal pain
-
387. In a term newborn, hypoglycemia occurs when the serum blood glucose level is below:
a. 30mg/dl b. 40 mg/dl c. 50 mg/dl d. 55 mg/dl
-
388.In kernicterus, staining of brain is more intense in:
a. Corpus callosum b. Cerebral cortex c. Basal ganglion d. Spinal Cord
-
389. In cystic fibrosis most common organism is pseudomonas aeruginosa. Next most common organism is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Kiebsiella c. Pneumococci d. Streptococcus pyogenes
-
390.In pertussis antibiotic of choice is:
a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Erythromycin d.. Gentamicin
-
391. True about dietary treatment of galactosemia is :
- a. Mist be continued life long b. ensures normal intellectual development if started in the first week of life
- c. Can be relaxed after puberty d. Involve delayed weaning
-
392. A comatose child has garlic like odor to the breath. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Lead poisoning b. flavism c. Atropine poisoning d. Arsenic poisoning
-
393. Croup syndrome is usually caused by:
a. Coxsackie B virus b. Rhinovirus c. Coxsackie A virus d. Parainfluenza viruses
-
394. Clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis do not include:
a. Malabsorption b. Cor pulmonale c. Bronchiectasis d. Hypertension
-
395. False regarding childhood autism is:
- a. Isolated area of talent may be remarkable developed
- b. Parental attitude and behavior do not attribute to it
- c. Emergence of speech and social smile is often delayed
- d. It represents a type of childhood neurotic disorder
-
396. Cephalhematoma usually disappears within…. Weeks:
a. 5-7 b. 2-12 c. 1-2 d. 3-5
-
397.Scratch tests are best read within:
a. 4 hours b. 1 hour c. 10 minutes d. 15-20 minutes
-
398. Genotype in testicular feminization syndrome is:
a. 46XY b. 45XO c. 47XXY d. 46XX
-
399. Y chromosome is always present in which of the following conditions:
a. Gonadal dysgenesis b. True hermaphroditism c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Turner syndrome
-
400. Cerebral palsy s defined as:
- a. A nonprogressive neuromuscular disorder of cerebral origin
- b. Progressive neuromuscular disorder of cerebral origin
- c. Progressive neuromuscular disorder of cerebral origin
- d. Nonprogressive neuromuscular disorder of peripheral origin
-
401. True regarding canals of Lambert in the alveolar spaces of lung:
a. prevent atelectasis b. Bronchoalveolar connections c. None d. Both
-
402. Normal reflex patterns at birth include:
a. Sucking and rooting reflex b. Moro’s reflex c. Grasp reflex d. All of the above
-
403. Croup is not associated with:
a. adenovirus b. Enterovirus c. Influenza virus d. RSV
-
404.First clinical manifestation of abetalipoproteinemia is:
a. Convulsions b. Tremors c. Steatorrhea d. Hypohydrosis
-
405.Not a characteristic feature of Down’s syndrome:
a. Mental retardation b. Protruding tongue c. Simian crease d. Prominent occiput
-
406. Calculate the percentage of burns on the head, neck and face in child of 1 year:
a. 15% b. 19% c. 10% d. 13%
-
407. The incubation period of hepatitis A is:
a. 6 weeks to 6 months b. 2 days to 2 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 2 weeks to 2 months
-
408. Human colostrums in comparision with mature human milk contains more:
a. Protein b. Fat c. Water d. Lactose
-
409. Retrolenntal fibroplasias is because of :
a. Hyperoxia b. Hypoxia c. Hypocapnia d. Increased CO2
-
410. Not a radiographic feature of rickets:
- a. Increase in width of growth plate b. Rickety rosary
- c. Subperiosteal bleeding d. Decrease in bone density
-
411. Not a recognized feature of Wilson’s disease:
- a. Increased copper content of liver b. Increased ceruloplasmin
- c. histopathiologicla features of chronic active hepatitis d. Psychological disturbaces
-
412. Incubation period of pertussis is…..days:
a. 3 b. 7-10 c. 28 d . 15-28
-
413. not a complication of pertussis:
a. Peumonia b. Convulsions c. Cerebellar ataxia d. Subjunctival hemorrhage
-
414. A 3 months old girl weights 4 kg and is suffering from loose motions. On examination she is found to be suffering from moderate dehydration . the amount of ORS to be given to her in first four hours shuld be:
a. 600ml b. 300ml c. 100 ml d. 50 ml
-
415. true regarding transient tachypnea of newborn:
- a. It often leads to chronic lung disease b. In premature babies it is often fatal
- c. onset of respiratory distress is immediately after birth and it rarely lasts beyond 72 hours d. It is the commonest respiratory disorder caused by absence of surfactant
-
416.In the case of CNS relapse ALL chemotherapy would consist of intrathecal :
a. Methotrexate b. Prednisolone c. Adriamycin d. Methotrexate+cytosine arabinoside
-
417. Drug of choice for neonatal convulsions:
a. Carbamazepine b. Valproate c. Phenobarbitone d. Phenytoin
-
418. In pulse polio program target age group is:
a. Under3 years b. Under 10 years c. under 5 years d. under 1 year
-
419. 10 years old child presented with 10 days continuous fever with soft, enlarged spleen. The diagnosis is:
a. Enteric fever b. Hodgkin’s disease c. Meningitis d. malaria
-
420. Human colostrums has a relatively lower concentration of:
a. Sodium b. Fat c. Protein d. IgA
-
421.Pseudopancreatic cyst in a child is commonly because of:
a. Drug induced pancreatitis b. Choledochal cyst c. Traumatic pancreatitis d. Annular pancreatitis
-
422. Craniopharyngloma is most commonly located in:
a. Suprasellar b. Intracentricular c. Intracerebral d. Infrasellar
-
423.Not a characteristic feature of fragile X syndrome:
a. large testis b. large nose c. Large ear d. large face
-
424. hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency is not caused by:
a. Co-trimoxazole b. Nitrofurantoin c. Rifampicin d. Nalidixic acid
-
425.Not seen in Kwashiorkor:
a. Edema b. Fatty infiltration of liver c. Depigmented areas in skin d. fatty infiltration of pancreas
-
426. In the treatment of severe malnutrition , calories required/kg body weight in phase III is:
a. 130 b. 300 c. 180 d. 125
-
427. False regarding primary complex in children:
a. Effusion seen b. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy c. Connecting lympathic channels d. Ghon’s focus in lung
-
428. Tetanus is characterized by:
- a. Incubation period is 2-3 day b. Spasm of masseter occurs first
- c. Accompanied by loss of consciousness d. Can be cultures from wound
-
429. Death in diaphragmatic hernia is due to:
a. Hypoplastic lung b. Cardiac malformation c. Intestinal obstruction d. Infections
-
430. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis is most commonly caused by:
a. Group B streptococcus b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Enterococcus faecalis
-
431. The foal of incubator care is to maintain the core temperature of infant at:
a. 36.6-37.5
-
432. A 3-year old can not do:
a. climb upstairs b. Hobble 5 steps c. Draw a circle d. Speak sentences
-
433. True regarding about juvenile CML is:
a. Massive splenomegaly b. High HbF content c. High alkaline phosphatase d. Philadephia chromosome
-
434. Phototherpay reduces uncongugated bilirubin to conjugated bilirubin by:
a. Structural isomerization b. Photo-oxidation c. E-isomerization d. All of the above
-
435.Whihc of the following is false regarding turner syndrome:
a. Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism b. horseshoe kidney c. Coarctation of aorta d. Breast development
-
436. Emergency treatment of TGV:
a. Balloon septostomy b. Digoxin c. Oxygen d. Ventilation
-
437. Infantile myocarditis and pericarditis is not caused by:
a. Echovirus b. Coxsackkie A c. Coxsackie B d. Rotavirus
-
438. In infants which of the following drug is contraindicated:
a. Ciprofloxacin b. Chloroquine c. Thephylline d. Barbiturate
-
439.IUGR is defined as:
a. <7 percentile="" of="" expected="" weight="" b="" 8="" br="">c. <10 percentile="" of="" expected="" weight="" d="" 5="" br="">
-
440. Risk of kernicterus is not increased:
- a. High level of serum albumin b. Low level of serum albumin
- c. Prematurity d. Acidosis
-
441.Drug of choice in infantile myoclonic seizures is:
a. ACTH b. Clonazepam c. Phenytoin d. Phenobarbitone
-
442. A 5 year old child has anemia of long duration. The investigation to be done is:
a. Peripheral smear b. Estimation of hemoglobin% c. RBC count d. PCV
-
443. Fetal hemoglobin equals adult hemoglobin at:
a. 2 months b. Birth c. 4 months d. 6 months
-
444.Whihc of the following is caused by congenital 17 hydroxylase deficiency :
a. Hyperkalemia b. Hermaphroditism c. Hypertension d. Virilism
-
445. One year child presenting with abdominal mass and calcification of X-rays is suggestive of:
a. Wilms’ tumor b. Neuroblastoma c. Rhabdomysarcoma d. Teratoma
-
446.Upper segment lower segment ratio at 3 years of age in a normal child is:
a. 1.7 b. 1.1 c. 1.3 d. 1.0
-
447. In ORS the function of gluocose is to:
- a. Increased Na+ absorption by co-trasport b. Increase Na + K+ pump activity
- c. Increase osmolality of ORS d. Give sweat taste to ORS
-
448. Most common cause of gastrointestinal hemorrhage in children is:
a. Mallory weiss syndrome b. Portal hypertension c. Peptic ulcer d. Erosive damage
-
449. All the following are features of cerebral palsy except:
a. Hypotonia b. Spasticity c. Erb’s palsy d. Quadriplegia
-
450. Not seen in a child with nephritic syndrome:
a. Hyperlipidemia b. Increased alpha globulins c. Uremia d. Hypoproteinemia
-
451. Most common cause of systemic hypertension in children is:
a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Coarctation of aorta d. Nephrotic syndrome
-
452. Not a complication of chickenpox:
a. Pneumonia b. Reye’s syndrome c. Enteritis d. Meningitis
-
453. Not a recognized sign and symptom of raised ICT in a 9 months old infant:
a. Papilledema b. Diplopia c. Increased in head size d. Bulging fontanel
-
454.s A five year old child can remember how many digits:
a. 8 b. 4 c. 5 d. 10
-
455. Triad of mental retardation, seizure and sebaceous adenoma is seen in:
a. Tuberous sclerosis b. Hypothyroidism c. Congenital syphilis d. Toxoplasmosis
-
456. Spaasticity is not associated with:
a. LMN type paralysis b. Quardriplegia c. Clonus d. Clasp knife rigidity
-
457.s 98% of neonates void within:
a. 8 hours b. 48 hours c. 12 hours d. 24 hours
-
458. Neonate with recurrent hypoglycemia attacks and hepatomegaly is likely to have:
a. Von Gierke disease b. Neonatal hepatitis c. Galactosemia d. Neonatal diabetes
-
459.Meningitis in preschool children is most commonly due to:
a. Staphylociccus b. Streptiococcus c. Pneumococcus d. Haemophilus influenza
-
460. False regarding febrile convulsions:
- a. Aspirin must be given during spike of fever b. Temperature >38 degree centigrade
- c. Occurs from six months to five years d. Seizures occurs early in disease
-
461. Most common site of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma is:
a. Trunk b. Genitourinary system c. Extremities d. Head and neck
-
462. Normal calorie requirement for a 9 year old child is:
a. 2000 calories b. 800 calories c. 1700 calories d. 1000calories
-
463. A 4 day old healthy newborm has jaundice and serum bilirubin of 22mg/dl treatment of choice is:
a. Investigation of liver function b. phototherapy c. Exchange transfusion d. Observation
-
464.True regarding laryngeal papilloma is;
a. Seen in adults b. Multiple c. Cautery is treatment d. single
-
465.energy requirement of an infant is:
a. 50-60Kcal/kg b. 60-70 Kcal/kg c. 80-90 Kcal/kg d. 110-120 Kcal/kg
-
466. The major toxicity of acetaminophen overdose involves:
a. Heart b. Acid base metabolism c. liver d. CNS
-
467. Jaundice in newborn is physiological when :
- a. Jaundice persists for more than 4 days in a term infant
- b. Infant is visibly jaundiced in first 24 hr of birth
- c. Total bilirubin concentration in serum increase by 1 mg/dl per day
- d. Total bilirubin concentration in serum is above 15 mg/dl
-
468. Risk of neonatal chickenpox is the maximum, if maternal infection occurs:
- a. Within 6 weeks of delivery b. Within 4 days of delivery
- c. During the first trimester d. During the second trimester
-
469. Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is;
a. Deficiency ofdeoximonase b. Defective release c. Thyroid dysgenesis d. Pendre syndrome
-
470. Retinoblastoma is bilateral in :
a. 1005 of cases b. 1% of cases c. 50% of cases d. 30% of cases
-
471. A child can copy a circle first at:
a. One and half years b. 4 years c. 2 years of age d. 3 years
-
472. IUGR is caused by all except:
a. Diabetes b. Chronic renal failure c. Alcohol d. Smoking
-
473.Acute coryza is most commonly caused by:
a. Rhinovirus b. RSV c. Influenza d. Arenavirus
-
474. Convulsions in a child with dehydration and vomiting can be due to:
a. Decreased serum magnesium b. Decreased serum sodium c. Decreased serum chloride d. decreased serum potassium
-
475.Child born to diabetic mother can have all except:
a. Small left colon syndrome b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Mental retardation
-
476. A neonate less than 7 days old presents with fever, features of meningitis anorexia. CSF examination revealed increased protein decreased sugar and increased WBC . most likely diagnosis is:
a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Shigella c. Mycoplasma d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
477. Infant born to mothers of advanced age has greater risk of:
a. Down’s syndrome b. Glycogenesis type II c. Marfan’s syndrome d. Trisomy 18
-
478.Neuroblastoma in children characterized by all except:
a. Proptosis b. Hypertension c. Café au lait spots d. hepatomegaly
-
479. Bilateral cataract with direct van den Bergh’s test positive in a 3 months old neonate who is exclusively breastfed is suffering from:
a. Von Gierke disease b. Toxoplasmosis c. Galatosemia d. Fructosemia
-
480.Drug of choice for an attack of familial periodic paralysis:
a. Adrenaline b. potassium chloride c. ACTH d. Calcium choride
-
481. A 4 kg infant with severe dehydration (10%) needs the following amount of IV fluid in the first 24 hours :
a. 1200 ml b. 800ml c. 500ml d. 100ml
-
482. A 2 year old child presented with cough fever and dyspnea. He respiratory rate is 55/minute, chest in drawing is present but he has no cyanosis or convulsions. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Very severe disease b. Severe pneumonia c. pneumonia d. Cough and cold
-
483.all of the following cough splenomegaly except:
a. Malaria b. kala-azar c. Tay-sachs disease d. Typhoid
-
484. Compared to oral digitalizing dose, parenteral dose of Digoxin should be:
a. 1/3 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 2/3
-
485. Not associated with a large fontanel:
a. Vitamin D deficiency rickets b. Down’s syndrome c. Hypogonadism d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
-
486. The number of fontanelles present in a newborn child is:
a. 1 b. 2 c.5 d.6
-
487. Most indicative sign of pneumonia in 12 months old child with cough and fever is:
- a. Temperature 39.5 C and respiratory rate is 60/min b. Intercostal retraction and fever
- c. Temperature 39.5 C d. Grunting and respiration rate is 60/min
-
488. Obesity is associated with:
a. Laurence moon bield syndrome b. Prader Wili syndrome c. Carpenter’s syndrome d. all of the above
-
489.Murmur heard in Eisenmenger syndrome is:
a. Carey comb murmur b. Austin-Flint murmur c. Graham steel murmur d. None
-
490. A child with VSD developed Elsenmenger syndrome. Correct sequences of events which leads to this change is:
- a. Pulmonary hypertension right to left shunt right ventricular hypertrophy left to right shunt
- b. Pulmonary hypertension right ventricular hypertrophy left to right shunt right to left shunt
- c. Pulmonary hypertension left ventricular hypertrophy left to right shunt right to left shunt
- d. left to right shunt right ventricular hypertrophy pulmonary hypertension right to left shunt
-
491. the clinical sign of hyaline membrane disease generally first appears:
- a. In the first 6 hours of life b. After 48 hours of life
- c. Between 12 and 24 hours of life d. Between 36 and 48 hours of life
-
492.X-ray appearance in hyaline membrane disease is:
- a. Homogenous ground glass appearance b. Air bronchogram
- c. Reticulonodular shadow d. Normal X-ray
-
493. Which of the following is true Hyaline membrane disease of newborn:
- a. Maternal steroid exposure increases severity of disease
- b. Surfactant increases the surface tension of alveoli
- c. Phosphatidyl glycerol estimation is a reliable method of diagnosis
- d. Prematurity provides relative protection to occurance
-
494. In physiological jaundice in term infants serum bilirubin does not generally exceed:
a. 20mg% b. 5mg% c. 15mg% d. 10%
-
495. Convulsions in infants can be caused by:
a. Hypocalcemia b. Anoxia c. Hypoglycemia d. All of the above
-
496. Which of the following is true regarding a 1 year old child with PDA:
- a. Indomethacin may help in closure b. chances of spontaneous closure is high
- c. Symptoms similar to aorto-pulmonary window d. Endocarditis is rare
-
497. Most common cause of convulsions in a child with fever is:
a. Hypothyrodism b. Febrile convulsions c. Meningitis d. Epilepsy
-
498.Dyslexia is characterized by all except:
- a. Mental retardation b. Inability to interpret written language
- c. Male preponderance d. Retardation reading
-
499. Hyaline membrane seen in lung s composed of:
a. Polysaccharide b. Mucoprotein c. globulin d. Fibrin
-
500. the characteristics of caput succedaneoum do not include:
- a. A diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of scalp b. Crosses the suture line
- c. Does not disappear within 2-3 days d. Crosses midline
-
501. True regarding childhood brain tumor is:
- a. Rare form of malignancy b. Most tumors are below tentorium
- c. Hemiparesis is frequent form of presentation d. Papiledema is infrequent
-
502. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is:
a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM
-
503. all of the following may occur in Noonan’s syndrome except:
a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Crytorchidism c. Infertility in females d. autosomal dominant transmission
-
504. The treatment of choice for primary grade-V vesicoureteral reflex involving both kidneys in a 6 months- old boy is:
- a. Antibiotic prophylaxis b. Ureteric reimplantation
- c. Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of Teflon d. Bilateral ureterostomy
-
505. Which of the following maternal antibody causes heart block in newborn:
a. Anti ds DNa b. Anti Jo c. Anti-Ro antibodies d. Anti-histone antibodies
-
506.There is a high risk of renal dysplasia in:
- a. Posterior urethral valves b. Bladder extrophy
- c. Anorectal malformation d. neonatal sepsis
-
507. Which one of the following is the most common cause of abdominal mass in neonates?
a. Neuroblastomas b. wilm’s tumor c. distended bladder d. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys
-
508. True regarding ectopia cordis is:
- a. Is seen between the ribs
- b. the heart is seen projecting from a defect in the lower thorax and the upper abdominal wall
- c. Projects from the whole of defect arising from the abdominal wall
- d. Projects from the upper thoracic region
-
509. 8-year boy presents with swelling in left eye of 3 months duration. Examination revelaed proptosis of left eye with preserved vision. Right eye is normal. CT scan revealed intraorbital extra coneal mass lesion. Biopsy revealed embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma. Metastatic work up eas normal. The standard line of treatment is:
- a. Chemotherapy only b. Wide local incision
- c. Enucleation d. chemotherapy and radiotherapy
-
510.Kernicerus is caused by:
a. bilirubin monoglucuronide b. Albumin bound bilirubin c. Unbound bilirubin d. Bilirubin diglucuronide
-
511. All of the following are seen in atrial septal defect except:
- a. There may be no murmurs audible b. right ventricular hypertrophy
- c. Wide split 2nd heart sound d. Pulmonary oligemia
-
512. Karyotype in klinefelter syndrome:
a. XY b. XXY c. XO d. XX
-
513. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn in seen in association with:
a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Neurofibromatosis d. Ataxia telangiectasia
-
514. A 2 year old presented with leukocoria in the right eye since 2 monhts. On examination a total retinal detachment was present in the same eye. Ultrasound B scan revealed a heterogeneous subretinal mass with calcification ,associated with a retinal detachment. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:
a. Coats disease b. Retinoblastoma c. Toxocariasis d. Retinal tuberculoma
-
515. A 1 year old child having leukocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:
- a. Enucleation b. Chemotherapy followed by local dyes
- c. Direct laser ablation using photodynamic cryotherapy
- d. Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
-
516. A 1 year old child having leukocoria was detected to be having a unilateral large retinoblastoma filling half the globe, current therapy would involve:
- a. Enucleation b. Chemotherapy followed by local dyes
- c. Direct laser ablation using photodynamic cryotherapy
- d. Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
-
517. Hereditary retinoblastoma develops the following chromosomal deletion:
a. 13q14 b. 13q14 c. 14q13 d. 14q13
-
518. While working in the neonatal ICU your team delivers a premature infant at 27 weeks of gestitation and weighting 1500 grams. How soon will you request fundus examination by an ophthalmologist?
- a. Immediately b. 3-4 week s after delivery
- c. at 34 weeks gestational age d. AT 40 weeks gestation period
-
519. Osler’s nodes are typically seen in which 1 of the following :
- a. Chronic candida endocarditis b. Acute stpaphylococcal endocarditis
- c. Pseudomonas endocarditis d. Libman-sack’s endocarditis
-
520. Rotaviruses are responsible for:
a. Acute non-bacterial gastroenteritis b. Infantile diarrhea c. Teratogenic effects d. Respiratory tract infection
-
521.An 8 months old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palm and soles, the siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice in such a patient is:
a. Systemic ampicillin b. Topical betamethasone c. Systemic prednisolone d. Topical permethrin
-
522.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following :
- a. Hyponatremia and urine sodium excretion>20 mEq/liter
- b. Hypernatremia and urine sodium excretion <20 meq="" liter="" br="">c. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
- d. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
-
523.All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except:
- a. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
- c. Goodpasture’s disease d. Systemic lupus erythematous
-
524. In asymmetrical IUGR which organ is not affected:
a. Subcutaneous fat b. Muscle c. Liver d. Brain
-
525. IUGR is characterized by all except:
a. Polycythemia b. Meconium aspiration syndrome c. HMD d. Hypocalcemia
-
526. full-term .small-for-date infants(IUGR) are predisposed to which of the following condition:
a. PDA b. Hypercalcemia c. CNS infections d. Hypoglycemia
-
527. All are true of cartilage hair hypoplasia syndrome except:
a. Short limbed dwarf b. Sparse hair c. Netropenia d. T-cell dysfunction
-
528. A 2 year old boy has vitamin D refractory rickets. Investigations show serum calcium to 9 mg/dl phosphate 2.4 mg/dl alkaline phosphatase 1040IU. Parathyroid hormone level and bicarbonate levels are normal. The most probable diagnosis is:
- a. Distal renal tubular acidosis b. Hypophosphatemic rickets
- c. Vitamin D dependent rickets d. Proximal renal tubular acidosis
-
529. Failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of birth in a anewborn with no obvious external abnormality should be suspicion of:
a. Anal atresia b. Congenital pouch colon c. Congenital aganglionosis d. Meconium ileus
-
530.SSPE (subacute sclerosing panecephalitis) is associated with:
a. Mumps b. Chickenpox c. Herpes d. Measles
-
531.Pure fonadal dysgenesis will be diagnosed in the presence of:
- a. Bilateral streak gonads b. Bilateral dysgenetic gonads
- c. One side streak and other dysgenetic gonads d. One side streak and other normal looking gonad
-
532. A 10 year old girl presents with swelling of one knee joint. All of the following conditions can be considered in the differential diagnosis, except:
a. Tuberculosis b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis c. Hemophilia d. Villonodular synovitis
-
533. A patient has diarrhea. Stool examination reveals no RBC or pus cells.Identify the organism:
a. Balantidium coli b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Giardia d. E. Intestine
-
534. An anxious mother brought her 4 year old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination, which showed the following organisms. Identify the organism:
a. Entamoeba histolytica b . Giardia lamblia c. Cryptosporidium d. Escherichia coli
-
535. Social smile appears by:
a. 2 months b. 3 months c. 5 months d. 9 months
-
536. Most common solid tumor in children and infants is:
a. Neurofibroma b. Neuroblastoma c. Sacrococcygeal treatoma d. Wilm’s tumor
-
537. Roseola infantum is caused by:
a. Herpes virus type 6 b. parvovirus c. Coxsackie virus d. Escherichia coli
-
538. Fever stops and rash begins is diagnostic of:
a. Fifth disease b. Roseola infantum c. Measles d. Toxic shock syndrome
-
539.A 45 year old infant developed icterus and 2days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared child was found to be positive for HBsAG. The mother was also HBsAG carrier. The mother’s hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be:
- a. HBsAG positive only b. HBsAG and HBeAG positive
- c. HBsAG and anti-Hbe antibody positive d. Mother infected with mutant HBV
-
540. In a patient immunized with hepatitis B vaccine, which of the following is seen in serum:
a. HBsAg b. HBsAg c. Anti-HBsAg d. Anti-HBcAg
-
541. A person vaccinated with hepatitis B will present with the following markers in the blood:
a. IgG-Anti-HBV b. Anti-HBsAg c. Anti-HBeAg d. IgM anti-HBV
-
542. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with all of the following except:
- a. Associated with decreased complement b. ALSO titers are specific disease markers
- c. Endo-Capillary proliferation d. Has good prognosis
-
543. True about diphtheria is:
- a. Causes cranial nerve palsies in the 2nd and 3rd week b. Treatment is with erythromycin
- c. It is Gram-negative organism d. Passive immunization is harmful and should not be tried
-
544.A 3year old boy is detected to have bilateral renal calculi. Metabolic evaluation confirms the presence of marked hypercalciuria with normal blood levels of calcium, Magnesium , phosphate, uric acid and creatinine. A diagnosis of idiopathic hypercalciuria is made. The dietary management includes all, except:
- a. Increased water intake b. Low sodium diet
- c. Reduced calcium intake d. Avoid meat proteins
-
545. A 3 year old boy presents with poor urinary stream. Most likely cause is:
a. Stricture urethra b. neurogenic bladder c. Urethral calculus d. Posterior urethral valves
-
546. Posterior urethral valves are most commonly situated:
a. At verumontanum b. Above verumontanum c. Just distal to venrumontanum d. Near bladder neck
-
547. One year old male child is presented with poor urinary stream since birth. The investigation of choice for evaluation is:
- a. Volding cystourethrography (VCUG) b. USG bladder
- c. Intravenous urography d. Uroflowmetry
-
548. all of the following are characteristic features of Kwashiorkor except:
a. High blood osmolarity b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Edema d. Fatty liver
-
549. Which one of the following does not produce cyanosis in the first year of life?
- a. Atrial septal defect b. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
- c. Truncus arteriosus d. Double outlet right ventricle
-
550. A 9 year boy has steroid dependent nephritic syndrome for the last 5 years. He had received corticosteroids almost continuously during this period and has cushingoid features. The blood pressure is 120/86mHg and there are bilateral sub-capsular cataracts. The treatment of choice is:
a. Levamisole b. Cyclophosphamide c. Cyclosporine A d. Intravenous pulse corticosteroids
-
551. Visceromegaly , microcephaly with blood sugar below 20 mg/dl with sinusitis is:
- a. Prader willi syndrome b. Beckwith –Wiedemann syndrome
- c. Alport’s syndrome d. Cockayne syndrome
-
552.All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in a 2 month-old child, except:
a. DNA-PCR b. Viral culture c. HIV ELISA d. p24 –antigen assay
-
553. In a child immunized with BCG, all of the following can later develop except:
- a. Miliary tuberculosis b. Increases generalized immune response
- c. Cannot protect against tuberculosis d. Mantoux positive
-
554.s A married middle-aged female gives history of repeated abortions for the past 5 years. The given below is conceptions pre-natla karygram. This karyogram suggest the following :
a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Turner’s syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Patau’s syndrome
-
555.A 3-year old boy is brought to casualty bi his mother with progressive shortness of breath for 1 day. The child has a history of bronchial asthma. On examination ,the child is gasping and unresponsive .what will you do first?
a. Intubate b. Administer 100% oxygen by mask c. Ventilate with bag and mask d. Administer nebulised salbitamol
-
556. Not abeneficial in management of acute attacks of bronchial asthama:
a. Nebuliser b. IV hydrocortisone c. Sodium ccromoglycate d. Salbutamol
-
557.A two year old child presented with respiratory distress, cough and wheezing. On examination bresadth sound diminished on left side. Chest X-ray revealed homogenous opacity in left side. Most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Aspiration b. Pleural effusion c. Foreign body d. Pneumothorax
-
558. A child has hoarseness of voice, croupy cough and asthmatic wheeze. Most likely he is suffering from :
a. Foreign body larynx b. Retropharyngeal abscess c. Bronchopneumonia d. Asthmatic bronchitis
-
559. opsoclonus –myoclonus is seen in which of the following:
a. Astrocytoma b. Wilms tumor c. Meningioma d. Neuroblastoma
-
560. Useful for diagnosis of Down syndrome all except:
a. hCG(increased) b. AFP (decreased) c. Unconjugated estriol (decreased) d. Progesterone
-
561.Which of the following is not included in triple test for down syndrome:
a. Ultrasound b. Karyotyping c. Human placental lactogen d. Estriol estimation
-
562. Which of the following is included in triple test for down syndrome?
a. Estriol estimation b. Karyotyping c. Serum HPL level d. Beta HCG
-
563. All the following are features of diarrhea+hemolytic uremia syndrome except:
a. Negative coombs test b. Low platelet count c. Low complement level d. Fall in hematocrit
-
564. True regarding transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN)
- is:
- a. Interlobular fissure effusion b. Respiratory distress resolves in 6-10 days
- c. Air bronchogram is seen d. Common in preterm infant
-
565. All the following are seen in transient tachypnea of newborn except:
- a. Seen in early neonatal period b. May be associated with grunting and cyanosis
- c. May be associated with crepitation and wheezes d. Interlobar effusion is present
-
566. A 2 months old child is brought with a complaint of intermittent stridor. The most likely diagnosis in this case is:
a. Foreign body b. Laryngomalacia c. Croup d. Carcinoma larynx
-
567. The most specific abnormality associated with diabetes mellitus is:
a. Omphalocele b. neural tube defects c. Heart defects d. Sacral Agenesis
-
568. Hypoglycemia in newborn is defined as the blood sugar level below (in mg%):
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 55
-
569. All of the following complications are seen in diabetes mellitus in neonates except:
a. Hypomagnesemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypoglycemia
-
570. Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs in:
- a. Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive in the 2nd child
- b. Rh-positive mother with Rh-negative in the 2nd child
- c. Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive in the 1st child
- d. Rh-positive mother with Rh-negative in the 1st child
-
571. All of the following groups of newborns are at an increased are at an increased risk of hypoglycemia except:
a. Birth asphyxia b. Respiratory distress syndrome c. Maternal diabetes d. Post-term infant
-
572. Best parameter for estimation of fetal age by ultrasound in 3rd trimester is:
a. Femur length b. Biparietal diameter c. abdominal circumference d. Interocular distance
-
573. in pediatric advanced life support intraosseous access for drug and fluid administration is recommended for pediatric age of:
a. <1-year age="" b="" 5="" years="" c="" 6="" d="" any="" br="">
-
574. Which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small-bowel obstruction:
- a. Generalized abdominal distension b. Failure to pass meconium in the first 24 hours
- c. Bilious vomiting d. Refusal of feed
-
575. A 31 weeks pregnant lady delivered a child. After 6 hours the baby develops dyspnea and cyanosis. Chest X-ray and bronchogram showed ground glass appearance. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Pulmonary edema b. Meconium aspiration syndrome c. Hyaline membrane disease d. Consolidation
-
576.which of the following condition is not associated with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a newborn ?
a. Septicemia b. Breast milk jaundice c. Crigler-Najjar syndrome d. Hypothyroidism
-
577. Neonatal jaundice persisiting for 2 weeks after birth is not seen in:
a. R incompatibility b. Hypothyroidism c. Galactosemia d. Breast milk jaundice
-
578. Not seen in hypophosphatemic vitamin D resistant rickets:
a. X linked inheritance b. Hypocalcemia c. Reduced tubular reabsorption of phosphate d. Lower limb deformity
-
579. False regarding an infant of a woman with HIV infection :
- a. Diagnosis of HIV in newborn cannot be made with routinely available test
- b. Failure to thrive may be presenting symptom
- c. Risk of HIV infection in infants is greater than 50%
- d. Transmission of HIV infection may take place during
- parturition
-
580.Whihc of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart disease?
a. TOF b. AS c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. Ventricular septal defect
-
581.An 18 month old child has gastroenteritis with dehydration .Blood urea is 80mg/dl and creatinine is 1.1 mg/dl. Measurement of fractional excretion of which of the following solutes is most helpful in evaluating renal functions:
a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Phosphate d. Bicarbonate
-
582. A 3 day old child presents with 22-25 stools per day and pneumonitis . he has not passed urine for 36 hours. Blood pressure is low, pH is 7.21, urine Na+ 18mEq/L and serum urea is 120, and creatinine is 1.2. this indicates:
a. Acute cortical necrosis b. Acute medullary necrosis c. Acute tubular necrosis d. Prerenal azotemia
-
583.Calculate the 24 hour fluid requirement of a 6 kg child:
a. 1500ml b. 1000ml c. 800ml d. 600ml
-
584. Not a feature of tetanus:
a. Normal sensorium b. Buglung fontanelle c. Increased tone d. spasm of muscle
-
585. Which of the following treatment should be done in a child with pruritic lesion in axilla and groin ?
a. Treatment of contacts b. Benzyl benzoate application c. Clothes are to be boiled d. Systemic steroids
-
586. In simple partial seizure the drug of choice is;
a. Phenobarbitone b. Carbamazepine c. Valporic acid d. Phenytoin
-
587. In petit-mal (absence)seizures the drug of choice is:
a. Valporate b. Diazepam c. Phenytoin d. Clonazepam
-
588. which of the following is a feature of typical febrile seizures in children?
- a.Focal neurological deficits b. diagnostic EEG changes
- c. positive family history in 30% of cases d. Mental retardation
-
589. Which of the following is true regarding febrile seizure?
- a. Status epilepsy is common b. 50% recurrence is common
- c. Interictal EEG is normal d. long term treatment is required
-
590. not a characteristic feature of febrile seizure:
- a. Occurs with sudden rise in temperature b. Male children are more prone
- c. Phenobarbitone prevents further attacks d. manifests with generalized seizure
-
591. Absence seizure in children is seen in:
a. Psychogenic disorder b. Petit mal epilepsy c. Grand mal epilepsy d. Attention deficit disorder
-
592. unilateral renal agenesis is associated with:
a. single umbilical artery b. Polycystic disease of pancreas c. Hiatus hernia d. Hypogonadism
-
593. A baby delivered at 32 weeks is on ventrilator. X-ray shows white out lesions. ABG shows SpO2 75, and ventilator settings are FiO2=70,rate 50 per minute. Next step in management of this newborn should be :
a. Wean off the ventilator b. Continue with the same setting c. Increase FiO2 to 80 d. Increase rate to 60
-
594. In which of the following condition, bacterial endocarditis is rarely seen:
a. Ostium secundumm ASD b . MVP c. PDA d. VSD
-
595.In which of the following condition, bacterial endocarditis is rarely seen:
a. Ostium secundum ASD b. MVP c. PDA d. VSD
-
596. Raised intracranial pressure in a 9 month old infant is diagnosed by all except:
a. Bulging fontanelle b. Papiledema c. Diplopia d. Increased head size
-
597. What is the content of sodium in ORS solution , in mEq/L?
a. 90 mmol b. 60 mmol c. 40 mmol d. 20 mmol
-
598. In ORS solution, the benefit of adding glucose to it is:
- a. Increases absorption of NA+ b. provides calories c. Increases absorption of K+
- d. Increases absorption of CI
-
599. All the following are features of CC in an infant except:
a. Diaphoresis b. Failure to gain weight c. Pedal edema d. Tachypnea
-
600.Not present in congenital rubella syndrome:
a. blindness b. IUGR c. Renal anomalies d. Deafness
-
601.Which of the following age group is most severely affected by rubella infection?
a. Females aged 25-35 years b. Young girls c. Adolescent girls d. Unborn child
-
602. narrow anterior fontanelle in children is seen in which of the following condition:
a.. Hydrocephalus b. Vitamin deficiency rickets c. Craniosynostosis d. Cleidocranial dysostosis
-
603. bad prognostic indicator for ALL is:
a. Hypoploidy b. TLC<50000 c="" female="" sex="" d="" age="">1 year
-
604. A 2 month old baby with acute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hours. The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother’s hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be:
- a. HBsAg positive only b. HBsAg and HBeAg positive
- c. HBsAg and Be antibody positive d. HBV DNA positive
-
605. All of the following are causes of seizures in the neonate except:
a. Hypoxia b. Pertussis vaccine c. Septicemia d. Meningitis
-
606. In neonatal resuscitation to be done is:
- a. Suction nose then mouth b. Place the baby on the back
- c. Wipe with wet towel d. all of the above
-
607. a 4 ½ year girl child always had to wear warm socks even in summer season. On physical examination it was noticed that she had high blood pressure and her femoral pulse was weak as compared to radial and carotid pulse. A chest radiograph showed remarkable notching for ribs along their lower borders. This was due to:
a. Femoral artery thrombosis b. Coarctation of aorta c. Raytnaud’s disease d. Takayasu’s arteritis
-
608. Most common cause of neonatal sepsis is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Group B streptococcus c. klebsiella pneumoniae d. listeria monocytogenes
-
609. most common cause of neonatal meningitis is:
a. Escherichia coli b. clostridia c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Streptococcus pneumonia
-
610. The umbilical cord contains:
- a. 1 umbilical artery and 2 veins b. 1 umbilical artery and 1 vein
- c. 2 umbilical arteries and 1 vein d. 2 umbilical arteries and 2 veins
-
611. Which of the following statements is false with regard in Xanthogranulomatous phylonephritis in children?
- a. Often affects those younger than 8 years of age ]
- b. It affects the kidney focally more frequently than diffusely
- c. Boys are affected more frequently
- d. Clinical presentation in children is same s in adults
-
612.Role of glucose in ORS is:
a. Energy source b. Taste to ORS c. Non-specific d. Carries Na+ into cell
-
613. A boy presents with bilateral nasal polyps. X-ray shows opacity in the para-nasal sinus region. All the following can be given as treatment except:
a. Antihistamines b. Intranasal corticosteroids c. Amphotericin B d. Epinephrine
-
614. A five-day –old full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later ballon atrial septostomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Transposition of great vessels c. Truncus arteriosus d. Tricuspid atresia
-
615. Webbing of neck increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
a. Noonan syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome
-
616.A 10 month old child presents with 2 weeks history of fever vomiting and alteration of sensorium cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Listeria monocytogense d. Cryptococcus neoformans
-
617. All are the features of absence seizures except:
a. Usually seen in childhood b. 3 HZ spike wave in EEG c. Postictal confusion d. Precipitation by hyperventilation
-
618.s A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor ssince birth and hepatosplenomegaly. which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis?
a. Heoglobin electrophroesis b. Bone marrow examination c. Osmotic fragility test d. Peripheral smear examination
-
619.A 5 year old child presents with history of fever off and on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cm below costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Acute leukemia b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura c. Hypersplenism d. Aplastic anemia
-
620. All of the following are neural tube defects except:
a. holoprosencephaly b. Encephalocele c. Anencephaly d. Myelomeningocele
-
621. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all except:
a. Hemochrommatosis b. Hurler’s syndrome c. Adrenoleukodystrophy d. Osteopetrosis
-
622.The most common underlying anomaly in a child with recurrent urinary tract infection is:
a. Posterior urethral valves b. Vesicoureteral reflux c. Neurogenic bladder d. Renal calculi
-
623.Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except:
a. Chronic renal failure b. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia c. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM) d. Hypothyrodism
-
624. A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema:
- a. Fusion of foot precesses of the glomerular epithelial cells
- b. Rarefaction of glomerular basement membrane
- c. Deposition of electron dense material in the basement membrane
- d. Thin basement membrane
-
625. A 2 month old child is able to:
- a. Show a positive parachute protective reflex b. Hold head steady in a seated position
- c. Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral suspension d. Lift head and chest off a flat surface
-
626. A 7 year old boy with left renal mass had bone pain and detected to have bone metastatic deposits. The most likely renal tumor is:
a. Favorable histology Wilm’s turner b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Clear cell sarcoma d. Rhabdoid tumor
-
627.A 10 days old neonate is posted for pyloric stenosis is surgery. The investigation report shows a serum calcium level of 6mg/dl. What information would you like to know before you supplement calcium to this neonate?
a. Blood glucose b. Serum protein c. Serum bilirubin d. Oxygen saturation
-
628. Deficiency of enzyme α-ketoacid dehydrogenase leading to a back in the metabolism of branch amino acids is observed in:
a. Maple syrup urine disease b. Hartnup’s disease c. Alkaptonuria d. Phenylketonuria
-
629. All of the following are features of absence seizures except:
a. Usually seen in childhood b. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG c. Postictal confusion d. Precipitation by hyperventilation
-
630. A continuous murmur is heard in all of the following conditions, except;
- a. Ventricular septal defect with aortic regurgitation b. Patent ductus arteriosus
- c. Coronary arteriovenous fistula d. Venous hum
-
631. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency except:
a. Hemolytic anemia b. Posterior column abnormalities c. Cerebellar ataxia d. Autonomic dysfunction
-
632. The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is:
a. Malignant teratoma b. neuroblastoma c. Wilm’s tumor d. Hepatoblastoma
-
633. The most common presentation of a child with Wilms’ tumor is:
a. An asymptomatic abdominal mass b. Hematuria c. Hypertension d. Hemoptysis due to pulmonary secondary
-
634.The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhea is:
a. Sphenoid sinus b. Frontal sinus c. Cribriform plate d. Tegmen tympani
-
635.The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:
a. Supracardiac b. Infracardiac c. Mixed d. Cardiac
-
636. Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established by:
a. NESTROFTtest b. Hemoglobin A1C estimation c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis d. Target cells in peripheral smear
-
637. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on:
a. Cord blood b. 24 hours after birth c. 48 hours after birth d. 72 hours after birth
-
638. The appropriate approach to a neonate presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 of life is:
- a. Administration of Vitamin K b. Investigation for bleeding disorder
- c. No specific therapy d. Administration of 10 ml/kl of fresh frozen plasma over 4 hours
-
639. A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most
- likely to show:
- a. Posterior urethral valves b. Vesicoureteric reflux c. neurogenic bladder d. Renal and ureteric calculis
-
640. The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is:
a. Trauma b. Tuberculosis c. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis d. Interstitial nephrites
-
641. Which one of the following is the common cause of congenital hydrocephalus?
a. Craniosynostosis b. Intrauterine meningitis c. Aqueductal stenosis d. Malformations of great vein of Galen
-
642. Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia ?
a. Hydrocortisone b. Prednisolone c. Fludrocortisone d. Dexamethasone
-
643. The Coagulation profile in a 13 year old girl with menorrhagia having von Willebrnad’s disease (vWD) is:
a. Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT b. Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT c. Prolonged of both PT and PTT d. Prolonged of thrombin time
-
644.Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:
a. Genomic imprinting b. Mosaicism c. Anticipation d. Nonpenetrance
-
645. The chance of having an unaffected baby. When both parents have achondroplasia are:
a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%
-
646. All of the following therapies may be required in a 1
- hour old infant with severe birth asphyxia, except:
- a. Glucose b. Dexamethasone c. Calcium gluconate d. Normal saline
-
647.s eisenmenger’s syndrome is characterized by all, except:
- a. Return of left ventricle and right ventricle to normal size
- b. pulmonary veins not distended
- c. Pruning of peripheral pulmonary arteries d. dilatation of central pulmonary arteries
-
648.s The best time to do chorionic villus sampling is:
a. Between 6 to 8 weeks b. Between 7 to 9 weeks c. between 9 to 11 weeks d. Between 11 to 13 weeks
-
649.All of the following are biochemical markers included for triple test, except:
- a. Alfa-fetoprotein (AFP) b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- c. Human placental lactogen (HPL) d. Unconjugated estriol
-
650. When does ‘Switchover’ from fetal to adult hemoglobin synthesis begin?
a. 14 weeks gestation b. 30 weeks gestation c. 36 weeks gestation d. 7 to 10 days postnatal
-
651. Epiglottitis in a 2 year old child occurs most commonly due to infection with:
a. Influenza virus b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Haemophilus influenza d. Respiratory syncytial virus
-
652. Which one of the following is the leading cause of mortality in under five children in developing countries?
a. Malaria b. Acute lower respiratory tract infections c. Hepatitis d. Prematurity
-
653. In which of the following conditions, aniridia and hemihypertrophy are most likely present?
a. Neuroblastoma b. Wilm’s tumor c. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma d. Germ cell tumor
-
654. The following cardiac defects are characterized by ductus dependent blood flow , except:
- a. Transposition of great arteries with intact septum b. Interrupted aortic arch
- c. Truncus arteriosus d. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
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655. Which of the following syndrome is best associated with congenital heart disease?
a. Lesch-Nyhan b. Rasmussen syndrome c. Holt-ORam syndrome d. LeOPARD syndrome
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656.Characteristic radiological feature of transient tachypnea of newborn is:
a. Reticulogranular appearance b. Low volume lungs c. Prominent horizontal fissure d. Air bronchograms
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657. which mechanism in phototherapy is chiefly responsible for reduction in surum bilirubin ?
a. Photo-oxidation b. Photo-isomerization . Structural isomerization d. Cojugation
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658. Which of the following is true regarding mumps?
- a. Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids
- b. The patient is not infections prior to clinical parotid enlargement
- c. Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis d. Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility
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659. Bag and mask ventilation is contraindicated in:
a. Cleft lip b. Meconium aspiration c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Multicentric bronchogenic cyst
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660.Most appropriate management for maintaining patency of ductus arteriosus in a neonate is:
a. Prostaglandin E1 b. Nitric oxide c. Oxygen d. Indomethacin
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661. A 2 year old child comes with seborrheic dermatitis, polyuria and hepatosplenomegaly, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Leukemia b. Lymphoma c. Langerhans cell histiocytosis d. Germ cell tumor
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662. A 13 year old boy has bilateral gynecomastia. His height is 148 cm, weight 58 kg, the sexual maturity rating is stage 2. The gynecomastia is most likely due to:
a. Prolactinoma b. Testicular tumor c. Pubertal gynecomastia d. Chronic liver disease
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663. A 9 year old boy has steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome for last five years. The patient is markedly cushingoid with BP of 120/86 mm Hg and small sub-capsular cataracts. The most appropriate therapy of choice is:
a. Long-term frusemide with enalapril b. Cyclophosphamide c. IV immunoglobulin d. IV pulse corticosteroids
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664. A male infant presented with distension of abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. Subsequently a full thickness biopsy of the rectum was performed. The rectal biopsy is likely to show:
a. Fibrosis of submucosa b. Lack of ganglion cells c. Thickened muscularis propria d. Hyalinization of the muscular coat
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665. In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by:
a. USG b. IVU c. DTPA renogram d. Creatinine clearance
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666. Most appropriate method for obtaining a urine specimen for culture in an 8 month old girl is;
a. Suprapubic aspiration b. indwelling catheter sample c. Clean catch void d. Urinary bag sample
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667. an 8 year old boy during a routine checkup is found to have Escherichia coli 1,00,000 cc/ml on a urine culture. The urine specimen was obtained by midstream clean-catch void. The child is asymptomatic. Which is the most appropriate next step in the management?
a. Treat as an acute episode of UTI b. no treatment c. prophylactic antibiotics for 6 months d.. Administer long-term urine alkalinizer
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668. A 15 year old girl was admitted to the infectious disease hospital with a provisional diagnosis of rabies. The most suitable clinical sample that can confirm the antemortem diagnosis is:
a. Serum for antirabies IgG antibody b. Corneal impression smear for immunofluorescence stain c. CSF sample for viral culture d. Giemsa stain on smear prepared from salivary secretion
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669. A 2 month old girl has failure to thrive, polyuria and medullary nephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Investigations show blood pH 7.48, bicarbonate 25 mEq/l, potassium 2 mEq per liter, sodium 126 mEq per liter and chloride 88 mEq per liter. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Distal renal tubular acidosis b. Primary hyperaldosteronism
- c. Bartler’s syndrome d. Pseudohypoaldosteronism
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670. A 6 month old child with TOF develops cyanotic spell initiated by crying. Which one of the following drugs you would like to avoid?
a. Sodium bicarbonate b. Propranolol c. Phenylephrine d. Isoprenaline
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