1. Before Meals:

    B) ac
  2. Drop (med instruction abbreviation)

    C) gtt
  3. Whenever Necessary, As Needed(med instruction abbreviation)

    B) PRN
  4. Every (Med instruction abbreviation)

    A) qs
  5. Sufficient Amount

    B) qs
  6. Nothing By Mouth

    D) NPO
  7. Immediately

    D) stat
  8. After Meals

    A) pc
  9. Twice Daily

    D) bid
  10. Write on Bottle

    A) sig
  11. _____includes substances that have a high potential for abuse and no approved medical use in the United States. They are illegal, and providers may not prescribe them. These include heroin, mescaline, and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). Schedule I still includes cannabis (marijuana) even though it is legal in many states for medical use with a prescription.

    E) Schedule I
  12. ______includes substances that have a high potential for abuse, are considered dangerous, and can lead to psychological and physical dependence. These include morphine, methadone, oxycodone, hydromorphone, hydrocodone, fentanyl, and methamphetamine. Providers must give patients a handwritten prescription with no refills. In health care facilities, staff members must keep these in a secure, locked cabinet or storage area separate from other medications.

    B) Schedule II
  13. ____includes substances that have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. These include ketamine, anabolic steroids, and testosterone. Providers must give patients a handwritten prescription. They may refill them five times in 6 months

    B) Schedule III
  14. ____includes substances that have a low potential for abuse and dependence. These include diazepam, zolpidem, eszopiclone, alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, and clonazepam. Providers must sign prescriptions for these substances, and patients may refill them five times in 6 months. Staff members may authorize refills over the phone

    C) Schedule IV
  15. ___includes substances that contain limited quantities of some narcotics, usually for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes. These include diphenoxylate with atropine, pregabalin, lacosamide, and opium/kaolin/pectin/belladonna. Providers must sign prescriptions for these substances, and patients may refill them five times in 6 months. Staff members may authorize refills over the phone

    C) Schedule V
  16. Heart Rate Range for newborns (birth to 1 month)

    D) 120-160/bpm
  17. Heart Rate Range for infants (1 to 12 months)

    F) 80-140/bpm
  18. Heart Rate range for toddlers (1 to 3 years)

    E) 80-130/bpm
  19. Heart Rate range for Preschool (3 to 5 years)

    F) 80-120/bpm
  20. Heart Rate range for school-age (6 to 15 years)

    E) 70-100/bpm
  21. Heart Rate range for adults (older than 15 years)

    E) 60-100/bpm
  22. A,E,D and K are all what type of vitamin?

    C) Fat Soluble
  23. B Vitamins, biotin and vitamin C are all what type of vitamin?

    A) Water Soluble
  24. The primary code in the CPT coding system consists of how many digits?

    B) five digits
  25. An MA is observing a patient after administering an antibiotic injection. The patient develops an itchy rash with pinkish, raised lesions. Which of the following terms should the assistant use when documenting this finding in the patients medical record?

    B) Urticaria
  26. When should the code on glucose cuvettes be compared to the code on the glucometer?

    C) Before the patient is tested
  27. Which of the following should a medical assistant identify as the purpose of a Category II code in procedural coding?

    B) Tracks provider performance measures
  28. A pulse ox can register an artificially low oxygen saturation measurement for a patient who has which of the following conditions?

    D) Cold Fingers
  29. When preforming a spirometry test for a PT with shortness of breath, which of the following indicates a successful maneuver?

    A) Fast and steady flow with no variability
  30. What manifestations should you see in a PT experiencing heatstroke?

    B) hot skin
  31. When administering eye ointment to a patient...

    B) Apply a thin ribbon of ointment along the conjunctival sac
  32. What to antitussive mediations do?

    A) suppresses cough reflex
  33. Skin lesions of psoriasis exhibit which of the following characteristics?

    B) Silvery, Scaly
  34. Which of the following methods is used to notify a provider of the denial of a claim by an insurance carrier?

    A) Remittance advice

    A remittance advice document itemizes all paid, denied and allowable charges for a patient. This document notifies the provider of any and all claim denials.
  35. When assigning a CPT code, what is the purpose of a modifier?

    A) Provides additional information or circumstances for a procedure
  36. A medical assistant is reviewing the progress notes of a patients record that uses the SOAP format. Which of the following would the medical assistant find in the assessment section

    A) Diagnosis
  37. A medical assistant is drawing 5 blood collection tubes. When should the assistant release the tourniquet

    D) Within 1 min of application
  38. When collecting multiple blood samples from a patient, which tube should be filled first?

    C) Yellow (Blood culture)
  39. A patient loses consciousness. The EKG tracing reveals ventricular fibrillation. What action should be taken first?

    B) Call for help and begin CPR
  40. Stage 2 hyper tension range
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