Neurology Exam Questions

  1. The cauda equina is located?

    A) At the end of the spinal cord below the first lumbar vertebra
  2. Patient with lesion in internal capsule has clinical picture:

    B) Corticospinal tract, Spinothalamic tract and Dorsal Column tract – all contralateral
  3. The brainstem consists of the?

    C) Pons, midbrain and medulla oblongata`
  4. Spasticity is:

    A) Central lesion
  5. Main nerve of sacral plexus is:

    B) Pudendal
  6. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the nervous system?

    A) 12
  7. Syringomyelic syndrome

    C) loss of pain and temperature sensation
  8. Complete spinal cord I transverse lesion of spinal cord at the cervical level may produce the following syndrome:

    D) Tetraplegia
  9. Dermatom is:

    D) Sensitive segment of skin supplied by one spinal nerve (posterior root)
  10. Which part of the brain regulates heartbeat, breathing and other vital functions?

    A) Brainstem
  11. The term hypesthesia refers to?

    D) Lessening of sensitivity to sensation
  12. Spinal cord hemisection syndrome (Brown - Séquard syndrome)

    A) Pain and thermal sensation affected at the contralateral side of the body below the level of the lesion (spinothalamic tract) + position and vibration sense affected on the same side of the lesion( posterior column tract) + motor paralysis below the lesion level ispilaterally
  13. Internal opthalmoplegia:

    A) Mydriasis (dilated, endlarged pupil) absent reaction to the light (both direct and indirect), absent accommodation
  14. The presence of ptosis suggests damage to cranial nerve:

    A) III
  15. In case of ischemic lesion of nervus facialis  (N.VII)  nucleus  in the brainstem:

    A) Both branches for upper and lower part of the face are affected
  16. The presence of lagophthalmos suggests damage to cranial nerve:

    D) VII
  17. Muscle rectus lateralis oculi is innervated by:

    A) Abducens nerve
  18. The damage to IX, X & XII cranial nerves produce:

    B) bulbar palsy
  19. Central lesion of nervus facialis (N.VII) is:

    A) Just lower part of the face, because the upper part is supplied from the corticobubar tract of the other side
  20. Central – Disharmonic syndrome:

    A) No correlation between the direction of nystagmus and tonic deviations
  21. Peripheral – Harmonic vestibular syndrome:

    A) All the above answers are correct
  22. Muscle rectus superior oculi is innervated by :

    A) Oculomotor nerve
  23. We will evaluate/assess the paresis:

    C) By Mingazzini
  24. Failure of muscle coordination, including unsteady movement, due to disorders in the cerebellum is called?

    C) Ataxia
  25. Babinski and hoffman are tests to evaluate?

    D) Reflexes
  26. After observing a normal gait, you can conclude that which of the following are intact?

    A) All the above
  27. As part of the neurological exam you have the patient stand straight with eyes closed to examine the sway. What is this called?

    D) Rhomberg
  28. The Locked-in syndrome is:

    A) It is a complete paralysis of the body resulting from a lesion in the brainstem. Oral and gestural communications are impossible but patients are often able to blink and move the eyes. Despite the fact that the patients cannot move, their sensations are still intact and they are fully aware of their environment and themselves
  29. The Wernicke’s area is located in the lobe:

    A) Temporal
  30. MMSE is an examination evaluating:

    D) Cognitive impairment
  31. Conduction aphasia

    A) Lesion involves the arcuate fasciculus
  32. A brain disorder marked by gradual deterioration of mental capacity, memory impairment and confusion is known as

    B) Alzheimer disease
  33. GCS of a comatose patient is

    C) 3-8
  34. Persistent vegetative state (apallic syndrome)

    B) Lack of cortical activity, brainstem functions such as spontaneous respiration, pulse, blood pressure are preserved
  35. Expresive (Broca´s) aphasia is:

    B) Patient understand what we are talking about, but He/She is not able to speak (can not find the words)
  36. GCS of a comatose patient is

    A) 7
  37. Clinical picture of patient with damage of the occipital lobe is:

    B) Vision problems
  38. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia & hemianopia develop together with disease in the:

    A) internal capsule
  39. Brown-Sequard syndrome develops with the following damage of the spinal cord:

    A) half transversal
  40. Gerstmann's syndrome

    D) Left – right confusion, Finger agnosia, Acalculia, Agraphia
  41. The Broca’s area is located in the lobe:

    A) Frontal
  42. Coup injury is:

    D) directly under the side of the impact
  43. Intracerebral hematom

    C) Tearing of the small blood vessels, most often within contusions of the frontal or temporal lobe
  44. Epidural hematom

    B) Traumatic tearing of dural artery, usually the middle meningeal artery
  45. Brain herniation is:

    D) All answers are correct
  46. Subdural hematom

    A) Traumatic tearing of bridging veins
  47. A specialized cell which conducts nerve impulses is called a / an ?

    A) Neuron
  48. The affection of cerebellar may produce any of the following EXCEPT:

    A) dyspraxia
  49. Which of the following is not an example of a deep tendon reflex?

    B) Gag
  50. Testing a patient’s toe reflex to see if toes curl with the pressure of an object is called:

    B) Babinskis test
  51. The inability to use or understand spoken or written language because of a bran lesion is known as ?

    B) Aphasia
  52. Babinski response, usually develops with damage in:

    C) lower motor neuron
  53. The presence of lagopthalmus suggests damage to cranial nerve:

    B) VII
  54. Main nerve of lumbar plexus is:

    D) Femoral
  55. Main nerve of brachial plexus is:

    C) Median
  56. Superior oblique muscle is innervated by :

    A) Trochlear
  57. External ophthalmoplegia:

    A) Characterized by double vision ( diplopia ), ptosis , divergent stabismus, inability of movements upwards, inwards and partialy downwards
  58. Internal opthalmoplegia:

    A) All the above answers are correct
  59. External ophthalmoplegia:

    A) All the above answers are correct
  60. Peripheral – Harmonic vestibular syndrome:

    A) All the above answers are correct
  61. Primitive reflexes – snout reflex, suck reflex, gasp reflex are positive :

    D) Prefrontal lobe syndrome
  62. Prefrontal syndrome:

    A) All the above answers are correct
  63. The term glioblastoma multiforme refers to a/an ?

    D) Rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of glial cells
  64. The term astrocytoma refers to a/an?

    C) Tumor composed of neuroglial cells (astocytes)
  65. A pituitary tumor that protrudes through the diaphragma sella is most likely to cause:

    B) Bitemporal hemianopsia
  66. A glove & stocking pattern of sensory disturbance usually develops with disease in:

    B) peripheral nerves
  67. Secondary “metastatic” brain tumors are:

    D) all the answers are correct
  68. Fibrillations (fasciculations) may develop with disease in:

    C) anterior horn of the spinal cord
  69. Neurinomas (schwannomas)

    B) can manifest as progressive hearing loss, tinnitus and disequilibrium, facial palsy, trigeminal sensor deficits
  70. Most common tumors in children and adolescents are:

    D) Pilocytic astrocytoma and medulloblastoma
  71. Most common tumors in adults are:

    D) Meningeoma, glioblastoma and pituitry tumours
  72. Meningioma

    C) Tumor from the arachnoid – benign
  73. Normal cerebral perfusion blood flow:

    C) 58ml/100g of brain/min
  74. How long is therapeutical window for tPA?

    D) 4,5 hours
  75. What is TIA?

    C) short neurological deficit, a few minutes (less 24 hours, usually less than 1 hour); negative MR DWI scan
  76. The region of the brain, in which neuronal function is deranged but potentially salvageable is?

    D) Penumbra
  77. NIHSS is a systematic assessment tool that quantifies:

    A) Stroke severity
  78. Intracerebral haemorrhage

    A) Tearing of the small blood vessels, most often within contusions of the frontal or temporal lobes
  79. Conservative treatment of aneurysm burst:

    A) Strict bed rest
  80. Subarachnoid haemorrhage

    B) Spontaneous or traumatic rupture of a saccular aneurysm of an artery at the base of the brain (Willis circle)
  81. General manifestations of intracranial haemorrhage:

    A) All the above
  82. General manifestations of intracranial haemorrhage:

    A) Progressive impairments of consciousness, possibly leading to coma
  83. What do we typically  see in CSF in multiple sclerosis?

    B) Oligoclonal bands
  84. Types of multiple sclerosis are:

    A) Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS), Secondary-progressive multiple sclerosis (SPMS), Primary-progressive multiple sclerosis (SPMS), and Progressive-relapsing multiple sclerosis (PRMS)
  85. Lhermitte sign :

    D) positive neck-flexion sign, active or passive forward flexion of the neck induces an electric or tingling paresthesia running down the spine into the limbs
  86. Retrobulbar neuritis :

    C) Typical clinical feature of MS
  87. Guillain barre syndrome is characterized by the presence:

    A) Antibodies against myelin of peripheral nerves
  88. Parkinson's disease is described by:

    A) Hypokinesia, rigidity, resting tremor
  89. AED is:

    A) Shortcut for antiepileptic drugs
  90. Radicular Lumboischiadical sy in L5 radiates:

    B) on the lateral part of the lower extremity to the lateral and ventral part of the crura, dorsum of foot to the big toe (2.-4.)
  91. Idiopathic Parkinson's disease

    A) Is the loss of pigmented dopamine secreting (dopaminergic) neurons in the substantia nigra with the lack of dopamine in the striatum
  92. An electroencephalogram (EEG)

    A) All the above
  93. Epilepsy treatment:

    A) All the above
  94. Radicular Lumboischiadical sy in S1 radiates:

    B) on the dorsal thigh to the calf and the plantar part of the foot to the hallux
  95. Status epilepticus:

    B) Refers to a prolonged, uninterrupted epileptic seizure or to multiple seizures occurring in rapid succession without fully recovery in between
  96. Main nerve of sacral plexus is:

    B) Sciatic
  97. Status epilepticus:

    D) It is a life threatening emergency because of the danger of respiratory complications (aspiration) and insulting hypoxic brain damage
  98. Hyperkinetic-hypotonic syndrome:

    B) Chorea
  99. Etiology of secondary parkinsonism can be:

    A) All the above
  100. Syndrome caudae equinae is:

    B) acute diagnosis
  101. Radicular pain in dermatom C8 radiates in to the:

    A) 4.-5. Fingers
  102. Essential tremor:

    D) characterized by action tremor diminished with rest, relaxation and use of ethanol
  103. Syndrome caudae equinae:

    A) All the above
  104. Gowers sign

    D) Clinical feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, patients can stand up from squatting position only by climbing up their own legs with hands
  105. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by the presence :

    C) Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors
  106. GCS of a comatose patient is

    A) 7
  107. X-rays:

    B) reveal fractures, bone tumours, degenerative changes such as spondylosis or spondyloathrosis, olisthesis – stability of the spine
  108. In case of an acute ischemic stroke the method of radiologic investigation choice is:

    B) CT +CTAg of brain
  109. Clinical features of myasthenia gravis :

    C) weakness of proximal limb muscles, extraocular muscles, and bulbar muscles, fatigability and fluctuation with regard to the muscle weakness
  110. Rhabdomyolysis is:

    D) is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle breaks down rapidly
  111. High body temperature of a patient with brain injury:

    D) Causes higher blood flow through brain, higher metabolic needs and increase of O2 and glucose utilization
  112. Hereditary Muscular Dystrophies of X-chromosomal Inheritance - Dystrophinopathies

    C) Almost exclusively seen in boys whose mothers are healthy carriers
  113. Low body temperature of a patient with brain injury:

    D) Causes lower blood flow through brain, lower metabolic needs and decrease of O2 and glucose utilization which improves the prognosis of the patient
  114. Injury of the cervical / thoracic spinal cord can cause

    A) bradycardia + hypotension
  115. Somatosenzory evoked potentials:

    A) All the above
  116. Scintigraphic visualization of dopamine transporter levels in the brain (Da Tscan)

    B) Is used for diagnosis of Parkinson disease
  117. Motor evoked potentials:

    B) Test the integrity of motor pathway
  118. Lambert – Eaton syndrome is characterized by the presence

    C) Antibodies against voltage-sensitive calcium channels in the motor nerve terminal
  119. Cushing's reflex:

    C) hypertension + bradycardia, clinical symptom of intracranial hypertension
  120. Conservative radiculopathy therapy:

    A) All the above
  121. Therapy of MS attacks:

    D) Corticosteroids
  122. Action of drugs on receptor binding :

    A) All the above
  123. CEA is indicated to patients that have:

    B) Symtptomatic stenosis 50% - 99% stenosis, Asymptomatic stenosis: 60% - 99% stenosis
  124. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a medical condition due to compression

    A) of the median nerve as it travels through the wrist at the carpal tunnel
  125. Surgical treatment of hydrocephalus:

    A) Cerebral shunt
  126. Migraine preventive therapy:

    A) all the above
  127. Indications of surgical treatment of vertebral algic syndrome :

    A) All the above
  128. Therapy of Parkinsons disease:

    D) L-dopa and dopamine agonists
  129. Surgical management of epilepsy  in a specific area of the brain may be possible for both adults and children, and might be considered if:

    C) several AEDs are tried and none of them has stopped or significantly reduced the patients seizures; (two or more AED)
  130. The presence of Laseuge sign suggests damage to the following:

    A) spinal roots L5-S1 or sciatic nerve
  131. In case of a traumatic complete lesion of the spinal cord at C6/C7

    B) hypereflexy rr. C5/C6
  132. Lumbar puncture is proceeded:

    A) only between vert. L3-L4
  133. Parkinson´s syndrome is:

    C) Hypokinetic-hypertonic sy
  134. Dyskinetic syndrome is:

    B) Hyperkinetic-hypotonic sy
  135. Lumbar puncture is diagnostic method number one for:

    A) both SAH and meningitis
  136. Dystrofynopathies are characterized by:

    A) by gene mutation of dystrofine (muscle protein) or its flawed expression
  137. Radicular Lumboischiadical sy in L5 radiates:

    A) on the lateral part of the lower extremity to the lateral and ventral part of the crura, dorsum of foot to the big toe (2.-4.)
  138. How long is therapeutical window for mechanical recanalization ( thrombectomy)

    A) Until 6 hours
  139. How long is therapeutical window for intravenous trombolysis ?

    C) 4,5
  140. The NIH Stroke Scale/Score (NIHSS) quantifies stroke severity based on :

    C) The weight of neurological evaluation findings.
  141. FAST is used :

    D) As a diagnostic evaluation of stroke before hospital
  142. General manifestations of subdural haemorrhage:

    A) Acute headache
  143. 1. The upper motor neuron impairment produces the following change of muscles tone:

    B) spasticity
  144. The muscular wasting (hypotrophy) usually develops with disease in:

    A) lower motor neuron
  145. 3. The temperature & pin sense loss usually develops with disease in:

    A) posterior horns of spinal cord
  146. The presence of ataxia suggests damage to any of the following EXCEPT:

    D) vagal nerve
  147. The ability to walk along a straight line is most often impaired with:

    A) cerebellar dysfunction
  148. Parkinsonism includes combination of the following:

    D) tremor, bradykinesia & muscles rigidity
  149. 10. Affection of the cerebellar may produce any of the following EXCEPT:

    D) positive Rinner & Weber test
  150. The presence of dysphagia suggests damage to cranial nerves:

    C) IX-X
  151. The presence of dysarthria suggests damage to cranial nerve:

    A) XII
  152. Dysphasia suggests the impairment of:

    B) speech
  153. The patient with apraxia cannot:

    A) carry out an imagined act
  154. Meningeal sign is the following

    C) Kernig
  155. Any of the following syndromes is the involuntary movement EXCEPT:

    A) paresis
  156. Central paresis, loss of proprioceptive sensation on one side & loss of exteroceptive sensation on the opposite form the following syndrome:

    A) Brown-Sequard
  157. The polyneuropathic pattern of sensory loss suggests  presence of the following syndrome:

    C) numbness & pain in distal parts of extremities
  158. The presence of hemianesthesia, hemianopia & sensory hemiataxia suggests  damage to the following:

    D) thalamus opticus
  159. The presence of Laseuge sign suggests  damage to the following:

    D)  spinal roots L5-S1 or sciatic nerve
  160. The presence of dysdiadochokinesis suggests  damage to the following:

    A) cerebellar
  161. The presence of Parkinsonism suggests damage to the following:

    D) black substance
  162. In initial stage of Parkinson disease the most typical involuntary movement is the following:

    C) tremor
  163. The autonomic nervous system includes any of the following EXCEPT:

    D) cerebral cortex
  164. One of the most important functions of the autonomic nervous system is the following:

    A) regulation of homeostasis
  165. Any of the following cranial nerves has the parasympathetic nucleus EXCEPT:

    D) olfactory
  166. The presence of anosmia suggests damage to the following cranial nerve:

    C) I
  167. Trigeminal nerve impairment produces the following symptoms:

    C) ache paroxysm in half of the face
  168. The presence of Bell’s palsy suggests damage to the following cranial nerve:

    B) facial
  169. Dysphagia, dyphonia, dysarthria together with tongue atrophy & depressed “gag” reflex is called like following:

    D) bulbar palsy
  170. The disturbance of purposive movement in absence of paresis & dyscoordination suggests the presence of the following:

    C) dyspraxia
  171. Meningeal syndrome suggests any of the following, EXCEPT:

    D) Babynsky response
Card Set
Neurology Exam Questions
Multiple choice questions: winter and summer