Head, neck, and TMJ

  1. At the point where the two superior nuchal lines of the right and the left sides meet at the median line, there is a small eminence called the:




    D) External occipital protuberance
  2. The skull bones are made up of external and internal tables of compact bone separated by a layer of spongy bone called the diploe. The internal table is thicker and less brittle than the external table.




    B) Only the first statement is true.

    The internal table is thinner and more brittle than the external table.
  3. True or False: The skull bones are covered only on the outer surfaces with periosteum.
    False

    The skull bones are covered on the outer and inner surfaces with periosteum.
  4. Which of the following cranial bones are paired?




    A) Parietal

    Parietal and temporal bones are paired cranial bones.
  5. All of the following are facial bones, except:




    B) Ethmoid

    • The facial bones consist of the following:
    •  Nasal bones
    •  Inferior conchae
    •  Lacrimal bones
    •  Palatine bones
    •  Zygomatic bones
    •  Vomer
    •  Maxillae 
    •  Mandible
  6. The anterior cranial fossa is separated from the middle cranial fossa by the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. Meanwhile, the middle cranial fossa is separated from the posterior cranial fossa by the petrous part of the temporal bone.




    C) Only the second statement is true.

    The anterior cranial fossa is separated from the middle cranial fossa by the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone.
  7. The optic canal transmits all of the following structures, except:




    C) None of these

    Ophthalmic artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery.
  8. The superior orbital fissure, which is a slit-like opening between the lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid, transmits the following structures, except:




    C) Superior ophthalmic artery

    It should be superior ophthalmic vein. The superior orbital fissure also transmits the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves.
  9. Which of the following is incorrect about foramen rotundum?




    B) It is situated behind the lateral end of the superior orbital fissure.

    It is situated behind the medial end of the superior orbital fissure.
  10. Which of the following is incorrect about foramen ovale?




    C) It perforates the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone.

    It perforates the greater wing of the sphenoid bone.
  11. Which of the following is incorrect about foramen spinosum?




    A) It transmits the anterior meningeal artery from the infratemporal fossa.

    It transmits the middle meningeal artery from the infratemporal fossa.
  12. All of the following structures pass through the medulla oblongata, except:




    A) Vertebral veins

    It should be vertebral arteries.
  13. The hypoglossal canal is situated above the posterolateral boundary of the foramen magnum. This canal transmits the hypoglossal nerve.




    D) Only the second statement is true.

    The hypoglossal canal is situated above the anterolateral boundary of the foramen magnum.
  14. The jugular foramen transmits the following structures, except:




    B) Hypoglossal nerve

    The jugular foramen transmits the 9th, 10th, and 11th cranial nerves.
  15. True or False: The jugular foramen lies between the border of the petrous part of the temporal bone and the condylar part of the occipital bone.
    True
  16. The internal acoustic meatus pierces the anterior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone. It transmits the vestibulocochlear nerve and the sensory root of the facial nerve.




    D) Both statements are false.

    The internal acoustic meatus pierces the posterior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone. It transmits the vestibulocochlear nerve and the motor and sensory roots of the facial nerve.
  17. All of the following are openings found in the middle cranial fossa, except:




    B) Internal acoustic meatus

    Internal acoustic meatus is found in the posterior cranial fossa.

  18. Which of the following pairs below is incorrectly matched?




    D) Foramen lacerum: greater wing of sphenoid

    Foramen ovale, foramen rotundum, and foramen spinosum are found in the greater wing of the sphenoid.

    Foramen lacerum is found between the petrous part of the temporal and sphenoid.
  19. Which structure passes through the foramen lacerum?




    B) Internal carotid artery

    The ophthalmic artery passes through the optic canal.

    The superior ophthalmic vein passes through the superior orbital fissure.

    The middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum.

  20. All of the following openings are found only in the occipital bone, except:




    A) Jugular foramen

    Jugular foramen is found between the petrous part of temporal and the condylar part of occipital.

  21. Fractures of the skull are common in the adult but much less so in the young child because:




    D) Both of these
  22. True or False: A "pond" fracture is commonly seen in children.
    True

    In the young child, the skull may be likened to a table-tennis ball in that a localized blow produces a depression without splintering. This common type of circumscribed lesion is referred to as a "pond" fracture.
  23. Fractures of which cranial fossa usually lead to epistaxis and cerebrospinal rhinorrhea?




    D) Anterior

    In fractures of the anterior cranial fossa, the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone may be damaged. This usually results in tearing of the overlying meninges and underlying mucoperiosteum. The patient will have bleeding from the nose (epistaxis) and leakage of cerebrospinal fluid into the nose (cerebrospinal rhinorrhea).
  24. True or False: Fractures involving the orbital plate of the frontal bone result in hemorrhage beneath the conjunctiva and into the orbital cavity, causing enophthalmos.
    False

    Fractures involving the orbital plate of the frontal bone result in hemorrhage beneath the conjunctiva and into the orbital cavity, causing exophthalmos.
  25. Which cranial fossa is commonly fractured?




    A) Middle

    Fractures of the middle cranial fossa are common, because this is the weakest part of the base of the skull. Anatomically, this weakness is caused by the presence of numerous foramina and canals in this region.
  26. In fractures of the posterior cranial fossa, which cranial nerve is rarely damaged?




    B) Hypoglossal nerve

    The strong bony walls of the hypoglossal canal usually protect the hypoglossal nerve from injury.
  27. The developing bones of a child's face are more pliable than an adult's, and fractures may be complete or greenstick. In adults, the presence of well-developed, air-filled sinuses and the mucoperiosteal surfaces of the alveolar parts of the upper and lower jaw means that most facial fractures should be considered as open fractures.




    A) Only the second statement is true.

    The developing bones of a child's face are more pliable than an adult's, and fractures may be incomplete or greenstick.
  28. Most common facial fracture




    C) Nasal bones

    Fractures of the nasal bones, because of the prominence of the nose, are the most common facial fractures.
  29. Which of the following is not true about the neonatal skull?




    C) The bones are immobile on each other, being connected by fibrous tissue or cartilage.

    The bones are mobile on each other, being connected by fibrous tissue or cartilage.
  30. True or False: The bones of the vault are ossified in membrane.
    True

    Meanwhile, the bones of the base are ossified in cartilage.
  31. Which of the following is not true about the anterior fontanelle?




    B) It is triangular in shape.

    It is diamond in shape.
  32. Which of the following is not true about the posterior fontanelle?




    C) It lies between the two parietal bones in front and two temporal bones behind.

    It lies between the two parietal bones in front and the occipital bone behind.
  33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the neonatal skull?




    B) The internal acoustic meatus is almost entirely cartilaginous.

    The external acoustic meatus is almost entirely cartilaginous.

  34. The mandible has right and left halves at birth, united in the midline with fibrous tissue. The two halves fuse at the symphysis menti by the end of the first year.




    B) Both statements are true.
  35. The cranial vault is composed of the following bones, except?




    C) None of these

    The cranial vault, or skull, is composed of several bones: one frontal, two sphenoid, two parietal, two temporal, and one occipital.
  36. Which is the strongest bone in the cranial vault?




    D) Occipital

    Cranial vault is also known as the skull.
  37. Which is the weakest bone in the skull?




    D) Temporal

    Skull is also known as the cranial vault.
  38. The cranial vault reaches 90 of its ultimate size by age:




    C) 5
  39. True or False: The facial bones develop more slowly than the cranial bones.
    True

    The facial bones develop more slowly than the cranial bones, reaching only 60% of their ultimate size by age 6.
  40. Facial bone which gives the cheek its prominence




    A) Zygomatic bone
  41. Conjunctiva is a transparent membrane covering the following structures, except:




    C) Retina

    Conjunctiva is a transparent membrane covering the cornea, iris, pupil, lens, and sclera.
  42. This structure helps to protect the eye from foreign bodies and desiccation (drying up).




    C) Conjunctiva

    The conjunctiva is a thin membrane covering the majority of the anterior surface of the eye.
  43. Dense white portion of the eye that physically supports the internal structures




    A) Sclera
  44. Which of the following is incorrect about cornea?




    A) It permits transmission of light through the pupil to the retina.

    It permits transmission of light through the lens to the retina.
  45. The iris is a circular, noncontractile disc that controls the amount of light entering the eye. It also contains pigmented cells that give color to the eye.




    C) Only the second statement is true.

    The iris is a circular, contractile muscular disc that controls the amount of light entering the eye.
  46. The lens if a crystalline structure located immediately behind the pupil that permits images from varied distances to be focused on the retina. It is primarily the lens and its supporting ligaments that separate the eye into chambers.




    B) Only the second statement is true.

    The lens if a crystalline structure located immediately behind the iris that permits images from varied distances to be focused on the retina.
  47. Primary sensory structure of the eye




    D) Retina

    The retina is the primary sensory structure of the eye that transforms light impulses into electrical impulses that are then transmitted by the optic nerve to the brain, which interprets the impulses as the objects seen.
  48. The external ear is also known as the:




    D) All of these
  49. The cartilage of the following bones form the roof of the nose, except:




    C) None of these

    The cartilage of the nasal, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones form the roof of the nose.
  50. Which bone contains the sensory fibers of the olfactory nerve?




    B) Ethmoid bone

    The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone contains the sensory fibers of the olfactory nerve.
  51. This muscle moves the pupil upward and laterally.




    A) Inferior oblique

    Inferior oblique is innervated by oculomotor nerve.
  52. This muscle moves the pupil downward and laterally.




    B) Superior oblique

    Superior oblique is innervated by trochlear nerve.
  53. This muscle moves the pupil downward.




    A) Inferior rectus

    Inferior rectus is innervated by oculomotor nerve.
  54. All of the following are characteristics of grade 2 Torg classification of concussion, except:

    A) Posttraumatic amnesia <30 min="" br="">B) Mild tinnitus and dizziness
    C) No loss of consciousness
    D) No or momentary confusion
    D) No or momentary confusion

    It should be slight confusion. No or momentary confusion is a characteristic of grade 1.

  55. Identify the Torg Classification given the following signs and symptoms of concussion.

    Confusion Severe
    Amnesia Posttraumatic amnesia >30 min; retrograde amnesia
    Loss of consciousness Yes (<5 min)
    Tinnitus Severe
    Dizziness Severe
    Personality changes Possible
    Post-concussion syndrome Possible
    Headache Often
    Blurred vision Not usually





    C) Grade 4

    There is no grade 6 in Torg classification.

  56. Torg classification of concussion without posttraumatic amnesia




    D) Grade 1

    There is no grade 0 in Torg classification of concussion. Grade 2 has posttraumatic amnesia lasting less than 30 minutes.

  57. The presence of this sign or symptom distingushes grade 5 Torg classification.




    A) Blurred vision

  58. Which of the following is incorrect about post-concussion syndrome?




    D) It is not self-limiting.

    Post-concussion syndrome is self-limiting.
  59. All of the following are characteristics of prolonged post-concussion syndrome, except:




    A) Elevated concussion threshold

    It should be lowered concussion threshold.
  60. With a grade ____ concussion, the patient loses consciousness for 5 minutes or less.




    C) IV

  61. With a grade ___ concussion, the patient has experienced a paralytic coma or unconsciousness for 5 minutes or longer.




    D) V

    There is no grade VI concussion.

  62. All of the following are usual causes of acute headache, except:




    D) Subdural hemorrhage

    It should be subarachnoid hemorrhage.

  63. All of the following are usual causes of chronic, recurrent headache, except:




    B) None of these

    Migraine (definite pattern of irregular interval) and inadequate ventilation can also cause chronic, recurrent headache.

  64. All of the following are usual causes of severe, intense headache, except:




    A) Aneurysm

    It should be ruptured aneurysm.

  65. What type of pain is associated with neuralgia?




    C) Both of these

  66. All of the following are usual causes of headache localized to the forehead, except:




    C) None of these

  67. All of the following are usual causes of headache localized to the occipital region, except:




    D) Trigeminal neuralgia

    It should be occipital neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia manifests in the face.

  68. All of the following are usual causes of headache localized to the side of the head, except:




    C) Occipital neuralgia

    It should be auriculotemporal neuralgia. Occipital neuralgia manifests in the occipital region.
  69. All of the following are usual causes of headache localized to the parietal region, except:




    C) None of these

    Tumor also causes headache in the parietal region.

  70. All of the following are usual causes of headaches which are worst in the morning, except:




    C) Hypotension

    It should be hypertension.

  71. All of the following are usual causes of headaches which are worst in the afternoon, except:




    B) Sinusitis

    Sinusitis is usually worst in the morning.

  72. All of the following are usual causes of headaches which are worst at night, except:




    D) Sleeping position

    Headache brought about by sleeping position is usually worst in the morning.

  73. Headache which is aggravated by bending is usually caused by:




    B) Sinusitis

  74. Headache which is aggravated by lying horizontal is usually caused by:




    B) Migraine

  75. If the facial nerve is injured, the entire side of the face is affected, although the most noticeable differences will occur around one eye and one side of the mouth. If only one side of the mouth is affected, what cranial nerve is most likely to be injured?




    C) Trigeminal
  76. "Raccoon eyes," which are purple discoloration of the eyelids and orbital regions, may indicate:




    D) All of these

    "Raccoon eyes" takes several hours to develop.
  77. All of the following suggest facial nerve involvement, except:




    D) Sagging of the upper eyelid

    It should be sagging of the lower eyelid. Sagging of the upper eyelid is associated with injury to the oculomotor nerve.
  78. Which of the following is not true about the Battle sign?




    B) None of these
  79. The following may indicate the presence of a basilar skull fracture:




    D) Both of these
  80. All of the following are signs and symptoms of maxillary and zygomatic fractures, except:




    C) Hyperesthesia

    It should be hypoesthesia or anesthesia on the cheek, side of nose, upper lip, and teeth on the injured side.

  81. An expanding intracranial lesion may result from a leaking or torn blood vessel. All of the following are possible causes of such lesions, except:




    C) Subdural hemorrhage from tearing of bridging veins between the brain and carotid sinus

    It should be subdural hemorrhage from tearing of bridging veins between the brain and cavernous sinus.
  82. All of the following may indicate an expanding intracranial lesion, except:




    C) Tachycardia

    It should be bradycardia, which primarily occurs after a lucid interval.
  83. All of the following are signs and symptoms of an expanding intracranial lesion, except:




    D) Weakness on the same side of the body

    It should be weakness on the side of the body opposite than on which the lesion has occurred.

  84. Which of the following is not true about Le Fort classification?




    B) With a Le Fort III fracture, the middle third of the face separates from the lower third of the face.

    With a Le Fort III fracture, the middle third of the face separates from the upper third of the face. This is often called a craniofacial separation.

  85. This muscle compresses the lips against anterior teeth




    D) Orbicularis oris

  86. Flares the nostril




    C) Both of these

  87. Action/s of the orbicularis oculi




    C) Both of these

    The palpebral part of the orbicularis oculi closes the eye gently, whereas the orbital part closes the eye forcefully.

  88. Action/s of mentalis




    D) Both of these

  89. All of the following muscles are innervated by the zygomatic and buccal branches of the facial nerve, except:




    C) Zygomaticus minor

    It should be zygomaticus major.

  90. Which muscle is innervated by zygomatic, buccal, and mandibular branches of the facial nerve?




    B) Orbicularis oris

  91. Which of the following is not true about temporomandibular joint?




    C) Rotation or hinge movement occurs in the upper cavity of the joint, whereas gliding, translation, or sliding movement occurs in the lower cavity.

    Gliding, translation, or sliding movement occurs in the upper cavity of the joint, whereas rotation or hinge movement occurs in the lower cavity.
  92. Position assumed by the jaw in swallowing




    D) Centric occlusion

    Centric occlusion is the relation of the jaw and teeth when there is maximum contact of the teeth.
  93. Position in which the teeth are fully interdigitated




    A) Medial occlusal position
  94. What is the resting position of the temporomandibular joint?




    B) Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact

  95. Skeleton of the tongue




    C) Hyoid

    The hyoid bone, found in the anterior throat region, is sometimes referred to as the skeleton of the tongue. It serves as an attachment for the extrinsic tongue muscles and infrahyoid muscles.
  96. The temporomandibular joints are innervated by:




    D) Mandibular nerve

    The temporomandibular joints are innervated by branches of the auriculotemporal and masseteric branches of the mandibular nerve.
  97. True or False: The articular disc found in the temporomandibular joint is innervated in its intermediate zone.
    False

    The articular disc found in the temporomandibular joint is innervated along its periphery but is aneural and avascular in its intermediate (force-bearing) zone.
  98. This ligament restrains movement of the lower jaw and prevents compression of the tissues behind the condyle.




    C) Temporomandibular ligament

    Temporomandibular ligament is also known as the lateral ligament.
  99. This ligament is a thickening in the joint capsule of the temporomandibular joint.




    D) Lateral ligament

    Lateral ligament is also known as the temporomandibular ligament.
  100. Ligament/s which act as "guiding" restraints to keep the condyle, disc, and temporal bone firmly opposed




    D) All except temporomandibular ligament
  101. This ligament is a specialized band of deep cerebral fascia with thickening of the parotid fascia.




    C) Stylomandibular ligament
  102. During flexion of the neck, the mandible moves:




    A) Up and forward

    During extension of the neck, the mandible moves down and backward.
  103. True or False: With opening and closing of the mouth, both the temporomandibular joints are working in unison with no asymmetry or sideways movement.
    True

    In addition, both temporomandibular joints are bilaterally rotating and translating equally.
  104. Which of the following is not true about the opening of the mouth?




    A) Most of the clicking sensations occur during the first phase.

    The second phase of mouth opening begins when the tongue loses contact with the roof of the mouth. Most of the clicking sensations occur during this phase.
  105. True or False: If deviation occurs to the left on opening, it is called a C-type curve.
    True

    If the deviation occurs to the right on opening, it is called a reverse C-type curve.
  106. True or False: With C-type and reverse C-type curves, hypermobility is evident toward the side of deviation.
    False

    With C-type and reverse C-type curves, hypomobility is evident toward the side of deviation. This hypomobility is either caused by a displaced disc without reduction or unilateral muscle hypomobility.
  107. If the deviation upon mouth opening is an S-type or a reverse S-type curves, the most likely causes are:




    A) Muscle imbalance

    S-type or reverse S-type curves are usually caused by muscle imbalance or medial displacement as the condyle "walks around" the disc on the affected side.
  108. Early deviation on mouth opening is usually caused by capsulitis or a tight capsule. Meanwhile, late deviation on mouth opening is usually caused by muscle spasm.




    C) Both statements are false.

    Early deviation on mouth opening is usually caused by muscle spasm. Meanwhile, late deviation on mouth opening is usually caused by capsulitis or a tight capsule.
  109. Functional or full active opening of mouth




    C) 35 to 55 mm

    Normally, only about 25 to 35 mm of opening is needed for everyday activity.
  110. If translation does not occur, the mandible may still open up to ___ mm as a result of rotation.




    B) 30
  111. True or False: If the clicking upon mouth opening is eliminated with protrusion and accentuated with retrusion, it is likely the problem is an anterior disc displacement without reduction.
    False

    f the clicking upon mouth opening is eliminated with protrusion and accentuated with retrusion, it is likely the problem is an anterior disc displacement with reduction. Anterior disc displacement without reduction cannot be determined as confidently.
  112. The normal movement is more than ___ mm, measured from the resting position to the protruded position.




    A) 7
  113. Normal retrusion of the mandible




    B) 3 to 4 mm
  114. Normal lateral deviation of the mandible




    B) 10 to 15 mm

    Lateral deviation is also known as excursion.
  115. During excursion of the mandible, the opposite condyle moves:




    D) Forward, down, and toward the motion side

    Excursion is also known as lateral deviation.
  116. True or False: During lateral deviation of the mandible, the condyle on the motion side remains relatively stationary and becomes more prominent.
    True

    For example, the left condyle on left lateral deviation or excursion, remains relatively stationary and becomes more prominent.
  117. Normal end feel of mouth opening:




    B) Tissue stretch

  118. All of the following muscles are responsible for depression of the mandible, except:




    C) Stylohyoid

    It should be mylohyoid. Depression of the mandible is synonymous with opening of the mouth.

  119. All of the following muscles are responsible for occlusion, except:




    B) Lateral pterygoid

    Occlusion is synonymous with opening of the mouth and elevation of the mandible.

  120. All of the following muscles protrude the mandible, except:




    C) Temporalis (posterior fibers)

    It should be temporalis (anterior fibers).

  121. The following muscles can open the mouth only when assistance is required, except:




    C) Lateral pterygoid

  122. The following muscles retract the mandible, except:




    C) External pterygoid

  123. Which of the following muscles can close the mouth only when assistance is required?




    D) None of these

  124. All of the following muscles are responsible for lateral deviation of the mandible, except:




    D)  Contralateral external pterygoid

    • During lateral deviation of the mandible towards, the following muscles are active:
    •   1. Lateral (external) pterygoid (ipsilateral)
    •   2. Medial (internal) pterygoid (contralateral)
    •   3. Temporalis*
    •   4. Masseter*

  125. Nerve supply of lateral pterygoid




    C) Mandibular (CN V)
  126. Nerve supply of digastric




    D) Facial (CN VII)

    The anterior belly of digastric is innervated by inferior alveolar (CN V), whereas the posterior belly of digastric is innervated by facial (CN VII).
  127. Nerve supply of geniohyoid




    C) Hypoglossal (CN XII)
  128. Nerve supply of temporalis




    C) Mandibular (CN V)

    The anterior and posterior fibers of the temporalis are both supplied by mandibular (CN V).
  129. Referral pattern of masseter




    D) Cheek, mandible to forehead or ear

  130. Referral pattern of digastric




    C) Lateral cervical spine to posterolateral skull

  131. Referral pattern of medial pterygoid




    B) None of these

    It should be posterior mandible to temporomandibular joint.

  132. Temporomandibular disc dysfunction: reciprocal click present (early on opening, late on closing)




    B) Stage 2

  133. Most painful stage in temporomandibular disc dysfunction




    D) Stage 3

    There is no stage 5 in temporomandibular disc dysfunction.

  134. Temporomandibular disc dysfunction: no pain




    A) Stage 4

    Stage 1 may have mild or no pain.

  135. Temporomandibular disc dysfunction: click rare




    C) Stage 4

  136. C6




    C) Both of these
  137. A patient is referred to physical therapy for stretching of right sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the most effective method to stretch this muscle?




    A) Extension, ipsilateral rotation, and contralateral side bending
  138. What is the anterior border of the supraclavicular triangle?




    C) None of these

    It should be posterior border of SCM.

  139. At this point, the anterior fontanelle is already closed.




    D) 18 months

    The anterior fontanelle closes between 18 and 24 months, whereas the posterior fontanelle closes between 9 and 12 months.
  140. It is the landmark where the lambdoidal and sagittal sutures meet.




    C) Lambda

    Once the posterior fontanelle closes, it will become the lambda.
  141. Muscle for sneering




    D) Levator anguli oris

    The levator anguli oris elevates the angle of the mouth.
  142. Which of the following muscles is not innervated by CN XII?




    B) Palatoglossus

    Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X via the stylopharyngeus plexus.
  143. Arthrokinematics for right mandibular excursion




    B) Right rotation and left translation

    Remember: "IpsiROT ContraTRANS". Mandibular excursion is also known as lateral deviation.
  144. Depression at the root of the nose




    A) None of these

    It should be nasion. Basion refers to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum.
  145. The PT instructed the patient to perform cervical flexion. This is produced by the unilateral action of:




    C) Neither

    Cervical flexion is a bilateral action of the sternocleidomastoid and scalenes.
  146. Level of thyroid cartilage




    A) C4
  147. This ligament connects the hyoid bone to the skull.




    C) Stylohyoid ligament
  148. What is the minimum amount of mouth opening required for mastication?




    C) None of these

    It should be 18 mm.
  149. Muscle responsible for mandibular retrusion




    C) Posterior fibers of temporalis

    Anterior and superior fibers of temporalis are responsible for mandibular protrusion.
  150. Fracture of odontoid process of C2 is called:




    D) Teardrop fracture
  151. Hangman fracture involves which specific part of the axis?




    B) Lamina
  152. Fracture of the atlas is called:




    D) Jefferson fracture
  153. Thinnest portion of the lateral skull




    D) Pterion
  154. This artery is located beneath the pterion.




    C) Middle meningeal artery
  155. Normal range for mandibular depression




    B) 35-55 mm

    Mandibular depression is also known as mouth opening.
  156. Superior border of the carotid triangle




    C) Posterior belly of digastrics

  157. A patient has LOM upon left mandibular excursion. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?




    B) Both

    Both of these muscles are opposing mandibular excursion towards the left.
  158. A patient has weakness of left mandibular excursion. Which of the following muscles should be strengthened?




    A) Neither

    With weakness of left mandibular excursion, the right medial pterygoid and the left lateral pterygoid should be strengthened.
  159. The normal arthrokinematics for mouth opening is:




    C) Bilateral anterior rotation followed by bilateral anterior translation

    At the first 26 mm of mouth opening, bilateral anterior rotation occurs. Afterwards, bilateral anterior translation occurs.
  160. Muscle/s for distaste




    B) Procerus

    Procerus is also the muscle for disgust.
  161. Muscle/s for frowning




    C) Corrugator supercilii
  162. What is the outermost layer of the scalp?




    D) Skin
  163. What is the outermost layer of the skull?




    B) Periosteum

    Periosteum, also known as pericranium, is the innermost layer of the scalp.
  164. The suture connecting the temporal and parietal bones is:




    C) Squamosal suture
  165. A patient arrived on a physical therapy clinic manifesting with click upon mouth closure. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?




    D) TMJ displacement
  166. What is the most likely direction of TMJ dislocation?




    D) Anterior
  167. A patient has a torticollis involving the right sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the position of the patient's cervical spine?




    A) Right lateral flexion and left rotation
  168. Normal amount of mandibular retrusion




    D) 4 mm

    The normal amount of mandibular retrusion is 3-4 mm.
  169. Inferior border of submental triangle




    C) Hyoid bone

  170. Unpaired facial bone




    D) Vomer

    Vomer and mandible are unpaired facial bones.
  171. Muscle/s responsible for eye opening, except:




    C) Orbicularis oculi

    Orbicularis oris is responsible for eye closing.
  172. Anterior border of occipital triangle




    D) Posterior border of SCM

  173. All of the following are clinical manifestations of TMJ capsulitis, except:




    A) Presence of swelling

    There is no swelling in TMJ capsulitis.
  174. All of the following muscles are not innervated by ansa cervicalis, except:




    C) Sternothyroid

    Omohyoid, sternohyoid, and sternothyroid are innervated by ansa cervicalis.
  175. A patient arrived on a physical therapy clinic manifesting with click upon mouth opening. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?




    A) TMJ disc displacement
  176. A patient has CN VII damage. Which of the following muscle would not manifest weakness?




    B) Anterior belly of digastrics

    Anterior belly of digastrics is innervated by CN V.
  177. What is the normal arthrokinematics for mandibular elevation?




    A) Bilateral posterior translation followed by bilateral posterior rotation
  178. Muscle/s the move the eyeball medially




    D) Medial rectus

    Inferior oblique, medial rectus, and superior oblique muscles move the eyeball medially.
  179. This ligament is commonly subluxed in rheumatoid arthritis.




    D) Transverse ligament

    Transverse ligament is also commonly subluxed in Down syndrome, leading to atlanto-axial instability.
  180. All of the following may lead to the laxity of transverse ligament, except:




    D) None of these
  181. This structure connects the occipitalis and frontalis muscles.




    A) Galea aponeurotics
  182. Which of the following is not true about temporomandibular joint?




    D) When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forward onto the articular eminence.

    When the mouth is opened, the convex condyle rides forward onto the articular eminence.
  183. A patient had an injury on his scalp, damaging the emissary veins. What layer of the scalp is most likely to be affected?




    D) Loose areolar tissue
  184. A patient has difficulty looking towards his nose. What cranial nerve is most likely to be damaged?




    D) CN IV

    CN IV innervates the superior oblique, which moves the eyeballs downward and inward.
  185. A patient has excessive mouth opening and contralateral excursion. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?




    C) None of these

    This patient most likely has TMJ hypermobility.
  186. The following are muscles of mastication, except:




    D) Orbicularis oris

    Orbicularis oris is a facial muscle, which compresses the lips together.
  187. A patient has weakness of right cervical lateral flexion and left cervical rotation. Which of the following muscles should be strengthened?




    C) Right sternocleidomastoid
  188. A patient has LOM towards left cervical lateral flexion and left cervical rotation. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?




    C) Right scalenes
  189. Muscle responsible for tongue depression




    D) Hyoglossus

    Palatoglossus is for tongue elevation; genioglossus is for tongue protrusion; and styloglossus is for tongue retraction.
  190. The carotid triangle is bordered by the following structures:
     
     I. Inferior fibers of omohyoid
     II. Anterior border of SCM
     III. Posterior border of SCM
     IV. Anterior belly of digastrics
      V. Posterior belly of digastrics




    C) II and V

  191. Nerve supply to scalp, lateral area of head, and posterior aspect of external auditory meatus




    D) Lesser occipital nerve
  192. Nerve supply to posterior scalp, occiput, temporal region, and vertex




    A) Greater occipital nerve
  193. EGAD muscle




    C) Platysma
  194. A patient presents with chronic restriction of the temporomandibular joint. The physical therapist observes the situation seen in the picture during mouth opening range of motion assessment. What is the best intervention if the patient has a classic TMJ unilateral capsular restriction?






    A) Right TMJ; inferior glide manipulation

    In the photo, the chin has deviated to the right at terminal mouth opening. The AROM will be limited with ipsilateral opening and a lateral deviation to the side of restriction for patients with a TMJ capsular pattern of restriction. Superior glide manipulation would compress the joint, not affording a stretch to the tight capsule.
  195. What are the signs and symptoms of an acute TMJ anterior displaced disc without reduction?




    B) Absence of clicking and mouth opening limited to 26 to 30 mm; lateral movements limited to contralateral side; deflection to same side with protrusion

    For example, the right TMJ is locked. Anterior translation occurs after the first 26 mm; therefore, opening will be restricted to 26 mm and deflection will occur to the right  (same side). Lateral movement towards the left (opposite side) will be restricted because the right TMJ cannot translate. Protrusion will deflect to the right side (same side) and be restricted.
  196. What is a reasonable rehabilitation goal for active opening after arthroscopy of the TMJ on anterior disc displacement without reduction?




    A) Opening to 38 mm

    38 mm is a reasonable opening range for function.
  197. What is the best evidence based intervention for a painful anterior displaced disc with reduction in the TMJ?




    D) Exercises that avoid painful click such as hinge axis and midline opening

    Add stabilization exercises within the click-free range. These patients may need anterior stabilization splinting if painful clicking and catching persists.
  198. When is a dental splint not indicated for a patient with TMJ dysfunction?




    C) Anterior disc displacement without reduction

    A locked joint will not unlock by using a splint.
  199. What is the long-term prognosis for an anterior disc displacement without reduction without surgery of the TMJ?




    B) With or without surgery, the joint will adapt and have functional opening with little or no pain.

    Arthroscopy has not been found to be better than physical therapy in the treatment of reduced jaw ROM and pain due to intra-articular disease.
  200. What is the best intervention for an acute anterior displaced disc without reduction?




    B) Aggressive PT to manipulate the joint to unlock in 3 to 4 visits

    To alleviate a close locked disorder, aggressive PT may mobilize the joint to unlock in 3 or 4 visits. The disc may not have permanent deformation changes or adhesions form, if the patient is young and the mobilization is done early. If unsuccessful, additional less aggressive PT would be indicated to decrease joint inflammation, or a surgical consult may be necessary.
  201. What is dental trismus?




    A) Muscle spasm of the TMJ

    Dental trismus may be due to muscle spasm or to abnormally short jaw muscles. There is an inability to open the jaw fully.
  202. Trismus, a condition commmonly encountered by patients with head and neck cancer, results in:




    D) All of these

    Trismus, a condition seen as a sequela of radiation therapy in head and neck cancer, is the inability to open the mouth fully as a result of spasm in the masseter and lateral pterygoid muscles. In addition, radiation therapy can affect the surrounding local connective tissue, which contributes to the spasm.
  203. Trismus, a condition that is common in patients with head and neck cancer who have had radiation therapy, is due to:




    A) Ectopic activity in the trigeminal nerve

    Radiation-induced ectopic activity in the trigeminal nerve leads to neuropathic pain, weakness, and spasm of the masseter muscle.
  204. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the trigeminal nerve?




    A) It is responsible for the sensation of cornea.
  205. Which of the following does not apply to scalene muscles?




    D) Anterior and middle scalenes elevate the 2nd rib.

    Anterior and middle scalenes elevate the 1st rib, whereas posterior scalene elevates the 2nd rib.
  206. Muscle/s inserted in the front part of the sclera:




    C) Superior rectus

    The superior rectus attaches to the superoanterior porton of the sclera; the inferior rectus attaches to the inferoanterior portion of the sclera; and the lateral rectus attaches to the anterolateral portion of the sclera.
  207. Muscle/s that insert in the back part of the sclera:




    A) Both
  208. This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the subject bites down.




    D) Temporalis
  209. To palpate the superficial part of this muscle, place the index finger under the zygomatic arch and over the ramus of the mandible, and then ask the subject to bite down.




    B) Masseter
  210. May be palpated extraorally by placing the index finger just superior to the ramus at the level of the mandibular angle and having the subject gently close the jaw




    D) Internal pterygoid

    Internal pterygoid is also known as medial pterygoid.
  211. Bump of knowledge




    D) Inion
  212. Lateral border of submental triangle




    C) Anterior belly of digastrics

  213. During examination of the jaw opening pattern of a patient with temporomandibular joint problem, the therapist notes early protrusion of the mandible. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this?




    D) Condylar translation

    Protrusion involves the arthrokinematic movement of anterior condylar translation. Mandibular depression (jaw opening) involves both condylar anterior rotation and translation. However, this question is asking only about the protrusion component.
  214. Which layer of the scalp contain veins which connect the veins of the scalp to the diploic veins and intracranial venous sinuses?




    D) Loose areolar connective tissue

    The loose areolar connective tissue contains emissary veins, which connect the veins of the scalp to the diploic veins and intracranial venous sinuses.

  215. "Danger area" of the scalp




    D) Loose areolar connective tissue

    The loose areolar connective tissue contains emissary veins, which are valveless veins which connect the extracranial veins of the scalp to the intracranial dural venous sinuses. The emissary veins are a potential pathway for the spread of infection from the scalp to the intracranial space.
  216. Deep lacerations to the scalp tend to bleed profusely for several reasons. These are the following, except:




    C) The blood vessels of the scalp are adhered to the loose connective tissue, preventing the vasoconstriction that normally occurs in response to damage.

    The blood vessels of the scalp are adhered to the dense connective tissue, preventing the vasoconstriction that normally occurs in response to damage.
  217. In a scalp laceration, the resting tone of this muscle inhibits the closure of the bleeding vessel and surrounding skin.




    A) Occipitofrontalis
  218. Which nerve supplies the area of the scalp posterior to the pinna?




    C) Lesser occipital nerve

    The auriculotemporal nerve supplies the skin anterosuperior to the pinna, while the zygomaticotemporal nerve supplies supplies the skin over the temple.
  219. The anterior cranial fossa consists of three bones:




    B) Frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid

  220. This cranial bone contains the main foramina of the anterior cranial fossa.




    C) Ethmoid

    The cribriform plate is a sheet of bone seen on either side of the crista galli which contains numerous small foramina that transmit olfactory nerve fibers into the nasal cavity.
  221. What is the thinnest part of the anterior cranial fossa?




    C) Cribriform plate

    The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone is the thinnest part of the anterior cranial fossa, and therefore most likely to fracture. A cribriform plate fracture can result to anosmia (loss of sense of smell) and CSF rhinorrhea (leakage of CSF into nasal cavity).
  222. Which cranial bone makes up the majority of the lateral boundary of the anterior cranial fossa?




    A) Frontal

    The frontal bone contributes to the anterior and lateral boundaries.

    The limbus of the sphenoid bone contributes to the posterior and medial boundaries.

    The lesser wings of the sphenoid bone contributes to the posterior and lateral boundaries.
  223. The greater petrosal nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?




    C) Facial
  224. The lesser petrosal nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?




    D) Glossopharyngeal
  225. Which of the following does not contribute to the floor of the middle cranial fossa?




    C) Dorsum sellae of sphenoid
  226. What structure lies in the center of the middle cranial fossa?




    A) Pituitary gland

    The central part of the middle cranial fossa is formed by the bony of the sphenoid. It contains the sella turcica, which is a saddle-shaped bony prominence that holds and supports the pituitary gland.
  227. Deepest of the cranial fossae




    A) Posterior

    The posterior cranial fossa is the deepest of the three cranial fossae. It accommodates the brainstem and cerebellum.
  228. What is the largest foramen in the skull?




    B) Foramen magnum

    The foramen magnum, a large opening that lies centrally in the floor of the posterior cranial fossa, transmits the medulla, meninges, vertebral arteries, spinal accessory nerve (ascending), dural veins, and anterior and posterior spinal arteries.
  229. The jugular foramina transmits the following structures, except:




    B) Spinal accessory nerve (ascending)

    The jugular foramina transmits the spinal accessory nerve (descending), whereas the foramen magnum transmits the spinal accessory nerve (ascending). Other structures that pass through the jugular foramina are the vagus nerve, inferior petrosal sinus, and meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal and occipital arteries.
  230. Cerebellar tonsillar herniation is the downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum secondary to an increased intracranial pressure. Cerebellar tonsillar herniation results in the compression of midbrain and medulla, which contain the cardiac and respiratory centers.




    C) Only the first statement is true.

    Cerebellar tonsillar herniation results in the compression of pons and medulla, which contain the cardiac and respiratory centers.
  231. Which of the following does not contribute to the floor of the posterior cranial fossa?




    B) Petrous part of temporal bone

    The petrous part of the temporal bone forms the floor of the middle cranial fossa.
  232. The posterior superior alveolar nerve, which travels through the pterygomaxillary fissure, is a branch of which nerve?




    A) Maxillary nerve
  233. What is the largest parasympathetic ganglion?




    D) Pterygopalatine

    The pterygopalatine ganglion is predominantly innervated by the greater petrosal branch of the facial nerve.
  234. Artery of epistaxis




    B) Sphenopalatine artery

    In cases of chronic epistaxis, the pterygopalatine fossa can be surgically approached via the maxillary sinus, and the artery ligated to control bleeding.
  235. Which cranial nerve fossa transmits the mandibular nerve from the cranial cavity to the infratemporal fossa?




    D) Foramen ovale
  236. Which vessel arises from the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa?




    B) Middle meningeal

    The middle meningeal artery arises from the maxillary artery, and exits the infratemporal fossa via the foramen spinosum.
  237. This muscle of mastication splits the contents of the infratemporal fossa into half - the branches of the mandibular nerve lay deep to this muscle, while the maxillary artery is superficial to it.




    C) Lateral pterygoid

    Meanwhile, the medial pterygoid forms the floor of the infratemporal fossa.
  238. Pterion is the point where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet. Trauma in this region can lead to a subdural hemorrhage as the middle meningeal artery lies deep to it.




    C) Only the first statement is true.

    Trauma in this region can lead to a epidural hemorrhage as the middle meningeal artery lies deep to it.

  239. This structure demarks a safe area to begin traditional drilling approach during a cortical mastoidectomy.




    B) Suprameatal triangle

    The suprameatal triangle is also known as MacEwen's triangle or mastoid fossa.
  240. Which of the following structures is found within the mastoid fossa?




    D) None of the above

    The mastoid fossa does not contain any important structure.
  241. The mastoid fossa is an anatomical landmark for which structure during middle ear surgery?




    A) Mastoid antrum

    The mastoid fossa, also known as MacEwen's or suprameatal triangle, overlies the mastoid antrum, the largest of the mastoid air cells.
  242. The calvarium is made up of the following cranial bones, except:




    D) Temporal

    The calvarium is also known as the cranial roof. Meanwhile, all six cranial bones contribute to the formation of the cranial base.
  243. Which cranial bone is sometimes included as part of the facial skeleton?




    D) Frontal

    The frontal bone, typically a bone of the calvaria, is sometimes included as part of the facial skeleton.
  244. What is the smallest facial bone?




    D) Lacrimal
  245. This facial bone increases the surface area of the nasal cavity, thus increasing the amount of inspired air that can come into contact with the cavity walls.




    C) Inferior nasal concha
  246. What is the most commonly fractured facial bone?




    D) Nasal

    The nasal bone is the most commonly fractured facial bone due to its prominent position at the bridge of the nose. There is often significant soft tissue swelling and associated epistaxis.
  247. Fractures of this facial bone can be classified using the Le Fort classifications I to III.




    A) Maxillary
  248. Sutures of the skull completely fuse by the age of:




    D) 20
  249. A patient is seen in ED following a blow to the side of the head. CT scan demonstrates a fracture at the site of the pterion and a hematoma between the skull and the dura mater. Which vessel is the most likely source of bleeding?




    C) Middle meningeal artery
  250. The frontal fontanelle represents the junction of the ___________ and ___________ sutures.




    C) Coronal; sagittal

    Meanwhile, the occipital fontanelle represents the junction of the sagittal and lambdoid sutures.

  251. The orbital rim is formed by the:




    D) Frontal, zygomatic, maxillary
  252. A blowout fracture refers to the partial herniation of the orbital contents through one of its walls. The medial and inferior orbital walls are the weakest, with the contents herniating into the ethmoid and maxillary sinuses respectively.




    C) Both statements are true.
  253. Which of the following bones does not contribute to the floor of the orbit?




    A) Frontal

    The frontal bone makes up the roof of the orbit.
  254. Which of the following structures does not pass through the inferior orbital fissure?




    C) Optic nerve

    The optic nerve, together with the ophthalmic artery, enters the bony orbit via the optic canal.
  255. Buttefly-shaped cranial bone




    D) Sphenoid

    The sphenoid bone is said to be butterfly-shaped. It consists of a body, paired greater and lesser wings, and two pterygoid processes.
  256. The foramen spinosum conducts the middle meningeal vessels. Where in the sphenoid bone is it found?




    D) Greater wing

    There are three foramina present in the greater wing of the sphenoid - the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum.
  257. Through this cranial bone, pituitary adenomas can be accessed without the need for a more extensive craniotomy.




    C) Sphenoid

    This type of surgery is known as endoscopic transsphenoidal surgery.
  258. The ethmoidal air cells are contained within which component of the ethmoid bone?




    B) Ethmoidal labyrinths
  259. Which structure attaches to the crista galli of the ethmoid bone?




    C) Falx cerebri

    The falx cerebri is a fold of dura mater that descends vertically in the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres. It attaches anteriorly at the crista galli.
  260. The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone forms what part of the nasal septum?




    A) Superior 2/3
  261. What is the largest part of the temporal bone?




    A) Squamous
  262. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the mastoid process of the temporal bone?




    D) Masseter

    The masseter attaches to the lateral zygomatic process of the temporal bone, while the temporalis attaches to the inferior part of the squamous portion of the temporal bone.
  263. What is the largest facial bone?




    D) Mandible
  264. What is the strongest facial bone?




    A) Mandible
  265. The alveolar border refers to which border of the mandibular body?




    B) Superior

    The alveolar border contains 16 sockets to hold the lower teeth.
  266. Which foramen is located on the body of the mandible?




    C) Mandibular foramen
  267. Which nerve passes through the mandibular foramen?




    B) Inferior alveolar nerve

    When the inferior alveolar nerve leaves the mandibular foramen, it becomes the mental nerve.
  268. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the external surface of the body of the mandible?




    D) Digastric

    The digastric attaches to the internal surface of the body of the mandible. Other muscles which attach to the external surface of the body of the mandible are platysma and depressor anguli oris.

  269. The muscles of mastication attach to which specific part of the mandible?




    D) Rami

    The masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids attach to the mandibular rami.

  270. Which facial bone forms the posterior aspect of the nasal septum?




    A) Vomer
  271. Which specific compartment of the jugular foramen transmits the glossopharyngeal nerve, vagus nerve, and cranial part of the accessory nerve?




    C) Middle

    The anterior compartment transmits the inferior petrosal sinus, while the posterior compartment contains the sigmoid sinus and transmits the meningeal branches of the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.
  272. The spinal part of the accessory nerve ascends through the foramen magnum to join the cranial part. Once combined, the completed nerve exits through the jugular foramen.




    D) Both statements are true.
  273. The optic canal travels through which bone of the skull?




    B) Sphenoid

    The optic canal is bounded medially by the body of the sphenoid and laterally by the lesser wing of the sphenoid.
  274. This cranial foramina provides a connection between the middle cranial fossa and the pterygopalatine fossa.




    D) Foramen rotundum

    The foramen rotundum transmits the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
  275. Which of the following structures is not conducted by the foramen spinosum?




    A) Nasociliary nerve

    The nasociliary nerve is conducted by the superior orbital fissure.
  276. Which of the following is not true about the actions of genioglossus?




    B) The superior fibers draw the tip of the tongue up and back.

    The superior fibers of the genioglossus draw the tip of the tongue down and back.
  277. What branch of the trigeminal nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?




    A) Lingual nerve
  278. The "pit" in the posterior midline of the tongue is known as the foramen ___________.




    D) Cecum

    The foramen cecum is a blind-ended pit located in the midline of the tongue at the junction of the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3.
  279. Which of the following structures attaches the inferior aspect of the tongue to the oral mucosa?




    A) Frenulum
  280. Which nerve is responsible for the majority of taste sensation?




    A) Facial nerve

    The chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
  281. The muscles listed below are all associated with movements of the nose. Which muscle is located most superiorly on the face?




    B) Procerus

    The procerus also lies superficially to the other muscles of facial expression.
  282. The muscles of facial expression develop from the _________ pharyngeal arch.




    C) 2nd

    Thus, muscles of facial expression are innervated by the facial nerve.
  283. The muscles of mastication develop from the ___________ pharyngeal arch.




    A) 1st

    Thus, the muscles of mastication are innervated by a branch of the trigeminal nerve, the mandibular nerve.
  284. What is the most powerful muscle of mastication?




    B) Masseter

    The masseter is quadrangular in shape and has two parts: deep and superficial.
  285. This muscle is covered by a tough fascia which can be harvested surgically and used to repair perforated tympanic membrane, an operation known as myringoplasty.




    B) Temporalis
  286. The levator palpebrae superioris is the only muscle involved in raising the superior eyelid. A small portion of this muscle contains a collection of smooth muscle fibers known as the superior tarsal muscle.




    D) Both statements are true.

    In contrast to the levator palpebrae superioris, the superior tarsal muscle is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system.
  287. The recti muscles characteristically originate from the common tendinous ring. This is a ring of fibrous tissue, which surrounds the optic canal at the back of the orbit.




    C) Both statements are true.

  288. This extraocular muscle originates from the body of the sphenoid and its tendon passes through a trochlea and then attaches to the sclera of the eye, posterior to the superior rectus.




    D) Superior oblique

  289. The inferior oblique originates from the anterior aspect of the orbital floor and attaches to the sclera of the eye, posterior to which muscle?




    D) Lateral rectus

  290. Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion of the head?




    C) Parotid ganglion

    The parasympathetic ganglion associated with the parotid gland is the otic ganglion.
  291. Which cranial nerve is associated with the superior salivatory nucleus?




    B) Facial nerve

    The superior salivatory nucleus receives pre-ganglionic fibers from the greater petrosal nerve, a branch of the facial nerve.
  292. Which of the following parasympathetic nuclei has no post-ganglionic fibers?




    B) Dorsal motor nucleus
  293. Adie's pupil result to damage to which parasympathetic ganglion?




    C) Ciliary

    The ciliary ganglion provides innervation to the sphincter pupillae muscle. If this ganglion is damaged, there loss of innervation to the sphincter pupillae, resulting to a permanently dilated pupil that does not constrict in the presence of light. This is known as Adie's pupil.
  294. The postganglionic fibers of this parasympathetic ganglion hitchhike on the branches of the maxillary nerve, a division of the trigeminal nerve.




    D) Pterygopalatine

    Pterygopalatine ganglion is also known as the sphenopalatine ganglion.
  295. Which cervical ganglion is associated with the innervation of the superior tarsal muscle?




    D) Superior cervical ganglion

    The superior cervical ganglion gives rise to the internal carotid nerve, which supplies the superior tarsal muscle.
  296. Which artery is associated with the postganglionic fibers of the middle cervical ganglion?




    C) Inferior thyroid

    The common carotid artery is associated with the postganglionic fibers of the superior cervical ganglion, while the subclavian and vertebral arteries are associated with those of the inferior cervical ganglion.
  297. Which sympathetic cervical ganglion is/are associated with the cardiac plexus?




    A) All of these

    The superior, middle, and inferior cervical ganglion each contribute a branch to the cardiac plexus.
  298. This ganglion is located lateral to the cavernous sinus, in a depression of the temporal bone known as the Meckel's cave.




    A) Trigeminal ganglion

    Meckel's cave is also known as trigeminal cave.
  299. Which is the smallest terminal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve?




    B) Lacrimal
  300. Which is the largest terminal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve?




    C) Frontal
  301. Which of the terminal branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is purely motor?




    C) None of these

    The lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary nerves are all sensory branches of the ophthalmic nerve.
  302. Which of the following areas is not supplied by the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve?




    B) Upper eyelid

    It should be lower eyelid. The upper eyelid is supplied by the ophthalmic division.
  303. Which structure is innervated by parasympathetic fibers that "hitchhike" on the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve?




    A) Lacrimal gland

    Postganglionic fibers from the pterygopalatine (sphenopalatine) ganglion travel with the maxillary nerve to the lacrimal gland and the mucus glands of the nasal mucosa.
  304. The tensor tympani dampens sound, such as those created by chewing, by the stabilizing this bone in the middle ear.




    C) Malleus
  305. The mandibular nerve is the only branch of the trigeminal nerve to have a motor component. Although it carries sympathetic fibers, these are derived from other cranial nerves.




    B) Only the first statement is true.

    Although the mandibular nerve carries parasympathetic fibers, these are derived from other cranial nerves.
  306. Which type of cartilage lines the articular surfaces of the temporomandibular joint?




    B) Fibrocartilage
  307. A patient has suffered anterior dislocation of the temporomandibular joint. Which of the following structures is at greatest risk of damage?




    C) Auriculotemporal nerve

    The facial and auriculotemporal nerves run close to the temporomandibular joint, and can be damaged if the injury is traumatic.
  308. Which nerve branches within the parotid gland?




    C) Facial
  309. Which vein is responsible for the venous drainage of the parotid gland?




    D) Retromandibular vein
  310. What is the smallest and most deeply situated salivary gland?




    A) Sublingual
  311. Which of the following provides arterial supply to the sublingual glands?




    A) Submental artery
  312. Where do the parasympathetic fibers that supply the sublingual glands originate?




    A) Superior salivatory nucleus
  313. This suprahyoid muscle is found anterior to the submandibular gland.




    D) Anterior digastric

    Meanwhile, the posterior digastric is found posterior to the submandibular gland.
  314. Which of the following nerves lies deep to the submandibular gland?




    C) Hypoglossal
  315. Which of the following cranial nerves has the longest intracranial length?




    A) Trochlear
  316. What is the shortest cranial nerve?




    C) Olfactory
  317. What surrounds the optic nerve?




    C) Cranial meninges

    Due to its unique anatomical relation to the brain, the optic nerve is surrounded by cranial meninges, not endo-, peri-, or epineurium like most other nerves.
  318. Which retinal fibers are present in the left optic tract?




    C) Left temporal and right nasal

    The nasal fibers cross over in the optic chiasm, so the right nasal fibers and the left temporal fibers form the left optic tract. They carry information from the left nasal and right temporal visual fields.

  319. The upper optic radiation carries fibers from the superior retinal quadrants, corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants. It travels through the temporal lobe, via a pathway known as the Meyer's loop, to reach the visual cortex.




    C) Only the first statement is true.

    The upper optic radiation travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex.

    Meanwhile, the lower optic radiation carries fibers from the inferior retinal quadrants, corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants. It travels through the temporal lobe, via a pathway known as the Meyer's loop, to reach the visual cortex.

  320. This visual field deficit may occur as a result of pituitary adenoma.




    D) Bitemporal hemianopsia

    Within the middle cranial fossa, the pituitary gland lies in close proximity to the optic chiasm. Compression of the optic chiasm particularly affects the fibers that are crossing over from the nasal half of each retina. This produces a visual defect affecting the peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopsia.
  321. The superior branch of the oculomotor nerve supplies the following muscles, except:




    D) Medial rectus

    The superior branch of the oculomotor nerve supplies the levator palpebrae superioris and the superior rectus. Sympathetic fibers run with the superior branch to supply the superior tarsal muscle

    The inferior branch of the oculomotor nerve supplies the medial rectus, the inferior rectus, and the inferior oblique. It also supplies the pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion, which ultimately supplies the sphincter pupillae and the ciliary muscles.
  322. What is the function of the trochlear nerve?




    B) Somatic motor

    The trochlear nerve has only somatic motor function as it innervates the superior oblique muscle.
  323. This is the only cranial nerve to exit from the posterior midbrain.




    D) Trochlear
  324. The trochlear nerve innervates the:




    D) Contralateral superior oblique

    As the fibers from the trochlear nucleus cross in the midbrain before they exit, the trochlear neurons innervate the contralateral superior oblique.
  325. Which of the following does not characterize a trochlear nerve palsy?




    C) Head tilt towards the affected side

    It should be head tilt away from the affected side.
  326. What is the largest cranial nerve?




    D) Trigeminal
  327. The trigeminal nerve provides innervation to muscles from which pharyngeal arch?




    B) 1st

    The trigeminal nerve is associated with muscles derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch: muscles of mastication, anterior digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, and tensor veli palatini.
  328. This cranial nerve enters the subarachnoid space and pierces the dura mater to travel in an area known as Dorello's canal?




    D) Abducens
  329. The facial nerve travels through the internal acoustic meatus. Which bone of the skull is this located in?




    A) Temporal

    The internal acoustic meatus is a 1 cm long canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone.
  330. Which of the following is an extracranial branch of the facial nerve?




    B) Buccal branch

    The buccal nerve is released within the parotid gland. It is a motor nerve, supplying the orbicularis oris, bucinator, and zygomaticus muscles.
  331. Where does the facial nerve divide into the five terminal motor branches?




    A) Within the parotid gland

    The external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and facial nerve all pass through the parotid gland.

    The five terminal branches of the facial nerve are: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical. These branches are responsible for innervating the muscles of facial expression.
  332. Where do the motor and sensory roots of the facial nerve fuse?




    C) Within the facial canal
  333. Within the facial canal, the facial nerve gives rise to the following structures, except:




    C) Lesser petrosal nerve

    It should be greater petrosal nerve. This nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the mucus glands and lacrimal gland.
  334. The chorda tympani supplies:




    A) Both of these
  335. The facial nerve exits the cranium via the:




    A) Stylomastoid foramen
  336. Where does the first motor branch of the facial nerve arise?




    D) Within the facial canal

    The nerve to stapedius, the first motor branch of the facial nerve, arise within the facial canal.
  337. All of the following branches of the facial nerve are given off between the stylomastoid foramen and the parotid gland, except:




    D) Anterior auricular nerve

    It should be posterior auricular nerve.
  338. Which muscle of the pharynx is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve?




    C) Stylopharyngeus

    The remaining muscles of the pharynx are innervated by the vagus nerve.
  339. Embryologically, the glossopharyngeal nerve is associated with the derivatives of the ____ pharyngeal arch.




    D) 3rd
  340. This cranial nerve is associated with the derivative of the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches.




    C) Vagus
  341. This cranial nerve provides taste sensation to the epiglottis and the root of the tongue.




    D) Vagus
  342. This cranial nerve has the longest course, extending from the head to the abdomen.




    A) Vagus
  343. Wandering nerve




    C) Vagus
  344. The right vagus nerve passes anterior to the subclavian artery and posterior to the sternoclavicular joint. Meanwhile, the left vagus nerve passes inferiorly between the left common carotid and left subclavian arteries, posterior to the sternoclavicular joint.




    B) Both statements are true.
  345. The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates intrinsic muscles of the larynx, with the exception of:




    C) Cricothyroid

    The cricothyroid is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve.
  346. The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic fibers to the gastrointestinal tract until:




    A) Splenic flexure of large intestine
  347. As the vagus nerve innervates the palatopharyngeus and salpingopharyngeus muscles, a lesion to this nerve will cause the palatoglossal arch to drop and the uvula to deviate _______ the affected side.




    A) Away
  348. The spinal part of the accessory nerve arises from which spinal segments?




    A) C1-C5/C6
  349. Which cranial foramina allows the spinal component of the accessory nerve to enter the cranial cavity?




    D) Foramen magnum

    The spinal part of the accessory nerve enters the cranial cavity via the foramen magnum. It then leaves the cranium through the jugular foramen.
  350. Immediately after leaving the skull, the cranial part of the accessory nerve combines with the __________  at the inferior ganglion.




    B) Vagus nerve

    For this reason, the cranial part of the accessory nerve is considered as part of the vagus nerve.
  351. What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?




    B) Somatic motor

    The hypoglossal nerve supplies the majority of the tongue muscles.
  352. Fibers from which spinal nerve root/s accompany the hypoglossal nerve after exiting the cranial cavity?




    D) C1-C2

    The hypoglossal nerve exits the cranium via the hypoglossal canal and receives a branch of the cervical plexus that conducts fibers from C1-C2. These fibers do not combine with the hypoglossal nerve, but they merely travel within its sheath.
  353. Which of the following extrinsic tongue muscles make up the bulk of the tongue?




    B) Genioglossus
  354. All of the following muscles are innervated by the ansa cervicalis, except:




    D) Thyroihyoid

    The C1/C2 spinal nerve roots branch off to innervate the geniohyoid and thyrohyoid muscles. Another branch containing C1/C2 fibers descend to supply the ansa cervicalis.
  355. Which of the following cranial nerves can be found in the anterior triangle of the neck?




    B) Facial

    The cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII can also be found in the anterior triangle.
  356. Which vascular structure bifurcates within the carotid triangle of the neck?




    C) Common carotid artery

    The common carotid artery bifurcates into external and internal carotid arteries.
  357. All of the following vascular structures are found within the anterior triangle of the neck, except:




    A) Subclavian vein
  358. Which of the following structures is not found within the carotid triangle of the neck?




    A) Glossopharyngeal nerve

    • The main contents of the carotid triangle are:
    •  1. Common carotid artery, which bifurcates into external and internal carotid branches within the triangle
    •  2. Internal jugular vein
    •  3. Vagus nerve
    •  4. Hypoglossal nerve
  359. The floor of the submental triangle of the neck is formed by which muscle?




    C) Mylohyoid

    The submental triangle of the neck is bounded inferiorly by the hyoid bone, medially by the midline of the neck, and laterally by the anterior belly of the digastrics.

  360. All of the following structures are found within the submandibular triangle of the neck, except:




    B) None of these
  361. Which of the following triangles of the neck is considered "dubious" as it has four boundaries?




    B) Muscular

    The muscular triangle of the neck is bounded by the hyoid bone superiorly, by the imaginary midline of the neck medially, by the superior belly of omohyoid superolaterally, and by the inferior portion of sternocleidomastoid inferolaterally.

  362. The muscular triangle of the neck contains the following structures, except:




    A) Mylohyoid

    The muscular triangle contains the infrahyoid muscles, the pharynx, and the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Mylohyoid is a suprahyoid muscle.
  363. Travelling within the investing layer of fascia, this cranial nerve crosses the posterior triangle of the neck in an oblique infero-posterior direction.




    D) Accessory nerve

    The accessory nerve lies relative superficial in the posterior triangle of the neck, leaving it vulnerable to injury.
  364. Which of the following structures crosses the posterior triangle of the neck and divides it into two?




    D) Inferior belly of omohyoid

    The inferior belly of omohyoid crosses the posterior triangle of the neck, travelling in a supero-medial direction.
  365. Which of the following is not a boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?




    A) Inferior: proximal 1/3 of clavicle

    It should be inferior: middle 1/3 of clavicle.
  366. Which of the following muscles does not form the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck?




    C) Longus colli

    The floor of the posterior triangle of the neck is formed by the splenius capitis, the levator scapulae, and the anterior, middle, and posterior scalenes. The longus colli is a neck flexor located on the anterior aspect of the neck.
  367. The following veins are accompanied by the respective arteries within the posterior triangle of the neck, except:




    A) External jugular vein

    Within the posterior triangle of the neck, the external jugular vein pierces the investing layer of the fascia and empties into the subclavian vein.
  368. Nerve point of the neck




    A) Posterio border of SCM

    Local anaesthetic is injected along the posterior border of sternocleidomastoid at the junction of its superior and middle thirds. This junction is where the cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus emerge, known as the nerve point of the neck.
  369. Which of the following is not a triangle of the neck?




    D) None of these

    The subclavian triangle is also known as the supraclavicular triangle.
  370. The anterior arch of the atlas contains a facet for articulation with the dens of the axis. Meanwhile, the posterior arch contains a groove for the vertebral vein and C1 spinal nerve.




    A) Only the first statement is true.

    The posterior arch of the atlas contains a groove for the vertebral artery and C1 spinal nerve.
  371. The lateral atlanto-axial joints are formed by the articulation between the inferior facets of the lateral masses of the atlas and the superior facets of the axis. These are classified as pivot type synovial joints.




    B) Only the first statement is true.

    Lateral atlanto-axial joints are classified as plane type synovial joints.

    Medial atlanto-axial joint is formed by the articulation of the dens of the axis with the articular facet on the anterior arch of the atlas. This is classified as pivot type synovial joint.
  372. This ligament in the cervical spine connects the lateral masses of the atlas.




    D) Transverse ligament

    The transverse ligament connects the lateral masses of the atlas, and in doing so anchors the dens in place.
  373. The nuchal ligament serves as the proximal attachment for the:




    C) Both

    The nuchal ligament is the superior continuation of the supraspinous ligament, attaching the tips of the spinous processes from C1-C7.
  374. This cervical vertebra fracture is likely to be lethal, as either fracture fragments or the force involved are likely to rupture the spinal cord, causing deep unconsciousness, respiratory failure, and cardiac failure.




    A) Hangman's fracture

    Hangman's fracture refers to a fracture of the pars interarticularis, a bony column between the superior and inferior articular facets of the axis.
  375. This cervical vertebra fracture is unstable and is at high risk of avascular necrosis.




    A) Teardrop fracture

    Teardrop fracture refers to the fracture of the dens (odontoid process) of the axis.
  376. This cervical vertebra fracture frequently results from diving into an excessively shallow water.




    A) Jefferson's fracture

    Diving into an excessively shallow water can compress the lateral masses of the atlas between the occipital condyles and the axis. This causes them to be driven apart, fracturing one or both anterior or posterior arches. If the fall occurs with enough force, the transverse ligament of the atlas may also be ruptured.
  377. What specific part of the hyoid bone does the stylohyoid ligament attach to?




    A) Lesser horn

    The lesser horn of the hyoid bone projects superoposteriorly towards the styloid process of the temporal bone.
  378. All of the following muscles in the oral cavity and pharynx are attached to the hyoid bone, except:




    B) Styloglossus

    It should be genioglossus.
  379. The thyrohyoid membrane originates from the superior border of the thyroid cartilage and attaches to the __________ surface of the hyoid bone and the _________ horns.




    B) Posterior; greater
  380. The suboccipital nerve innervates all of the suboccipital muscles. From which nerve root does it arise?




    D) C1

    The suboccipital nerve arises from the posterior ramus of C1.
  381. This is the only capitis muscle that has no attachment to the cranium.




    C) Obliquus capitis inferior

    The obliquus capitis inferior originates from the spinous process of the C2 vertebra, and attaches into the transverse process of C1.
  382. Which of the following muscles does not form a border of the suboccipital triangle?




    A) Rectus capitis posterior minor

    • The following are the borders of the suboccipital triangle:
    •  1. Superomedial: rectus capitis posterior major
    •  2. Superolateral: obliquus capitis superior
    •  3. Inferior: obliquus capitis inferior
    •  4. Floor: posterior atlanto-occipital membrane and posterior arch of atlas
    •  5. Roof: semispinalis capitus

  383. What is the main action of the suprahyoid muscles?




    C) None of these

    The suprahyoid muscles are a group of four muscles located superior to the hyoid bone of the neck. They all act to elevate the hyoid bone - an action involved in swallowing.
  384. This suprahyoid muscle initiates a swallowing action by pulling the hyoid bone in a posterior and superior direction.




    A) Stylohyoid
  385. The digastric is composed of two muscular bellies, which are connected by a tendon. In some cadaveric specimens, this tendon pierces which muscle?




    A) Stylohyoid

  386. This suprahyoid muscle forms the floor of the oral cavity and supports the floor of the mouth.




    C) Mylohyoid

    Mylohyoid is a broad, triangular-shaped muscle which elevates the hyoid bone and the floor of the mouth.

  387. This suprahyoid muscles is innervated by C1 nerve root roots that run within the hypoglossal nerve.




    B) Geniohyoid

    The stylohyoid is innervated by the stylohyoid branch of the facial nerve.

    The mylohyoid is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    The anterior belly of digastrics is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Meanwhile, the posterior belly of digastrics is innervated by the digastric branch of the facial nerve.
  388. Which of the infrahyoid muscles are found in the deep plane?




    C) Sternothyroid and thyrohyoid

    Meanwhile, the omohyoid and sternohyoid are found in the superficial plane.
  389. Which infrahyoid muscle is a continuation of the sternothyroid muscle?




    C) Thyrohyoid

    Sternothyroid and thyrohyoid are continuous.
  390. Which of the following options best describe the innervation of the thyrohyoid muscle?




    C) Anterior ramus of C1, carried by the hypoglossal nerve

    Meanwhile, the superior and inferior omohyoids, the sternohyoid, and the sternothyroid muscles are innervated by the anterior rami of C1-C3, carried by the ansa cervicalis.
  391. This infrahyoid muscle arises from the scapula.




    A) Inferior belly of omohyoid
  392. This infrahyoid muscle depresses the thyroid cartilage.




    D) Sternothyroid

    Meanwhile, the thyrohyoid muscle depresses the hyoid bone. If the hyoid bone is fixed, this muscle can elevate the larynx.
  393. Which of the scalene muscles insert/s into the second rib?




    C) Posterior scalene

    Meanwhile, the anterior and middle scalenes insert into the scalene tubercle of the first rib.
  394. The scalene tubercle is found in which rib/s?




    B) 1st

    The anterior and middle scalenes insert into the scalene tubercle of the first rib.
  395. What is the largest and the longest of the scalene muscles?




    C) Middle scalene

    The middle scalene has several long, thin muscle bellies arising from the cervical spine, which converge into one large belly that inserts into the first rib.
  396. What is the smallest and the deepest of the scalene muscles?




    C) Posterior scalene
  397. The brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the:




    B) Anterior and middle scalanes

  398. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve passes anterior to which scalene muscle/s:




    D) Anterior scalene

    The subclavian vein courses horizontally across the anterior scalene, while the phrenic nerve runs vertically down the muscle.
  399. To perform an interscalene block, a local anesthetic is injected into between the anterior and middle scalenes at the level of the:




    C) Cricoid cartilage
  400. The cervical plexus is made up of the anterior rami of which spinal nerves?




    C) C1-C4
  401. Where do the sensory branches of the cervical plexus enter the skin?




    A) Middle of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid

    This is known as the Erb's area, and is a useful landmark when performing a cervical plexus block.

  402. What is the largest ascending branch of the cervical plexus, which provides sensation to the skin over the parotid gland?




    D) Greater auricular nerve

    The greater auricular nerve is formed by fibers from C2 and C3 roots. It provides sensation to the external ear and to the skin over the parotid gland.
  403. All of the following are muscular branches of the cervical plexus, except:




    C) Nerve to mylohyoid

    It should be nerve to geniohyoid. Mylohyoid is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
  404. This nerve can also be affected by the local anesthesia during a cervical nerve block.




    C) Phrenic nerve

    A cervical nerve block can also affect the phrenic nerve, so it is not usually performed on those with co-existing cardiac or respiratory diseases.
  405. A surgeon is performing a radical neck dissection, and wishes to preserve the phrenic nerve. This nerve is known to traverse the anterior surface of which neck muscle?




    A) Anterior scalene

    The phrenic nerve arises at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle. It then passes inferiorly over the anterior surface of the anterior scalene.
  406. Which of the following structures does not receive sensory innervation from the phrenic nerve?




    A) Endocardium

    Sensory fibers from the phrenic nerve supply the central part of the diaphragm, including the surrounding pleura and peritoneum. The nerve also supplies sensation to the mediastinal pleura and the pericardium.
  407. A patient is seen in ED with acute cholecystitis, which has lead to the inflammation of the adjacent peritoneum. Which of the following dermatomes is the phrenic nerve most likely to refer the pain to?




    B) C3

    The phrenic nerve roots are C3-C5, so the patient is most likely to experience pain in these dermatomes.
  408. Which of the following nerve roots main contribute/s to the phrenic nerve?




    A) C4

    C4 spinal nerve root provides the main contribution, with lesser contributions from C3 and C5 and some communicating fibers from the cervical plexus.
  409. Paralysis of the diaphragm produces a paradoxical movement. The affected side of the diaphragm moves downward during inspiration and upward during expiration.




    C) Only the first statement is true.

    The affected side of the diaphragm moves upward during inspiration and downward during expiration.
  410. Which of the following muscles is surrounded by the investing layer of cervical fascia?




    B) Sternocleidomastoid

    The investing layer of deep cervical fascia completely encloses the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles.
  411. Which potential space in the neck could allow for tracking of the pus into the posterior mediastinum?




    D) Retropharyngeal

    The retropharyngeal space extends from the base of the skull to the posterior mediastinum.
  412. The prevertebral fascia forms the floor of which anatomical space?




    C) Posterior triangle

    The anterolateral portion of the prevertebral fascia forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck.
  413. Which of the following paranasal sinuses lie most posterior in the skull?




    B) Sphenoidal sinuses

    The sphenoid sinuses lie most posterior in comparison to the other paranasal sinuses.

    A serious complication of sphenoid sinusitis, due to its posterior position and communications, is cavernous sinus thrombosis.
  414. At which level/s do the vertebral arteries enter the foramen transversarium of the cervical vertebrae?




    B) C6-C7

    The vertebral arteries enter the transverse process of C6 or C7 and pass superiorly in the transverse foramen of each cervical vertebra.

    The upper border of thyroid cartilage (C3/C4 level) is the level at which the carotid bifurcation occurs.

    The esophagus narrows in the cervical region at the level of cricopharyngeus (C5/C6 level).

    The hyoid bone is found at the base of the mandlible (C3 level).
  415. At which anatomical point does the carotid bifurcation occur?




    B) Upper border of thyroid cartilage (C3/C4 level)

    The upper border of thyroid cartilage (C3/C4 level) is the level at which the carotid bifurcation occurs.

    The esophagus narrows in the cervical region at the level of cricopharyngeus (C5/C6 level).

    The isthmus of the thyroid gland is found halfway between the thyroid cartilage and the sternal notch.

    The hyoid bone is found at the base of the mandible (C3 level).

    The vertebral arteries enter the transverse process of C6 or C7 and pass superiorly in the transverse foramen of each cervical vertebra.
  416. Through which sinus can the pituitary gland be surgically accessed?




    D) Sphenoid

    The pituitary gland can be surgically accessed through the sphenoid sinus. Transphenoidal surgery is mainly used to remove tumours of the pituitary gland.
  417. Into which of the following structures does the nasolacrimal duct drain into?





    B) Inferior nasal meatus

    The lacrimal drainage system begins at the superior and inferior puncta, which drains into their respective canaliculi. The two canaliculi join to form the common canaliculus, which then drains into the lacrimal sac. The lacrimal sac then opens into the nasolacrimal duct, which then drains into the inferior meatus of the nose.

    • The middle meatus drains the :
    • Maxillary sinus
    • Frontal sinus
    • Anterior ethmoidal sinus

    • The superior meatus drains the:
    • Posterior ethmoidal sinus

    The spheno-ethmoidal recess drains the sphenoid sinus.
  418. Which of the following arteries is a component of Kiesselbach's plexus?




    B) Anterior ethmoidal artery

    Kiesselbach's plexus (also known as Little's area) is an anastomosis which supplies the nasal septum. It is comprised of five arteries, including anterior ethmoidal, sphenopalatine, posterior ethmoidal, greater palatine and superior labial arteries. It is a common site for nosebleeds.
  419. Which of the following serves as surface landmark to delineate the suture between the frontal and nasal bones?




    B) Nasion

    The nation lies at the inferior aspect of the glabella, which lies between the two brow ridges.
  420. Which vein does the inferior laryngeal vein immediately flow into after draining the larynx?




    C) Inferior thyroid vein

    The inferior laryngeal vein flows into the inferior thyroid vein after draining the larynx. Thereafter, the inferior thyroid vein drains into the left brachiocephalic vein.

    The superior laryngeal vein also provides venous drainage to the larynx. This vein then flows into the superior thyroid vein and then into the internal jugular vein.
  421. Which bones comprise the medial wall of the orbit?




    C) Ethmoid, lacrimal, sphenoid, maxillary
  422. The macula densa is the region of highest color visual acuity in the eye. Light/dark perception is the worst in this region of the eye but improves as the density of rods decreases towards the periphery of the eye.
    A) Only the first statement is true.

    Light/dark perception is the worst in this region of the eye but improves as the density of rods increases towards the periphery of the eye.
  423. The transthoracic plane is found at which vertebral level/s?




    C) T4/T5
  424. The inferior pole of the thyroid gland can extend until ____.




    B) T2
  425. The lesser petrosal nerve is a branch of cranial nerve IX. From which foramen does it exit the skull?




    B) Foramen ovale

    The lesser petrosal nerve exits via foramen ovale shortly after branching from cranial nerve IX. It contains the pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres destined for synapse within the otic ganglion.

    Foramen rotundum contains cranial nerve V2 (maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve).

    Foramen spinosum contains the middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal vein, and the meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve (V3).

    Jugular foramen contains the cranial nerves IX, X, and XI, and the internal jugular vein.
  426. Which of the following is a tiny perforation in the base of the cornea that collects aqueous humor from the anterior chamber and delivers it to the superficial episcleral venous plexus?




    D) Schlemm's canal

    Schlemm's canal is also known as scleral venous sinus.
  427. Which of the following anatomical structures of the neck is contained within the carotid sheath?




    C) Vagus nerve

    The carotid sheath in the neck is the main protective fibrous connective tissue surrounding the neurovascular component of the neck. There are four main structures within the carotid sheath - vagus nerve, internal jugular vein, common carotid and deep lymphatics

    The ansa cervicalis (formed by C1) is adherent to the anterior wall of the carotid sheath, but not classically found within the carotid sheath.
  428. Which of the following bones does not meet at the pterion?





    D) Zygomatic



    The pterion is where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones join. This is on the side of the head, and is an important anatomical landmark, as the middle meningeal artery lies just beneath it. 

    Trauma to this area can cause this artery to rupture, resulting in an extradural hematoma.
  429. Which layer of the scalp is responsible for the occurrence of  'racoon eyes'?





    C) Galea aponeurotic

    The main purpose of the galea aponeurotica is to form a potential space that allows fluid and blood to pass from the scalp to the upper eyelids. Potential fracture or trauma to the skull which has damaged the blood vessels within the scalp will allow blood to flow beneath the galea and cause the racoon eyes.
  430. Which artery is the terminating branch of the external carotid artery?





    B) Superficial temporal artery



    The external carotid artery divides into its terminating branches, superficial temporal and maxillary artery within the parotid gland.

    • A useful mnemonic for the branches of the external carotid artery is Some Anatomists Like Freaking Out Poor Medical Students:
    • Superior thyroid artery 
    • Ascending pharyngeal artery 
    • Lingual artery 
    • Facial artery 
    • Occipital artery 
    • Posterior auricular artery 
    • Maxillary artery 
    • Superficial temporal artery
  431. Which of the following structures does not pass through the foramen ovale?





    C) Greater petrosal nerve

    It should be lesser petrosal nerve.
  432. Which structure is NOT found in the cavernous sinus?





    E) Optic nerve

    The optic nerve does not pass through the cavernous sinus.

    The contents of the cavernous sinus can be learned using the mnemonic OTOM CAT. 'O TOM' are the first letters of components of the lateral wall of cavernous sinus considered vertically, from the top to the bottom. CA are the first letters of the structures located within the sinus. CA continues virtually at the level of the T of 'O TOM'. So that the T represents the point of conjunction of the two words:

    Oculomotor nerve


    • Trochlear nerve
    • Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
    • Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve


    • Internal Carotid artery
    • Abducens nerve
    • Trochlear nerve
  433. From which pharyngeal arch is the buccinator derived?






    D) Second

    The best way to work out what pharyngeal arch a muscle is derived from is to recall its associated cranial nerve. In this case, the buccinator is a muscle of facial expression, therefore it is innervated by the facial nerve (CN VII).

    The second pharyngeal arch gives rise to the facial nerve, and thus all the muscles innervated by that nerve. Therefore the buccinator is derived from pharyngeal arch number two.

    The first pharyngeal arch gives rise to the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

    The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to the glossopharyngeal nerve.

    The fourth pharyngeal arch gives rise to the superficial branch of the laryngeal nerve (part of the vagus nerve).

    The fifth pharyngeal arch disintegrates.

    The sixth pharyngeal arch gives rise to the recurrent branch of the laryngeal nerve (part of the vagus nerve).
  434. Which facial bone forms the middle nasal concha?





    B) Ethmoid bone

    The middle nasal concha (also known as the middle nasal turbinate) is formed by the ethmoid bone.
  435. What is the function of the omohyoid muscles?




    B) Depression of the larynx

    Contraction of the omohyoid muscle results in depression of the larynx. The omohyoid muscle is one of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx.
  436. The choroid is a connective tissue layer of the eye that contains an abundance of blood vessels between the retinaand the sclera. Which layer of the choroid contains blood vessels with largest diameters?




    C) Haller's

    • The choroid contains four layers, with the size of blood vessels diminishing with each deeper layer:
    •      1. Haller's (most superficial) - largest diameter
    •      2. Sattler's
    •      3. Choriocapillaris
    •      4. Bruch's membrane (deepest)
  437. Which subcortical structure is the most anterior?





    A) Rostrum of corpus callous

    All of these structures can be found in the midline of a sagittal section of the brain, with the exception of the foramen of Monro which is slightly lateral.

    If the answer is not immediately known, it can be worked out by ruling out the other possibilities.

    The interthalamic adhesion is found between the thalami, the thalami themselves being used as a marker for the posterior limb of the internal capsule. It, therefore, cannot be the most anterior.

    The other three incorrect structures: columns of the fornix, interventricular foramen of Monro, and mammillary bodies are all located between the anterior limbs of the internal capsules. The interventricular foramen is an opening between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle, the anterior wall of this opening is formed by the column of the fornix, and so cannot be the correct option.

    The column of the fornix does form a slight 'C' shape curve as it descends down towards the mammillary bodies, however, as it must rest on the anterior commissure it cannot extend too far forward. The columns then become more posterior as they meet the mammillary bodies and thus are ruled out as most anterior.

    The rostrum of the corpus callosum is a beak shaped structure that connects to the front of the anterior commissure and so whilst the columns of the fornix meet at the anterior commissure, the rostrum is the most anterior.

  438. What is the name of the vessel that connects the anterior and posterior circulation of the brain?





    A) Posterior communicating artery

    The posterior communicating artery is also sometimes referred to as 'PComm'. It connects the middle cerebral artery and the posterior cerebral artery. The posterior communicating artery's main purpose is to provide redundancy for blood circulation throughout the brain, such that if one circulatory system was affected by disease (e.g. stroke), the other circulatory system could take over and provide blood and oxygen to the affected part of the brain.

    Clinically, aneurysms of the PComm artery can cause oculomotor nerve palsy given its relation to the oculomotor nucleus.
  439. What is the insertion of the splenius capitis muscle of the neck?




    B) Occipital bone and mastoid process of the temporal bone

    The splenius capitis muscle of the neck inserts into the occipital bone (specifically on the rough surface of the occipital bone below the lateral third of the superior nuchal line) and the mastoid process of the temporal bone. The splenius capitis muscle can be classified as one of the intrinsic muscles of the back.

    The splenius capitis muscle originates from the nuchal ligament and spinous processes of C7-T13.

    The trapezius muscle originates from the external occipital protuberance and spinous processes of C7-T12 (as well as from other structures).
  440. Where does the nasolacrimal duct empty into the nasal cavity?




    A) Inferior meatus

    The nasolacrimal duct empties into the inferior meatus of the nasal cavity. The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity.
  441. Where does the maxillary sinus open into the nasal cavity?





    A) Middle meatus

    The maxillary sinus opens into the middle meatus in the nasal cavity. The maxillary sinus is the largest air containing sinus in the body.
  442. Which of the following cranial bones does not form part of the craniometric point known as the asterion?




    A) Frontal bone

    The asterion is formed by the parietal, occipital and temporal bones and is found just behind the ear. It represents the point where the lambdoid, parieto-mastoid, and occipito-mastoid sutures meet.

    This is not to be confused with the pterion, which is the craniometric point where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones join together. It is located on the side of the skull, just behind the temple.
  443. The middle ear is contained within which part of the temporal bone?





    E) Petrous

    The temporal bone is comprised of four main parts: the squamous part, petrous part, tympanic part and styloid process.

    The squamous part forms the thin anterosuperior component and includes the zygomatic process, although these are sometimes considered distinct components.

    The petrous part (aka petromastoid) is the thick inferoposterior component and includes the middle and inner ear.

    The styloid process is a distinct spindle-like structure found inferiorly.

    The tympanic part forms the region around the external acoustic meatus.
  444. Which of these forms the anterior border of the pterygopalatine fossa?





    B) Posterior wall of the maxillary sinus

    The pterygopalatine fossa is a bilateral, cone-shaped depression located between the infratemporal fossa and the nasal cavity. It contains the maxillary nerve, the pterygopalatine ganglion, and the maxillary artery.

    The posterior wall of maxillary sinus forms the anterior border of the pterygopalatine fossa. The maxillary sinus is a clinically significant border as it allows a surgical approach to access the pterygopalatine fossa, for example, to tie off the sphenopalatine artery in chronic epistaxis.

    The pterygoid process of sphenoid bone forms the posterior border of the pterygopalatine fossa.

    The palatine bone and palatine canals form the inferior border of the pterygopalatine fossa.

    The inferior orbital fissure forms the superior border of the pterygopalatine fossa.

    The perpendicular plate of palatine bone forms the medial border of the pterygopalatine fossa.

    The pterygomaxillary fissure forms the lateral border of the pterygopalatine fossa.
  445. Where does the epitympanic recess of the middle ear lie in relation to the tympanic membrane?




    D) Superior

    The epitympanic recess of the middle ear lies superior to the tympanic membrane. The malleus and incus partially extend into this recess.

    This recess is significant as it can act as a route of infection into the mastoid air cells.
  446. At what vertebral level is the larynx located?





    C) C3-C6

    The larynx is located in the anterior compartment of the neck at the level of C3 - C6.

    The larynx is an organ responsible for the production of voice, protecting the trachea and it is involved in the process of breathing. It is continuous with the trachea inferiorly and pharynx superiorly.
  447. Which one of these structures is NOT found in the posterior triangle of the neck?





    C) Common carotid artery

    • A good way to remember the structures in the posterior triangle of the neck is the mnemonic "Charlie Sheen Epic Biwinning":
    • Cranial nerve XI (accessory)
    • Subclavian artery
    • External jugular vein
    • Brachial Plexus trunks

    The common carotid artery is located in the carotid sheath, which is in the anterior triangle of the neck.
  448. Apart from the internal carotid artery, what other structure passes through the carotid canal of the temporal bone?




    C) Sympathetic fibers

    The sympathetic nerve fibers arise from the sympathetic plexus, which is also known as the internal carotid plexus. This plexus runs along the lateral side of the internal carotid artery into the middle cranial fossa via the carotid canal. The sympathetic fibers have two main motor functions: to raise the eyelid and dilate the pupil. The fibers also provide innervation to the sweat glands of the face. They can be damaged if there is a base-of-skull fracture and can result in an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome.

    • The other options are incorrect for the reasons below.
    •      1. Parasympathetic fibers do not arise from the carotid plexus.
    •      2. The optic nerve (cranial nerve II) does not pass through the carotid canal. It passes through the optic canal as an extension of the central nervous system.
    •      3. The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) passes through the superior orbital fissure. Incidentally, parasympathetic fibres do arise from the Erdinger-Westphal nucleus and travel along the superior orbital fissure to cause constriction of the pupil.
  449. This structure prevents our necks from bulging like a frog's during phonation and respiration.




    D) Hyoid bone
  450. The middle ear communicates anteriorly with the nasal cavity via which of the following anatomical structures?





    C) Eustachian tube

    The middle ear lies in the petrous part of the temporal bone between the tympanic membrane and the oval window. It communicates anteriorly with the nasal cavity via the Eustachian tube, which is also known as pharyngotympanic tube or auditory tube. This tube is important in equalizing pressure in the middle ear and preventing damage. The middle ear also communicates posteriorly with the mastoid air cells in the mastoid process - this can be important in the spread of infection from the middle ear given the close proximity of the mastoid process to the sigmoid sinus and cerebellum.
  451. Damage to this cranial nerve results to bovine cough.




    D) Vagus nerve

    A bovine cough is a non-explosive cough due to inability to close the glottis. It is seen vagus nerve lesions (particularly recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy), and may be associated with dysphonia.
  452. Which layer of the scalp allows the movement of the galea over the stationary periosteum?




    C) Loose areolar connective tissue

    Th skin is an ectoderm-derived tissue forming a barrier against the external environment. The dura mater is the outermost layer of meninges.
  453. What is the main function of the Platysma muscle?




    C) Protection of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and carotid triangle

    The Platysma is a sheet of muscle extending from the superior fascia of the pectoralis major and deltoid muscles to the inferior edge of the mandible where it merges with the anterior inferior facial muscles.

    The Platysma constricts during shouts, grimaces and any facial expressions associated with anger or fear. The purpose for this is to create a solid mass of muscle to defend the sternocleidomastiod muscle and the carotid triangle from injury. The Carotid triangle contains the carotid artery, the vagus nerve and the jugular vein so protecting it whilst experiencing aggression or fear is an evolutionary reflex.
  454. What structure lies medial to the zygomatic arch?





    A) Temporalis tendon

    Originating on the temporal bone at the superior temporal line, the fan-like temporalis converges mostly into a common tendon that inserts onto the coronoid process of the mandible. Some of the temporalis muscle continues and attaches directly onto the anterior surface of the coronoid process of the mandible without tendinous insertion. This allows the temporalis to elicit elevation of the jaw, facilitating both phonation and mastication.

    The masseter attaches to the inferior aspect of the zygomatic arch.

    The temporal fascia attaches to the superior aspect of the zygomatic arch.

    The orbicularis oris inserts into the labial skin and fascia of the mouth. It is not in the vicinity of the zygomatic arch.

    The biceps brachii is found in the upper limb, specifically the arm (brachium). It does not pass through the zygomatic arch.
  455. Which vein arises within the parotid gland?




    D) Retrimandibular vein

    The retromandibular vein, which is also known as the posterior facial vein, arises within the parotid gland. This vein is formed by the union of the maxillary and superficial temporal veins.
  456. What is the innervation of the geniohyoid muscle?




    A) C1 via the hypoglossal nerve

    The glenohyoid muscle (one of the suprahyoid muscles of the neck) is innervated by C1 via the hypoglossal nerve. This innervation forms part of the ansa cervicalis.
  457. Which one of the following drains into the transverse sinus?





    E) Superior sagittal sinus

    The superior sagittal sinus meets the straight sinus at the confluence of the sinuses. These then drain into the transverse sinus. Blood then passes into the sigmoid sinus and jugular vein on the way back to the heart.
  458. Of which skull bone is the clivus a part?





    A) Occipital bone

    The clivus is a gently sloping part of the anterior part of the occipital bone, located just posteriorly to the dorsum sellae of the sphenoid bone. Posterior to the clivus itself is located the foramen magnum.
  459. A patient presents with double vision when walking downstairs. On examination, you notice their right eye is turned slightly upwards. Which nerve, if damaged, is likely to cause this presentation?





    D) Cranial nerve IV (left)

    This is a classical description of a 4th nerve palsy, in this instance the left cranial nerve IV is likely to be damaged. Remember that cranial nerve IV (trochlear) is the only cranial nerve that innervates the contralateral side of the body.

    A problem with the right cranial nerve IV is unlikely, given that this would cause problems with the left eye.

    Cranial nerve VI (abducens) is responsible for abduction of the eye, and would not cause the eye to turn upwards during an examination if damaged.

    Damage to the sympathetic chain can cause Horner's syndrome. This does not cause abnormal eye movements, but can cause mild drooping of the eye (ptosis) due to loss of sympathetic innervation of the superior tarsal muscle which retracts the eyelid.
  460. What is the function of the splenius cervicis muscle of the back?




    C) Lateral flexion and rotation of the cervical spine to the ipsilateral side

    Contraction of the splenius cervicis muscle causes lateral flexion and rotation of the cervical spine to the ipsilateral side. This muscle also causes extension of the cervical spine. The splenius cervicis can be classified as an intrinsic muscle of the back.
  461. Which of the following anatomical spaces contains perilymph?





    D) Bony labyrinth

    Perilymph and endolymph are fluids found in the inner ear. Specifically, the perilymph is located within the bony labyrinth (cochlea, vestibule, semicircular canals) and the endolymph is located within the membranous labyrinth (a system of ducts and sacs which are within the bony labyrinth).
  462. What is the origin of the levator scapulae muscle?




    C) Posterior tubercles of the transverse processes of C1 - C4 vertebrae

    • The origin and insertion of the levator scapulae are as follows:
    •      1. Origin: posterior tubercles of the transverse processes of C1 - C4 vertebrae
    •      2. Insertion: superior part of the medial border of the scapula
  463. What is the blood supply of the scalene muscles?




    B) Ascending cervical artery

    The ascending cervical artery provides the blood supply to the scalene muscles. It is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk and ascends medial to the phrenic nerve on the prevertebral fascia.
  464. From what artery/arteries does the scalp receive a blood supply?





    E) External and internal carotid arteries

    The scalp receives its blood supply from branches of the external and internal carotid arteries.

    The external carotid artery supplies the scalp via the superficial temporal, occipital and posterior auricular arteries.

    The internal carotid artery supplies the scalp via the supratrochlear and supraorbital arteries.
  465. Which paired bones contribute to the nasal septum?





    B) Palatine

    Other paired bones that comprise the nasal septum include the maxillary and nasal bones.

    The ethmoid and vomer bones are unpaired bones that contribute to the nasal septum.
  466. A 55-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer sees his physician because of progressive dysarthria. On examination, his tongue deviates to the left when he protrudes it.

    Which of the following structures is the most likely to be damaged, assuming this is a lower motor neurone lesion?






    F0 Right hypoglossal nerve
    D) Left hypoglossal nerve

    The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) supplies motor innervation to the tongue and is evaluated by observing the tongue at rest, and by asking the patient to protrude the tongue in the midline.

    A lesion of the hypoglossal nerve will eventually cause atrophy of the ipsilateral half of the tongue. The tongue will deviate towards the side of the lesioned nerve when protruded. This is due to a weakness of the genioglossus muscle on the affected side, which normally functions to deviate the tongue towards the contralateral side.

    Because this patient's tongue deviates to the left, we can safely assume that the left hypoglossal nerve has been compromised. 

    A fun way to remember this is "lick your wounds" as the tongue will deviate towards the injured side.

    The glossopharyngeal nerves (CN IX) innervate the palate rather than the tongue.

    The spinal accessory nerves (CN XI) innervate the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles which control neck movement.
  467. What is the innervation of the posterior portion of the scalp (notincluding behind the ears)?





    E) Greater occipital nerve

    The posterior portion of the scalp is innervated by the greater occipital nerve.

    The mneumonic 'Z-GLASS' can aid in remembering the innervation of the scalp: zygomaticotemporal, greater occipital, lesser occipital, auriculotemporal, supratrochlear and supraorbital nerves.
  468. How many bones does the zygomatic bone articulate with?





    C) 4

    The zygomatic bone articulates with 4 facial bones. These facial bones include the maxilla, sphenoid, frontal and temporal bones.
  469. Which branch of the facial nerve innervates the orbicularis oculi muscle?




    C) Zygomatic branch

    The zygomatic branch of the facial nerve innervates the orbicularis oculi muscle.

    The remaining branches do not innervate this muscle. The buccal branch innervates orbicularis oris, buccinator and zygomaticus muscles. The marginal mandibular branch innervates the mentalis muscle. The cervical branch innervates the platysma.
  470. The parotid duct, which allows secretions into the oral cavity from the parotid gland, passes directly through which structure?





    E) Buccinator

    The parotid duct passes from the parotid gland, turning medially on the border of the masseter muscle and passing directly through the buccinator muscle, before opening into the oral cavity.

    The parotid duct does not pass through masseter but borders it.

    The trigeminal ganglion is a nerve ganglion superior and posterior to the parotid duct. The two have no clinical relation.

    The mandible has a number of foramina through which several structures pass, including the inferior alveolar nerve and inferior alveolar artery. However, the parotid duct does not.

    The lateral pterygoid is a muscle of mastication innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). It serves to depress and protrude the mandible, allowing the mouth to open. It also plays a role in moving the mandible from side to side.
  471. What muscle does Stensen's duct pierce on its course toward the oral mucosa?





    B) Buccinator

    Stensen's (parotid) duct pierces the buccinator as it courses from the parotid gland to the oral mucosa.

    Arising from the parotid gland, the duct travels anteriorly, on the lateral surface of the masseter. Upon reaching the anterior-most aspect of the masseter, Stensen's duct makes an abrupt turn medially and pierces the buccinator muscle. This does not seem to affect the function of the buccinator muscle.

    The temporals muscle is located too posteriorly to be affected by Stensen's duct. Similarly, the pterygoideus medialis and lateralis are too deep, and lie on the internal surface of the mandible.
  472. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the primary innervation of the posterior scalene muscles?




    B) C6-C8 anterior rami

    The posterior scalene muscle is innervated by the anterior rami of C6-C8.

    The anterior scalene muscle is innervated by the anterior rami of C5-C6.

    The middle scalene muscle is innervated by the anterior rami of C3-C8.

    Note that the anterior rami of C6-C8 form part of the brachial plexus.
  473. Which of the following structures is found outside the carotid sheath?





    C) Sympathetic trunk

    The sympathetic trunk is found outside the carotid sheath.

    The contents of the carotid sheath include common carotid artery, internal carotid artery, vagus nerve, internal jugular vein and deep cervical lymphatics.
  474. Which cranial nerves pass through the cavernous sinus?




    C) CN3, CN4, CN5(i, ii), CN6

    • These are the five cranial nerves (CN) that pass through the cavernous sinus:
    •      1. Oculomotor nerve (CN3)
    •      2. Trochlear nerve (CN4)
    •      3. Trigeminal nerve (CN5 - ophthalmic and maxillary division)
    •      4. Abducens nerve (CN6)
  475. The esophagus begins its course in the neck. At what spinal level does this occur?





    B) C6

    The esophagus begins at the level of C6 at the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage, where it is continuous with the laryngopharynx.

    At T1, the esophagus enters the superior mediastinum. The other answers hold no significance for the path of the esophagus.
  476. Which one of the following drains into the superior nasal meatus?





    E) Posterior ethmoid sinus

    • A nasal meatus is a nasal passage of the nasal cavity, of which there are three; the superior meatus, middle meatus and inferior meatus (A meatus is a passage or opening in the body, especially one which is open to the exterior). The nasal meatuses are located beneath each of the corresponding nasal conchae.​​
    •      1. Superior nasal meatus drains the posterior ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses.
    •      2. Middle nasal meatus drains the frontal, maxillary and anterior ethmoid sinuses.
    •      3. Inferior nasal meatus drains the nasolacrimal duct.
  477. Which of the following gyri make up 'Broca's area'?





    D) Pars opercularis and pars triangularis

    Broca’s area is formed of the pars opercularis and pars triangularis which are two of the three divisions of the inferior frontal gyrus. Pars opercularis and triangularis are separated by the anterior ascending ramus whilst pars triangularis is limited anteriorly by the anterior horizontal ramus. In front of the anterior horizontal ramus is pars orbitalis, which as the name infers - is above the orbits.

    The function of Broca’s area is speech production, and in the majority of individuals is localised to the left hemisphere.
  478. Which of the following is not a content of the submandibular triangle?





    E) Thyroid gland

    The contents of the submandibular triangle are: submandibular gland, facial artery, facial vein, stylohyoid muscle, hypoglossal nerve and lymph nodes.

    The contents of the muscular triangle are: infrahyoid muscles, thyroid gland and parathyroid glands.

    The contents of the carotid triangle are: carotid arteries, hypoglossal nerve and vagus nerve.
Author
carminaorlino
ID
355603
Card Set
Head, neck, and TMJ
Description
Updated