1. What are two subdivisions of the Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS).
    Engineering Operational Procedures (EOP) and Engineering Operational Casualty Control (EOCC).
  2. What is used by watch standers to correctly identify casualties and properly control casualties?
  3. EOCC procedures that are required to be memorized are known as what?
    Immediate actions.
  4. What EOCC actions do not required memorization?
    Supplementary actions.
  5. To align the fuel system on a gas turbine engine what subsystem of EOSS would be used?
    Engineering Operational Procedures (EOP).
  6. What is the purpose of EOSS?
    To detail the sequential operational functions for the complete cycle of plant operations.
  7. What is the most effective form of engineering casualty control?
    Casualty prevention.
  8. What NSTM contains general guidelines concerning engineering casualty control?
    NSTM 079 volume 3.
  9. Individual casualties located within the EOCC are to be handled in priority of what three actions?
    • Controlling actions
    • immediate actions
    • and supplementary actions.
  10. What actions within the EOCC must be committed to memory?
    Controlling and immediate.
  11. Who is responsible for developing Engineering Training Team (ETT) drills?
    Engineer Officer.
  12. Prior to conducting ETT drills, who must approve the drill package?
    Commanding Officer.
  13. Who is responsible for maintaining a master ETT drill package?
    Main Propulsion Assistant (MPA).
  14. What are three phases of engineering casualty control?
    • Limitation of the effects of damage
    • emergency restoration
    • and completing repairs.
  15. Who is the approval authority for locally generated EOCC procedures?
    The Commanding Officer.
  16. The safest engineering plant alignment is what?
    Split-plant operation.
  17. What document along with the EOCC is used to combat a Main engineering space Class "B" Fire?
    Main Space Fire Doctrine (MSFD).
  18. What are two indications of an uncontrollable hot bearing on a SSTG?
    • Bearing temperature of 180 degrees F
    • or oil temperature differential between the cooler outlet and bearing temperature exceeds 50 degrees F.
  19. What action must be taken if no oil flow is observed in a bearing oil flow sight glass on an operating SSTG?
    Trip and secure generator IAW EOCC procedures.
  20. An operating SSTG must be secured when vacuum decreases to what?
    15 inches.
  21. At what temperature is an SSTG auxiliary condenser considered a hot condenser?
    140 degrees F.
  22. An unusual drop in boiler steam pressure and a firebox filling with steam is an indication of what boiler casualty?
    Ruptured boiler tube.
  23. What is the greatest concern for the engineering plant when a boiler high water casualty occurs?
    Boiler water carryover to the steam turbines.
  24. What engineering casualties require the main shaft and main engine reduction gear to be stopped and locked?
    • Loss of lube oil pressure
    • major lube oil leak on main reduction gear
    • metallic noise in main reduction gear
    • and uncontrollable hot bearing in the main reduction gear.
  25. Failure to stop and lock the shaft during a required casualty can have what effect on the main reduction gear?
    Could damage the engine to the extent of non-operation.
  26. After restoration from a casualty to the main reduction gear the engine must be tested IAW what directive?
    Engineering Operating Procedures (EOP).
  27. If the main engine-locking device is engaged while the turning gear motor is turning, what would happen?
    Damage to the gear teeth of the turning gear would occur.
  28. Fluctuating SSTG kW meters on an electrical operating board is a possible indication of what casualty?
    Class "C" Fire within the SSTG.
  29. What is the goal of engineering casualty control drills?
    To increase watch team proficiency.
  30. What is the best source for developing ETT drills?
  31. When the boiler is secured in response to a low water casualty, what must be done to the boiler after the boiler is secured?
    Lift safety valves by hand easing gear, 200 to 300 psi below operating pressure.
  32. A hot spot on the burner air register on an operating boiler is an indication of what?
    Brick work failure.
  33. Blistering paint on the boiler air casing is an indication of what?
    Fire in the boiler air casing.
  34. How long is steam smothering admitted to the boiler air casing during a fire in the air casing?
    Until the fire is out.
  35. After the main engines have been tested and warmed up, while you wait to answer all bells the engine must be rotated every?
    3-5 minutes.
  36. What is the minimum lube oil temperature to the main engine before it is allowed to be jacked over?
    90 degrees F.
  37. If for any reason the main engine turbine rotors cannot be rotated within 5 minutes, what must be done?
    Secure the main engine.
  38. What is the maximum journal bearing temperature on an operating main engine or SSTG as indicated by RTE?
    250 degrees F.
  39. What is the maximum thrust bearing temperature of on operating main engine or SSTG as indicated by RTE?
    270 degrees F.
  40. How often is the main engine lube oil sump level checked and logged on an operating main engine?
    Every hour while in operation.
  41. What temperature indicates a hot main condenser?
    140 degrees F.
  42. What is the maximum temperature rise across a bearing on an operating main feed pump?
    50 degrees F.
  43. At what vacuum must you secure an operating main condenser?
    15 inches.
  44. What is the maximum amount of time a boiler can smoke white before you must secure?
    One minute.
  45. If a steaming boiler suffers a ruptured tube safeties must be lifted to what pressure?
    Zero psig.
  46. A low boiler economizer outlet temperature will have what effect on the superheater outlet temperature?
    It will cause a high superheater outlet temperature.
  47. What is the maximum allowable Rpm differential on operating steam force draft blowers?
    300 RPMS.
  48. What is the auxiliary exhaust pressure in the engineering plant during normal operations?
    15 psig.
  49. Prior to testing the main engines the EOOW must have permission from whom to test the engine?
  50. When all main engines have been tested satisfactorily, the EOOW reports this to whom?
  51. During a white smoke casualty to the boiler what must never be adjusted?
    Fuel oil header pressure.
  52. What is the maximum amount of time a boiler can smoke heavy black before you must secure the boiler?
    2 minutes.
  53. What is the probable cause of a racing fuel oil service pump?
    Water in the fuel.
  54. What is the temperature at which lube oil is maintained on an operating main engine?
    120-130 degrees F.
  55. A ruptured feedwater control valve diaphragm will have what adverse effect on the boiler water level?
    Water level will increase, as the valve will fail open.
  56. What is the maximum steady state superheater outlet temperature on a D-type 1200 psig boiler?
    1000 degrees F.

    • What is the maximum allowable superheater outlet temperature during transition periods of 15 minutes to 1 hour on a 1200 psig D-type boiler?
    • 1020 degrees F.
  57. What is the required amount of time necessary to bring a cold boiler online?
    2 1\2 to 3 hours.
  58. What is the required amount of time necessary to bring a boiler under a steam blanket online?
    1 1\2 to 2 hours.
  59. After boiler light off you must never exceed what boiler firing rate?
    5 percent.
  60. Boiler air casing is tested at what percentage of boiler full power rating?
    50 to 75 percent boiler load.
  61. When a line shaft bearing emits smoke, what action must be taken?
    Stop and lock the shaft.
  62. A low condensate inlet pressure to the DFT will have what detrimental effect on the propulsion plant?
    Low DFT level, possible low water in the boiler and improper deaeration of the feedwater.
  63. What establishes and helps to maintain a vacuum on the mam condenser when the ship is not equipped with air ejectors?
    Vacuum pumps.
  64. During a loss of vacuum casualty on the main condenser, what action must be taken when vacuum decreases to 15 inches?
    Main engine must be stopped and casualty procedures IAW EOCC are followed.
  65. A cracked gauge glass on the main condenser could lead to what casualty?
    Loss of vacuum on the main condenser.
  66. What effect will a low boiler economizer outlet temperature have on the boiler superheater outlet temperature?
    Will increase superheater outlet temperature.
  67. In accordance with EOCC procedures, what three casualties require the lifting of boiler safety valves?
    Ruptured boiler tube, Low water in the boiler and major uncontrolled flooding (prior to the water reaching the brickpan).
  68. What equipment is used to lift the boiler safety valves during a casualty?
    Boiler safety valve hand easing gear.
  69. What BOSS document is used to align the propulsion plant prior to light-off?
    Master light-off check list (MLOC).
  70. Boiler panting is caused by what?
    Insufficient air.
  71. How long is steam admitted to the boiler firebox when raw fuel is discovered on the firebox floor?
    30 minutes.
  72. What boiler casualty requires the boiler to be purged after securing the boiler?
    Ruptured boiler tube.
  73. After a boiler high water casualty, what precaution is taken to check the HP turbine for boiler water carryover?
    By cracking the turbine casing drains and checking for carryover.
  74. A reduction gear journal bearing shows a dramatic increase in temperature and then decreases to ambient temperature, this in an indication of what casualty?
    A wiped bearing.
  75. How is turbine speed maintained during a jammed throttle casualty?
    By using the affected turbine guardian valve.
  76. What is the first action taken, when you experiencing difficulty in maintaining boiler water level on an automated ship?
    Shift the boiler feedwater control to remote manual.
  77. The formation of condensation (fogging) of the boiler periscope is an indication of what casualty?
    Ruptured boiler tube.
  78. The boiler high water alarm is normally set at what parameter?
    Plus 7 inches.
  79. What protects the main feed pump from internal damage due to a loss of suction pressure?
    Low suction trip.
  80. What provides a positive suction head to the main feed booster pump?
    The DFT.
  81. A loss of the operating main feed pump will cause what boiler casualty?
    Low water.
  82. Under normal conditions, the lube oil purifier aligned to the main engine is operated daily for how many hours underway?
    12 hours.
  83. It is required to change the lube oil in the mail) sump, when the lube oil neutralization number exceeds what?
  84. What is the smallest percentage of gas (vapor) that will make an ignitable mixture called?
    Lower explosive limit (LEL).
  85. What is the highest percentage of gas (vapor) that will make an ignitable mixture called?
    Upper explosive limit (UEL).
  86. When operating the propulsion plant in a split-plant configuration, the bus-tie between ship service switchboards is in what position?
  87. As electrician of the watch, what action would you expect to take upon hearing a report from the engineroom that 1A ship's service turbo generator (SSTG) forward journal bearing is 175 degrees F.
    Remove the electric load when ordered by the EOOW.
  88. What safety equipment must be worn prior to accessing the electric panel during a Class "C" fire? Rubber gloves.
  89. When it is absolutely necessary to apply water to a Class "C" fire, what is the recommended standoff distance for applying water?
    4 feet.
  90. What action must be taken if a Class "C" fire is discovered in an operating gas turbine generator (GTG)?
    Trip and secure the GTG IAW EOCC procedures.
  91. How is the main engine shaft stopped and locked on a gas turbine vessel?
    The shaft is stopped and locked using the controllable reversible propeller and power turbine brake with the clutch engaged.
  92. What GTG casualty requires the water-wash system to be activated?
    Unusual noise and vibration casualty.
  93. What is the electrician's main assignment during a Class "B" fire in the propulsion plant?
    Electrical isolation.
  94. Main propulsion plant electrical isolation during a Class "B" fire is accomplished by using what document?
    The Main Space Fire Doctrine (MSFD).
  95. To whom does the electrician of the watch report the completion of electrical isolation during a propulsion plant Class "B" fire?
  96. What stop mode is used to secure a gas turbine when an out of limit parameter is sensed?
    Emergency stop mode.
  97. Under normal conditions energized casualty power cables have what endurance?
    4 hours at 200 amperes.
  98. The fire stop mode on a gas turbine module may be initiated by what two methods?
    Manual and logic submode.
  99. When using standard Navy damage control symbology, what does the symbol E mean?
    Electrical power is lost.
  100. When using standard Navy DC symbology, what does an E inside a pyramid represent?
    Electrical power has been restored.
  101. When using standard Navy DC symbology, what does the symbol FB mean?
    Fire boundaries set.
  102. What is the Commanding Officer's sound powered phone circuit?
    JA circuit.
  103. When using standard Navy DC symbology, what does a C inside a pyramid mean?
    Class "C" fire is out.
  104. 129. How is it indicated that the reflash watch is set during a Class "C" fire using standard Navy DC symbology?
    By an enclosed pyramid with a small horizontal line drawn to the right at the top of the pyramid.
  105. What is the damage and stability sound powered phone circuit?
    2JZ circuit.
  106. Who is normally in charge of the Damage Control Training Team (DCTT)?
    Executive Officer.
  107. What is the casualty communication sound powered circuit?
  108. What engineering sound powered phone circuit is specifically used by the electrician's?
  109. EOCC procedures that are required to be memorized are known as what?
    EOCC Immediate actions
  110. What EOCC actions do not required memorization?
    Supplementary actions.
  111. To align the fuel system on a boiler what subsystem of EOSS would be used?
    Engineering Operational Procedures (EOP).
  112. What document explains matters pertaining to organizational management, operation, and readiness within the engineering department?
    Engineering Department Organization and Regulations Manual (EDORM).
  113. vailability an EOSS verification will be scheduled when?
    Approximately 4 weeks prior to the end of the availability.
  114. Where are emergent EOSS feedback reports sent?
    • .
    • Who authorizes preliminary pen and ink changes to EOSS?
    • Commanding Officer.
  115. What directive established EOSS?
    OPNAVINST 9200.3 Series.
  116. After the propulsion plant has been secured and effectively isolated who assumes firefighting efforts during a Main engineering space fire Class "B" Fire?
    The Damage Control Assistant (DCA).
  117. What NSTM contains specific firefighting techniques for Main engineering Class "B" Fires?
    NSTM 555. '
  118. After personnel evacuate a Main engineering space, due to a Class "B" Fire, what firefighting agent is normally activated?
    Halon 1301.
  119. What is used as a propellant for Halon 1301?
  120. After reactivation of Halon 1301 there is a mandatory "soak" time of what duration?
    15 minutes.
  121. During any casualty to the propulsion plant the EOOW is tasked with maintaining what?
    Plant control.
  122. During a loss of lube oil pressure to the main reduction gears, how is it determined whether bearing metal damage occurred?
    By shifting and inspecting the lube oil strainer (SICLOS).
  123. How is all major equipment that is damaged due to a casualty and placed out of commission documented?
    Equipment is logged by noun name in the Engineering log with a detailed description of the casualty.
  124. Who is notified first during all underway casualties affecting propulsion or the ship's mission?
    Officer of the Deck (OOD).
  125. What action must be taken if you hear a metallic sound within the reduction gear?
    Stop and lock shaft IAW EOCC procedures.
  126. What is the recommended firefighting agent for a Class" C" Fire?
  127. During a Class "C" Fire, what is the first step in combating the fire?
    De-energize the power source.
  128. Who authorizes the entry into an electrical panel that is subjected to a Class "C" Fire?
    The supervisor at the scene.
  129. Who determines electrical damage during a Class "C" post fire investigation?
    Repair electrician.
  130. Why is PKP not recommended for use with a Class "C" Fire?
    Due to the corrosive properties of PKP.
  131. Who authorizes the energizing of casualty power cables?
    The DCA via the Engineer Officer.
  132. What is the principal sound powered communication circuit used during engineering casualty control?
  133. What damage control repair locker is assigned to combat main propulsion space casualties?
    Repair Five.
  134. Who gives permission to the firefighting attack team to enter the main propulsion space to combat a Class "B" Fire?
  135. How many sources of firefighting agent must be used to combat a main switchboard Class "C" Fire?
    At least two independent C02 sources.
  136. What are three common causes of Engineering casualties?
    Lack of positive control, lack of effective communications, lack of systems knowledge.
  137. The EOCC procedure MCFED talks of the plane when opening the electrical equipment, what is meant by the term "plane"?
    Placing ones body part within the door opening of the live electrical component.
  138. The EOCC procedure MCFED is used for what fires?
    Class "C" Fires located in electrical equipment or distribution areas.
  139. What publication contains detailed information on assessing damage sustained from electrical fires?
    NSTM 300.
  140. What propellant is used in the portable PKP fire extinguisher?
    CO2 Cartridge.
  141. What is the capacity of the AFFF Vari-nozzle located on a machinery space hose reel?
    95 GPM.
  142. What class of fire involves combustible metals?
  143. What is the water to AFFF concentration on a proportioning system?
    94% Water, 6% AFFF.
  144. What publication contains detailed information on assessing damage sustained from electrical fires?
    NSTM 300.
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