Paediatrics Sharad

  1. 1. A 2 year old child whose weight is 6.7 kg was brought to the hospital with a history of diarrhea and vomiting for 2 days. On examination the skin when pinched up took almost 3 seconds to return to normal. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. No dehydration b. Some dehydration
    • c. Severe dehydration d. Only skin pinching is not reliable in making a diagnosis
  2. 2. In which of the following conditions, transient rash is seen :
    a. Chickenpox b. Exanthem subitum c. Scarlet fever d. Eczema herpeticum
  3. 3. A half- year –old develops high grade fever which subsided after three days following which there was appearance of a generalized rash which also subsided after 48 hours without any residual pigmentation. Most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Rubella b. Measles c. Roseola infantum d. Fifth disease
  4. 4. Which of the following is the drug of choice in status epilepticus in children;
    a. Carbamazepine b. Diazepam c. Phenobarbitone d. Phenytoin
  5. 5. In India which of the following is not an important cause of post-neonatal mortality:
    a. Tetanus b. Diarrhea c. Malnutrition d. Respiratory infection
  6. 6. Renal biopsy was done of a child less than 6 years of age having nephritic syndrome, which is responsive to steroids. Under light microscopy what will be seen:
    a. Nothing b. Loss of foot process c. Tubule atrophy d. Crescents
  7. 7. All of the following causes of neonatal convulsion have bad prognosis except:
    • a. Brain tumor b. Intraventricular hemorrhage
    • c. Late hypocalcema d. Meningitis
  8. 8. Best prognosis in neonatal seizures is due to which of the following causes:
    a. Hypomagnesemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypoglycemia
  9. 9. Acute febrile convulsion in children is treated with:
    a. Ethosuximide b. Diazepam c. phenobarbitone d. Phenytoin
  10. 10. Which of the following is true regarding febrile convulsions:
    • a. It is a benign condition
    • b. If first episode is not treated then recurrence occurs
    • c. Phenobarbitone is given for 2 years
    • d. Focal neurological deficit
  11. 11. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of simple febrile seizure:
    • a. Convulsions are always generalized
    • b. In treatment aspirin should be avoided
    • c. Seizure does not last for > 15 minutes
    • d. Convulsions are related with degree of elevation of temperature
  12. 12. All are false regarding simple febrile convulsions except:
    • a. No spontaneous remission b. Follow high fever
    • c. Recurrent in nature d. Occurs at 6 years onwards
  13. 13. A three –year –old child presented with fever and a history of recurrent seizures in past. Which of the following steps should be taken to prevent recurrence of seizures:
    • a. Paracetamol 6 hourly b. Phenobarbitone
    • c. Paracetamol 6 hourly and diazepam 12 hourly d. Continue diazepam infusion
  14. 14.Child doubles the height at the age of….years:
    a. 5 ½ b. 4 ½ c. 3 ½ d. 2
  15. 15.Which of the following causes furuncle:
    a. Pseudomonas b. Escherichia coli c. streptococcus d. Staphylococcus
  16. 16. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice in which of the following conditions:
    • a. Absence attacks b.. Partial complex seizure
    • c. Infantile spasm d. Post-anoxic myoclonus
  17. 17. Drug of choice in temporal lobe epilepsy is:
    a. Ethosuximide b. Phenytoin c. Carbamazepine d. Phenobarbitone
  18. 18. In petit mal (absence) epilepsy the drug of choice is:
    a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Valproic acid d. Ethosuximide
  19. 19. Drug not used in absence seizure is:
    a. Ethosuximide b. Valproate c. Phenytoin d. Clonazepam
  20. 20. Coarctation of aorta is common in:
    • a. Noonnan’s syndrome b. Down syndrome
    • c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Turner syndrome
  21. 21. Tonic neck reflex disappears at…weeks;
    a. 36 b. 32 c. 24 d. 18
  22. 22. Moro’s reflex disappears by…month:
    a. 7 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8
  23. 23. Danger in epiglottitis is:
    a. Defect in drinking b. Defect in speech c. Respiratory obstruction d. Aspiration
  24. 24. Which of the following is true regarding dawn phenomenon:
    • a. Early morning hyperglycemia b. Early morning hypoglycemia
    • c. Hypoglycemia is followed by hyperglycemia d. Insulin dose is decreased in treatment
  25. 25. In which of the following conditions, iceberg phenomenon is seen:
    a. Filaria b. Malaria c. PEM d. None of the above
  26. 26. Ostemalacia is due to deficiency of:
    a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin C
  27. 27. Which of the following in the primary aim of neonatal resuscitation:
    • a. To include spontaneous cry b. To retain color
    • c. To maintain breathing d. To restore heart rate
  28. 28. Not a feature of friedreich’s ataxia:
    • a. Posterior column involvement
    • b. Corticospinal tracts involvement
    • c. Spinocerebellar tracts involvement
    • d. None of the above
  29. 29. Which of the following is true regarding AML:
    • a. Prognosis is good b. Peak incidence in childhood
    • c. Auer rods present d. Philadelphia chromosomes
  30. 30.Neonatal hydrocephalus is not seen in:
    a. AIDS b. Brain tumor c. Aqueductal stenosis d. Intraventricular hemorrhage
  31. 31. Which of the following is false regarding thalassemia major:
    • a. Target cells present b. Increased fetal hemoglobin
    • c. Microcytosis d. Iron deficiency
  32. 32. Deficiency of which of the following leads to pellagra:
    a. Pyridoxine b. Nicotinamide c. Riboflavin d. Thiamine
  33. 33. Fetal hemoglobin is increased in which of the following:
    • a. Hereditary spherocytosis b. Pure red cell aplasia
    • c. Polycythemia vera d. juvenile CML
  34. 34. Not a feature of juvenile CML:
    • a. LYmphadenopathy b. Philadelphia chromosome positive
    • c. Fetal hemoglobin is increased d. Thrombocytopenia
  35. 35. Which of the following is true regarding juvenile CML;
    • a. Philadelphia chromosome b. High fetal hemoglobin content
    • c. Low acid phosphatase d. Massive splenomegaly
  36. 36. Which of the following is false regarding tricuspid atresia:
    • a. Severe cyanosis b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
    • c. Left axis deviation d. Right axis deviation
  37. 37.In which of the following conditions left axis deviation with left ventricular hypertrophy is seen :
    a. VSD b. Coarctation of aorta c. Tricuspid atresia d. TOF
  38. 38. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of acute rheumatic fever :
    a. Hemoptysis b. Tender nodule c. Pan-systolic murmur d. Erythema marginatum
  39. 39. Which of the following is not a major criterion of rheumatic fever:
    a. Chorea b. Subcutaneous Nodules c. Stretococcal antibodies d. Polyarthritis
  40. 40. Which of the following is an essential criterion in rheumatic fever:
    a. Chorea b. Arthralgia c. Erythema marginatum d. Acute streptococcal infection
  41. 41. Rib notching is seen in:
    a. Tricuspid regurgitation b. ASD c. VSD d. Coarctation of aorta
  42. 42. Shakir’s tape is used for measurement of:
    a. Height b. Length of infant c. Mid arm circumference d. Head circumference
  43. 43. At shakir’s tape the red zone indicates ….cm;
    a. 14.5 b. 13.5 c. 11.5 d. less than 12.5
  44. 44. Toxic shock syndrome mat occur due to:
    a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Measles vaccine c. DPT vaccine d. BCG vaccine
  45. 45. Which of the following is the absolute contraindication for DPT vaccine:
    a. Cerebral palsy b. Progressive neurological disease c. ADD d. Febrile convulsion
  46. 46. Croup is not associated with:
    a. Polio virus b. Adenovirus c. Influenza virus d. RSV
  47. 47. Which of the following is false regarding neuroblastoma:
    a. Hepatomegaly b. Hypertension c. Café au lait sots d. Opsomyoclonus
  48. 48. Which of the following is false regarding neuroblastoma:
    a. Hepatomegaly b. Abdominal swelling c. Massive splenomegaly d. Proptosis
  49. 49. A child present with change in color of hair, blue eyes and mental retardation .he is suffering from :
    a. Cystinuria b. PKU c. Malonyl urea d. Hemocystinuria
  50. 50. Which of the following inborn error of metabolism is associated with mental retardation :
    a. PKU b. Duchenne’s syndrome c. Down syndrome d. McArdle syndrome
  51. 51. Which of the following is false regarding Gilbert’s syndrome:
    • a. Unconjugaed hyperbilirubinemia b. Normal liver biopsy
    • c. Normal LFT d. Mild conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
  52. 52. Rectal polyps usually presents with which of the following :
    a. Bleeding b. perforation c. Obstruction d. Malignant changes
  53. 53. In children most common cause of bleeding per rectum is:
    a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. Foreign body c. Intussusception d. Rectal polyp
  54. 54. Which of the following is the most common cause of community acquired neonatal meningitis:
    a. klebsiella pneumoniae b. Neisseria c. Entamoeba coli d. Pseudomonas
  55. 55. Organism which commonly causes meningitis in 6 month to 2 years of age is:
    a. Staphylococcus b. Neisseria c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Streptococcus
  56. 56. An eight year old girl presented with low grade fever, vomiting, headache and convulsions. Her CSF finding revealed protein 105mg%, sugar 40 mg% , chloride 52mg% with predominant lymphocytes. The diagnosis is:
    • a. Traumatic meningitis b. Viral meningitis
    • c. Acute bacterial meningitis d. Tubercular meningitis
  57. 57. Most common cause of neonatal death in India is:
    a. Birth injury b. Malabsorption c. Prematurity d. Congenital malformation
  58. 58. Which of the following is not caused by thiamine deficiency in children:
    • a. Infantile tremor syndrome b. Wernickle’s encephalopathy
    • c. Korsakoff’s psychosis d. Congestive heart failure
  59. 59. Bull neck in diphtheria occurs due to:
    • a. Cellulitis b. Lymphadenopathy
    • c. Retropharygeal abscess d. Laryngeal edema
  60. 60. Diphtheric neuropathy occurs in…..week of infection:
    a. 4th b. 3rd c. 2nd d. 1st
  61. 61. Which of the following is a common cause of bronchiolitis :
    a. Mycoplasma b. Parainfluenza virus c. Adenovirus d. RSV
  62. 62. Blast cells of acute lymphocytic leukemia in childhood have:
    a. Excessive mitochondria b. Antibodies of WBC c. CALLA +ve d. Surface antigen
  63. 63. Cirrhosis is not seen in:
    a. Cystinuria b. Alpha,-antitrypsin deficiency c. Wilson disease d. Galactosemia
  64. 64. Thiamine deficiency causes:
    a. Glossitis b. Cheilosis c. Angular stomatitis d. Beriberi disease
  65. 65. Mayer –Rokitansky-Kuster –Hauser syndrome is due to:
    a. 45 XO b. 47 XXY c. 46 XX d. Trisomy 18
  66. 66. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is:
    a. AR b. AD c. X-linked d. Y-linked
  67. 67. Which of the following is not an X-linked disorder:
    • a. Ocular albinism b. Hemophilia A
    • c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. Testicular feminization
  68. 68. Which of the following drug does not cause hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency:
    a. Nitrofurantoin b. Dapsone c. INH d. Primaquine
  69. 69. In a child with bronchial asthma, steroid should be given:
    a. Orally b. Subcutaneously c. Aerosol d. Intravenously
  70. 70. The chest X-ray film of a newborn with respiratory distress showing multiple air containing lesions in left hemithorax and mediastinal shift indicates:
    • a. Congentital lung cysts b. Pneumatoceles
    • c. Neonatal emphysema d. Diaphragmatic hernia
  71. 71. A newlyborn child with respiratory distress and apgar score of 3 in one minute is resuscitated with IPPR. On examination he has cyanosis, apex beat shifted to right side and scaphoid abdomen. The diagnosis is:
    a. TOF b. Dextrocardia c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Pneumothorax
  72. 72. In down syndrome,defect is:
    a. Trisomy 18 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 13 d. 45 XO
  73. 73. Which of the following is the most Common renal lesion in children and young adults:
    • a. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome b. Minimal change nephritic syndrome (MCNS)
    • c. MPGN d. Interstitial nephritis
  74. 74. Best treatment for a neonate born to hepatitis B infected mother is:
    • a. Immunoglobulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B Vaccine b. Hepatitis B vaccine
    • c.. Immunoglobulin d. Isolation
  75. 75. A newborn of HBsAg positive mother should be vaccinated at:
    a. One year b. 6 months c. 1 month d. Birth
  76. 76. False regarding childhood polycystic kidney is:
    • a. It can be diagnosed by USG
    • b. It presents with hypertension and renal insufficiency
    • c. Abdominal mass present
    • d. It is autosomal dominant
  77. 77. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease in children:
    • a. Spleen is always markedly enlarged b. x-linked recessive trait
    • c. Neuropsychological defects in the child d. Deficiency of glucosylceramide β-Glucosidase
  78. 78. A child can climb steps with alternate limb at:
    a. 4 years of age b. 3 years of age c. 2 years of age d. 1 year of age
  79. 79. Which of the following is used to assess the motor function of a 4 year old child:
    • a. Ascends with alternate step from staircase with holding the railing
    • b. Skips smoothly
    • c. Stands on single leg for 15 seconds
    • d. Hopes
  80. 80. Ossification centre which develops before birth is:
    • a. Lower end of femur b. Lower part of tibia
    • c. Talus d. Coracoid
  81. 81. Which of the following is true regarding microcephaly ;
    • a. It is a metabolic disease b. It is a familial disorder
    • c. Autosomal recessive disease d. Result of mild encephalitis
  82. 82. Which of the following maternal disorders may lead to microcephaly:
    a. Rubella b. SLE c. Hurler syndrome d. Hepatitis A
  83. 83. Breastfeeding should be started earliest by… hours:
    a. More than 24 b. More than 48 c. 2-4 d. More than 72
  84. 84. Fatty liver does not occur in:
    a. Alcoholic liver disease b. Diabetes mellitus c. Marasmus d. Kwashiorkor
  85. 85. A child presents with increased oral secretion and chocking . he has:
    • a. Cyanotic heart disease b. Pyloric stenosis
    • c. TRacheoesophageal fistula d. Achalasia cardia
  86. 86. Hair on end appearance on skul X-ray and greatly expanded diploe is seen in:
    a. Meningioma b. Multiple myeloma c. Congenital hemolytic anemia d. Paget’s disease
  87. 87. Which of the following is not treated by steroids:
    • a. MPGN b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
    • c. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis d. Lupus glomerulonephritis
  88. 88. In children, cushing syndrome is best diagnoses by:
    • a. Steroid assay b. Dexamethasone suppression test
    • c. CT scan d. ACTH level
  89. 89. IN hypothyroidism which of the following appears first:
    a. Decreased BMR b. Decreased T3 c. Increased TSH d. Delayed ankle jerk
  90. 90. Congenital hypothyroidism is diagnosed earliest by which of the following :
    • a. Decreased T3 level in blood b. Increased TSH level in blood
    • c. Increased radioactive iodine uptake d. Protein bound iodine estimation in blood
  91. 91. Not a causative agent of lung absences:
    a. Entamoeba Histolytica b. Pneumococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Klebsiella
  92. 92. Long- standing unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia of newborn is not caused by:
    • a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Cretinism
    • c. Septicemia b. Breast milk jaundice
  93. 93. Which of the following conditions is not associated with prolonged unconjugated byperbilirubinemia in a newborn:
    a. Breast milk jaundice b. Hypothyroidism c. Septicemia d. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
  94. 94. Wilm’s tumor is not associated with:
    a. Beckwith syndrome b. Aniridia c. Polycystic kidney d. Hemihypertrophy
  95. 95. False regarding wilms tumor is:
    • a. Derived from renal blastema b. Always associated wit hematuria
    • c. Fever may be present d. Abdominal mass present
  96. 96. Koplik’s spots are pathognomic of :
    a. Chickenpox b. Typhoid c. Rubeola d. Rubella
  97. 97. Which of the following is false regarding measles:
    • a. Koplik’s spots b. Incubation period 20-22 days
    • c. sequence of appearance of rash is characteristic d. Caused by paramyxovirus
  98. 98. Not a feature of Wilson’s disease in children :
    • a. Hemolytic anemia b. Chronic active hepatitis
    • c. Fanconi syndrome d. Sensory changes
  99. 99. Not included in apgar score in neonates:
    a. Color b. Muscle c. Respiratory rate d. heart rate
  100. 100. Calculate the apgar score of a newborn with heart rate 110, good cry, blue extremities, active movement and grimace:
    a. 9 b. 8 c. 6 d. 4
  101. 101. Isolation period of mumps is until:
    a. Headache subsides b. Swelling subsides c. Pain subsides d. Fever subsides
  102. 102. Which of the following is false regarding mumps:
    • a. Swelling persists for 3-7 days b. Incubation period is of 2-3 weeks
    • c. Unilateral swelling is common d. Painful parotid swelling
  103. 103.In children which of the following is the most common complication of mumps:
    a. Aseptic meningitis b. Otitis media c. Myocarditis d. Orchitis
  104. 104. Cardiac anomaly commonly seen in congenital rubella is:
    a. TOF b. ASD c. PDA d. VSD
  105. 105. All are associated with congenital rubella except:
    a. Pulmonary stenosis b. Patent ductus arteriosus c. ASD d. VSD
  106. 106. IN which of the following diseases saber-shaped tibia is seen:
    a. Renal osteodystrophy b. Gonorrhoea c. Rickets d. Congenital syphilis
  107. 107. Which of the following is not beneficial in the management of acute attack of bronchial asthama in children:
    • a. IV Hydrocortisone b. Sodium cromoglycate nebulisation
    • c. High concentration of oxygen d. Salbutamol nebiulisation
  108. 108. Pneumatoceles are commonly associated with:
    • a. Viral pneumonia b. Klebsiella pneumonia
    • c. Staphylococcal pneumonia d. Pneumococcal pneumonia
  109. 109. Which of the following is the most common cause of empyema in children less than 2 years of age :
    a. pseudomonas b. Staphylococcus c. Escherichia coli d. Pneumococcus
  110. 110. Which of the following shows the most specific findings in pediatric age with nutritional/malabsorption state:
    a. Malnutrition b. Giardiasis c. Abetalipoproteinemia d. Tropical sprue
  111. 111. Most common cause of convulsion in a newborn on first day of life is:
    a. Head injury b. Anoxia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypocalcemia
  112. 112. Not a feature of necrotizing enterocolitis:
    a. Abdominal distention b. blood in stool c. Bilious vomiting d. Increased bowel sound
  113. 113. Which of the following is not seen in congenital rubella syndrome:
    a. PDA b. Deafness c. Aortic stenosis d. Mental retardation
  114. 114. Pincer grasp develops by… months:
    a. 5-7 b. 9-12 c. 8-9 d. 12-24
  115. 115. Cyanosis with plethora is not seen in:
    • a. Transposition of great vessels b. Total anomalous pulmonary damage
    • c. Ebstein anomaly d. TOF
  116. 116. In children suprasellar calcification suggests:
    a. Meningioma b.Neuroblastoma c. Craniopharyngioma d. Glioma
  117. 117. Not a characteristic feature of infantile pyloric stenosis :
    • a. More common in male child b. Vomiting at birth
    • c. Visible peristalsis d. Presence of lump
  118. 118. Which of the following is the treatment of choice in infantile myoclonus:
    a. CLonazepam b. Phenytoin c. Phenobarbitone d. ACTH
  119. 119. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in children is:
    • a. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis b.21-Hydroxylase deficiency
    • c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Testicular feminization
  120. 120. False regarding systemic juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
    a. Rheumatoid factor positive b. Leukocytosis c. Hepatosplenomegaly d. Fever
  121. 121. Which of the following types of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is associated with iridocyclitis:
    a. Rheumatoid factor +ve b. Systemic c. Pauciarticular d. Polyarticular
  122. 122. Which of the following is the most common complication of amebic liver absences in children:
    • a. Secondary infection b. Rupture into peritoneal cavity
    • c. Recurrence d. Rupture into right lung
  123. 123. In kwashiorkor the diagnosis is based on which of the following :
    • a. Edema and mental changes b. Edema and skin changes
    • c. Bitot’s spots and hepatomegaly d. Weight loss and mental changes
  124. 124. False negative tuberculin reaction does not occur in children in which of the following condition:
    • a. Atypical mycobacteria b. 4-6 weeks following measles
    • c. Patient on corticosteroid therapy d. Very severely malnourished child
  125. 125. In children which of the following is not used in treatment of asthma :
    a. Sedatives b. Salbutamol c. Adrenaline d. Steroids
  126. 126. A newborn exclusive fed with goat’s milk will develop which of the following disease as compared to being fed with breast milk:
    a. Megaloblastic anemia b. Microcytic anemia c. Rickets d. Scurvy
  127. 127. Cerebrospinal fluid examination of a one day old term male baby reveals a cell count of 10RBCs/HPF,sugar 45 mg/dl and protein 40 mg/dl. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Hypoglycemia b. Intracranial bleed c. Meningitis d. none of the above
  128. 128. In which of the following ossification centre appears first:
    a. Upper end of tibia b. Femur c. Talus d. Ossicles
  129. 129. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine ;
    a. ATS b. Salk c. BCG d. DTP
  130. 130. Which of the following is true regarding neonatal herps:
    • a. Spontaneous recovery occurs b. Caused by HSV II
    • c. Hepatosplenomegaly is diagnostic d. All are correct
  131. 131. A child has pedal edema ++ facial edema. His blood pressure is 190/110. he has gross hematuria but ascites is absent. He is suffering from:
    a. CRF b. Renal vein thrombosis c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Acute glomerulonephritis
  132. 132. For a 2 –year –old child calories as supplied in ICDS diet are:
    a. 1000Kcal b. 500-600 kcal c. 300-400 Kcal d. 200 kcal
  133. 133. False regarding sacral myelmeningocele is:
    • a. Lax anal sphincter is seen b. Bladder incontinence
    • c. Hydrocephalus d. Spasticity is a feature of lower limb
  134. 134. False regarding myelomeningocele in children is:
    • a. Absent hydrocephalus b. Fecal and urinary incontinence
    • c. Areflexic paraparesis d. Neural tube defect
  135. 135. Zinc deficiency causes:
    • a. Hypogonadism b. Impaired glucose tolerance
    • c. CArdiomyopathy d. Tetany
  136. 136. A 2-year old child presented with respiratory distress. On examination there is wheezing. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. RSV infection b. Severe pneumonia c. Adenovirus d. Rhinovirus
  137. 137. In bronchiolitis, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Zidovudine b. Vidarabine c. Amantidine d. Ribavirin
  138. 138. Not a complication of chickenpox:
    a. Enteritis b. Pneumonia c. Encephalitis d. Reye syndrome
  139. 139. Which of the following is the most common complication of chickenpox:
    a. Diarrhea b. Encephalitis c. Secondary bacterial infection d. Pneumonia
  140. 140. Which of the following is true regarding klinefelter syndrome:
    a. Breast adenoma b. Subnormal intelligence c. Pituitary adenoma d. Short stature
  141. 141.In which of the following syndromes nuchels fold thickness is increased:
    • a. Paul Bunnel syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome
    • c. Turner syndrome d. down syndrome
  142. 142. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of fragile X syndrome:
    a. Large testis b. Large nose c. Large eyes d. Long face
  143. 143. Not seen in neonatal septicemia :
    a. Band-neutrophils b. Increased ESR c. Increased CRP d. Leukocytosis
  144. 144. IUGR is not caused by:
    a. CRF b. Diabetes c. Smoking d. Alcohol
  145. 145. phenytoin is not used for which of the following conditions;
    • a. Focal cortical epilepsy b. Psychomotor epilepsy
    • c. Petit mal epilepsy d. Grand mal epilepsy
  146. 146. In vitamin A deficiency X 3A means:
    a. Corneal scar b. Corneal ulcer c. Corneal xerosis d. conjuctival xerosis
  147. 147. Diarrhea in children is most commonly caused by;
    a. Pneumococcus b. Rotavirus c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio cholerae
  148. 148. Neonatal jaundice at birth or before 24 hours is commonly due to:
    a. Physiological b. Biliary atresia c. Congenital hyperbilirubinemia d. Erythroblastosis
  149. 149. Defective hepatic conjugation is not seen in :
    • a. novobiocin therapy b. Crigler Najjar syndrome
    • c. Gilbert’s syndrome d. Neonatal jaundice
  150. 150. False regarding childhood ITP is;
    • a. Splenectomy for chronic case b. Decreased bone maroow megakaryocytes
    • c. preceding viral infection d. Prolonged bleeding time
  151. 151. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia is not seen in:
    a. Beta thalasssemia b. CRF c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Lead poisoning
  152. 152. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is not seen in;
    a. Hemolytic anemia b. Hypothyroidism c. Dubinn Johnson syndrome d. Giltbert’s syndrome
  153. 153. Not found in TOF :
    • a. Severity of cyanosis is directly related to severity of pulmonary stenosis
    • b. Ventricular septal defect
    • c. Left ventricular hypertrophy
    • d. Pulmonary stenosis
  154. 154. False regarding polio is:
    • a. Fasciculation seen b. Normal sensorium
    • c. Autonomic involvement d. 70% of cases have muscle paralysis
  155. 155. In rheumatic fever most common valvular lesion is:
    • a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis
    • c. Mitral regurgitation d. Mitral stenosis
  156. 156. False regarding rheumatic heart disease in India:
    • a. Most common MR b. Aortic valve is most commonly involved
    • c. Progresses rapidly d. Starts in young age
  157. 157. True regarding AIDS in children is:
    • a. Presents with lymphademopathy b. Pneumonitis often important
    • c. Kaposi sarcoma rarely occurs d. All are correct
  158. 158. In which of the following disorders deficiency of glucuronyl transferase is seen in :
    • a. Intrahepatic cholestasis b. Rotor syndrome
    • c. Dubin Johnson syndrome d. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
  159. 159. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is not seen in:
    • a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. G6Pd deficiency
    • c. Rotor syndrome d. Thalassemia
  160. 160. Most common chromosomal anomaly is:
    a. Fragile X syndrome b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
  161. 161. Mycoplasma pneumonia is treated with:
    a. Oral penicillin b. Erythromycin c. Co-Trimoxazole d. Rifampicin
  162. 162.Not a major criterion of rheumatic fever:
    a. Arthritis b. Subcutaneous nodule c. Carditis d. Increased ASO titre
  163. 163. In children most common cause of subdural effusion is:
    a. Meningococcus b. Streptococcus c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Staphylococcus
  164. 164. A child on 10th day of birth was found to have 10% decrease in weight after exclusive breastfeeding. It was passing golden yellow soft stools. Anxious parents report to the pediatrician . the most appropriate advice is:
    • a. Start the child on high protein diet b. more frequent breastfeeding
    • c. Reassurance d. Investigate for lactic acidosis
  165. 165. Mediastinal widening is seen in:
    • a. Prolymphatic leukemia b. T cell ALL
    • c. CML with blast crisis d. Historic lymphoma
  166. 166. Obstructive hydrocephalus in children is most commonly caused by:
    • a. Aqueductal stenosis b. Arnold-chiari malformation
    • c. Meningitis d. Dandy walker syndrome
  167. 167. Which of the following is the most common cause of portal hypertension in children ;
    • a. Postnecrotic b. Veno-occlusive disease
    • c. Budd-chiary syndrome d. Extrahepatic compression
  168. 168. Which of the following is the most common organism causing neonatal septicemia in USA :
    • a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus viridans
    • c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Group B streptococci
  169. 169. The height of children in 2-10 years increases:
    a. 10 cm/year b. 6 cm/year c. 2 cm/year d. 4 cm/year
  170. 170. Not a feature of Down’s syndrome:
    a. Hypertonicity b. Mental retardation c. Simian crease d. Brushfield spots
  171. 171. Correct sequences of development in puberty in girls is:
    • a. Menarche, pubarche,thelarche b. Thelarche, menarche, pubarche
    • c.pubarche, thelarche, menarche d. Thelarche, pubarche, menarche
  172. 172. IN girls the first sign of puberty is:
    a. Clitorache b. Ditroanche c. Menarche d. Thelarche
  173. 173. Which of the following is the earliest sign of puberty in males;
    a. Change in voice b. Moustaches c. Pubarche d. Testicular enlargement
  174. 174. Bronze baby syndrome occurs due to:
    a. Phototherapy b. Wilson’s disease c. Hemchromatosis d. Aortic regurgitation
  175. 175. In which of the following leulemias, chloroma is seen ;
    a. CML b. AML c. ALL d. CLL
  176. 176. False regarding transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN) is:
    • a. Reticulogranular pattern are seen b. Fluid in intralobar fissure
    • c. Mild pleural effusion d. Prominent perihilar streaking
  177. 177. Not a characteristic feature of petit mal seizures:
    • a. 3 HZ spike and wave pattern in EEG b. Onset after the age of 14 years
    • c. Absence of motor activity during seizures d. Short duration of seizure
  178. 178. Infant triples weight at the age of … months:
    a. 5 b. 11 c. 18 d. 24
  179. 179. Not seen on systemic Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis:
    a. Iridocycllitis b. High fever c. Rheumatoid rashes d. Hepatosplenomegaly
  180. 180. Characteristic feature of still disease is;
    a. Maculopapular rash b. Renal involvement c. Neutropenia d. Rheumatoid factor +ve
  181. 181. Which of the following is true regarding porencephaly:
    • a. Neural tube defects
    • b. Vascular lesion due to degenerative vessal disease and head injury
    • c. Dandy-walker syndrome
    • d. Fetal alcohol syndrome
  182. 182. A child presented with diarrhea followed by development of rashes and petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Giardia b. Shigella c. Campylobacterr d. Vibrio
  183. 183. A child has anti-mongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis, short stature and undescended testis. This child has:
    a. Down syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Noonan’s syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome
  184. 184. Secondary lactose intolerance is seen with which of the following:
    a. Yersinia enterocolitis b. Entamoeba c. Shigella infection d. Rotavirus diarrhea
  185. 185. False regarding thumb sucking is;
    • a. Must be treated vigorously in the first year of life
    • b. It is a sign of insecurity
    • c. It is a source of pleasure
    • d. Can lead to malocclusion
  186. 186. A two year old HIV positive boy presents with history of croup, fever, cough, diffuse wheezing and crypts all over . examination reveals hyperinflated chest. His management should be started with:
    a. Ganciclovir b. Erythromycin c. Co-Trimoxazole d. nebulished ribavirin
  187. 187. Which of the following congenital disease is characterized by reduced production of RBCs:
    • a. Sickle cell anemia b. Diamond Blackfan syndrome
    • c. Polycythemia vera d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  188. 188. Thalassemia is because of:
    • a. Deficiency of spectrin b. Defect in spleen
    • c. Defect in hemoglobin synthesis d. All of the above
  189. 189. True about β thalassemia is:
    • a. Decreased α chain, decreased β chain
    • b. Increased β chain, increased α chain
    • c. Decreased β chain increased α chain
    • d. Increased β chain decreased α chain
  190. 190. Wilm’s tumor commonly metastasis to which of the following organ :
    a. Liver b. Brain c. Lymph node d. Lung
  191. 191. A 5 year old child of normal intelligence presents with features of hypotonia. There were fasciculation in his tongue and he keeps his body in a frog like position. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Limb girdle atrophy b. Spinal muscular atrophy
    • c. GB syndrome d. Down syndrome
  192. 192. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy is a group of disorders which affect:
    a. Motor neurons b. Pyramidal tracts c. Peripheral nerves d. Neuromuscular junctions
  193. 193. Not a feature of treacher- Collins syndrome:
    • a. Deafness b. Colobomas of lower eyelid
    • c. Hypoplasia of zygomatic bone d. Mongoloid slant of palpable fissure
  194. 194. Which of the following is used for treating Wilson’s disease:
    a. Penicillamine b. EDTA c. BAL d. All of the above
  195. 195. Which of the following is the marker for neural tube defect:
    • a. Acetyl phosphatidyl esterase b. Acetyl cystine
    • c. Acetyl glucorinidase d. Acetyl cholinesterase
  196. 196. Increased levels of acetyl cholinesterase in amniotic fluid indicate which of the following:
    a. Edward syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Esophageal atresia d. Open neural tube defects
  197. 197. The age of onset of JRA is before:
    a. 16 years b. 13 years c. 8 years d. 12 years
  198. 198. Inborn error of metabolism associated with mental retardation is:
    a. Scheie syndrome b. homocystinuria c. Penosuria d. Alkaptonuria
  199. 199. Trans-placental transmission is not seen in:
    a. Toxoplasma b. Rubella c. Mump d. Syphilis
  200. 200. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by:
    • a. USG b. Bilirubin contents of amniotic fluid
    • c. Amniocentesis d. L/S ratio
  201. 201. Central cyanosis with systolic murmur at birth is seen in which of the following conditions:
    • a. Endocardial cushion defect b. TGA
    • c. Ventricular septal defect d. PDA
  202. 202. Not seen in nephritic syndrome :
    • a. Hypercholesterolemia b. Massive proteinuria
    • c. Hypoalbuminemia d. Hematuria
  203. 203. Not seen in a child with nephritic syndrome :
    a. Reduced serum calcium b. uremia c. Hyperlipidemia d. Hypoproteinemia
  204. 204.Which of the following is the most common malignancy in children:
    a. Neuroblastoma b. Wilm’s tumor c. Lymphoma and leukemia d. Retinoblastoma
  205. 205. Which of the following is true regarding brain tumor in children :
    • a. Hemiparesis is present b. Usually causes papilledema
    • c. Usually infratentorial d. Most common tumor in children is Wilm’s tumor
  206. 206. Which of the following is the first constant symptoms of brain tumor in children :
    a. Personality disturbances b. Headache c. Vomiting d. Increased head size
  207. 207. Which of the following intracranial tumors in children has poor prognosis:
    a.. Hemangioma b. Medulloblastoma c. Glioma d. Glioma multiforme
  208. 208. Most common infratentorial tumor in children is:
    a. Ependymoma b. Medulloblastoma c. Glioma of midline of celebellum d. Astrocytoma
  209. 209. In children most common posterior fossa tumor is:
    a. Meningioma b. Astrocytoma c. Glioblastoma multiforme d. Medulloblastoma
  210. 210. Most common childhood tumor is:
    a. Lymphagioma b. Meningioma c. Ependymoma d. Glioma
  211. 211. Which of the following is not a tumor of first decade of life:
    a. Ameloblastoma b. Rhadomyosarcoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Retinoblastoma
  212. 212. Not a feature of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis:
    a. Pneumoperitoneum b. Metabolic acidosis c. Increased bowel sound d. Abdominal distention
  213. 213. Combination of retinitis pigmentosa and icthyosis is seen in:
    a. Down syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Refsum’s disease d. Mohr’s syndrome
  214. 214. A mother while kissing her baby found that the baby’s skin is salty. Baby is suffering from:
    • a. Niemann-pick disease b. Cystic fibrosis
    • c. Thalassemia d. Fanconi syndrome
  215. 215. False regarding cystic fibrosis is:
    a. Increased sweat Na + concentration b. Dry mouth c. Steatorrhea d. Sterility
  216. 216. Which of the following do not regress:
    • a. Salmon patch b. Strawberry angioma
    • c. Port wine stain d. Lymphangiomatosis circumscripta
  217. 217. In bed wetting the drug of choice is:
    a. Trazodone bb. Tranylcypromine c. Imipramine d. Selegiline
  218. 218. Most common cause of nocturnal enuresis in children is:
    a. NIDDM b. Spina bifida c. UTI d. Psychological stress
  219. 219. Most common renal lesion in children is:
    • a. Diffuse glomerulonephritis b. Focal glomerulonephritis
    • c. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis d. Lipoid nephrosis
  220. 220. Which of the following is true regarding erysipelas:
    • a. Anaerobic infection b. Subcutaneous inflammation due to streptococcus
    • c. lymphagitis due to streptococcus d. Lymphangitis due to staphylococcus
  221. 221. In a newborn, Harlequine skin change is due to:
    a. Polycythemia b. Septicemia c. Autonomic dysfunction d. Icthyosis
  222. 222. False regarding breath holding spells is:
    • a. Attacks of cyanosis can occur b. Child may lose consciousness
    • c. Antiepileptic treatment is necessary d. Occurs between 6 months to 5 years of age
  223. 223. False regarding breath holding spells in children is:
    • a. It must be immediately attended to prevent hypoxia and onset of seizure
    • b. Parents are advised to ignore and not to reinforce these attacks
    • c. It does not contribute to increased risk of seizure disorder
    • d. It is fairly common in the first two years of life
  224. 224. In X-ray batwing appearance is due to;
    • a. Pulmonary embolism b. Mitral stenosis
    • c. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema d. Bronchial asthma
  225. 225. Not a constituent of ORS:
    a. Glucose without salt b. glucose with salt c. Na+ d. K+
  226. 226. Dandy-walker syndrome is because of obstruction of:
    • a. Arachnoid granulations b. Foramen of magendie and luschka
    • c. Foramen of mugro d. Foramen of morgagni
  227. 227. Not a clinical feature of dandy –walker syndrome ;
    • a. Arachnoid cyst b. Agenesis of cerebellar vermis
    • c. Hydrocephalus d. Posterior fossa cyst
  228. 228. Minimum level of bilirubin to start phototherapy in a 3-day –old full term baby with jaundice is:
    a. 15 mg% b. 18 mg% c. 12mg% d. 9mg%
  229. 229. Neonatal jaundice seen after 48 hours of birth with bilirubin ,5 mg% is due to:
    • a. Physiological jaundice b. Neonatal hepatitis
    • c. Hemolytic disease of newborn d. ABO incompatibility
  230. 230. One gram of hemoglobin librates how many milligram of bilirubin:
    a. 55 b. 34 c. 10 d. 40
  231. 231. Normal caloric requirement of a five- year old child is:
    a. 2000 calories b. 1500 calories c. 800 calories d. 1000 calories
  232. 232. Earliest manifestation of rickets is:
    a. Harrison’s groove b. Craniotabes c. Pigeon chest d. Rachitic rosary
  233. 233.Which of the following is true regarding TOF:
    • a. Spells associated with hypoxia and cyanosis b. Usually present after 7 years
    • c. No supportive treatment is required d. Murmur intensity during spells
  234. 234. In children hydrocephalus is commonly caused by:
    a. Brain tumors b. Postinflammatory obstruction c. Perinatal injury d. congenital anomaly
  235. 235.Not a sign of hydrocephalus in a neonate:
    a. Depressed fontanelle b. Crack pot sign c. Sunset sign d. Enlarged head
  236. 236. In an AIDS patient, diarrheal syndrome can be due to:
    a. Cryptosporidium b. Adenovirus c. Rotavirus d. Escherichia coli
  237. 237. In human milk the percentage of lactose is:
    a. 4.5gm% b. 7.2 gm% c. 8.0gm% d. 6.7gm %
  238. 238. True regarding hemorrhagic disease of newborn:
    a. Prolonged bleeding time b. Defective platelet count c. Prolonged thrombin time d. Prolonged prothrombin time
  239. 239.Abnormal finding seen in classical hemorrhagic disease in children is:
    a. Fibrinogen activated partial thromnoplastin time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Thrombin time d. platelet count
  240. 240. Kwashiorkor is not characterized by:
    a. Fatty infiltration of pancreas b. Fatty liver c. Patchy depigmented hair d. Edema
  241. 241. Watson-Schwartz test is used to diagnosis:
    a. Wilson’s disease b. Hemochromatosis c. Acute intermittent porphyria d. All of the above
  242. 242. In G6PD deficiency, hemolytic anemia does not occur with:
    a. Estrogen b. Nitrofurantoin c. Primaquine d. Salicylates
  243. 243.False regarding tricuspid atresia is:
    a. Split S2 b. Pulmonary oligemia c. Patent foramen ovale d. Left axis deviation
  244. 244. Not a feature of neonatal tetanus:
    • a. Mortality is 95% b. Refused to feed is common initial symptom
    • c. Usually occurs in first 8 days of life d. It is caused by clostridium tetani
  245. 245. Chronic iriodocylitis is present in:
    • a. Pauciarticular rheumatoid factor +ve b. Juvenile systemic Rh – Ve arthritis
    • c. polyarticular Rh factor +ve d. Pauciarticular type I
  246. 246. Prior to discharge of a patient of Haemophilus influenza meningitis, which of the following essential investigation should be done:
    a. Development screening test b. ECG c. ABER d. EEG
  247. 247. In acute poliomyelitis the most common cause of death is;
    • a. Intercostal muscle paralysis b. Respiratory failure
    • c. Cardiac arrest d. Convulsions
  248. 248. Drug of choice in community acquired neonatal phenumonia is:
    • a. Metronidazole + amikacin b. Ampicillin + chloramphenicol
    • c. Cefotaxime +amikacin d. Ampicillin+ Gentamicin
  249. 249. Persistent Moro’s reflex at 12 weeks indicates:
    a. Normal child b. Brain damage c. Irritable child d. Hungry child
  250. 250. Asymmeteric moro’s reflex is not seen in:
    a. Hemiparesis b. Fracture of clavicle c. Stermastoid tumor d. Brachial plexus injury
  251. 251. Bacterial kendocarditis is most commonly seen in:
    a. AS b. ASD c. VSD d. PDA
  252. 252. infective endocarditis is least common with:
    a. Aortic regurgitation b. Small ventricular septal defect c. Atrial septal defect d. Ventricular septal defect
  253. 253. All are false regarding typhoid in children except;
    • a. Urine culture positive in 4-6 days b. Mild splenomegaly is usual
    • c. Meningitis is always seen d. Leukocytosis is characteristic
  254. 254.False regarding pseudotumor cerebri:
    • a. CT scan shows ring enhancing lesion b. Ventricular system is of normal size or small
    • c. No focal neurological deficit d. ICT is raised
  255. 255. False regarding cartilage hair hypoplasia syndrome:
    a. T cell dysfunction b. Lymphocytosis c. Sparse hair d. Short limb dwarfism
  256. 256. Not a clinical feature of VSD :
    • a. A loud pan systolic murmur is present at the right sternal border
    • b. Infective endocarditis is also seen
    • c. Congestive cardiac failure is common
    • d. Second heart sound is split and variable with respiration
  257. 257. In children lactase deficiency is characterized by:
    a. Low lactic acid level in blood b. High pH of stool c. Abdominal bloating craps and diarrhea d. Dumping syndrome
  258. 258. An eight year old boy takes part in an icecream competition comes to the hospital with pain in abdominal distention and bloating . he also has previous similar episodes on eating icecream/ milk products which of the following enzymes is deficient?
    a. Maltase b. Salivary amylase c. Lactase d. Sucrase
  259. 259.The characteristic feature of lactase deficiency in children is:
    a. Low lactic level in blood b. High pH of stool c. abdominal distention, cramps and diarrhea d. Dumping syndrome
  260. 260. Which of the following is affected by lactase deficiency:
    a. Soya bean b. Meat c. Cereals d. Milk ingestion
  261. 261. Characteristic feature of lactase deficiency is:
    a. Acidity of stool b. Abnormal muscle cells c. Abdominal pain, distension and diarrhea after meat ingestion d. Decreased serum lactic acid
  262. 262. Erythromycin is not the drug of choice in which of the following childhood infections:
    a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Pneumocystis carinii c. Bordetella pertussis d. Mycoplasma pneumonia
  263. 263.Nadas criteria are used for:
    a. Malnutrition b. Dehydration c. Mental retardation d. Presence of heart disease
  264. 264. False regarding hemolytic –uremic syndrome is:
    a. Viral prodrome b. Burr cells are seen c. ARF d. Always fatal
  265. 265. An infant with a history of diarrhea 15 days back, presented with fever, purpuric rash, anemia and tachycardia. The diagnosis is:
    a. Prerenal azotemia b. Henoch-schonlein purpura c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  266. 266.Microcytic hypochromic anemia is not seen in:
    a. Fanconi anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Thalassemia major d. Lead poisoning
  267. 267. Not a clinical feature of scurvy in children:
    a. Retrobulbar hemorrhage b. Intracerebral hemorrhage c. Perifollicular hemorrhage d. Hemorrhage into periosteum of long bones
  268. 268.Delayed eruption of teeth is seen in:
    a. Down syndrome b. Hypopituitarism c. Hypothyroidism d. All of the above
  269. 269. In a child with attack of severe acute asthama, the treatment of choice is:
    a. IV hydrocortisone b. Sc adrenaline c. IV thophylline d. Nebulised salbitamol
  270. 270. Not a feature of Laurence –Moon –Bield syndrome:
    a. Retinitis pigmentosa b. Polydactyly c. Diabetes insipidus d. Mental retardation
  271. 271.False regarding fetal alcohol syndrome is:
    a. Growth retardation b. Micronathia c. Brachycephaly d. Altered palmer crease patterns
  272. 272.Not a feature of Down syndrome:
    a. Respiratory tract infection b. Pigmented birth marks c. Hypotonia d. Clinodactyly
  273. 273. False regarding down syndrome is:
    a. Duodenal atresia b. Deceased femur length c. Decreased humerus length d. Decreased nuchal fold thickness
  274. 274.Apt test is done for:
    a. neonatal tachypnea b. Fetal hemoglobin c. Neonatal asphyxia d. Fetal maturation
  275. 275. According to Indian academy of pediatrics, PEM grade III is:
    a. 50-60% b. 70-80% c. 60-70% d. 80-90%
  276. 276. Spaulding sign is n indication of:
    a. Dead fetus b. macerated fetus c.. Battered fetus d. putrefied fetus
  277. 277. Which of the following is the most common cause of fecal soiling(encopresis) in a child;
    a. Chronic constipation b. Hirschsprung’s disease c. Gastroparesis d. Gastrocolic reflex
  278. 278.s Which of the following is true regarding coarctation of aorta:
    • a. Right ventricular hypertrophy b. Upper rib notching due to erosion by dilated collateral vessels c. Most common distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery
    • d. Most common presentation at 15020 years of age
  279. 279. notching of 4-9th ribs with double bulging is found in:
    a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Coarctation of aorta c. Aortic dissection d. Aortic aneurysm
  280. 280. pleomorphic rash is characteristic of:
    a. Erythema subitum b. Erythema infectiosum c. Chickenpox d. Smallpox
  281. 281.Which of the following is true regarding tuberculoma in childhood:
    • a. No macrophages are seen b. Always associated with extracerebral tuberculosis
    • c. Most common inn brainstem d. Always associated with meningitis
  282. 282. In india most common cause of intracerebral calcification in children is:
    a. Toxoplasmosis b. Av. Malformation c. Tuberculoma d. Hyperparathyroidism
  283. 283. Which of the following should not be done if a women having tuberculosis delivers a baby:
    a. Disposal of sputum by burning b. Give ATT c. Stop breastfeeding d. Give baby BCG
  284. 284. Antibodies seen in a neonate after an intrauterine infection are:
    a. IgD b. IgA c. IgM d. IgG
  285. 285. The correct dose of chloroquine in 4-6 years of age
    • group is:
    • a. 600mg b. 520 mg c. 400 mg d. 150 mg
  286. 286. Secondary hypertension in children is most commonly caused by;
    a. Adrenal tumors b. Systemic vasculitis c. Renal artery stenosis d. Renal disease
  287. 287. Which of the following fetty acids is necessary during 0-6 months of age:
    a. Arachidonic acid b. Linolenic acid c. Linoleic acid d. Palmitic acid
  288. 288. A child has recurrent hypoglycemic attacks and hepatomegaly. He is most likely suffering from:
    a. Neonatal hepatitis b. Neonatal diabetes c. Von Gierke disease d. Galactosemia
  289. 289. Preterm infant with PDA should be treated with:
    a. Corticosteroids b. Indomethacin c. Aspirin d. Prostaglandin E2
  290. 290. Which of the following is not an indication for antibiotics in diarrhea:
    a. Organism with darting motility b. Septic focus c. Severe dehydration d. Bloody diarrhea
  291. 291. Upper and lower portion of body disproportion with growth retardation is characteristic of:
    a. congenital hypothyroidism b. Silver Russell syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Down syndrome
  292. 292.Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a pathognomic feature of which of the following conditions:
    a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoparathyroidism
  293. 293. in tuberculous meningitis the CSF finding includes:
    • a. Low sugar+ high protein and lymphopenia b. High sugar + high chloride
    • c. Low sugar+ high protein and lymphocytosis d. High sugar + low protein
  294. 294.L Asparaginase is particularly used in:
    a. CLL b. ALL c. CML d. AML
  295. 295. Hypokalemia in an infant is not due to:
    a. Diarrhea b. Thiazide therapy c. ARF d. β 2 agonists
  296. 296. Which of the following is a preventable cause of mental retardation in children:
    a. Cerebral palsy b. Hypothyroidism c. Down syndrome d. All of the above
  297. 297.False regarding typhoid is:
    a. Recurrence is common b. Localize in gallbladder c. Chronic carrier state lasts for 3-4 months d. Fecal carrier are more than urinary carrier
  298. 298.In a 2 year old child seizure with chorioretinitis is suggestive of:
    a. hypoxia b. Tay-sachs disease c. congenital toxoplasmosis d. Galactosemia
  299. 299.False regarding childhood malignancies:
    a. AML is the most common type of leukemia b. Neuroblastoma occurs in first 4 years of life c. Lymphoma commonly presents with CNS symptoms d. 66% of leukemia have aplenomegaly
  300. 300. Decreased serum alpha-fetoprotein level is seen in:
    a. Exomphalos b. Fetal death c. Meningomyelocele d. Down syndrome
  301. 301. Congenital heart disease which causes death in the first week of life is:
    a. Ventricular septal defect b. Tetralogy of fallot c. Ebstein’s anomalogy d. Hypoplastic left ventricle syndrome
  302. 302.In an infant congestive cardiac failure is diagnosed by:
    a. Basal crypts b. elevated JVP c. Pedal edema d. Liver enlargement
  303. 303. In meningitis subdural effusion is most commonly due to:
    a. Meningococcal b. Pneumococcal c. Haemophilus d. Tuberculous
  304. 304.The national schedule of immunization in a child begins at birth and end at:
    a. 3rd year b. 4th year c. 5th year d. 10th year
  305. 305.First permanent tooth to erupt is:
    a. First premolar b. first molar c. First incisor d. Second premolar
  306. 306.The diagnosis of rheumatic fever is best confirmed by:
    a. ASO titer b. ECG changes c. Raised ESR d. Throat swab culture
  307. 307. Which of the following is necessary for diagnosis
    • rheumatic fever:
    • a. Prior history of rheumatic fever b. Recent sore throat infection
    • c. One major and two minor criteria d. Erythema marginatum
  308. 308. A child presents with migratory polyarthritis, the investigation of choice to confirm the diagnosis is:
    a.ESR b. ASO titre c. pharyngeal swab for culture and sensitivity d. ECG
  309. 309. In congenital rubella most commonly occurring defect is:
    a. Blindness b. Mental retardation c. Deafness d. Microcephaly
  310. 310.Rubella maximally infects the fetus if the mother contacts the disease during….. weeks of pregnancy:
    a. 5-6 b. 12-13 c. 20 d. 9-12
  311. 311.IUGR can be caused by all except:
    a. Captopril b. Caffeine c. Atenolol d. Phenothiazine
  312. 312.Feature of petit mal epilepsy in EEG is:
    a. Spike and dome b. Continuous stunted spikes c. Waves at the rate of 10/seconds d. continuous tall spikes
  313. 313. An 8 month old child will not be able to do:
    a. Pincer grasp b. Says mama baba c. Stand without support d. Sitting stably
  314. 314. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most affected in kwashiorkor:
    a. IgM b. IgE c. IgA d. IgD
  315. 315. The percentage of calories to be supplied by proteins is:
    a. >20% b. 10-15% c. 15-20% d. 5-10%
  316. 316. Early sign of rickets at 6 months of age is:
    a. Craniotabes b. Bent tibia c. Double malleoli d. knock knees
  317. 317.Most common cause of bronchiolitis :
    a. Respiratory syncytial virus b. Pneumococcus c. Haemophilus d. enterovirus
  318. 318.Hyaline membrane in the lung is seen in:
    • a. respiratory distress syndrome b. Pneumococcal pneumonia
    • c. acute viral hepatitis d. Pulmonary edema
  319. 319.Leukemoid reaction is seen in:
    a. Acute infection b. Erythroleukemia c. Myelomatosis d. Hemorrhage
  320. 320. The malignancies of childhood include:
    a. AML b. Wilms tumor c. ALL d. All of the above
  321. 321.In assessment of gestational age of neonate the following are seen except:
    a. Ocular b. Breast bud c. Genitalia d. Scrotal skin
  322. 322.The mechanism of diarrhea in giardiasis is prevention of absorption of fat by:
    • a. Mechanical coating of the walls o intestine b. Production of exotoxins
    • c. Production of endotoxins d. Secondary bacterial infection
  323. 323.bronchiolitis is treated with:
    a. Humidified oxygen b. Steroids c. Antibiotics d. All of the above
  324. 324.most common cause of meningitis in neonates is:
    a. Streptcoccus b. Haemophilus c. Escherichial coli d. Meningococcus
  325. 325. In children most common complication of measles is:
    a. ASOM b. orchitis c. Meningitis d. bronchopneumonia
  326. 326.Post-measles bronchopneumonia is treated with:
    a. Antibiotics and oxygen b. No treatment is necessary c. Steroid d. Only oxygen
  327. 327. Syphilis attack the fetus after the ….. month:
    a. 2nd b . 7th c. 4th d. 3rd
  328. 328. Child changes rattle from on hand to another at:
    a. 1 year b. 6 month s c. 3 months d. 2 year
  329. 329.Most common complication of mumps in children is:
    a. Orchitis b. Aseptic meningitis c. Myocarditis d. Pancreatitis
  330. 330.Asperger’s disorder is a :
    a. Development delay b. Neuromuscular disease c. Degenerative disorder d. Metabolic disorder
  331. 331. Drug of choice initially in juvenile chronic arthritis is:
    a. Salicylates b. Prednsolone c. Phenylbutazone d. Indomethacin
  332. 332. Steroids are useful in:
    • a. Rapidly progessing glomerulonephritis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
    • c. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis d. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
  333. 333.Transient tachypnea of the newborn develops in:
    • a. Term baby by spontaneous vaginal delivery b. Term baby by forceps
    • c. Preterm baby by cesarean section d. Preterm with ventouse
  334. 334. In childhood thyroxicosis treatment of choice is:
    a. Radioiodine b. Lugol’s iodine c. Carbimazole d. Surgery
  335. 335.Sitting height is equal to:
    a. Head circumference b. Upper segment c. Chest circumference d. Crown rump length
  336. 336. Infantile diarrhea is not caused :
    a. Adenovirus b. Reovirus c. Rotavirus d. Caliciviruses
  337. 337.s Blood and muscle in stools are not seen with:
    a. shigella shigae b. Escherichia coli c. entamoeba histolytica d. Vibrio cholera
  338. 338. Not a cause nephritic syndrome:
    a. Membranous gloerulonephritis b. focal glomerulosclerous c. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis d. Minimal lesion glomerulonephritis
  339. 339. Poisoning with which of the following can cause unexplained ataxia in a child:
    a. Salicylate b. Lead c. Mercury d. Arsenic
  340. 340. not a characteristic feature of kwashiorkor:
    a. Edema b. Flag sign c. Dermatitis d. Alertness
  341. 341.in newborn most common cause of pneumothorax is:
    a. Resuscitaiton b. hyaline membrane disease c. Pneumonia d. Meconium aspiration
  342. 342. The clinical sign in measles which appears last is:
    a. Coryza b. Fever c. Rash d. koplik’s spot
  343. 343.A child has mental age of 7 and chronological age of 7 years. His IQ is:
    a. 100 b. 80 c. 120 d. 145
  344. 344. not a characteristic feature of thalassemia major:
    a. Target cells b. Splenomegaly c. Hypochromic microcytic anemia d. Decreased serum iron
  345. 345. In the females, congenital adrenal hyperplasia causes which of the following conditions:
    a. Infant Hercules b. Macrogenitosomia paraecox c. Female pseudohermaphroditism d. None
  346. 346.Most common cause of aplastic anemia is:
    a. Idiopathic b. Patroleum products c. Phenylbutazone d. Chloramphnicol
  347. 347. A mother is presenting to breastfeed her infant, it would be of value to her, if she knows;
    a. Grasp reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Moro’s reflex d. Cough reflex
  348. 348. The essential feature in nephritoc syndrome is:
    a. Proteinuria b. Hyperlipidemia c. Edema d. Hypoalbuminemia
  349. 349. Not a characteristic feature of Lowe’s syndrome:
    a. Defect in CNS and eye b. Undescended testes c. Mental deterioration d. Hypophosphatemic rickets
  350. 350. Most common complication following meningococcal meningitis is:
    a. Hydrocephalus b. Arthritis c. Subdural effusion d. Waterhouse fredrickson syndrome
  351. 351. Oligohydramnios is associated with which of the following conditions:
    a. Esophagel atresia b. Renal agenesis c. Anencephaly d. All of the above
  352. 352. Flag sign is seen in which of the following disease:
    a. Kwashiorkor b. Pellagra c. Hypothyroidism d. Marasmus
  353. 353. The etiological agent for roseola infantum is:
    a. Parvovirus b. EBV c. CMV d. Human herpes virus 6
  354. 354. most common cause of aseptic meningitis is:
    a. Arbovirus b. Enterovirus c. Adenovirus d. Herpes virus
  355. 355.In an infant with galactosemia which of the following should be avoided:
    a. Egg b. Rice c. Milk d. Gluten
  356. 356. False regarding Reye’s syndrome is:
    • a. Frequently complicates viral infection b. Deep jaundice is present
    • c. Prothrombin time is prolonged d. disease may be precipitated by salicylates
  357. 357. brachycephaly occurs due to fusion of:
    a. Coronal suture b. Lambdoid suture c. Sagittal suture d. parietal suture
  358. 358. Autohemolysis test is positive in which of the following conditions:
    a. sickle cell disease b. Vitamin E deficiency c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. β thalassemia
  359. 359.Meconium is excreted by a newborn till:
    a. 6 days b. 3 days c. 5 days d. 2 days
  360. 360. A 2 year old child has a weight of 6.4 kg and has vitamin A deficiency. The grade of malnutrition in this child is:
    a. Second degree b. Fourth degree c. Third degree d. First degree
  361. 361.In kernicterus which is increased:
    a. Conjugated bilirubin b. Unconjugated bilirubin c. None d. Both
  362. 362. Rotavirus immunity to children occurs above:
    a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 3 years d. 7 years
  363. 363. Diarrhea in infants is most commonly caused by which of the following viruses:
    a. Rotavirus b. Rhadovirus c. Myxovirus d. Adenovirus
  364. 364.Not caused b RSV :
    a. Pneumonia in elderly b. Cold in children c. Coryza in adult d. ARDS
  365. 365.Phenylketonuria is diagnosed by:
    a. Guthrie test b. Vanillylmandelic acid in urine c. Gerhard’s test d. Ferric chloride test
  366. 366.Most common type of cerebral palsy is:
    a. Spastic b. Atonic c. Extrapyramidal d. None
  367. 367. Sexual maturity rate(SMR) in girls does not include:
    a. breast development b. Onset of menarche c. Weight velocity d. pubic hair development
  368. 368.Ghon’s focus is:
    a. Primary complex b. Miliary TB c. TB lymph nodes d. postprimary TB
  369. 369. all the following milestones are seen in a 16 weeks child except:
    • a. Kicks the ground on placing it on its feet b. Brings objects to the mouth
    • c. Polysyllabic vowel sounds d. Laughs loudly
  370. 370. not a characteristic feature of cretinism:
    a. Macroglossia b. Dwarfism c. Hyperpyrexia d. Mental retardation
  371. 371.A child with IQ of 50 is graded as:
    • a. Moderately intelligent b. Moderate mental retardation
    • c. Severe mental retardation d. Mild mental retardation
  372. 372. Earliest change in raised intracranial tension in a child is:
    • a. Posterior clinoid erosion b. Erosion of sella
    • c. silver beaten appearance d. Sutural separation
  373. 373. Which of the following is true regarding phocemelia:
    a. It is a defect in long bones b. Absence of brain c. It is a defect in short bones d. Reduplication of bones
  374. 374.Not seen in myotonic dystrophy:
    a. Cardiac defect b. Cataract c. Respiratory failure d. Enlarged testes
  375. 375. False regarding Reye’s syndrome :
    a. bilirubin of more than 3 mg% b. Microfatty changes in liver without inflammatory changes c. Increased prothrombin time d. Cerebral edema
  376. 376. Which of the following does not predispose to malignancy:
    a. Down’s syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. klinefelter syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome
  377. 377.False regarding pierre robin syndrome is:
    a. Mandibular hypoplasia b. Cloloboma irides c. Cleft palate d. Respiratory distress
  378. 378. True regarding nutritional rickets is:
    • a. Decreased cortical bone b. Decreased calcification of mature bone
    • c. Decreased calcification of growing bone d. Decreased production of steroid
  379. 379. True regarding a 2 month old child is:
    • a. Sustain head level with body when placed in ventral suspension
    • b. Hold head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows
    • c. Lift head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows
    • d. Show a positive parachute protective reflex
  380. 380.Empyema in a child less than 2 years is most commonly caused by:
    a. klebsiella b. Staphylococcus c. Escherichia coli d. Pneumococcus
  381. 381. False regaridgn Henosh-Schonlein purpura:
    a. Nephritis b. Centrifugal rash c. Thrombocytopenia d. Arthritis
  382. 382. Not a cause of floppy baby:
    a. Prader willi syndrome b. Little’s disease c. Werding –Holfman syndrome d. Down syndrome
  383. 383. True regarding disphragmatic hernia is:
    • a. More common on right side b. Vomiting occurs early
    • c. Chest X-ray is not diagnostic d. Pulmonary hypoplasia is seen
  384. 384. Which of the following is the most common age group affected by infantile colic:
    a. 4-6 months b. 0-3 months c. 6-9 months d. 9-12 months
  385. 385.In which of the following conditions, combination chemotherapy is not indicated:
    • a. Immunologically suppressed patients b. Primary complex
    • c. Acute epiglottitis d. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
  386. 386. Not a usual feature of asscariasis:
    a. Intussusception b. Loeffer’s syndrome c. Anemia d. Abdominal pain
  387. 387. In a term newborn, hypoglycemia occurs when the serum blood glucose level is below:
    a. 30mg/dl b. 40 mg/dl c. 50 mg/dl d. 55 mg/dl
  388. 388.In kernicterus, staining of brain is more intense in:
    a. Corpus callosum b. Cerebral cortex c. Basal ganglion d. Spinal Cord
  389. 389. In cystic fibrosis most common organism is pseudomonas aeruginosa. Next most common organism is:
    a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Kiebsiella c. Pneumococci d. Streptococcus pyogenes
  390. 390.In pertussis antibiotic of choice is:
    a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Erythromycin d.. Gentamicin
  391. 391. True about dietary treatment of galactosemia is :
    • a. Mist be continued life long b. ensures normal intellectual development if started in the first week of life
    • c. Can be relaxed after puberty d. Involve delayed weaning
  392. 392. A comatose child has garlic like odor to the breath. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Lead poisoning b. flavism c. Atropine poisoning d. Arsenic poisoning
  393. 393. Croup syndrome is usually caused by:
    a. Coxsackie B virus b. Rhinovirus c. Coxsackie A virus d. Parainfluenza viruses
  394. 394. Clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis do not include:
    a. Malabsorption b. Cor pulmonale c. Bronchiectasis d. Hypertension
  395. 395. False regarding childhood autism is:
    • a. Isolated area of talent may be remarkable developed
    • b. Parental attitude and behavior do not attribute to it
    • c. Emergence of speech and social smile is often delayed
    • d. It represents a type of childhood neurotic disorder
  396. 396. Cephalhematoma usually disappears within…. Weeks:
    a. 5-7 b. 2-12 c. 1-2 d. 3-5
  397. 397.Scratch tests are best read within:
    a. 4 hours b. 1 hour c. 10 minutes d. 15-20 minutes
  398. 398. Genotype in testicular feminization syndrome is:
    a. 46XY b. 45XO c. 47XXY d. 46XX
  399. 399. Y chromosome is always present in which of the following conditions:
    a. Gonadal dysgenesis b. True hermaphroditism c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Turner syndrome
  400. 400. Cerebral palsy s defined as:
    • a. A nonprogressive neuromuscular disorder of cerebral origin
    • b. Progressive neuromuscular disorder of cerebral origin
    • c. Progressive neuromuscular disorder of cerebral origin
    • d. Nonprogressive neuromuscular disorder of peripheral origin
  401. 401. True regarding canals of Lambert in the alveolar spaces of lung:
    a. prevent atelectasis b. Bronchoalveolar connections c. None d. Both
  402. 402. Normal reflex patterns at birth include:
    a. Sucking and rooting reflex b. Moro’s reflex c. Grasp reflex d. All of the above
  403. 403. Croup is not associated with:
    a. adenovirus b. Enterovirus c. Influenza virus d. RSV
  404. 404.First clinical manifestation of abetalipoproteinemia is:
    a. Convulsions b. Tremors c. Steatorrhea d. Hypohydrosis
  405. 405.Not a characteristic feature of Down’s syndrome:
    a. Mental retardation b. Protruding tongue c. Simian crease d. Prominent occiput
  406. 406. Calculate the percentage of burns on the head, neck and face in child of 1 year:
    a. 15% b. 19% c. 10% d. 13%
  407. 407. The incubation period of hepatitis A is:
    a. 6 weeks to 6 months b. 2 days to 2 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 2 weeks to 2 months
  408. 408. Human colostrums in comparision with mature human milk contains more:
    a. Protein b. Fat c. Water d. Lactose
  409. 409. Retrolenntal fibroplasias is because of :
    a. Hyperoxia b. Hypoxia c. Hypocapnia d. Increased CO2
  410. 410. Not a radiographic feature of rickets:
    • a. Increase in width of growth plate b. Rickety rosary
    • c. Subperiosteal bleeding d. Decrease in bone density
  411. 411. Not a recognized feature of Wilson’s disease:
    • a. Increased copper content of liver b. Increased ceruloplasmin
    • c. histopathiologicla features of chronic active hepatitis d. Psychological disturbaces
  412. 412. Incubation period of pertussis is…..days:
    a. 3 b. 7-10 c. 28 d . 15-28
  413. 413. not a complication of pertussis:
    a. Peumonia b. Convulsions c. Cerebellar ataxia d. Subjunctival hemorrhage
  414. 414. A 3 months old girl weights 4 kg and is suffering from loose motions. On examination she is found to be suffering from moderate dehydration . the amount of ORS to be given to her in first four hours shuld be:
    a. 600ml b. 300ml c. 100 ml d. 50 ml
  415. 415. true regarding transient tachypnea of newborn:
    • a. It often leads to chronic lung disease b. In premature babies it is often fatal
    • c. onset of respiratory distress is immediately after birth and it rarely lasts beyond 72 hours d. It is the commonest respiratory disorder caused by absence of surfactant
  416. 416.In the case of CNS relapse ALL chemotherapy would consist of intrathecal :
    a. Methotrexate b. Prednisolone c. Adriamycin d. Methotrexate+cytosine arabinoside
  417. 417. Drug of choice for neonatal convulsions:
    a. Carbamazepine b. Valproate c. Phenobarbitone d. Phenytoin
  418. 418. In pulse polio program target age group is:
    a. Under3 years b. Under 10 years c. under 5 years d. under 1 year
  419. 419. 10 years old child presented with 10 days continuous fever with soft, enlarged spleen. The diagnosis is:
    a. Enteric fever b. Hodgkin’s disease c. Meningitis d. malaria
  420. 420. Human colostrums has a relatively lower concentration of:
    a. Sodium b. Fat c. Protein d. IgA
  421. 421.Pseudopancreatic cyst in a child is commonly because of:
    a. Drug induced pancreatitis b. Choledochal cyst c. Traumatic pancreatitis d. Annular pancreatitis
  422. 422. Craniopharyngloma is most commonly located in:
    a. Suprasellar b. Intracentricular c. Intracerebral d. Infrasellar
  423. 423.Not a characteristic feature of fragile X syndrome:
    a. large testis b. large nose c. Large ear d. large face
  424. 424. hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency is not caused by:
    a. Co-trimoxazole b. Nitrofurantoin c. Rifampicin d. Nalidixic acid
  425. 425.Not seen in Kwashiorkor:
    a. Edema b. Fatty infiltration of liver c. Depigmented areas in skin d. fatty infiltration of pancreas
  426. 426. In the treatment of severe malnutrition , calories required/kg body weight in phase III is:
    a. 130 b. 300 c. 180 d. 125
  427. 427. False regarding primary complex in children:
    a. Effusion seen b. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy c. Connecting lympathic channels d. Ghon’s focus in lung
  428. 428. Tetanus is characterized by:
    • a. Incubation period is 2-3 day b. Spasm of masseter occurs first
    • c. Accompanied by loss of consciousness d. Can be cultures from wound
  429. 429. Death in diaphragmatic hernia is due to:
    a. Hypoplastic lung b. Cardiac malformation c. Intestinal obstruction d. Infections
  430. 430. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis is most commonly caused by:
    a. Group B streptococcus b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Enterococcus faecalis
  431. 431. The foal of incubator care is to maintain the core temperature of infant at:
    a. 36.6-37.5
  432. 432. A 3-year old can not do:
    a. climb upstairs b. Hobble 5 steps c. Draw a circle d. Speak sentences
  433. 433. True regarding about juvenile CML is:
    a. Massive splenomegaly b. High HbF content c. High alkaline phosphatase d. Philadephia chromosome
  434. 434. Phototherpay reduces uncongugated bilirubin to conjugated bilirubin by:
    a. Structural isomerization b. Photo-oxidation c. E-isomerization d. All of the above
  435. 435.Whihc of the following is false regarding turner syndrome:
    a. Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism b. horseshoe kidney c. Coarctation of aorta d. Breast development
  436. 436. Emergency treatment of TGV:
    a. Balloon septostomy b. Digoxin c. Oxygen d. Ventilation
  437. 437. Infantile myocarditis and pericarditis is not caused by:
    a. Echovirus b. Coxsackkie A c. Coxsackie B d. Rotavirus
  438. 438. In infants which of the following drug is contraindicated:
    a. Ciprofloxacin b. Chloroquine c. Thephylline d. Barbiturate
  439. 439.IUGR is defined as:
    a. <7 percentile="" of="" expected="" weight="" b="" 8="" br="">c. <10 percentile="" of="" expected="" weight="" d="" 5="" br="">
  440. 440. Risk of kernicterus is not increased:
    • a. High level of serum albumin b. Low level of serum albumin
    • c. Prematurity d. Acidosis
  441. 441.Drug of choice in infantile myoclonic seizures is:
    a. ACTH b. Clonazepam c. Phenytoin d. Phenobarbitone
  442. 442. A 5 year old child has anemia of long duration. The investigation to be done is:
    a. Peripheral smear b. Estimation of hemoglobin% c. RBC count d. PCV
  443. 443. Fetal hemoglobin equals adult hemoglobin at:
    a. 2 months b. Birth c. 4 months d. 6 months
  444. 444.Whihc of the following is caused by congenital 17 hydroxylase deficiency :
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hermaphroditism c. Hypertension d. Virilism
  445. 445. One year child presenting with abdominal mass and calcification of X-rays is suggestive of:
    a. Wilms’ tumor b. Neuroblastoma c. Rhabdomysarcoma d. Teratoma
  446. 446.Upper segment lower segment ratio at 3 years of age in a normal child is:
    a. 1.7 b. 1.1 c. 1.3 d. 1.0
  447. 447. In ORS the function of gluocose is to:
    • a. Increased Na+ absorption by co-trasport b. Increase Na + K+ pump activity
    • c. Increase osmolality of ORS d. Give sweat taste to ORS
  448. 448. Most common cause of gastrointestinal hemorrhage in children is:
    a. Mallory weiss syndrome b. Portal hypertension c. Peptic ulcer d. Erosive damage
  449. 449. All the following are features of cerebral palsy except:
    a. Hypotonia b. Spasticity c. Erb’s palsy d. Quadriplegia
  450. 450. Not seen in a child with nephritic syndrome:
    a. Hyperlipidemia b. Increased alpha globulins c. Uremia d. Hypoproteinemia
  451. 451. Most common cause of systemic hypertension in children is:
    a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Coarctation of aorta d. Nephrotic syndrome
  452. 452. Not a complication of chickenpox:
    a. Pneumonia b. Reye’s syndrome c. Enteritis d. Meningitis
  453. 453. Not a recognized sign and symptom of raised ICT in a 9 months old infant:
    a. Papilledema b. Diplopia c. Increased in head size d. Bulging fontanel
  454. 454.s A five year old child can remember how many digits:
    a. 8 b. 4 c. 5 d. 10
  455. 455. Triad of mental retardation, seizure and sebaceous adenoma is seen in:
    a. Tuberous sclerosis b. Hypothyroidism c. Congenital syphilis d. Toxoplasmosis
  456. 456. Spaasticity is not associated with:
    a. LMN type paralysis b. Quardriplegia c. Clonus d. Clasp knife rigidity
  457. 457.s 98% of neonates void within:
    a. 8 hours b. 48 hours c. 12 hours d. 24 hours
  458. 458. Neonate with recurrent hypoglycemia attacks and hepatomegaly is likely to have:
    a. Von Gierke disease b. Neonatal hepatitis c. Galactosemia d. Neonatal diabetes
  459. 459.Meningitis in preschool children is most commonly due to:
    a. Staphylociccus b. Streptiococcus c. Pneumococcus d. Haemophilus influenza
  460. 460. False regarding febrile convulsions:
    • a. Aspirin must be given during spike of fever b. Temperature >38 degree centigrade
    • c. Occurs from six months to five years d. Seizures occurs early in disease
  461. 461. Most common site of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma is:
    a. Trunk b. Genitourinary system c. Extremities d. Head and neck
  462. 462. Normal calorie requirement for a 9 year old child is:
    a. 2000 calories b. 800 calories c. 1700 calories d. 1000calories
  463. 463. A 4 day old healthy newborm has jaundice and serum bilirubin of 22mg/dl treatment of choice is:
    a. Investigation of liver function b. phototherapy c. Exchange transfusion d. Observation
  464. 464.True regarding laryngeal papilloma is;
    a. Seen in adults b. Multiple c. Cautery is treatment d. single
  465. 465.energy requirement of an infant is:
    a. 50-60Kcal/kg b. 60-70 Kcal/kg c. 80-90 Kcal/kg d. 110-120 Kcal/kg
  466. 466. The major toxicity of acetaminophen overdose involves:
    a. Heart b. Acid base metabolism c. liver d. CNS
  467. 467. Jaundice in newborn is physiological when :
    • a. Jaundice persists for more than 4 days in a term infant
    • b. Infant is visibly jaundiced in first 24 hr of birth
    • c. Total bilirubin concentration in serum increase by 1 mg/dl per day
    • d. Total bilirubin concentration in serum is above 15 mg/dl
  468. 468. Risk of neonatal chickenpox is the maximum, if maternal infection occurs:
    • a. Within 6 weeks of delivery b. Within 4 days of delivery
    • c. During the first trimester d. During the second trimester
  469. 469. Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is;
    a. Deficiency ofdeoximonase b. Defective release c. Thyroid dysgenesis d. Pendre syndrome
  470. 470. Retinoblastoma is bilateral in :
    a. 1005 of cases b. 1% of cases c. 50% of cases d. 30% of cases
  471. 471. A child can copy a circle first at:
    a. One and half years b. 4 years c. 2 years of age d. 3 years
  472. 472. IUGR is caused by all except:
    a. Diabetes b. Chronic renal failure c. Alcohol d. Smoking
  473. 473.Acute coryza is most commonly caused by:
    a. Rhinovirus b. RSV c. Influenza d. Arenavirus
  474. 474. Convulsions in a child with dehydration and vomiting can be due to:
    a. Decreased serum magnesium b. Decreased serum sodium c. Decreased serum chloride d. decreased serum potassium
  475. 475.Child born to diabetic mother can have all except:
    a. Small left colon syndrome b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Mental retardation
  476. 476. A neonate less than 7 days old presents with fever, features of meningitis anorexia. CSF examination revealed increased protein decreased sugar and increased WBC . most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Shigella c. Mycoplasma d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  477. 477. Infant born to mothers of advanced age has greater risk of:
    a. Down’s syndrome b. Glycogenesis type II c. Marfan’s syndrome d. Trisomy 18
  478. 478.Neuroblastoma in children characterized by all except:
    a. Proptosis b. Hypertension c. Café au lait spots d. hepatomegaly
  479. 479. Bilateral cataract with direct van den Bergh’s test positive in a 3 months old neonate who is exclusively breastfed is suffering from:
    a. Von Gierke disease b. Toxoplasmosis c. Galatosemia d. Fructosemia
  480. 480.Drug of choice for an attack of familial periodic paralysis:
    a. Adrenaline b. potassium chloride c. ACTH d. Calcium choride
  481. 481. A 4 kg infant with severe dehydration (10%) needs the following amount of IV fluid in the first 24 hours :
    a. 1200 ml b. 800ml c. 500ml d. 100ml
  482. 482. A 2 year old child presented with cough fever and dyspnea. He respiratory rate is 55/minute, chest in drawing is present but he has no cyanosis or convulsions. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Very severe disease b. Severe pneumonia c. pneumonia d. Cough and cold
  483. 483.all of the following cough splenomegaly except:
    a. Malaria b. kala-azar c. Tay-sachs disease d. Typhoid
  484. 484. Compared to oral digitalizing dose, parenteral dose of Digoxin should be:
    a. 1/3 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 2/3
  485. 485. Not associated with a large fontanel:
    a. Vitamin D deficiency rickets b. Down’s syndrome c. Hypogonadism d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  486. 486. The number of fontanelles present in a newborn child is:
    a. 1 b. 2 c.5 d.6
  487. 487. Most indicative sign of pneumonia in 12 months old child with cough and fever is:
    • a. Temperature 39.5 C and respiratory rate is 60/min b. Intercostal retraction and fever
    • c. Temperature 39.5 C d. Grunting and respiration rate is 60/min
  488. 488. Obesity is associated with:
    a. Laurence moon bield syndrome b. Prader Wili syndrome c. Carpenter’s syndrome d. all of the above
  489. 489.Murmur heard in Eisenmenger syndrome is:
    a. Carey comb murmur b. Austin-Flint murmur c. Graham steel murmur d. None
  490. 490. A child with VSD developed Elsenmenger syndrome. Correct sequences of events which leads to this change is:
    • a. Pulmonary hypertension right to left shunt right ventricular hypertrophy left to right shunt
    • b. Pulmonary hypertension right ventricular hypertrophy left to right shunt right to left shunt
    • c. Pulmonary hypertension left ventricular hypertrophy left to right shunt right to left shunt
    • d. left to right shunt right ventricular hypertrophy pulmonary hypertension right to left shunt
  491. 491. the clinical sign of hyaline membrane disease generally first appears:
    • a. In the first 6 hours of life b. After 48 hours of life
    • c. Between 12 and 24 hours of life d. Between 36 and 48 hours of life
  492. 492.X-ray appearance in hyaline membrane disease is:
    • a. Homogenous ground glass appearance b. Air bronchogram
    • c. Reticulonodular shadow d. Normal X-ray
  493. 493. Which of the following is true Hyaline membrane disease of newborn:
    • a. Maternal steroid exposure increases severity of disease
    • b. Surfactant increases the surface tension of alveoli
    • c. Phosphatidyl glycerol estimation is a reliable method of diagnosis
    • d. Prematurity provides relative protection to occurance
  494. 494. In physiological jaundice in term infants serum bilirubin does not generally exceed:
    a. 20mg% b. 5mg% c. 15mg% d. 10%
  495. 495. Convulsions in infants can be caused by:
    a. Hypocalcemia b. Anoxia c. Hypoglycemia d. All of the above
  496. 496. Which of the following is true regarding a 1 year old child with PDA:
    • a. Indomethacin may help in closure b. chances of spontaneous closure is high
    • c. Symptoms similar to aorto-pulmonary window d. Endocarditis is rare
  497. 497. Most common cause of convulsions in a child with fever is:
    a. Hypothyrodism b. Febrile convulsions c. Meningitis d. Epilepsy
  498. 498.Dyslexia is characterized by all except:
    • a. Mental retardation b. Inability to interpret written language
    • c. Male preponderance d. Retardation reading
  499. 499. Hyaline membrane seen in lung s composed of:
    a. Polysaccharide b. Mucoprotein c. globulin d. Fibrin
  500. 500. the characteristics of caput succedaneoum do not include:
    • a. A diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of scalp b. Crosses the suture line
    • c. Does not disappear within 2-3 days d. Crosses midline
  501. 501. True regarding childhood brain tumor is:
    • a. Rare form of malignancy b. Most tumors are below tentorium
    • c. Hemiparesis is frequent form of presentation d. Papiledema is infrequent
  502. 502. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is:
    a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM
  503. 503. all of the following may occur in Noonan’s syndrome except:
    a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Crytorchidism c. Infertility in females d. autosomal dominant transmission
  504. 504. The treatment of choice for primary grade-V vesicoureteral reflex involving both kidneys in a 6 months- old boy is:
    • a. Antibiotic prophylaxis b. Ureteric reimplantation
    • c. Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of Teflon d. Bilateral ureterostomy
  505. 505. Which of the following maternal antibody causes heart block in newborn:
    a. Anti ds DNa b. Anti Jo c. Anti-Ro antibodies d. Anti-histone antibodies
  506. 506.There is a high risk of renal dysplasia in:
    • a. Posterior urethral valves b. Bladder extrophy
    • c. Anorectal malformation d. neonatal sepsis
  507. 507. Which one of the following is the most common cause of abdominal mass in neonates?
    a. Neuroblastomas b. wilm’s tumor c. distended bladder d. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys
  508. 508. True regarding ectopia cordis is:
    • a. Is seen between the ribs
    • b. the heart is seen projecting from a defect in the lower thorax and the upper abdominal wall
    • c. Projects from the whole of defect arising from the abdominal wall
    • d. Projects from the upper thoracic region
  509. 509. 8-year boy presents with swelling in left eye of 3 months duration. Examination revelaed proptosis of left eye with preserved vision. Right eye is normal. CT scan revealed intraorbital extra coneal mass lesion. Biopsy revealed embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma. Metastatic work up eas normal. The standard line of treatment is:
    • a. Chemotherapy only b. Wide local incision
    • c. Enucleation d. chemotherapy and radiotherapy
  510. 510.Kernicerus is caused by:
    a. bilirubin monoglucuronide b. Albumin bound bilirubin c. Unbound bilirubin d. Bilirubin diglucuronide
  511. 511. All of the following are seen in atrial septal defect except:
    • a. There may be no murmurs audible b. right ventricular hypertrophy
    • c. Wide split 2nd heart sound d. Pulmonary oligemia
  512. 512. Karyotype in klinefelter syndrome:
    a. XY b. XXY c. XO d. XX
  513. 513. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn in seen in association with:
    a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Neurofibromatosis d. Ataxia telangiectasia
  514. 514. A 2 year old presented with leukocoria in the right eye since 2 monhts. On examination a total retinal detachment was present in the same eye. Ultrasound B scan revealed a heterogeneous subretinal mass with calcification ,associated with a retinal detachment. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:
    a. Coats disease b. Retinoblastoma c. Toxocariasis d. Retinal tuberculoma
  515. 515. A 1 year old child having leukocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:
    • a. Enucleation b. Chemotherapy followed by local dyes
    • c. Direct laser ablation using photodynamic cryotherapy
    • d. Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
  516. 516. A 1 year old child having leukocoria was detected to be having a unilateral large retinoblastoma filling half the globe, current therapy would involve:
    • a. Enucleation b. Chemotherapy followed by local dyes
    • c. Direct laser ablation using photodynamic cryotherapy
    • d. Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
  517. 517. Hereditary retinoblastoma develops the following chromosomal deletion:
    a. 13q14 b. 13q14 c. 14q13 d. 14q13
  518. 518. While working in the neonatal ICU your team delivers a premature infant at 27 weeks of gestitation and weighting 1500 grams. How soon will you request fundus examination by an ophthalmologist?
    • a. Immediately b. 3-4 week s after delivery
    • c. at 34 weeks gestational age d. AT 40 weeks gestation period
  519. 519. Osler’s nodes are typically seen in which 1 of the following :
    • a. Chronic candida endocarditis b. Acute stpaphylococcal endocarditis
    • c. Pseudomonas endocarditis d. Libman-sack’s endocarditis
  520. 520. Rotaviruses are responsible for:
    a. Acute non-bacterial gastroenteritis b. Infantile diarrhea c. Teratogenic effects d. Respiratory tract infection
  521. 521.An 8 months old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palm and soles, the siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice in such a patient is:
    a. Systemic ampicillin b. Topical betamethasone c. Systemic prednisolone d. Topical permethrin
  522. 522.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following :
    • a. Hyponatremia and urine sodium excretion>20 mEq/liter
    • b. Hypernatremia and urine sodium excretion <20 meq="" liter="" br="">c. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
    • d. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
  523. 523.All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except:
    • a. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
    • c. Goodpasture’s disease d. Systemic lupus erythematous
  524. 524. In asymmetrical IUGR which organ is not affected:
    a. Subcutaneous fat b. Muscle c. Liver d. Brain
  525. 525. IUGR is characterized by all except:
    a. Polycythemia b. Meconium aspiration syndrome c. HMD d. Hypocalcemia
  526. 526. full-term .small-for-date infants(IUGR) are predisposed to which of the following condition:
    a. PDA b. Hypercalcemia c. CNS infections d. Hypoglycemia
  527. 527. All are true of cartilage hair hypoplasia syndrome except:
    a. Short limbed dwarf b. Sparse hair c. Netropenia d. T-cell dysfunction
  528. 528. A 2 year old boy has vitamin D refractory rickets. Investigations show serum calcium to 9 mg/dl phosphate 2.4 mg/dl alkaline phosphatase 1040IU. Parathyroid hormone level and bicarbonate levels are normal. The most probable diagnosis is:
    • a. Distal renal tubular acidosis b. Hypophosphatemic rickets
    • c. Vitamin D dependent rickets d. Proximal renal tubular acidosis
  529. 529. Failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of birth in a anewborn with no obvious external abnormality should be suspicion of:
    a. Anal atresia b. Congenital pouch colon c. Congenital aganglionosis d. Meconium ileus
  530. 530.SSPE (subacute sclerosing panecephalitis) is associated with:
    a. Mumps b. Chickenpox c. Herpes d. Measles
  531. 531.Pure fonadal dysgenesis will be diagnosed in the presence of:
    • a. Bilateral streak gonads b. Bilateral dysgenetic gonads
    • c. One side streak and other dysgenetic gonads d. One side streak and other normal looking gonad
  532. 532. A 10 year old girl presents with swelling of one knee joint. All of the following conditions can be considered in the differential diagnosis, except:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis c. Hemophilia d. Villonodular synovitis
  533. 533. A patient has diarrhea. Stool examination reveals no RBC or pus cells.Identify the organism:
    a. Balantidium coli b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Giardia d. E. Intestine
  534. 534. An anxious mother brought her 4 year old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination, which showed the following organisms. Identify the organism:
    a. Entamoeba histolytica b . Giardia lamblia c. Cryptosporidium d. Escherichia coli
  535. 535. Social smile appears by:
    a. 2 months b. 3 months c. 5 months d. 9 months
  536. 536. Most common solid tumor in children and infants is:
    a. Neurofibroma b. Neuroblastoma c. Sacrococcygeal treatoma d. Wilm’s tumor
  537. 537. Roseola infantum is caused by:
    a. Herpes virus type 6 b. parvovirus c. Coxsackie virus d. Escherichia coli
  538. 538. Fever stops and rash begins is diagnostic of:
    a. Fifth disease b. Roseola infantum c. Measles d. Toxic shock syndrome
  539. 539.A 45 year old infant developed icterus and 2days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared child was found to be positive for HBsAG. The mother was also HBsAG carrier. The mother’s hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be:
    • a. HBsAG positive only b. HBsAG and HBeAG positive
    • c. HBsAG and anti-Hbe antibody positive d. Mother infected with mutant HBV
  540. 540. In a patient immunized with hepatitis B vaccine, which of the following is seen in serum:
    a. HBsAg b. HBsAg c. Anti-HBsAg d. Anti-HBcAg
  541. 541. A person vaccinated with hepatitis B will present with the following markers in the blood:
    a. IgG-Anti-HBV b. Anti-HBsAg c. Anti-HBeAg d. IgM anti-HBV
  542. 542. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with all of the following except:
    • a. Associated with decreased complement b. ALSO titers are specific disease markers
    • c. Endo-Capillary proliferation d. Has good prognosis
  543. 543. True about diphtheria is:
    • a. Causes cranial nerve palsies in the 2nd and 3rd week b. Treatment is with erythromycin
    • c. It is Gram-negative organism d. Passive immunization is harmful and should not be tried
  544. 544.A 3year old boy is detected to have bilateral renal calculi. Metabolic evaluation confirms the presence of marked hypercalciuria with normal blood levels of calcium, Magnesium , phosphate, uric acid and creatinine. A diagnosis of idiopathic hypercalciuria is made. The dietary management includes all, except:
    • a. Increased water intake b. Low sodium diet
    • c. Reduced calcium intake d. Avoid meat proteins
  545. 545. A 3 year old boy presents with poor urinary stream. Most likely cause is:
    a. Stricture urethra b. neurogenic bladder c. Urethral calculus d. Posterior urethral valves
  546. 546. Posterior urethral valves are most commonly situated:
    a. At verumontanum b. Above verumontanum c. Just distal to venrumontanum d. Near bladder neck
  547. 547. One year old male child is presented with poor urinary stream since birth. The investigation of choice for evaluation is:
    • a. Volding cystourethrography (VCUG) b. USG bladder
    • c. Intravenous urography d. Uroflowmetry
  548. 548. all of the following are characteristic features of Kwashiorkor except:
    a. High blood osmolarity b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Edema d. Fatty liver
  549. 549. Which one of the following does not produce cyanosis in the first year of life?
    • a. Atrial septal defect b. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
    • c. Truncus arteriosus d. Double outlet right ventricle
  550. 550. A 9 year boy has steroid dependent nephritic syndrome for the last 5 years. He had received corticosteroids almost continuously during this period and has cushingoid features. The blood pressure is 120/86mHg and there are bilateral sub-capsular cataracts. The treatment of choice is:
    a. Levamisole b. Cyclophosphamide c. Cyclosporine A d. Intravenous pulse corticosteroids
  551. 551. Visceromegaly , microcephaly with blood sugar below 20 mg/dl with sinusitis is:
    • a. Prader willi syndrome b. Beckwith –Wiedemann syndrome
    • c. Alport’s syndrome d. Cockayne syndrome
  552. 552.All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in a 2 month-old child, except:
    a. DNA-PCR b. Viral culture c. HIV ELISA d. p24 –antigen assay
  553. 553. In a child immunized with BCG, all of the following can later develop except:
    • a. Miliary tuberculosis b. Increases generalized immune response
    • c. Cannot protect against tuberculosis d. Mantoux positive
  554. 554.s A married middle-aged female gives history of repeated abortions for the past 5 years. The given below is conceptions pre-natla karygram. This karyogram suggest the following :
    a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Turner’s syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Patau’s syndrome
  555. 555.A 3-year old boy is brought to casualty bi his mother with progressive shortness of breath for 1 day. The child has a history of bronchial asthma. On examination ,the child is gasping and unresponsive .what will you do first?
    a. Intubate b. Administer 100% oxygen by mask c. Ventilate with bag and mask d. Administer nebulised salbitamol
  556. 556. Not abeneficial in management of acute attacks of bronchial asthama:
    a. Nebuliser b. IV hydrocortisone c. Sodium ccromoglycate d. Salbutamol
  557. 557.A two year old child presented with respiratory distress, cough and wheezing. On examination bresadth sound diminished on left side. Chest X-ray revealed homogenous opacity in left side. Most likely cause of this condition is:
    a. Aspiration b. Pleural effusion c. Foreign body d. Pneumothorax
  558. 558. A child has hoarseness of voice, croupy cough and asthmatic wheeze. Most likely he is suffering from :
    a. Foreign body larynx b. Retropharyngeal abscess c. Bronchopneumonia d. Asthmatic bronchitis
  559. 559. opsoclonus –myoclonus is seen in which of the following:
    a. Astrocytoma b. Wilms tumor c. Meningioma d. Neuroblastoma
  560. 560. Useful for diagnosis of Down syndrome all except:
    a. hCG(increased) b. AFP (decreased) c. Unconjugated estriol (decreased) d. Progesterone
  561. 561.Which of the following is not included in triple test for down syndrome:
    a. Ultrasound b. Karyotyping c. Human placental lactogen d. Estriol estimation
  562. 562. Which of the following is included in triple test for down syndrome?
    a. Estriol estimation b. Karyotyping c. Serum HPL level d. Beta HCG
  563. 563. All the following are features of diarrhea+hemolytic uremia syndrome except:
    a. Negative coombs test b. Low platelet count c. Low complement level d. Fall in hematocrit
  564. 564. True regarding transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN)
    • is:
    • a. Interlobular fissure effusion b. Respiratory distress resolves in 6-10 days
    • c. Air bronchogram is seen d. Common in preterm infant
  565. 565. All the following are seen in transient tachypnea of newborn except:
    • a. Seen in early neonatal period b. May be associated with grunting and cyanosis
    • c. May be associated with crepitation and wheezes d. Interlobar effusion is present
  566. 566. A 2 months old child is brought with a complaint of intermittent stridor. The most likely diagnosis in this case is:
    a. Foreign body b. Laryngomalacia c. Croup d. Carcinoma larynx
  567. 567. The most specific abnormality associated with diabetes mellitus is:
    a. Omphalocele b. neural tube defects c. Heart defects d. Sacral Agenesis
  568. 568. Hypoglycemia in newborn is defined as the blood sugar level below (in mg%):
    a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 55
  569. 569. All of the following complications are seen in diabetes mellitus in neonates except:
    a. Hypomagnesemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypoglycemia
  570. 570. Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs in:
    • a. Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive in the 2nd child
    • b. Rh-positive mother with Rh-negative in the 2nd child
    • c. Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive in the 1st child
    • d. Rh-positive mother with Rh-negative in the 1st child
  571. 571. All of the following groups of newborns are at an increased are at an increased risk of hypoglycemia except:
    a. Birth asphyxia b. Respiratory distress syndrome c. Maternal diabetes d. Post-term infant
  572. 572. Best parameter for estimation of fetal age by ultrasound in 3rd trimester is:
    a. Femur length b. Biparietal diameter c. abdominal circumference d. Interocular distance
  573. 573. in pediatric advanced life support intraosseous access for drug and fluid administration is recommended for pediatric age of:
    a. <1-year age="" b="" 5="" years="" c="" 6="" d="" any="" br="">
  574. 574. Which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small-bowel obstruction:
    • a. Generalized abdominal distension b. Failure to pass meconium in the first 24 hours
    • c. Bilious vomiting d. Refusal of feed
  575. 575. A 31 weeks pregnant lady delivered a child. After 6 hours the baby develops dyspnea and cyanosis. Chest X-ray and bronchogram showed ground glass appearance. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Pulmonary edema b. Meconium aspiration syndrome c. Hyaline membrane disease d. Consolidation
  576. 576.which of the following condition is not associated with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a newborn ?
    a. Septicemia b. Breast milk jaundice c. Crigler-Najjar syndrome d. Hypothyroidism
  577. 577. Neonatal jaundice persisiting for 2 weeks after birth is not seen in:
    a. R incompatibility b. Hypothyroidism c. Galactosemia d. Breast milk jaundice
  578. 578. Not seen in hypophosphatemic vitamin D resistant rickets:
    a. X linked inheritance b. Hypocalcemia c. Reduced tubular reabsorption of phosphate d. Lower limb deformity
  579. 579. False regarding an infant of a woman with HIV infection :
    • a. Diagnosis of HIV in newborn cannot be made with routinely available test
    • b. Failure to thrive may be presenting symptom
    • c. Risk of HIV infection in infants is greater than 50%
    • d. Transmission of HIV infection may take place during
    • parturition
  580. 580.Whihc of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart disease?
    a. TOF b. AS c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. Ventricular septal defect
  581. 581.An 18 month old child has gastroenteritis with dehydration .Blood urea is 80mg/dl and creatinine is 1.1 mg/dl. Measurement of fractional excretion of which of the following solutes is most helpful in evaluating renal functions:
    a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Phosphate d. Bicarbonate
  582. 582. A 3 day old child presents with 22-25 stools per day and pneumonitis . he has not passed urine for 36 hours. Blood pressure is low, pH is 7.21, urine Na+ 18mEq/L and serum urea is 120, and creatinine is 1.2. this indicates:
    a. Acute cortical necrosis b. Acute medullary necrosis c. Acute tubular necrosis d. Prerenal azotemia
  583. 583.Calculate the 24 hour fluid requirement of a 6 kg child:
    a. 1500ml b. 1000ml c. 800ml d. 600ml
  584. 584. Not a feature of tetanus:
    a. Normal sensorium b. Buglung fontanelle c. Increased tone d. spasm of muscle
  585. 585. Which of the following treatment should be done in a child with pruritic lesion in axilla and groin ?
    a. Treatment of contacts b. Benzyl benzoate application c. Clothes are to be boiled d. Systemic steroids
  586. 586. In simple partial seizure the drug of choice is;
    a. Phenobarbitone b. Carbamazepine c. Valporic acid d. Phenytoin
  587. 587. In petit-mal (absence)seizures the drug of choice is:
    a. Valporate b. Diazepam c. Phenytoin d. Clonazepam
  588. 588. which of the following is a feature of typical febrile seizures in children?
    • a.Focal neurological deficits b. diagnostic EEG changes
    • c. positive family history in 30% of cases d. Mental retardation
  589. 589. Which of the following is true regarding febrile seizure?
    • a. Status epilepsy is common b. 50% recurrence is common
    • c. Interictal EEG is normal d. long term treatment is required
  590. 590. not a characteristic feature of febrile seizure:
    • a. Occurs with sudden rise in temperature b. Male children are more prone
    • c. Phenobarbitone prevents further attacks d. manifests with generalized seizure
  591. 591. Absence seizure in children is seen in:
    a. Psychogenic disorder b. Petit mal epilepsy c. Grand mal epilepsy d. Attention deficit disorder
  592. 592. unilateral renal agenesis is associated with:
    a. single umbilical artery b. Polycystic disease of pancreas c. Hiatus hernia d. Hypogonadism
  593. 593. A baby delivered at 32 weeks is on ventrilator. X-ray shows white out lesions. ABG shows SpO2 75, and ventilator settings are FiO2=70,rate 50 per minute. Next step in management of this newborn should be :
    a. Wean off the ventilator b. Continue with the same setting c. Increase FiO2 to 80 d. Increase rate to 60
  594. 594. In which of the following condition, bacterial endocarditis is rarely seen:
    a. Ostium secundumm ASD b . MVP c. PDA d. VSD
  595. 595.In which of the following condition, bacterial endocarditis is rarely seen:
    a. Ostium secundum ASD b. MVP c. PDA d. VSD
  596. 596. Raised intracranial pressure in a 9 month old infant is diagnosed by all except:
    a. Bulging fontanelle b. Papiledema c. Diplopia d. Increased head size
  597. 597. What is the content of sodium in ORS solution , in mEq/L?
    a. 90 mmol b. 60 mmol c. 40 mmol d. 20 mmol
  598. 598. In ORS solution, the benefit of adding glucose to it is:
    • a. Increases absorption of NA+ b. provides calories c. Increases absorption of K+
    • d. Increases absorption of CI
  599. 599. All the following are features of CC in an infant except:
    a. Diaphoresis b. Failure to gain weight c. Pedal edema d. Tachypnea
  600. 600.Not present in congenital rubella syndrome:
    a. blindness b. IUGR c. Renal anomalies d. Deafness
  601. 601.Which of the following age group is most severely affected by rubella infection?
    a. Females aged 25-35 years b. Young girls c. Adolescent girls d. Unborn child
  602. 602. narrow anterior fontanelle in children is seen in which of the following condition:
    a.. Hydrocephalus b. Vitamin deficiency rickets c. Craniosynostosis d. Cleidocranial dysostosis
  603. 603. bad prognostic indicator for ALL is:
    a. Hypoploidy b. TLC<50000 c="" female="" sex="" d="" age="">1 year
  604. 604. A 2 month old baby with acute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hours. The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother’s hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be:
    • a. HBsAg positive only b. HBsAg and HBeAg positive
    • c. HBsAg and Be antibody positive d. HBV DNA positive
  605. 605. All of the following are causes of seizures in the neonate except:
    a. Hypoxia b. Pertussis vaccine c. Septicemia d. Meningitis
  606. 606. In neonatal resuscitation to be done is:
    • a. Suction nose then mouth b. Place the baby on the back
    • c. Wipe with wet towel d. all of the above
  607. 607. a 4 ½ year girl child always had to wear warm socks even in summer season. On physical examination it was noticed that she had high blood pressure and her femoral pulse was weak as compared to radial and carotid pulse. A chest radiograph showed remarkable notching for ribs along their lower borders. This was due to:
    a. Femoral artery thrombosis b. Coarctation of aorta c. Raytnaud’s disease d. Takayasu’s arteritis
  608. 608. Most common cause of neonatal sepsis is:
    a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Group B streptococcus c. klebsiella pneumoniae d. listeria monocytogenes
  609. 609. most common cause of neonatal meningitis is:
    a. Escherichia coli b. clostridia c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Streptococcus pneumonia
  610. 610. The umbilical cord contains:
    • a. 1 umbilical artery and 2 veins b. 1 umbilical artery and 1 vein
    • c. 2 umbilical arteries and 1 vein d. 2 umbilical arteries and 2 veins
  611. 611. Which of the following statements is false with regard in Xanthogranulomatous phylonephritis in children?
    • a. Often affects those younger than 8 years of age ]
    • b. It affects the kidney focally more frequently than diffusely
    • c. Boys are affected more frequently
    • d. Clinical presentation in children is same s in adults
  612. 612.Role of glucose in ORS is:
    a. Energy source b. Taste to ORS c. Non-specific d. Carries Na+ into cell
  613. 613. A boy presents with bilateral nasal polyps. X-ray shows opacity in the para-nasal sinus region. All the following can be given as treatment except:
    a. Antihistamines b. Intranasal corticosteroids c. Amphotericin B d. Epinephrine
  614. 614. A five-day –old full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later ballon atrial septostomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is:
    a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Transposition of great vessels c. Truncus arteriosus d. Tricuspid atresia
  615. 615. Webbing of neck increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
    a. Noonan syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome
  616. 616.A 10 month old child presents with 2 weeks history of fever vomiting and alteration of sensorium cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:
    a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Listeria monocytogense d. Cryptococcus neoformans
  617. 617. All are the features of absence seizures except:
    a. Usually seen in childhood b. 3 HZ spike wave in EEG c. Postictal confusion d. Precipitation by hyperventilation
  618. 618.s A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor ssince birth and hepatosplenomegaly. which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis?
    a. Heoglobin electrophroesis b. Bone marrow examination c. Osmotic fragility test d. Peripheral smear examination
  619. 619.A 5 year old child presents with history of fever off and on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cm below costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Acute leukemia b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura c. Hypersplenism d. Aplastic anemia
  620. 620. All of the following are neural tube defects except:
    a. holoprosencephaly b. Encephalocele c. Anencephaly d. Myelomeningocele
  621. 621. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all except:
    a. Hemochrommatosis b. Hurler’s syndrome c. Adrenoleukodystrophy d. Osteopetrosis
  622. 622.The most common underlying anomaly in a child with recurrent urinary tract infection is:
    a. Posterior urethral valves b. Vesicoureteral reflux c. Neurogenic bladder d. Renal calculi
  623. 623.Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except:
    a. Chronic renal failure b. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia c. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM) d. Hypothyrodism
  624. 624. A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema:
    • a. Fusion of foot precesses of the glomerular epithelial cells
    • b. Rarefaction of glomerular basement membrane
    • c. Deposition of electron dense material in the basement membrane
    • d. Thin basement membrane
  625. 625. A 2 month old child is able to:
    • a. Show a positive parachute protective reflex b. Hold head steady in a seated position
    • c. Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral suspension d. Lift head and chest off a flat surface
  626. 626. A 7 year old boy with left renal mass had bone pain and detected to have bone metastatic deposits. The most likely renal tumor is:
    a. Favorable histology Wilm’s turner b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Clear cell sarcoma d. Rhabdoid tumor
  627. 627.A 10 days old neonate is posted for pyloric stenosis is surgery. The investigation report shows a serum calcium level of 6mg/dl. What information would you like to know before you supplement calcium to this neonate?
    a. Blood glucose b. Serum protein c. Serum bilirubin d. Oxygen saturation
  628. 628. Deficiency of enzyme α-ketoacid dehydrogenase leading to a back in the metabolism of branch amino acids is observed in:
    a. Maple syrup urine disease b. Hartnup’s disease c. Alkaptonuria d. Phenylketonuria
  629. 629. All of the following are features of absence seizures except:
    a. Usually seen in childhood b. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG c. Postictal confusion d. Precipitation by hyperventilation
  630. 630. A continuous murmur is heard in all of the following conditions, except;
    • a. Ventricular septal defect with aortic regurgitation b. Patent ductus arteriosus
    • c. Coronary arteriovenous fistula d. Venous hum
  631. 631. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency except:
    a. Hemolytic anemia b. Posterior column abnormalities c. Cerebellar ataxia d. Autonomic dysfunction
  632. 632. The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is:
    a. Malignant teratoma b. neuroblastoma c. Wilm’s tumor d. Hepatoblastoma
  633. 633. The most common presentation of a child with Wilms’ tumor is:
    a. An asymptomatic abdominal mass b. Hematuria c. Hypertension d. Hemoptysis due to pulmonary secondary
  634. 634.The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhea is:
    a. Sphenoid sinus b. Frontal sinus c. Cribriform plate d. Tegmen tympani
  635. 635.The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:
    a. Supracardiac b. Infracardiac c. Mixed d. Cardiac
  636. 636. Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established by:
    a. NESTROFTtest b. Hemoglobin A1C estimation c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis d. Target cells in peripheral smear
  637. 637. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on:
    a. Cord blood b. 24 hours after birth c. 48 hours after birth d. 72 hours after birth
  638. 638. The appropriate approach to a neonate presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 of life is:
    • a. Administration of Vitamin K b. Investigation for bleeding disorder
    • c. No specific therapy d. Administration of 10 ml/kl of fresh frozen plasma over 4 hours
  639. 639. A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most
    • likely to show:
    • a. Posterior urethral valves b. Vesicoureteric reflux c. neurogenic bladder d. Renal and ureteric calculis
  640. 640. The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is:
    a. Trauma b. Tuberculosis c. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis d. Interstitial nephrites
  641. 641. Which one of the following is the common cause of congenital hydrocephalus?
    a. Craniosynostosis b. Intrauterine meningitis c. Aqueductal stenosis d. Malformations of great vein of Galen
  642. 642. Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia ?
    a. Hydrocortisone b. Prednisolone c. Fludrocortisone d. Dexamethasone
  643. 643. The Coagulation profile in a 13 year old girl with menorrhagia having von Willebrnad’s disease (vWD) is:
    a. Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT b. Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT c. Prolonged of both PT and PTT d. Prolonged of thrombin time
  644. 644.Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:
    a. Genomic imprinting b. Mosaicism c. Anticipation d. Nonpenetrance
  645. 645. The chance of having an unaffected baby. When both parents have achondroplasia are:
    a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%
  646. 646. All of the following therapies may be required in a 1
    • hour old infant with severe birth asphyxia, except:
    • a. Glucose b. Dexamethasone c. Calcium gluconate d. Normal saline
  647. 647.s eisenmenger’s syndrome is characterized by all, except:
    • a. Return of left ventricle and right ventricle to normal size
    • b. pulmonary veins not distended
    • c. Pruning of peripheral pulmonary arteries d. dilatation of central pulmonary arteries
  648. 648.s The best time to do chorionic villus sampling is:
    a. Between 6 to 8 weeks b. Between 7 to 9 weeks c. between 9 to 11 weeks d. Between 11 to 13 weeks
  649. 649.All of the following are biochemical markers included for triple test, except:
    • a. Alfa-fetoprotein (AFP) b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
    • c. Human placental lactogen (HPL) d. Unconjugated estriol
  650. 650. When does ‘Switchover’ from fetal to adult hemoglobin synthesis begin?
    a. 14 weeks gestation b. 30 weeks gestation c. 36 weeks gestation d. 7 to 10 days postnatal
  651. 651. Epiglottitis in a 2 year old child occurs most commonly due to infection with:
    a. Influenza virus b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Haemophilus influenza d. Respiratory syncytial virus
  652. 652. Which one of the following is the leading cause of mortality in under five children in developing countries?
    a. Malaria b. Acute lower respiratory tract infections c. Hepatitis d. Prematurity
  653. 653. In which of the following conditions, aniridia and hemihypertrophy are most likely present?
    a. Neuroblastoma b. Wilm’s tumor c. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma d. Germ cell tumor
  654. 654. The following cardiac defects are characterized by ductus dependent blood flow , except:
    • a. Transposition of great arteries with intact septum b. Interrupted aortic arch
    • c. Truncus arteriosus d. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
  655. 655. Which of the following syndrome is best associated with congenital heart disease?
    a. Lesch-Nyhan b. Rasmussen syndrome c. Holt-ORam syndrome d. LeOPARD syndrome
  656. 656.Characteristic radiological feature of transient tachypnea of newborn is:
    a. Reticulogranular appearance b. Low volume lungs c. Prominent horizontal fissure d. Air bronchograms
  657. 657. which mechanism in phototherapy is chiefly responsible for reduction in surum bilirubin ?
    a. Photo-oxidation b. Photo-isomerization . Structural isomerization d. Cojugation
  658. 658. Which of the following is true regarding mumps?
    • a. Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids
    • b. The patient is not infections prior to clinical parotid enlargement
    • c. Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis d. Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility
  659. 659. Bag and mask ventilation is contraindicated in:
    a. Cleft lip b. Meconium aspiration c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Multicentric bronchogenic cyst
  660. 660.Most appropriate management for maintaining patency of ductus arteriosus in a neonate is:
    a. Prostaglandin E1 b. Nitric oxide c. Oxygen d. Indomethacin
  661. 661. A 2 year old child comes with seborrheic dermatitis, polyuria and hepatosplenomegaly, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Leukemia b. Lymphoma c. Langerhans cell histiocytosis d. Germ cell tumor
  662. 662. A 13 year old boy has bilateral gynecomastia. His height is 148 cm, weight 58 kg, the sexual maturity rating is stage 2. The gynecomastia is most likely due to:
    a. Prolactinoma b. Testicular tumor c. Pubertal gynecomastia d. Chronic liver disease
  663. 663. A 9 year old boy has steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome for last five years. The patient is markedly cushingoid with BP of 120/86 mm Hg and small sub-capsular cataracts. The most appropriate therapy of choice is:
    a. Long-term frusemide with enalapril b. Cyclophosphamide c. IV immunoglobulin d. IV pulse corticosteroids
  664. 664. A male infant presented with distension of abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. Subsequently a full thickness biopsy of the rectum was performed. The rectal biopsy is likely to show:
    a. Fibrosis of submucosa b. Lack of ganglion cells c. Thickened muscularis propria d. Hyalinization of the muscular coat
  665. 665. In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by:
    a. USG b. IVU c. DTPA renogram d. Creatinine clearance
  666. 666. Most appropriate method for obtaining a urine specimen for culture in an 8 month old girl is;
    a. Suprapubic aspiration b. indwelling catheter sample c. Clean catch void d. Urinary bag sample
  667. 667. an 8 year old boy during a routine checkup is found to have Escherichia coli 1,00,000 cc/ml on a urine culture. The urine specimen was obtained by midstream clean-catch void. The child is asymptomatic. Which is the most appropriate next step in the management?
    a. Treat as an acute episode of UTI b. no treatment c. prophylactic antibiotics for 6 months d.. Administer long-term urine alkalinizer
  668. 668. A 15 year old girl was admitted to the infectious disease hospital with a provisional diagnosis of rabies. The most suitable clinical sample that can confirm the antemortem diagnosis is:
    a. Serum for antirabies IgG antibody b. Corneal impression smear for immunofluorescence stain c. CSF sample for viral culture d. Giemsa stain on smear prepared from salivary secretion
  669. 669. A 2 month old girl has failure to thrive, polyuria and medullary nephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Investigations show blood pH 7.48, bicarbonate 25 mEq/l, potassium 2 mEq per liter, sodium 126 mEq per liter and chloride 88 mEq per liter. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Distal renal tubular acidosis b. Primary hyperaldosteronism
    • c. Bartler’s syndrome d. Pseudohypoaldosteronism
  670. 670. A 6 month old child with TOF develops cyanotic spell initiated by crying. Which one of the following drugs you would like to avoid?
    a. Sodium bicarbonate b. Propranolol c. Phenylephrine d. Isoprenaline
Author
adarsha
ID
355687
Card Set
Paediatrics Sharad
Description
sharad chandras paediatrics
Updated