2021 CQT Questions

  1. 1.) Q.1.1 What is the main concept of the Southwest Airlines Operational Philosophy?
    • Southwest Airlines prospers when we are safe, low cost,
    • reliable, and hospitable.

    Reference: FOM 2.1
  2. 2.) Q.1.2 What guidance does the Southwest Airlines Operational Philosophy provide when operations do not go according to plan?
    • When the operation does not go as planned, we will
    • always be safe and hospitable while balancing low cost
    • and reliability.

    Reference: FOM 2.1
  3. 3.) Q1.3 Describe how the Flight Ops/Dispatch Operational Priorities align with the SWA Operational Philosophy?
    • The most important Flight Operations/Dispatch decisionmaking
    • priority is Safety. No Priority at SWA takes
    • precedence over the well-being of our People, Customers,
    • and equipment.

    Reference: FOM 2.2.2
  4. 4.) Q1.4 Why are operational priorities and standardization
    important?
    • Operational standardization creates predictable
    • performance that allows Pilots to quickly recognize
    • deviation from normal performance and apply appropriate
    • corrective action.

    Reference: FOM 2.2.4
  5. 5.) Q1.5. When might a deviation from company policies be acceptable?
    • • Compliance with Company policies is required unless
    • safety necessitates another course of action.

    • • In an emergency situation that requires immediate
    • decision and action, the Captain may take any action
    • necessary under the circumstances. In such a case,
    • the Captain may deviate from Southwest Airlines'
    • operations procedures.

    Reference: AOM 3.1, FOM 5.1.4
  6. 6.) Q1.6 Who is responsible for standardization on the Flight Deck?
    • Captains are expected to demonstrate disciplined use of
    • standard procedures and ensure First Officers understand
    • and use standard procedures. First Officers are expected
    • to remain vigilant and alert to ensure that the Captain has
    • not overlooked anything of importance. Both Flight Deck
    • Crew Members should consistently support each other in
    • every phase of flight.

    Reference: FOM 2.2.6
  7. 7.) Q2.1 What is the definition of Clean Aircraft Concept?
    • No person may take off in an aircraft when frost, ice, or
    • snow is adhering to the wings, (to include winglets) control
    • surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the
    • aircraft. There are three exceptions.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.1
  8. 8.) Q2.2 What are some of the exceptions to the Clean Aircraft Concept?
    • • Thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage
    • provided all vents and ports are clear.

    • CSFF up to 1/8” on lower wing surfaces.

    • • CSFF on the upper wing surface in accordance with
    • the Deice/Anti Ice Procedures Card.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.1, Deice/Anti Ice Procedures Card
  9. 9.) Q2.3 After referencing the Deice Information Page (DIP) for a station, it is determined deicing/ anti-icing is preferred with engines off. With engines off and APU on, when can the bleed air sources be configured for takeoff?
    • APU Bleed - one minute after deice complete

    • Engine Bleed Switches - one minute after rollback

    Reference: AOM 15.1.10.1, Deice/Anti Ice Procedures Card
  10. 10.) Q2.4 What are the only conditions in which Pilots are authorized to perform a Pilot Precipitation Assessment?
    • • When the current weather report is reporting
    • precipitation which is not being observed from the
    • Flight Deck

    • • Adequate lighting and visual cues are available to
    • perform an accurate assessment

    Reference: AOM 15.1.7, Deice/Anti Ice Procedures Card
  11. 11.) Q2.5 What must the Crew accomplish, when conducting a Pilot Precipitation Assessment, departure is imminent, no precipitation is present and a new weather observation is not issued confirming "no" precipitation?
    • • Send a message to Dispatch through ACARS (or via
    • radio) stating “No Precipitation.”

    • • Confirm the aircraft is free of precipitation by
    • performing a Flight Deck Check.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.7, Deice/Anti Ice Procedures Card
  12. 12.) Q2.6 Describe the One-Step method.
    • • Type I Fluid is applied section by section on the entire
    • aircraft for deicing and anti-icing protection

    • Provides a limited HOT

    • Used when type IV is not required

    Reference: AOM 15.1.9, Deice/Anti Ice Procedures Card
  13. 13.) Q2.7 Describe the Two-Step method.
    • • This method consists of deicing the entire aircraft with
    • Type I Fluid

    • • Type IV Fluid is then applied on the horizontal
    • surfaces only (wings & horizontal stabilizer) for
    • enhanced anti-ice protection

    • • Provides maximum HOT
    • The application of Type IV fluid is not required on the
    • vertical stabilizer, winglets, and scimitars during a Two-
    • Step method.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.9, Deice/Anti Ice Procedures Card
  14. 14.) Q2.8 What resources are available to determine engine
    run-up requirements in icing conditions during taxi and
    before takeoff?
    • Engine Run-up in Icing Conditions During Taxi and Takeoff
    • Table

    • Note: The path to locate the table is: SIP > DEICE > DIP >
    • HOT/Allowance Times hyperlink > Winter Operations
    • Reference Page

    Reference: AOM 15.1.14, Winter Operations Reference Page
  15. You arrive at the gate in DEN to begin your three day trip at 1200L. The current ATIS is KDEN 011753Z 35008KT
    2SM –SN BKN040 0/0 A2992.

    15.) Q2.9 During the preflight the First Officer notes there is
    ice on the back side of the engine fan blades. How would
    you manage this situation?
    • Coordinate with ramp personnel to use warm/heated air.
    • Since it is applied to the aircraft under pressure, Type I
    • Fluid is unsuitable for direct application to certain areas
    • such as the engine, windshield, probes, static ports, and
    • APU inlet.
    • Spraying deicing/anti-icing fluid into the engine
    • intake is prohibited. Warm/heated air must be used to
    • deice the engine inlet, fan blades, and spinner.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.9
  16. 16.) Q2.10 The Ops Agent informs the Captain that Ground Deicing/Anti-Icing Operations are in effect.
    Is the Captain required to have the aircraft deiced/anti-iced? Why?
    • No.
    • If the aircraft is free of contamination and the Captain
    • determines that it will remain so while on the ground, the
    • Captain may decide the aircraft does not require
    • deicing/anti-icing.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.5
  17. 17.) Q2.11 The crew determines deicing is required and estimates it will take 5 minutes to taxi from the deice/antiice pad to takeoff. DEN is using Clariant Safewing MP IV
    Launch type IV fluid. Both the One-Step and Two-Step methods are available. Which method should the crew use to deice/anti-ice the aircraft, using the HOTs app?
    • Based off of the derived snow fall intensity of light snow
    • the HOTs are:
    • • One-Step method – 0:08-0:14
    • • Two-Step method – 1:20-2:09
    • The One-Step method is a viable option. Holdover time
    • starts at the beginning of the final fluid application.
    • Completing the fluid application, remain checklist, and a 5
    • minute taxi would allow the aircraft to takeoff within the 14
    • minute upper limit of the One-Step method HOT.

    Reference: APS App, Winter Operations Reference Page
  18. 18.) Q2.12 When is a cabin check required?
    • A cabin check is required when the HOT is exceeded or
    • any time heavy snow is present.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.13, Deice/ Anti-Ice Procedures Card
  19. 19.) Q2.13 The Crew is developing a Shared Mental Model to perform engine run-ups for their NG aircraft.
    What engine run-up procedure is required in this situation?
    • NG – An engine run-up of 70% to establish stable
    • operation (30 seconds recommended) is required in
    • conjunction with the takeoff.
    • MAX – An engine run-up of 50% for 5 seconds is required
    • within 5 minutes of or in conjunction with the takeoff.

    Reference: AOM 15.1.12, Winter Operations Reference Page
  20. 20.) Q2.14 A new ATIS is issued during pushback: KDEN
    011833Z Special 35008KT 1SM -PLFZRA BKN040 -1/-3.
    What is your allowance time using a Two Step Method,
    assuming the HOTs app is unavailable?
    19 minutes

    Reference: AOM 15.1.21, Winter Operations Reference Page
  21. Determination of Takeoff Minimums

    21.) Q3.1 What is the Standard Takeoff Minimum for SWA B737 aircraft?
    5000 RVR or 1 SM

    Reference: FOM 9.2
  22. 22.) Q3.2 How do you determine if lower than standard takeoff minimums are authorized?
    • OpSpec C056 authorizes lower than standard takeoff
    • minimums and are authorized for a specific runway, under
    • any of the following conditions:
    • • The SID or Jeppesen -9/-9A page includes any of the
    • following terms and the applicable climb gradient can
    • be met:
    • o STD
    • o Standard
    • o Standard (or lower than standard, if authorized)
    • • A takeoff minimum is not published.

    Reference: FOM 9.2
  23. 23.) Q3.3 What else should be considered in determining takeoff minimums, besides the weather, SID, the Airport Info, or Take-Off Minimums Chart (eg. Jepp 10-9A)?
    • Reference published NOTAMs for inoperative RVR
    • equipment and visual aids.

    Reference: FOM 9.2.1
  24. You are at gate B6 in LGA. The clearance has you departing on the GLDMN RNAV SID.
    The current METAR is 
    15006KT 1/8SM FG VV001 14/14 A2992 TDZ RVR 600 RO RVR 600.
    LGA departures are using RW13.


    24.) Q3.4. What are the considerations when determining the takeoff minimums for LGA RW 13 if no SID is assigned?
    • Review the Jeppesen -9/-9A page (Takeoff Minimums and
    • Obstacle Departure Procedures or Diverse Vector Area
    • sections, as applicable) to determine takeoff minimums
    • and/or climb gradient requirements for the planned
    • runway.
    • • If standard takeoff minimums are authorized, lower
    • than standard takeoff minimums are authorized by
    • OpSpec C078. Comply with the runway-specific climb
    • gradient.
    • Then:
    • Use Table 9.1 Lower Than Standard Takeoff Visibility
    • Requirements to determine lower than standard takeoff
    • minimums.
    • • Review the weather report to determine the type of
    • visibility reports available and number of reporting
    • RVRs, if applicable.
    • • The availability of lighting and visual aids can be
    • determined by referencing the Jeppesen -9/-9A page.

    Reference: Jepp LGA 10-9A, FOM 9.2.1
  25. 25.) Q3.5 The TERPS standard minimum climb gradient is 200’/NM.
    What is the required climb gradient for runway 13 if no SID is assigned?
    • The 10-9A page shows that Standard (or lower) Takeoff
    • Minimums for runway 13 requires a minimum climb of
    • 280’/NM to 500 ft.

    Reference: Jepp LGA 10-9A, FOM 9.2.1
  26. 26.) Q3.6 The 10-9A page shows that Standard (or lower) Takeoff Minimums for runway 13 requires a minimum climb of 280’/NM to 500 ft. What are the minimum visibility requirements?
    TDZ RVR 5, Rollout RVR 5 with CL and HIRL.

    Reference: Jepp LGA 10-9A, FOM 9.2.1
  27. 27.) Q3.7 What climb gradient should be entered into the
    PWB Takeoff Conditions for the GLDMN 6 SID, RW 13?
    620 per NM to 4,000

    Reference: Jepp LGA 10-3, AOM 17.6 Step 9
  28. Destination Alternates

    28.) Q4.1 What are the derived weather minimums required for an alternate?
    • For airports with at least one operational navigational
    • facility providing a straight-in non-precision approach
    • procedure; or CAT I precision approach; or, when
    • applicable, a circling maneuver from an IAP.
    • • Add 400 ft. to MDA(H) or DA(H), as applicable
    • • Add 1 SM (1,600 m) to the landing minimum
    • For airports with at least two operational navigational
    • facilities providing a straight-in approach procedure to
    • different suitable runways.
    • • Add 200 ft. to higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the two
    • approaches used
    • • Add ½ SM (800 m) to the higher authorized landing
    • minimum/ of the two approaches used
    • No flight may continue to an airport to which it has been
    • dispatched unless the weather conditions at an alternate
    • airport specified in the Dispatch Release are forecast to be
    • at or above the alternate minimums specified.
    • Reference: FOM Table 17.5, FOM 17.4.4
  29. 29.) Q4.2 When are two alternates required?
    • When the weather conditions forecast for both the
    • destination and the alternate airport are less than 600 ft.
    • ceiling and less than 2 miles visibility (defined as
    • “marginal” weather), at least one additional alternate must
    • be designated, dispatched using exemption 3585 or
    • dispatched using NGRVR.

    Reference: FOM 17.4.3, 17.1.4
  30. 30.) Q4.3 What distance and flight profile does Dispatch use to calculate fuel required for the alternate?
    • A distance to the alternate based on a great circle route
    • plus a minimum distance bias of 30 NM.
    • The fuel burn is based on forecast winds aloft and is calculated using the aircraft weight at the arrival airport; it includes sufficient fuel for climbing to altitude, LRC to the alternate, a normal profile descent, and landing.

    Reference: FOM 17.6.5
  31. 31.) Q4.4 Regarding domestic flights, how much flight time does FAR RESERVE fuel provide at the alternate?
    • 45 min of endurance time at the planned destination or a
    • planned alternate after a diversion.
    • Based on LRC at the TOD altitude.

    Reference: FOM 17.6.6
  32. 32.) Q4.5 What resource can be used to determine fuel requirements for an international flight?
    IFOM Flight Planning

    Reference: IFOM 5
  33. 33.) Q4.6 What value does PWB auto-populate into the RESERVES block (4L) on the FMC PERF INIT page?
    • Defaults to 4.4 (4,400 lb). Populates with the sum of FAR
    • RESERVE and ALTERNATE fuel as listed on the Dispatch
    • Release.
    • The RESERVES value is never less than 4.4.

    Reference: FO Bulletin 20-35
  34. You are filed on a domestic flight from MDW to ALB. The weather in ALB is forecast to be 0000KT P6SM BKN015 for 1 hour prior to and after your ETA.

    34.) Q4.7 Do you need a destination alternate?
    • Yes, unless dispatched under Exemption 15466 (1-1-2 or
    • 1-1-3 Rules).

    Reference: FOM 17.4.3
  35. 35.) Q4.8 If RW 1/19 is NOTAM closed is an alternate required?
    • Yes, since RW 10/28 does not have a CAT I ILS
    • Exemption 15466 (1-1-3 Rule) cannot be used.

    Reference: FOM 17.4.3
  36. 36.) Q5.1 What are the defaults for holding turn direction and leg time?
    If no FMC entry is made the FMC assumes:

    • Right turns

    • • Standard times of 1.0 min at or below 14,000 ft. and
    • 1.5 min above 14,000 ft.


    Reference: FRM 11.11.5.1
  37. 37.) Q5.2 What are the maximum holding speeds? (Domestic airspace)
    • • 200 kts up to & incl 6,000 ft. (1 min timing)
    • • 230 kts up to & incl 14,000 ft. (1 min timing)
    • • 265 kts above 14,000 ft. (1 ½ min timing)

    Reference: FOM 10.5
  38. 38.) Q5.3 Who should act as the PF during holding while coordinating with Dispatch?
    • The Captain transfers aircraft control to the First Officer
    • while coordinating with Dispatch.

    Reference: FOM 10.5
  39. 39.) Q5.4 Other than ACARS free text, what other ACARS resource is available to notify Dispatch of your holding status?
    ACARS Holding Report

    Reference: FOM 16.2.5
  40. 40.) Q5.5 How is the FMC used to determine arrival fuel when holding?
    • The destination on the Progress page displays the
    • predicted fuel remaining at the destination.

    Reference: FRM 11.9.3.4
  41. 41.) Q5.6 How can you determine the holding time available?
    • HOLD AVAIL (LSK4R) on the Hold Page displays
    • available holding time in hours + minutes remaining if
    • destination is to be reached with planned fuel RESERVES
    • as entered on the PERF INIT page.

    Reference: FRM 11.11.5.1
  42. 42.) Q5.7 Other than ACARS free text, what other ACARS resource is available to notify Dispatch of your diversion decision?
    ACARS Diversion Report.

    Reference: FOM 16.2.5
  43. Enroute to your destination, Dispatch sends you an ACARS message informing you your destination is now below minimums.
    They inquire which airport you’ll select from the two alternates for your diversion.
    You 
    inform ATC you would like to hold to assess the options.
    ATC informs you to hold at your present position.


    43.) Q5.8 How is Present Position Hold programmed in the FMC?
    • 1. Select the FMC HOLD function key
    • 2. Select PPOS (LSK 6R)
    • 3. Select Execute

    Reference: FRM 11.11.5.1
  44. 44.) Q5.9 You complete your ABCD process and agree with Dispatch on your divert airport.
    How do you select the Exit Hold function and what does it do?
    • 1. Select EXIT HOLD (LSK 6R) > “EXIT ARMED”
    • 2. Select Execute
    • Execution activates LNAV flight guidance back to the
    • holding fix via a holding pattern, departure from holding
    • pattern, and continued flight along active route.

    Reference: FRM 11.11.5.1
  45. 45.) Q5.10 What resource is available to coordinate diversion information?
    • Diversion Information from the Normal Checklist Flight
    • Deck Card.

    Reference: AOM 20.1
  46. 46.) Q6.1 What is the AOM policy guidance associated with flap extensions?
    • • Avoid selecting flaps at or near the Flaps Placard Limit
    • Speed.

    • • Extend and retract flaps using the PFD flap
    • maneuvering speeds (on the recommended speed
    • schedules).

    • CAUTION: Extending the flaps at or near the flap placard
    • limit speed can result in an inadvertent flap overspeed in
    • gusty wind conditions. Flap extension significantly above
    • the maneuver speed for the current flap position can result
    • in a flap overspeed if the flap lever is inadvertently moved
    • beyond the requested position.

    Reference: AOM 3.9, 11.1.3.3
  47. 47.) Q6.2 What is the purpose of the TE Load relief system?
    The system protects the flaps from excessive air loads.

    Reference: NG FRM 9.2.7.2, MAX FRM 9.2.8.2
  48. 48.) Q6.3 What are the flap settings which enable the TE Flap Load Relief function?
    • -700: Flaps 30 and 40

    • -800/ MAX: Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30, and 40


    Reference: NG FRM 9.2.7.2, MAX FRM 9.2.8.2
  49. 49.) Q6.4 What is required of the Captain when an ACARS OVRSPD DETECTED message is generated in the post flight report?
    • Record the overspeed information in the logbook and
    • notify Dispatch/Maintenance Control.
    • Note: The overspeed message, or lack thereof, does not
    • relieve the Flight Deck Crew of the responsibility to write
    • up an overspeed and notify Dispatch/ Maintenance
    • Control.

    Reference: FOM 16.2.5
  50. 50.) Q7.1 When should a pilot perform the Before Top of Descent Tasks?
    50 NM before TOD or 150 NM from destination.

    Reference: FOM 10.4
  51. 51.) Q7.2 Describe the touchdown zone.
    • The area of the runway 500 ft. to 3,000 ft. beyond the
    • landing threshold not to exceed the first one-third of the
    • runway.
    • Do not confuse the planned point of touchdown (1,000 ft.
    • to 1,500 ft. from the landing threshold) with the TDZ. The
    • impact to landing performance must be considered for any
    • touchdown past 1,500 ft. from the landing threshold

    Reference: FOM Glossary
  52. 52.) Q7.3 What is the last point you can initiate a go around?
    • A go around is possible until the thrust reverser levers are
    • raised.

    Reference: AOM 12.1.1
  53. 53.) Q7.4 What stabilized approach criteria must be met by 1,000 ft. above TDZE?
    • • In the planned landing configuration
    • • In the Target speed range
    • • On an appropriate glide path with a normal descent
    • rate
    • • For approaches where maneuvering is required, wings
    • essentially are level on centerline by 500 ft. above
    • TDZE

    Reference: FOM Figure 11.1
  54. 54.) Q7.5 What is the Pilot Monitoring responsibility in the event of an unstabilized approach?
    • It is the duty and responsibility of any Flight Deck Crew
    • Member to execute or direct a go-around/missed approach
    • when stabilized approach criteria are not met.

    Reference: FOM Figure 11.1
  55. You are flying from PHX to SAN and have received your PWB Landing Data.
    Your stopping margin is AB2-500, 
    AB3-1500, ABM-2000.

    55.) Q7.6 What is the runway usable length if landing on RWY 27?
    7,591 ft


    Reference: Jepp SAN 10-9A
  56. 56.) Q7.7 Which is the limiting factor if AB2 were selected, the PWB stopping margin or the Touchdown Zone?
    • The PWB stopping margin added to the last planned point
    • of touchdown (1,500’+500’=2,000’) would be more limiting
    • than the Touchdown Zone (7,591’/3=2,530’).

    Reference: AOM 12.1.1
  57. 57.) Q7.8 What manual braking technique is used to approximate autobrake 2?
    • Minimum braking (autobrake 2) can be approximated by
    • accomplishing a normal landing using spoilers and reverse
    • thrust, with light manual braking initiated at approximately
    • 80 kts.

    • Note: Any time the Min (2) stopping margin is negative
    • (dashes), begin manual braking immediately after nose
    • wheel touchdown.

    Reference: AOM 12.1.1
  58. Q7.9 Which is the limiting factor if AB3 were selected, the PWB stopping margin or the Touchdown Zone?
    • The Touchdown Zone (7,591’/3=2,530’) is more limiting
    • than the PWB stopping margin added to the last planned
    • point of touchdown (1,500’+1,500’=3,000’).

    Reference: AOM 12.1.1
  59. 59.) Q7.10 When is a go-around required with regard to point of landing on the runway?
    • • A landing in the touchdown zone cannot be safely
    • accomplished.

    • • The aircraft touches down beyond 1,500 ft. with an
    • insufficient PWB System-computed stopping margin.


    Reference: AOM 11.5.1, 12.1.1
  60. During cruise flight the DRIVE light illuminates.

    60.) Q8.1 Which Crew member is responsible for calling for the QRH DRIVE Checklist?
    The Captain calls for the QRH DRIVE Checklist.

    Reference: QRH Non-Normal Checklist
  61. 61.) Q8.2 What could cause the DRIVE light to illuminate?
    • IDG failure

    • IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature

    • • IDG disconnected through generator drive
    • DISCONNECT switch

    • Engine shutdown


    Reference: FRM 6.2.4.1
  62. 62.) Q8.3 Why does the QRH direct the generator drive DISCONNECT switch to be placed in the Disconnect position?
    Disconnection prevents generator drive damage.

    Reference: QRH DRIVE Checklist
  63. 63.) Q8.4 How is the transfer bus powered if the respective IDG is disconnected?
    • If the BUS TRANSER switch is in the AUTO position, the
    • source powering the opposite transfer bus automatically
    • picks up the unpowered transfer bus through the bus tie
    • breaker.


    Reference: FRM 6.2.3.1
  64. 64.) Q8.5 How does load shedding function for single generator operation?
    • The system is designed to automatically shed electrical
    • load incrementally based on actual load sensing.


    Reference: FRM 6.2.3.2
  65. 65.) Q8.6 What is the implication if the APU will not start in the scenario?
    • One main AC source is remaining and you should land at
    • the nearest suitable airport.


    Reference: QRH Non-Normal Checklist Operation
  66. 66.) Q8.7 When is landing in excess of the maximum structural landing weight permitted?
    • Only in an abnormal or emergency situation where the
    • Captain exercises command (emergency) authority.
    • The declaration of an emergency is not required solely for an
    • overweight landing but the situation that caused the
    • overweight landing may necessitate a declaration.


    Reference: AOM 12.1.6
  67. 67.) Q8.8 What flaps setting is recommended for an overweight landing?
    Flaps 30


    Reference: AOM 12.1.6
  68. 68.) Q8.9 What are the reporting requirements for an overweight landing?
    • • Notify Station Ops
    • • Notify Dispatch
    • • Make a logbook entry
    • • Complete an IR


    Reference: AOM 12.1.6, FOM Table 22.1
  69. While at cruise your Master Caution light and left side system annunciator IRS light illuminate.
    You glance up 
    and note both DC FAIL lights illuminated on the IRS panel. The First Officer states, “Both DC FAIL lights illuminated” and cancels the Master Caution.

    69.) Q8.10 How would you assess this?
    • The DC power for the left and right IRS is not normal but
    • each IRS is operating normally on AC power.

    Reference: FRM 11.1.3.2
  70. 70.) Q8.11 What QRH Checklist would the Captain call for?
    IRS DC FAIL Checklist.


    Reference: QRH IRS DC FAIL
  71. 71.) Q8.12 What action can help determine if Engine and APU fire extinguishing may be inoperative?
    Check the battery voltage on the DC Metering Panel.


    Reference: FRM 6.1.2
  72. 72.) Q8.13 How would your decision to consider landing at the nearest suitable airport be affected if the BAT DISCHARGE light also illuminated?
    • The BAT DISCHARGE light indicates excessive battery
    • discharge is detected.
    • Consequently, there may be insufficient battery power to support the hot battery bus and fire extinguishing capability.
    • You should land at the nearest suitable airport.


    • Reference: FRM 6.1.2, FOM 5.1.
    • 9
  73. During cruise flight in route to SAT the following lights illuminate: Master Caution, left System Annunciator ELEC, TR UNIT.

    The current SAT weather is:
    ATIS INFO U 1845Z 13005KT 3/4SM OVC004 10/05 A2992 ILS RW 13R APPROACHES IN USE

    RAF 0.15 AVAILABLE 12:05Z TO 12:05Z

    Q8.14 How would you assess these indications?
    TR1 has failed or TR2 & TR3 have failed.


    Reference: FRM 6.2.5.1
  74. 74.) Q8.15 What QRH Checklist would the Captain call for with a TR Unit failure?
    CA should call for the TR UNIT.


    Reference: QRH TR UNIT
  75. 75.) Q8.16 Why does the QRH prohibit use of the AFDS approach mode?
    • At glideslope capture the cross bus tie relay automatically
    • opens isolating DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 to prevent a
    • single failure from affecting both navigation receivers and
    • flight control computers.


    Reference: FRM 6.2.5.1, QRH TR UNIT
  76. 76.) Q8.17 What are some resources you have available to help determine if you should continue to your destination?
    • Establish a shared mental model with Dispatch, regarding
    • destination weather and approaches available.


    Reference: FOM 17.1.3
  77. 77.) Q8.18 What criteria should be considered when using RNAV Z RWY 13R, RNP 0.15?
    • Below 1,000 ft. ceiling or 3 mile visibility down to ½ mile or
    • 1800 RVR:

    • • Autopilot use is required for approaches with an RNP
    • less than 0.30 NM

    • • Both flight directors must be operative and used for the
    • approach

    • Either pilot may fly the approach and land


    Reference: JEPP KSAT 12-21, AOM 11.4.2.2
  78. 78.) Q8.19 The weather has improved to 13005KT 1SM OVC005 10/05 A2992 and you decide to use the LOC RW13R Approach without VNAV. Your VTGT is 140 kts.

    When will you need to be fully configured and what initial descent rate will you fly after the FAF?
    Select landing flaps prior to the FAF. Descent rate of 750 fpm.


    Reference: JEPP KSAT 11-2, AOM 11.4.3.1
  79. 79.) Q8.20 Who is the Captain required to contact when there is an open Maintenance defect with a terminating aircraft?
    • When terminating an aircraft with a defect or concern, call
    • Dispatch and ask for a patch with Maintenance Control to
    • inform both parties.
    • Accomplish this whether or not Maintenance Personnel have met the aircraft.


    Reference: AOM 14.1
  80. 80.) Q.9.1 What is the power source used to start the APU?
    • With AC power available the starter generator uses AC
    • power.
    • With no AC power the starter generator uses
    • battery power.


    Reference: NG FRM 7.4.2.3, MAX FRM 7.3.2.4
  81. 81.) Q9.2 If the APU fails to start with no indications of a malfunction, what are the considerations before conducting a restart?
    • Wait 90 seconds between APU start attempts and if the
    • APU fails to start after the third attempt, call Dispatch and
    • Maintenance.
    • Do not attempt a fourth start.


    Reference: AOM 3.8.6
  82. 82.) Q9.3 How long after the APU GEN OFF BUS extinguishes should you wait to position the battery switch to OFF?
    NG 2 minutes

    MAX 3 minutes


    Reference: NG AOM 14.2, MAX AOM 14.2
  83. You arrive at the aircraft for the first flight of your day and you note the Dispatch Release includes MEL 24-2 APU Generator System.

    Q9.4 What additional resources are available while assessing the factors associated with the engine start?
    AOM Supplemental Engine Start Procedures.


    Reference: AOM 16.7.1
  84. 84.) Q9.5 What extra briefings are required for this engine
    start?
    • A briefing is conducted between the ground crew and the
    • Captain.


    Reference: AOM 16.7.1
  85. 85.) Q9.6 During the engine start the FO should observe 25% N2 or maximum motoring.
    What is the indication for maximum motoring?
    • Maximum motoring is less than 1% N2 rise in
    • approximately 5 seconds.

    Minimum N2 for start is 20%.


    Reference: AOM 7.2
  86. 86.) Q9.7 What is the normal starter cutout speed?
    NG 56% N2

    MAX 63% N2


    Reference: AOM 7.2
  87. 87.) Q9.8 How is the APU Fire Detection capability checked during preflight?
    Use the Test switch on Fire Protection Panel

    • FAULT/INOP position tests fault detection circuit

    • OVHT/FIRE position tests fire detection loop


    Reference: AOM 16.8.1, FRM 8.1.1
  88. 88.) Q9.9 What are the indications of an APU Fire when conducting an exterior preflight?
    • The wheel well APU fire warning horn sounds, and the
    • wheel well APU fire warning light flashes.


    Reference: FRM 8.2.3
  89. 89.) Q9.10 How would you perform the Immediate Action in the wheel well if these indications occurred?
    • Pull the APU Fire Control Handle (T Handle) down

    • • Move the safety wired APU Bottle Discharge switch
    • LEFT

    • • The fire alarm can be silenced by pushing the APU
    • Fire Warning Horn Cutout switch


    Reference: FRM 8.1.6
  90. 90.) Q9.11 How does the aircraft detect an APU fire?
    A single fire detection loop powered by the battery bus.


    Reference: FRM 8.2.3
  91. During Single Engine Taxi to the runway the APU Fire Light Illuminates and Fire Warning Bell sounds.

    Q9.12 What are some other actions you should consider after completion of the Immediate Action Items?
    • Confirm the existence of a fire

    • Request external assistance

    • Determine need to evacuate

    • • Develop a Shared Mental Model with flight attendants
    • and passengers


    Reference: AOM 5.6, 5.13
  92. 92.) Q9.13 While assessing the APU Fire indications, Ground Control notifies you there is smoke at the tail of the aircraft.

    You decide an evacuation is appropriate.

    Is the use of the Evacuation Checklist required?
    • The expectation is the Evacuation checklist will be
    • completed without delay, in a methodical manner, in its
    • entirety.
    • If the assessment indicates that the checklist
    • cannot be completed due to deteriorating conditions (such
    • as an uncontrollable fire), or if the evacuation is initiated by
    • someone other than the Captain (such as a Flight
    • Attendant or Passenger), immediately shut down both
    • engines, then command the evacuation.


    Reference: AOM 5.13
  93. 93.) Q9.14 What are some factors associated with determining the means of evacuation?
    • • The urgency of the situation, including the possibility of
    • significant injury or loss of life if a significant delay
    • occurs

    • • The possibility of Passenger injury during an
    • emergency evacuation using the escape slides

    • • The type of threat to the aircraft (e.g., structural
    • damage, fire, reported bomb on board)

    • • The possibility of fire spreading rapidly from spilled fuel
    • or other flammable materials

    • The extent of damage to the aircraft


    Reference: AOM 5.13.1
  94. During descent through FL 200, you note the following indications:
    Both EEC ALTN lights illuminated and DISPLAY SOURCE illuminated on the primary flight display".

    94.) Q10.1 How would you assess this scenario?
    A DEU has failed.


    Reference: QRH Display Source, FRM 10.1.8.2
  95. 95.) Q10.2 Why did the EEC ALTN lights illuminate?
    Loss of either DEU results in a loss of signal to both EECs.

    • The EEC ATLN lights illuminate and each EEC reverts to
    • the alternate mode to prevent the engines from operating
    • on a single source of data.


    Reference: NG FRM 7.3.3.2, MAX FRM 7.2.3.2
  96. 96.) Q10.3 What QRH Checklist would the Captain call for with a DEU Failure?
    • The Display Source Checklist or the EEC Alternate Mode
    • Checklist.


    Reference: QRH Display Source, EEC Alternate Mode
  97. 97.) Q10.4 How could you regain use of the autopilot if your flight director pitch command bar disappears and the autopilot engages in control wheel steering pitch?
    Select the opposite autopilot.


    Reference: FRM 10.1.8.2
  98. During cruise at FL300 in a -700, an amber IAS DISAGREE message appears on the lower left corner of the PFD.

    Q10.5 How would you assess this scenario?
    • The Captain’s and First Officer’s airspeed indications
    • disagree by more than 5 kts for 5 continuous seconds.


    Reference: FRM 10.1.8.5
  99. 99.)Q10.6. What QRH Checklist should the Captain call for an IAS DISAGREE?
    IAS DISAGREE.


    Reference: QRH IAS DISAGREE
  100. 100.) Q10.7 What are some of the other warnings that may be associated with this alert?
    • Stick shaker, overspeed warning, AIRSPEED LOW (as
    • installed) alerts may sound erroneously or simultaneously.


    Reference: QRH Airspeed Unreliable
  101. 101.) Q10.8 What pitch and power settings would provide level flight at FL300 and a weight of 130,000 lbs.?
    Pitch attitude 2.0, 82.1% N1


    Reference: QRH Performance Inflight
  102. 102.) Q10.9 What speed does the flaps up idle descent table assume?
    0.76 M / 280 kts.


    Reference: QRH Performance Inflight
  103. 103.) Q10.10 Will the Flight Path Vector on the HUD be accurate?
    • The Flight Path Vector and Pitch Limit Indicator may be
    • unreliable on the PFD and HUD.


    Reference: QRH Airspeed Unreliable
  104. 104.) Q11.1 What is required to arm VNAV for takeoff?
    • • A valid flight plan has been entered
    • • Performance data has been entered and executed
    • • Both flight director switches are set to ON
    • • MCP SPD is set to V2


    Reference: AOM 4.8.1
  105. 105.) Q11.2 At what altitude do LNAV and VNAV become active if armed before takeoff?
    • • LNAV 50 ft RA
    • • VNAV 400 ft RA


    Reference: AOM 4.7.1, 4.8.1
  106. 106.) Q11.3 What lateral mode does the Flight Director select if VNAV is armed for takeoff but LNAV is not?
    • At 400 ft. AGL, HDG SEL automatically becomes the
    • active roll mode.

    • CAUTION: The HDG SEL mode commands a turn in the
    • shortest direction to the heading set.


    Reference: AOM 6.3.1
  107. 107.) Q11.4 What speed does VNAV command at the all engine acceleration height if speed intervention is not selected?
    • With VNAV armed for the climb phase, VNAV commands
    • acceleration to the following:
    • • Last MCP speed (v2) +20 until acceleration height
    • • The flap placard speed minus 5 kts
    • • 230 kts or less, when leading-edge flaps are not fully
    • retracted
    • • 250 kts with flaps retracted
    • • The active target speed
    • • Waypoint speed constraints
    • • The speed restriction associated with the origin airport,
    • whichever is more restrictive


    Reference: FRM 11.9.3
  108. 108.) Q11.5 How can the airspeed be limited for airspace or ATC restrictions, if VNAV is armed for takeoff?
    • • After VNAV is engaged, manually use SPD INTV to
    • set the speed restriction at 1000 ft. AAE.
    • • Note: When the MCP SPD window opens, the MCP
    • displayed speed may be higher than the Up Bug
    • speed (e.g., 230 kts).
    • • Program the CLB page SPD REST to the speed
    • restriction. On departure, when the speed restriction is
    • no longer applicable, re-enter the SPD REST to 250
    • kts below 10,000 ft. MSL.
    • • Enter speed restriction(s) at appropriate waypoints
    • only if more restrictive than the LARGE font speeds on
    • the LEGS page.


    Reference: AOM 4.8.1
  109. 109.) Q11.6 What are the flap retraction calls at minimum cleanup altitude?
    • “Set speed” (if required) then call the following, as
    • appropriate:
    • • “Climb thrust” for a flaps 1 takeoff
    • • “Flaps 1, climb thrust” for a flaps 5 takeoff
    • • “Flaps 5, climb thrust” for a flaps 10 or 15 takeoff
    • • “Flaps 15, climb thrust” for a flaps 25 takeoff


    Reference: AOM 9.2.3
  110. 110.) Q11.7 When does an Engine Failure Procedure prohibit arming VNAV for Takeoff?
    • VNAV must not be armed on the ground if the EFP for the
    • takeoff runway contains conditions that require either of
    • the following:
    • • The completion of a turn to a specified heading before
    • accelerating
    • • Becoming established on a defined lateral course
    • before accelerating


    Reference: AOM 17.5
  111. 111.) Q12.1 What resources are available if you receive the FUEL DISAGREE alert on a MAX aircraft?
    The QRH Non Normal Checklist or the FRM Fuel Section.


    Reference: MAX FRM 11.5.3, 12.1.3, MAX QRH FUEL DISAGREE Checklist
  112. 112.) Q12.2 What resource is available if the FMC Alerting message VERIFY GW AND FUEL is displayed on the MCDU scratchpad?
    • QRH Operational Information – Ops Info FMC Alerting
    • Messages.


    Reference: QRH Operational Information, FRM 11.5.3, 11.12.2
  113. Your outbound fuel load is scheduled for 22,000 lbs.
    After fueling, the Ops Agent checks in and asks to confirm your fuel load.
    The gauges show 8.0 in the No.1 tank, 8.0 in the Center tank, and 6.0 in the No.2 tank.

    113.) Q12.3 What limitations are associated with this scenario?
    • The Main tanks must be full if the center tank quantity is
    • greater than 1,000 lbs.


    Reference: AOM 3.12.1
  114. 114.) Q12.4Your aircraft has finished boarding. How would you address this scenario?
    • • Top off both main tanks. That would be the quickest
    • option but would add over 3,000 lbs. of fuel with the
    • current fuel density.

    • • Perform a ground transfer and use the required fuel
    • (about 3,000 lbs.) from the center tank to top off both
    • mains. The center tank would stay above the 2,000
    • lbs. minimum per the limitation.


    Reference: AOM 16.12.4
  115. 115.) Q12.5 If you choose to top off the main tanks is any coordination required?
    • If the Captain determines a change is necessary, the Dispatcher must be notified.
    • In this situation a new dispatch release or amendment (pen and ink) may be required.


    Reference: FOM 17.6.9
  116. 116.) Q12.6 Where can you find the procedure regarding Fuel Measuring Sticks for the center tank?
    NG MEL Appendix or MAX MEL Special Procedures.


    Reference: NG MEL Appendix 28-6, MAX MEL SP 28
  117. 117.) Q12.7 Who is required to visually monitor the fuel verification process if the use of fuel measuring sticks are required?
    • The Captain monitors any fueling operation requiring the
    • use of fuel measuring/ dripsticks to assure accuracy.


    Reference: NG MEL 28-7-01, MAX MEL 28-41-01
  118. 118.) Q12.8 What resources are available if a repetitive logbook entry is required?
    • • FOM Aircraft Logbook Flightdeck Crew
    • Responsibilities

    • FOM Logbook Binder Examples


    Reference: FOM 19.3.6, FOM Figure 19.38
  119. During the Before Takeoff checklist you notice that the center fuel quantity gauge is blank with a total fuel load of 12,000 lbs.

    119.) Q12.9 How do you assess the blank center fuel quantity gauge indication?
    If the tank is empty the gauge should indicate “0”.


    Reference: FRM 12.1.2
  120. 120.) Q12.10 What resources are available for dealing with this problem?
    Dispatch, Maintenance (Tech Ops), MEL


    Reference: FOM: 19.1.2
  121. 121.) Q12.11 This defect is deferrable. According the MEL, what methods are acceptable for verifying the fuel quantity?
    • Method 1: Fuel measuring stick readings are taken by the
    • fueler after each refueling. (NG and MAX)

    • Method 2: Tank is confirmed empty prior to departure by
    • turning on the center tank boost pump and verifying low
    • pressure light remains illuminated for 15 seconds.
    • (MAX only)


    Reference: NG MEL 28-7, MAX MEL 28-41-01B/C
  122. During cruise a fuel FILTER BYPASS light illuminates.

    122.) Q12.12 What does the illumination of the fuel FILTER BYPASS light indicate?
    • There is an impending fuel filter bypass due to a
    • contaminated filter.


    Reference: FRM 12.1.1
  123. 123.) Q12.13 How can the contamination of the fuel filter affect the engine operation?
    • Erratic engine operation and flameout may occur on the
    • affected engine due to fuel contamination.


    Reference: QRH Fuel Filter Bypass
  124. 124.) Q12.14. What is required if both Fuel FILTER BYPASS lights illuminate at any time during the flight?
    Land at the nearest suitable airport.


    Reference: QRH Fuel Filter Bypass
  125. 125.) Q12.15 How does the FILTER BYPASS light additive condition affect your approach planning?
    • Increased risk can be mitigated by briefing a plan for a
    • potential engine flameout on approach.


    Reference: FRM 6.2.3.1
  126. 126.) Q12.16 If an engine fails, after landing flaps are selected, what options are available?
    • Continue flaps 30 or 40

    • * (Note: The aircraft may not be able to maintain a
    • normal glideslope under adverse conditions) *

    • Continue flaps 15

    • Execute a go around


    Reference: AOM 5.5.11
  127. You land at an airport with only contract maintenance and as you taxi to the gate, the following indications are displayed:

    Image Upload 1

    Image Upload 2

    The First Officer announces, “Master Caution, Overhead, PSEU light illuminated.
    The First Officer resets the Master Caution causing the Master Caution lights and the Annunciator light to extinguish while the PSEU light remains illuminated.


    127.) Q13.1 How do you assess the PSEU light indication?
    A simple fault has been detected by the PSEU.


    Reference: FRM 15.2.4.3
  128. 128.) Q13.2 If the fault had been sensed by the PSEU inflight, when would have the first indication of this fault been provided to the Crew?
    • Thirty seconds after landing; the PSEU light is inhibited
    • inflight and for 30 seconds after landing.


    Reference: FRM 15.2.4.3
  129. 129.) Q13.3 The PSEU light has illuminated for a simple fault and has gone unnoticed by the Crew, when does the light extinguish?
    Parking brake is set, or both engines are turned off.


    Reference: FRM 15.2.4.3
  130. 130.) Q13.4 What other actions are required by the Crew after the QRH non-normal checklist is complete?
    • A logbook entry is required.
    • Dispatch and Maintenance Control must be contacted.


    Reference: FOM 19.1.2
  131. 131.) Q13.5 After a shared mental model is established between this Crew, Dispatch and Maintenance Control, all agree the PSEU requires an MEL.
    Referring to the MEL, does the Crew need to inform the Operations Agent that contract maintenance is needed and why?
    • In this situation the MEL procedure does not require a
    • qualified mechanic and the MEL procedures can be
    • accomplished by the Crew.


    Reference: MEL 32-17
  132. You are performing a night visual approach to ABQ R26.

    132.) Q13.6 The aural GPWS Caution “CAUTION TERRAIN” sounds accompanied by an amber “TERRAIN” message on the ND. How would you respond to the CAUTION TERRAIN alert?
    • Go around

    • Be prepared to accomplish the Terrain Avoidance Maneuver


    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  133. 133.) Q13.7 When would you be required to initiate a go around for GPWS terrain/obstacle cautions?
    If on approach, initiate a go-around for any of the following:

    • Night

    • IMC

    • Unable to acquire terrain visually


    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  134. 134.) Q13.8 How would respond if you receive a “TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP” aural alert accompanied by a red “PULL UP” message on your PFD during your go around?
    Accomplish the Terrain Avoidance Maneuver


    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  135. 135.) Q13.9 How do you distinguish between GPWS Terrain/Obstacle cautions and warnings?
    All GPWS warnings include the aural alert “PULL UP.”

    • “PULL UP”

    • “TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP”

    • “OBSTACLE, OBSTACLE PULL UP”



    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  136. 136.) Q13.10 How many seconds prior to projected terrain impact is this warning generated?
    20 – 30 seconds



    Reference: FRM 15.2.6.1
  137. 137.) Q13.11 Does a ground proximity alert provide adequate warning of terrain ahead to ensure terrain clearance?
    No.

    • Terrain ahead of the aircraft may exceed available climb performance.
    • A ground proximity alert does not guarantee terrain clearance.


    Reference: FRM 15.2.6
  138. 138.) Q14.1 When are PWS alerts available on takeoff?
    The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when thrust levers are set for takeoff.

    Alerts are available approximately 12 seconds after the weather radar begins scanning for windshear.

    PWS alerts can be enabled prior to takeoff by pushing the EFIS control panel WXR switch.



    Reference: NG FRM 15.2.7.2.1, MAX FRM 15.2.6.4.2
  139. 139.) Q14.2 When are PWS Cautions and Warnings inhibited on takeoff and landing?
    Cautions are inhibited between 80 kts. and 400 ft.

    RA and Warnings are inhibited between 100 kts. and 50ft. RA.


    Reference: NG FRM 15.2.7.2.1, MAX FRM 15.2.6.4.3
  140. 140.) Q14.3 During your takeoff a “Monitor Radar Display” aural alert sounds and the windshear icon appears on the navigation display. How would you respond?
    • Continue the takeoff and use the precautionary takeoff
    • profile.

    • Be prepared to execute windshear recovery
    • maneuver.


    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  141. 141.) Q14.4 During your takeoff a “WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural alert sounds and the windshear icon appears on the navigation display how would you respond?
    Reject the takeoff if it can be done safely, or continue the takeoff using the precautionary takeoff profile.

    Be prepared to execute a windshear recovery.


    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  142. 142.) Q14.5 What are the only reasons a Captain should reject a takeoff after 80 kts?
    • Engine failure

    • Fire or fire warning

    • Predictive windshear warning

    • Aircraft is unsafe/unable to fly



    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  143. During taxi out Ground advises you an updated ATIS is available.
    The ATIS includes the comment indicating low-level windshear advisories are in effect.

    143.) Q14.6 How can you mitigate the risk associated with this departure?
    • Do not takeoff if known windshear exists

    • Use (and brief) the precautionary takeoff profile

    • Review the windshear recovery procedure

    • Use the longest suitable runway



    Reference: AOM 15.5.2
  144. 144.) Q14.7 How do you adjust the PWB takeoff conditions to use the precautionary takeoff profile?

    How does the takeoff data change?
    The PWB WINDSHEAR prompt must be changed from the default of NO to YES.

    The takeoff data includes a max thrust takeoff and an increased VR.



    Reference: AOM 15.5.3, 17.6
  145. 145.) Q14.8 What additional checklist is required after receiving your updated PWB takeoff data?
    The Departure Plan Checklist must be accomplished if any changes are made to the FMC programming or PWB data after pushback has commenced and following accomplishment of the Before Taxi Checklist.



    Reference: AOM 8.5
  146. 146.) Q14.9 After takeoff, as you climb through 200 ft., you hear a two tone siren followed by a “WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR” aural alert and see a red WINDSHEAR warning light.

    How would you respond?
    Execute the Windshear recovery maneuver.



    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers, FRM 700/800 15.2.7, FRM MAX 15.2.6.4
  147. 147.) Q14.10 What actions should be taken if ground contact becomes a threat while following the flight director guidance?
    Continue rotation up to pitch limit indicator or respect the stick shaker or initial buffet.



    Reference: QRH Non Normal Maneuvers
  148. 148.) Q15.1 What is the internationally recognized voice method to declare an emergency situation?
    The only internationally recognized voice method is to declare an emergency situation is to state, “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY” (distress) on the first call to ATC.

    Use of the word “emergency” may not be understood.



    Reference: IFOM 7.1
  149. 149.) Q15.2 What information should be included in a MAYDAY call if ditching?
    • • Current position, course, speed, & altitude
    • • Situation & intention
    • • Time & position of intended touchdown
    • • Type of aircraft



    Reference: AOM 5.4.2, QRH Ditching
  150. 150.) Q15.3 What resource is available to help locate the circuit breaker reference in the QRH Ditching Checklist?
    • QRH> Operational Information> Ops Info> Circuit Breaker
    • Locations.



    Reference: QRH Operational Information
  151. 151.) Q15.4 What are the Cabin Crew notification requirements at 500 ft. and 50 ft. when ditching?
    • • At 500 ft. advise that ditching is imminent
    • • At 50 ft. advise to brace for impact



    Reference: QRH Ditching
  152. 152.) Q16.1 Where can the maximum altitude for single engine operation be found in the event of an engine failure at altitude?
    LT/RT ENG OUT page selected on the FMC CRZ page.



    Reference: FRM 11.10.3.8
  153. 153.) Q16.2 What should the PF do with the thrust levers to follow the driftdown profile?
    • • Disconnect autothrottle (if engaged)
    • • Manually set continuous thrust


    Reference: QRH Maneuvers
  154. 154.) Q16.3 What pitch mode and airspeed should the PF select for the driftdown profile?
    • LVL CHG and ENG OUT SPD in knots as specified on the
    • FMC ENG OUT CRZ page.



    Reference: QRH Maneuvers
Author
BBB68
ID
355303
Card Set
2021 CQT Questions
Description
Question set for SWA 2021 CQT manual
Updated