-
1. Drug of choice in a young myopic patient with chronic simple glaucoma is:
a. Bnzalkonium chloride b. 1% epinephrine c. Pilocarpine d. Timolol
-
2. You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma, important point in diagnosing this case is;
- a. Visual acuity and refractive error b. Narrow angle
- c.Optic disc cupping d. Shallow anterior chamber
-
3.In primary open glaucoma, the earliest field defect is:
a. Isolated paracentral scotoma b. Nasal spur c.. Arcute scotoma d. Ring scotoma
-
4.Frequent changes of presbyopic glasses are an early manifestation of which of the following condition:
a. Senile cataract b. Closed angle glaucoma c. Open angle glaucoma d. After cataract
-
5.In chronic simple glaucoma the earliest sign is:
a. Ring scotoma b. Arcuate scotoma c. PAracentral scotoma d. Seidel’s scotoma
-
6.For an acute congestive glaucoma patient, the best treatment in fellow eye is:
- a. Surgical treatment b. Pilocarpine instillation
- c. Regular check ups d. laser iridectomy
-
7. In acute congestive glaucoma, the surgery to be performed in fellow eye is:
a. Filtration surgery b. cyclo-photocoagulation c. Iridectomy d. Cyclo- diathermy
-
8.Vossius’s ring is seen in:
a. iris b. Cornea c. Posterior capsule of lens d. Anterior capsule of lens
-
9.Vossius’s ring is seen in;
a. Sclera b. Iris c. Lens d. Cornea
-
10. Vossius’s ring is seen in:
- a. Extra capsular extraction b. Penetration injury c. Concussion injury d. Lens dislocation
- 11.True about Vossius’s ring is;
- a. It is the ring around optic nerve b. Synonymous with soemmerring’s ring
- c. Impression of miotic pupil on lens d. Impression of dilated pupil on lens
-
12.All are present in retinitis pigmentosa except:
a. Pale waxy optic disc b. Retinal hemorrhage c. Attenuated vessels d. Bone corpuscles pigmentosa
-
13.False regarding retinitis pigmentosa is;
a. ERG is normal b. Narrowinng of Vessels c. pale waxy disc d. Pigment present
-
14.Retinoblastoma is inherited as;
a. X linked recessive b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. X linked dominant
-
15.In children most common intraocular tumor is:
a. Hemangioma b. Malignant melanoma c. Lymphangioma d. Retinoblastoma
-
16.Most common malignant tumor of orbit in 1st decade of life is:
a. Chloroma b. Rhabdomyosarcoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Retinoblastoma
-
17.Not a feature of retinoblastoma :
a. Glaucoma b. Microphthalmos c. Squint d. Leukocoria
-
18.After enucleation in retinoblastoma which of the following tissue is sectioned and subjected to microscopic examination to find out systemic metastasis:
a. Vortix vein b. Optic nerve c. Sclera and episclera d. Central retinal artery
-
19.In which of the following condition, cobble stone appearance of conjunctiva is seen:
a. Tuberculosis b. Fungal infection c. Vernal catarrh d. Sympathetic opthalmitis
-
20.Ropy discharge from eye along with itching which occurs every summer is due to:
a. Vernal conjunctivitis b. Bacterial conjunctivitis c. Trachoma d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
-
21. Trantas spots are seen in:
a. Follicular conjunctivitis b. Angular conjunctivitis c. Vernal conjunctivitis d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
-
22.In which of the following condition, cobble stone appearance of palpebral conjunctiva is seen;
a. Opthalmia nodosa b. Lithiasis c. phlyctenular conjunctivitis d. Spring catarrh
-
23.Rubeosis iridis is absent in:
a. CRVO b. CRAO c. Diabetes mellitus d. Neovascularization
-
24. Most common cause of rubeosis iridis is:
a. Vitreous hemorrhage b. CRVO c. CRAO d. Diabetes mellitus
-
25.Munson’s sign is seen in:
a. Lenticonus b. Corneal dystrophy c. Buphthalmos d. Keratoconus
-
26.Not seen in keratoconus;
a. Female preponderance b. Scissors reflex c. Munson’s sign d. Fleisher’s ring
-
27. Fleischer’s ring is characteristically seen in:
a. Chalcosis b. Keratoconus c. NIDDM d. Megalocornea
-
28.Not seen in keratoconus ;
a. Flescher’s ring may be seen b.Thinning of cornea in center c. Hypermetropic refractive error d. Descemets’s membrane may rupture
-
29.Cherry red spots are not seen in:
a. Batten mayou disease b. CRA obstruction c. Neiman pick disease d. Tay- sachs disease
-
30. Cherry red spots is not seen in:
a. Niemann pick disease b. Tay sachs disease c. CRAO d. CRVO
-
31. Cherry red spot is seen in which of the following :
a. Central retinal vein occlusion b. Eales’ disease c. Retinitis pigmentosa d. Central retinal artery thrombosis
-
32. Virus causing eye infection is;
a. Parvovirus b. Influenza virus c. Adenovirus d. Varicella virus
-
33.Acute conjunctivitis is not caused by:
a. Coxsackie 24 b. Enterovirus c. CMV d. Adenovirus
-
34.Irregular image is due to which of the following :
a. Asthenopia b. Hypermetropia c. Astigmatism d. Myopia
-
35.Astigmatism is caused by:
a. Developmental myopia b. Abnormal position of lens c. Degenerative d. Curvature ametropia
-
36.False regarding sympathetic opthalmitis is:
a. First symptom is photophobia b. Uveal antigen has been implicated as responsible exciting agent c. About 65% of cases occur after perforating injury d. Most cases occur in 4 weeks of injury
-
37.Sympathetic opthalmitis is because of:
- a. Chemical injury b. Electrical burn c. Penetrating injury of eye d. Performing injury of eye
- 38.In which of the following disease, dalen fuchs nodules are seen;
- a. Spring catarrh b. Herpetic keratitis c. Sympathetic ophthalmitis d. Interstitial keratitits
-
39.True regardingthe duration after which sympathetic ophthalmitis develops is:
a. Typically at 10 days b. After 8 months c. within one week d. 8 weeks after trauma
-
40.A boy after 2 weeks of injury on his left eye complains of bilateral pain and redness and watering from right eye. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Sympathetic opthalmitis b. sympathetic irritation c. Optic neuritis d. Endophthalmitits
-
41.True regarding sympathetic opthalmia is:
- a. Unilateral suppurative uveitis b. Bilateral non- suppurative uveitis
- c. Bilateral suppurative uvelitis d. Unilateral non- suppurative uvelitis
-
42.The pathological basis of diabetic cataract is:
- a. Deficiency of α 2 globulin ceruplasmin b. Inborn error of carbohydrate metabolism
- c. Calcium deficiency d. Accumulation of sorbitol
-
43.Typical appearance of diabetic cataract is:
a. Blue dot cataract b. Post capsular cataract c. Snow flake opacities d. Sunflower cataract
-
44. Not seen in oculomotor nerve injury :
a. Loss of accommodation b. Proptosis c. Miosis d. Upward movement
-
45.Not seen in oculomotor nerve injury:
- a. Loss of accommodation b. Proptosis c. Miosis d. Upward movement
- 46.Night blindness is not seen in:
- a. Tobacco amblyopia b. Vitamin A deficiency c. High myopia d. Retinitis pigmentosa
-
47.Night blindness is not caused by:
a. Vitamin A deficiency b. Retinitis pigmentosa c. Cone dystrophy d. Oguchi’s disease
-
48. Optic neuritis is not produced by;
a. Phenothiazines b. Chloramphenicol b. Steriods d. Ethambutol
-
49.In which of the following condition snow banking is seen:
a. Leprotic uveitis b. Candidiasis c. pars planitis d. Fuchs iridocyclitis
-
50. Enucleation is:
- a. Destruction by laser rays b. Photocoagulationn by CO2 laser
- c. Excision of eye orbit d. Excision of the eyeball with a portion of optic nerve
-
51. Enucleation is indicted in which of the following condition:
a. Expulsive hemorrhage b. Corneal ulcer perforation c. Anterior staphyloma d. Pan ophthalmitis
-
52. Quardratic hemianopia is seen in lesions involving which of the following:
a. Optic chiasma b. Optic tract c. Temporal lobe d. Frontal lobe
-
53.Space occupying lesion at chiasma midline produces which of the following condition:
a. Quadrantic homonymous defect b. Duplopia c. Homonymous hemianopia d. BI-temporal hemianopia
-
54. Lesion in bi- temporal hemianopia is located at:
a. optic radiation b. Optic chiasma c. Frontal lobe d. Optic nerve
-
55. In which of the following condition homonymous hemianopia is seen:
a. Post chiasma lesion b. Visual cortex lesion c. Pituitary adenoma d. Parietal lobe lesion
-
56.In which of the following disease macula is most commonly involved ;
a. Sarcoidosis b. Brucellosis c. Toxoplasmosis d. Leprosy
-
57.An indication for therapeutic keratoplasty is:
a. Progressive corneal ulcer b. Keratoconus c. Anterior staphyloma d. High myopia
-
58. paralysis of which of the following nerve to neuro-paralytic keratitis:
a. Oculomotor b. Trigeminal c. Optic d. Facial
-
59. Not an inert foreign body in eye:
a. Copper b. Platinum c. Silver d. Gold
-
60. Most common eye manifestation of allergy to tubercular bacilli:
a. Koeppe’s nodules b. Posterior scleritis c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d. Optic neuritis
-
61. Maximum visual impairment occurs in;
a. Leukoma adherence b. Centrocaecal leukoma c. Central nebula d. Central leukoma
-
62.Depth of anterior chamber of eye is… mm:
a. 4-5 b. 3-4 c.. 2-3 d. 1-2
-
63. Indication for radial keratotomy is:
a. Astigmatism b. Myopia c. Lekoma d. Hypermetropia
-
64.In which of the following condition, ring of sommerring is seen:
a. Galactosemia b. Acute congestive glaucoma c. Dislocation of lens d. After cataract
-
65.Which of the following is not affected by oculomotor nerve paralysis;
A Levator palpebrae b. Inferiro oblique c. Lateral rectus d. Medial rectus
-
66.In which of the following condition pin-point pupil is seen:
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Claude Bernard’s syndrome c. Head injury d. Brainstem injury
-
67.in acute iridocyclitis the drug of choice is:
a. Aspirin b. Antibiotics c. Atropine d. Acetazolamide
-
68.In a patient of iriodocyclitis treatment should be started with:
a. Analgesics b. Antibiotics c. Steroids d. Mydriatic
-
69.In acute anterior uveitis the drug of choice for increased intraocular tension is:
a. 2% pilocarpine b. 1% atropine ointment c. Timolol d. 5% epinephrine
-
70. In anterior uveitis the primary cause of use of atropine is:
- a. To prevent anterior synechia formation b. To increase blood flow
- c. TO increase the supply of antibody d. Rest to the ciliary muscle
-
71. Atropine is used in the treatment of iriodocylitis because it:
- a. Dilates pupil and increase flow of fresh aqueous rich in nutrients and antibodies
- b. Prevents formation of posterior synechia
- c. Gives rest to iris and ciliary body
- d. All are correct
-
72.In young adults, citreous hemorrhage indicates:
a. Chorioretinitis b. Eales disease c. Glaucoma d. Retinal detachments
-
73.False regarding Eales disease is:
a. Retinal detachment b. Optic neuritis c. Occurs in young population d. Vitreous hemorrhage is present
-
74.Not used in management of ophthalmia neonatorum;
a. 10% sulphacetamide drops b. Oral erythromycin c. Erythromycin ointment d. 1% silver nitrate solution
-
75.Interstitial keratitis is not seen in:
a. Sarcoidosis b. Syphilis c. Leprosy d. Tuberculosis
-
76. Not a causative agent of acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is;
a. Adenovirus b. Coxsackie virus c. Reovirus d. Enterovirus
-
77. Jack in the box phenomenon is because of:
- a. Loss of accommodation b. Reduced visual acuity
- c. Prismatic deformity d. Spherical aberration
-
78.In which of the following condition ring scotoma Is seen:
a. Vitamin A toxicity b. Retinoblastoma c. Retinitis pigmentosa d. Choroidal atrophy
-
79.A thick cicatrix cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:
a. Posterior staphyloma b. Anterior synechia c. Anterior staphyloma d. Adherent leukoma
-
80.In leukoma of cornea, the treatment of choice is:
a. Corneal transplant b. Laser excision c. Lamellar keratopathy d. Penetration keratoplasty
-
81.In which of the following condition , subluxation of lens is seen:
a. Alkaptonuria b. Down syndrome c. Marfan’s syndrome d. Achondroplasia
-
82.Not a feature of Horner’s syndrome caused by pancoast tumor:
a. Loss of ciliospinal reflex b. Excessive sweating c. Ptosis d. Miosis
-
83.A patient presents with wernicke’s hemianopic papillary response. Site of involvement is most likely :
a. Optic radiation b. Excessive sweating c. Optic tract d. Optic nerve
-
84. Aqueous flare is best demonstateed by which of the following:
a. Direct opthalmoscopy b. Narrow beam of slit lamp c. Corneal loupe d. Torch light
-
85.In angular conjunctivitis the treatment of choice is:
a. Dexamethasone b. Penicillin c. Zinc oxide d. Sulphacetamine
-
86.Angular conjunctivitis is caused by which of the following organism:
a. Fungus b. Bacteroides c. Virus d. Moraxella
-
87. in anterior uveitis (iridocyclitis) pupil is:
a. Normal b. Dilated c. Semi dilated d. Constricted
-
88. Not seen in acute iridocyclitis:
a. Small pupil b. Mucopurulent discharge c. Ciliary congestion d. Pain
-
89.Unilateral proptosis with bilateral 6th nerve involvement is suggested by:
a. Optic nerve glioma b. Retinoblastoma c. Cavernous sinus thrombosis d. Pseudo tumor orbit
-
90. Unilateral proptosis is most commonly caused by;
aOxycephaly b. Endocrine exophthalmos c. Thyrotoxicosis d. Retinoblastoma
-
91.In india most common cause of cicatrical entropion is;
a. Syphilis b. Trachoma c. Tuberculosis d. Leprosy
-
92.In which of the following condition sunflower cataract is seen:
a. Galactosemia b. Wilson disease c. Lawrence moon biedl syndrome d. Descemet’s membrane
-
94.Most common type of lid carcinoma is:
a. Squamous cell b. Basal cell c. Adenocarcinoma d. Melanoma
-
95.In which of the following condition Herbert’s pits are seen:
a. Spring catarrh b. Ophthalmia neonatorum c. Herpes simplex conjunctivitis d. Trachoma
-
96. in children anterior uveitis is associated with:
a. Sarcoidosis b. Toxocariasis c. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis d. Toxoplasmosis
-
97. Chronic uveitis is not seen in:
a. Herpetic uveitis b. brucellosis c. Pauciarticular JRA d. Sarcoidosis
-
98.Iris is thinnest at:
a. Ciliary zone b. pupil margin c. Base d. Collarette
-
99.Termination of Descemet’s membrane is:
a. Trabecular mesh work b. Schlemm canal c. Scleral spur d. ring of schwalbe
-
100. In AIDS most common cause of ocular infection is:
a. Candida albicans b. Toxoplasma c. HSV d. CMW
-
101.In which of the following condition, constantly changing refractive error is seen:
a. Trauma cataract b. Morgagnian cataract c. Incipient cataract d. Diabetic cataract
-
102. False regarding Adie pupil is:
a. Slow construction b. Slow dilatation c. Knee jerk abscent d. Miosis
-
103.False regarding a patient of color blindness is:
- a. More common in males b. Most common anomaly is blue green defect
- c. There is normal visual acuity d. Misnomer as it is actually a color defect and not blindness
-
104. in pathological myopia, the power of eye is;
a. 15D b. 10-15 c. 15-25 D d. 5-10D
-
105.In thyrotoxic myopathy the ocular muscle most commonly affected is:
a. Superior oblique b. Superior rectus c. Inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus
-
106. In graves ophthalmopathy which of the following muscle is most commonly involved:
a. Superior rectus b. Lateral rectus c. Inferior rectus d. Superior oblique
-
107. In which of the following condition, Christmas tree cataract is seen:
a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Trauma c. Diabetes d. Wilson disease
-
108.In sympathetic ophthalmitis the first symptom is;
a. Photophobia b. Disturbance of near vision c. Disturbance of distance vision d. Pain
-
109. In which of the following condition, band shaped keratopathy is seen;
a. Angular conjunctivitis b. Eales’ disease c. Vitaminn D poisoning d. Keratoconus
-
110. Lens originates from:
a. Endoderm b. Mesoderm c. Surface ectoderm d. Neuroectoderm
-
111. Circulus arteriosus iridis major is at:
a. Ciliary body b. Greater collarette c. Root of iris d. Pupillary border of iris
-
112.In treating which of the following condition, Nd: YAG laser is used:
a. Retinal detachment b. After cataract c. Open angle glaucoma d. Diabetic retinopathy
-
113.Laser used for after cataract is:
a. Ruby b. Co2 c. YAG d. Argon
-
114. Length of eyeball is… mm:
a. 26 b. 24 c. 22 d. 20
-
115. In fundus which of the following is pathognomic of diabetes:
a. Waxy pallor b. Mocroneurysm c. AV fistula d. Blotchy hemorrhage
-
116. In diabetic retinopathy the earliest sign is:
- a. Silver wire appearance b. Copper wire appearance c. Cotton wool exudates d. Microaneurysm
- 117. In tobacco amblyopia the field defect is;
- a. Carcal b. Segmental c. Centro- caecal d. central
-
118.Not a feature of tobacco amblyopia :
- a. Ganglion cell degeneration b. Bilateral involvement
- c. Peripheral scotoma d. Normal fundus
-
119.Dendritis ulcers are caused by:
a. Tuberculosis b. Syphilis c. Herpes simplex d. Herpes zoster
-
120.In which of the following condition, steroids are contraindicated ;
a. Mooren’s ulcer b. Dendritic ulcer c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d. Granular conjunctivitis
-
121. Not seen in buphthalmos :
a. Shallow anterior chamber b. Iriodonesis c. Corneal edema d. Scleral thinning
-
122.In infants most common cause of photophobia is:
a. Blue dot cataract b. Congenital cataract c. Zonular cataract d. Buphthalmos
-
123.A child presented with large cornea lacrimation and photophobia. He is suffering from:
a. Anterior uveitis b. Congenital cataract c. Cngenital glaucoma d. Megalocornea
-
124.An 8 month old child has excessive tearing from both eyes. On examination no conjunctival congestion . photophobia was present. Tear passage is normal but cornea is large. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Acute mucopurulent conjunctivitis b. Keratoconus c. Congenital glaucoma d. ophthalmia neonatorum
-
125. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is caused by:
a. Herpes zoster b. Herpes simplex c. CMV d. EBV
-
126. Ideal intraocular lens is:
a. Spider lens b. Posterior chamber lens c. Anterior chamber lens d. Iris supported lens
-
127.In which of the following condition pulsating exophthalmos is seen;
a. Orbital varices b. Cavernous sinus fistula c. Neurofibromatosis d. blow out fracture of upper floor
-
128. Not a part of uveal tract;
- a. Iris b. Bowman’s membrane c. Choroid d. Ciliary body
- 130. In a acute attack of angle closure glaucoma. The drug of choice is;
- a. Thymoxamine b.. Timolol c. Pilocarpine d. Eserine
-
131. Fincham’s test differentiates cataract from:
a. Retinal detachment b. Anterior uvetitis c. Open angle glaucoma d. Acute narrow angle glaucoma
-
132. In which of the following condition, recurrent iriodocyclitis with hypopyon is seen;
a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Still’s disease d. Becet’s syndrome
-
133.Tear film is not seen in;
- a. Chronic conjunctivitis b. Removal of lacrimal gland
- c. Keratoconjunctivitis d. Herpes keratitis
-
134.In ophthalmology ultrasonic wave frequency used is;
a. 20-25 MHz b. 15-20 MHZ c. 8-10 MHz d. 2-5 MHz
-
135. True regarding diabetic retinopathy is:
- a. Determine prognosis of the disease b. Incidence increase with duration of disease
- c. Seen only in uncontrolled diabetes d. Always associated with hypertension
-
136. Twilight vision is because of :
a. Cones b. Rods c. Both d. None
-
137.Most common visual field defect is;
a. Arcute field defect b. Jomonymous hemianopia c. Bineal hemianopia d. bitemporal hemianopia
-
138.Most common complication of high myopia is:
a. Retinal detachment b. Hemorrhage c. Cataract d. Glaucoma
-
139.CMV infection in AIDS patient, the drug of choice is:
a. Vidarabine b. Ribavirin c. Acyclovir d. Ganciclovir
-
140. Tonography is important in:
- a. Represents field changes b. Gives continuous intraocular pressure tracings
- c. Detecting the drainage of aqueous humor d. Detecting the formation of aqueous humor
-
141.In which of the following condition, the rays of light from a distant object are focused in front of retina.
a. Myopia b. Aphakia c. Hypermetropia d. Astigmatism
-
142.Anterior chamber is less deep in which of the following condition:
a. Corneal ulcer b. Subluxation of lens c. Iridocyclitis d. Closed angle glaucoma
-
143. Not associated with open angle glaucoma:
a. Choroiditis b. Myopia c. Thyroid disease d. Diabetes
-
144.In children most common cataract is:
a. Discoid b. Embryonal c. Zonular d. Blue dot
-
145.In infants which of the following mydriatic drug is used for refraction:
a. Homatropine b. Cyclopentolate c. Atropine ointment d. Atropine drops
-
146. In a 3 year old child which of the following mydriatic drug is used for refraction:
a. Homatropine drops b. Cyclopentolate c. Atropine ointment d. Atropine drops
-
147.Satellite nodules in corneal ulcer are seen in infection with:
a. Mycoplasma b. Aspergillus c. Herpes zoster d. Virus
-
148. Satellite lesion in keratitis occurs due to:
a. Pneumococcus b. Aspergillus c. Herpes zoster d. Herpes simplex virus
-
149.In which of the following condition, angiography is diagnostic:
- a. Central serous retinopathy b. Rhegmatogenous detachment
- c. Retinoschisis d. Vitreous detachment
-
150. On fluorescence angiography expanding dot sign is seen in:
a. Diabetic retinopathy b. Central serous retinopathy c. Clinically apparent edema d. CME
-
151. Chalazion is the infection of:
a. Zeis’ gland b. Conjunctiva c. Meibomian glands d. Sebaceous glands
-
152. in which of the following condition, heterochromia is seen:
- a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Heterochromic iridocyclitis of fungus
- c. Pierre robin syndrome d. Treacher Collins syndrome
-
153.Berlin’s edema occurs due to:
a. Malignant melanoma b. Retinoblstoma c. Penetrating injury d. Blunt trauma
-
154. Cherry red spot in fundus is seen in which of the following condition:
a. Retinitis pigmentosa b. Trauma c. Diabeetic retinopathy d. CRVO
-
155. In aphakia the treatment of choice is:
a. Intracular lens b. Contact lens c. Spectacles d. No treatment
-
156. In aphakia the treatment of choice is:
a. Posterior chamber IOL b. Anterior chamber IOL c. Contact lens d. Spectacles
-
157. Anterior lenticonus is seen in:
a. Down syndrome b. Alport syndrome c. William syndrome d. Lowe syndrome
-
158.Kappa angle is the angle between:
- a. Visual and papillary axis b. Visual and optical axis
- c. Globe and visual axis d. Pupillary and optical axis
-
159.Not a fundoscopic feature of papilledema :
a. Bending of blood vessels b. Absent venous pulsation c. Deep physiological cup d. III defined disc margin
-
160. False regarding papilledema is:
a. Blurring of nasal side of optic disc is the first sign b. Sudden loss of painful aye movement c. Purely a non- inflammatory phenomenon d. Transient loss of vision
-
161. Blind spot enlargement indicates:
a. Retinal detachment b. Avulsion of optic nerve c. Papilledema d. Papillitis
-
162. False regarding papilledema is:
a. Sudden loss of vision b. soft white exudates around the disc c. Congestion blurring of vision d. Blurring of disc
-
163.False regarding papilledema is:
a. Sudden painless loss of vision b. Transient blurring of vision c. Disc edema d. Vascular engorgement
-
164.Maximum visual loss occurs in:
a. Glaucoma b. optic neuritis c. Papillitis d. Papilledema
-
165.Centrocecal scotoma is seen in which of the following condition:
a. CRVO b. CRAO c. Papillitis d. Papilledema
-
166.In anisometropia there is:
- a. Difference in image size b. Subluxation of one of the eye
- c. High difference of refractive errors between the two eye d. Both eyes are not oriented in same parallel axis
-
167.A child presents with painful sudden loss of vision. Ha also complains of pain on ocular movement . most likely diagnosis is:
a. Retrobular neuritis b. Craniopharyngioma c. Eales’ disease d. Optic nerve glioma
-
168.In which of the following polychromic lustre is seen:
a. Congenital cataract b. Post irradiation cataract c. Complicated cataract d. Diabetic cataract
-
169.Not seen in complicated cataract:
a. Along the suture line b. Axial c. Posterior cortical cataract d. polychromatic luster
-
170. In which of the following condition polychromatic luster is seen:
a. Posterior cortical cataract b. Cupuliform cataract c. Posterior subcapsular cataract d. Zunular cataract
-
171. 100-day glaucoma is seen in which of the following condition:
a. Steriod induced glaucoma b. CRAO c. CRVO d. Neovascular glaucoma
-
172. Neovascular glaucoma is not seen in:
a. JRA b. CRVO c. CRAO d. Eales’ disease
-
173.In ERG A waves corresponds to:
a. Rods and cones b. Nerve bundle layer c. Artifact d. Pigment epithelium
-
174.In sturge-weber syndrome,the ocular manifestation is:
a. Retinal hemorrhage b. Pulsationg exophthalmos c. Lisch nodules d. Hemangioma of choroid and glaucoma
-
175. Iris bombe occurs due to:
a. Angle back glaucoma b. Ring synechia c. Anterior complete synechia d. Posterior complete synechia
-
176.Corneal sensation is lost in which of the following infection:
a. Trachoma b. Fungal c. Conjunctivitis d. Herpes simplex
-
177. Which of the following muscle in lid is attached to upper margin of superior tarsus:
a. Superior rectus b. Muller’s muscle c. Levator palpebrae d. Superior oblique
-
178.Hirschberg test is used in detection of:
a. Galucoma b. Optic atrophy c. Squint d. Field defect
-
179.Not involved in papillary light reflex:
a. Edinger-Westphal nucleus b. Optic nerve c. Lateral geniculate body d. Pretectal nucleus
-
180. Infants eye is;
a. Hypermetropic b. Myopic c. Astigmatic d. None of the above
-
181.In AIDS most common ocular manifestation is:
a. Hemorrhages b. Cotton wool spots c. Hard exudates d. Microneurysms
-
182.Scleritis is seen In:
- a. Glycogen storage disorder b. Lysosomal storage disorder
- c. Connective tissue disorder d. Collagen disorder
-
183.Snow blindness is caused by which of the following :
a. Defect in mirror b. Microwaves c. Infrared d. UV rays
-
184.Photophthalmia is seen with which of the following :
a. X-rays b. UV rays c. Infrared rays d. y rays
-
185.Photophthalmia is treated with:
a. Patching and reassurance b. Dark glasses c. Atropine d. Steroids
-
186. False regarding waardenburg syndrome is;
a. Narrow palpebral tissue b. White forelock c. Synophrys d. Heterochomia
-
187.Feature of paralytic squint is;
a. Always divergent b. It is detected by cover uncover test c. It is clinically called tropia d. It is associated with decreased vision
-
188.False regarding paralytic squint is:
a. Diplopia b. Normal position of head c. Vertigo d. Secondary deviation is more than primary deviation
-
189.Cherry red spot in macula is not seen in:
- a. GM type I gangliodsidosis b. Tay-sachs disease
- c. Tangier’s disease d. Faber disease
-
190.Sudden loss of vision is associated with which of the following ocular disease:
a. Optic atrophy b. CRAO c. Central serous retinopathy d. Papilledema
-
191. In which of the following condition, cattle trunk appearance is seen:
a. Retinal neovascularization b. Retinal proliferation c. CRVO d. CRAO
-
192. Shortest acting mydriatic is:
a. Atropine b. Cyclopentolate c. Homatropine d. Tropicamide
-
193.Syte occurs due to inflammation of:
a. Muller’s gland b. Lacrimal gland c. Meibomian gland d. Zeis’s gland
-
194.In lateral rectus muscle paralysis. The diplopia produced is;
a. Uncrossed b. Crossed c. both d. None
-
195.Not seen in Laurence- moon Biedl syndrome:
a. Obesity b. Retinitis pigmentosa c. Sexual underdevelopment d. Retinal detachments
-
196. Feature of zonular cataract:
a. Riders b. Dental abnormalities c. No loss of vision d. Pigmented cataract
-
197.Riders are seen in which of the following condition:
a. Blue dot b. Zonular cataract c. Coralliform cataract d. Traumatic cataract
-
198. False regarding mooren’s ulcer is:
- a. Superficial ulcer starting at corneal margin b. It has advancing boundaries
- c. pain is absent d. It rarely perforates
-
199. Xylocaine used for tonometry:
a. 4% b. 1% c. 2 % d. 3%
-
200. Sunflower cataract is seen in which of the following condition:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Diabetes c. Chalcosis d. Trauma
-
201.Chalcosis is due to:
a. Lead b. Mercury c. Iron d. Copper
-
202. In which of the following condition, sunflower cataract is seen:
a. SLE b. Trauma c. NIDDM d. Hypertension
-
203.In extradural hematoma of brain:
- a. Adie pupil is seen b. Argyll Robertson pupil is seen
- c. Hutchinson’s pupil is seen d. Oscillating pupil is seen
-
204. Rosette shaped cataract is caused by which of the following:
a. Hypertension b. NIDDM c. Radiation d. Trauma
-
205. After renal transplantation , most common ocular infection is;
a. EBV b. CMV c. Toxoplasma d. Herpes
-
206.Ocular manifestation of mumps is:
a. Membrano conjunctivitis b. Posterior uveitis c. Dacroadenitis d. Chorio retinitis
-
207. Most common cause of ocular morbidity in india is:
a. Trachoma b. Xerophthalmia c. Cataract d. Refractory error
-
208.Not a common symptom of conjunctivitis:
a. Pain b. Redness c. Discharge d. Irritation
-
209. Chronic iridocyclitis is a feature of which of the following disease:
- a. polyarticular RF –ve b. Polyarticular Rf +ve
- c. Pauciarticular type I d. Pauciarticular type II
-
210.Bull’s eye retinal lesion is seen in;
a. lead toxicity b. Ethambutol toxicity c. Chloroquine toxicity d. Oral contraceptive toxicity
-
211. In indirect ophthalmoscopy image formed is:
a. Erect, virtual and normal b. Inverted real and magnified c. Erect virtual and magnified d. Erect real and magnified
-
212. Periphery of retina is best visualized with which of the following :
Indirect opthalmoscopy b. Ultrasonography c. Retinoscopy d. Direct ophthalmoscopy
-
213. In direct ophthalmoscopy the image formed is:
a. Real and virtual b. Erect and virtual c. Inverted and erect d. Real and inverted
-
214.In direct ophthalmoscopy magnification is:
a. 10 times b. 20 times c. 5 times d. 15 times
-
215. False regarding indirect ophthalmoscopy is:
a. Used for seeing periphery of the fundus b. Magnification is more than direct ophthalmoscopys
-
216.Posterior staphyloma is most commonly caused by:
a. High myopia b. Glaucoma c. Retinal detachment d. Iridocyclitis
-
217.Intercalary staphyloma is;
- a. Ectasia of sclera with incarceration of root of iris
- b. Ectasia of sclera with incarceration of choroid
- c. Ectasia of sclera with incarceration of ciliary body
- d. Ectasia of sclera with incarceration of iris
-
218. Salt and papper fundus is seen in:
a. Ehler-Danlos syndrome b. Rubella c. Toxocara d. Toxoplasma
-
219.After which of the following condition, anterior polar cataract develops:
a. Metabolic disease b. perforation of central corneal ulcer c. Irradiation d. NIDDM
-
220. BItemporal hemianpia is seen in:
- a. Hypermature cataract b. Aneursym of circle of willis
- c. postcerebral artery thrombosis d. Frontla lobe tumor
-
221.Whihc of the following is a parasympathomimetic and miotic drug:
a. Timolol b. Prazosin c. Pilocarpine d. Phenylephrine
-
222. The characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy is:
- a. Hard exudates and superficial hemorrhage b. Soft exudates and deep hemorrhage
- c. Hard exudates and deep hemorrhage d. Soft exudates and superficial hemorrhage
-
223. Not a mydriatic ;
a. pirenzepine b. Tropicamide c. Homatropine d. Atropine
-
224. Wall most often fractured in a blow out fracture of orbit due to fisticuff injury:
a. Superior b. Inferior c. Medial d. Lateral
-
225.In adults most common intraocular tumor is:
a. Vitreous tumor b. Malignant melanoma c. Metastasis d. Retinoblastoma
-
226.True regarding opsoclonus is:
- a. Dysconjugate + Rhythmic b. Conjugate + Nonrhythmic
- c. Dysconjugate + chaotic d. Conjugate + methodical
-
227.A patient has unilateral ptosis and diplopia. On examination there was decreased movement of eyeball in all directions. Patient also complains of difficulty in reading news prints. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. oculomotor palsy b. Myasthenia gravis c. Abducent nerve palsy d. Trochlear nerve palsy
-
228. Nerve supply of dilator papillae is:
a. Facial nerve b. Trigeminal nerve c. Cholinergic fibers d. Adrenergic fibers
-
229. Subconjunctival hemorrhage does not occur in:
a. High intraocular tension b. Trauma c. Pertussis d. eye rubbing
-
230. in exposure keratitis , cranial nerve involved is:
a. III b. VII c. V d. VIII
-
231.In school age children most common cause of
- blindness is:
- a. Congenital causes b. Abiotrophic factor c. Corneal ulcer d. Refractive errors
-
232. All are false regarding cortical blindness except:
- a. Direct reflex present and consensual reflex absent on normal side
- b. Direct reflex present and consensual reflex absent on affected side
- c. Direct reflex and consensual reflex present in both eyes
- d. Direct reflex and consensual reflex absent in both eyes
-
233. Drug acting on uveoscleral tract is;
a. Tmolol maleate b. Latanoprost c. Epinephrine d. Levobunolol
-
234.Drug not used in hypertensive patient with glaucoma is:
a. Acetazolamide b. Beta blockers c. Dipivefrine d. Alpha agoinst
-
235. A patient of glaucoma presented with status asthmaticus. The possible cause may be:
a. Levobunolol eyedrops b. Betaxolol eyedrops c. TImolol eyedrops d. Pilocarpine eyedrops
-
236.Most common type of congenital cataract is:
a. Capsular b. Punctate c. Coronary d. Zonular
-
237. Glaucoma caused by hypermature senile cataract is:
a. Phaco-toxic b. Phaco-anaphylactic c. Phacolytic d. Phaco-morphic
-
238. A 59 year old man has acute red ciliary congestion, constricted pupil and hazy cornea. Examination revealed hypermature cataract and deep anterior chamber. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Phaco-toxic glaucoma b. Phaco-anaphylactic glaucoma c. Phaco-morphic glaucoma d. Phacolytic glaucoma
-
239. Which of the following is the most common complication of hypermature senile cataract:
a. Phacolytic glaucoma b. Blindness c. Phaco-anaphylactic uveitis d. Phaco- morphic glaucoma
-
240. Type of senile cataract notorious for glaucoma formation :
a. Nuclear cataract b. Intumescent cataract c. Hypermature cataract d. Incipient cataract
-
241. Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs in which of the following condition:
a. ICCE alone or laser b. ICCE + IOL c. Phacoemulsification d. ECCE + IOL
-
242.Early visual rehabilitation is seen in which of the following cataract surgery :
a. Phacoemulsification b. ECCE with intraocular lens implantation c. Lensectomy d. Intracapsular lens extraction
-
243. True regarding VOssius’s ring is:
a. Pigmentation of the cornea b. Depigmentation of iris c. Degeneration of iris d. Circlar pigment rim on the anterior capsule of the lens
-
244. High grade anisometropia is treated with;
a. Intraocular lens b. Prism c. Spectacles d. Contact lens
-
245.Anisekonia is corrected with which of the following :
a. Contact lens b. Cylindrical lens c. Prism d. Galileo telescope
-
246. in prevention of retrolental fibroplasia, the oxygen should be:
a. 10-20% b. 30-40% c. 50-60% d. 70-80%
-
247.Color blindness is mostly;
a. Deuteranomaly b. Tritanopes c. Protanopia d. None of the above:
-
248. Cone is the most sensitive cell in the retina. It picks up images from a mix of red, blue and green colors. Abnormality of color perception needing increased use of red color fornormal perception is;
a. Tritanomaly b. Deuteranjomaly c. Protanomaly d. Deuteranopia
-
249. In a young adult patient which of the following drug can be used that will provide only mydriasis and no cyclplegia for fundus examination:
a. Atropine ointment b. Phenylephrine c. Homatropine d. Tropicamide
-
250. Which of the following is the most common complication of extracapsular cataract surgery:
a. Vitreous hemorrhage b. opacification of posterior capsule c. Retinal detachment d. None
-
251.In a cataract patient, capsulectomy with removal of lens nucleus followed by aspiration of cortical content was done. This process is known as:
a. Lensectomy b. Discission c. Extracapsular cataract extraction d. Intracapsular cataract extraction
-
252. Instrument not used in intracapsular extraction of lens:
a. Von Graefe’s cataract knife b. phacoemulsifier c. Elschning’s forceps d. Cryoprobe
-
253. Sterord induced cataract is:
a. Capuliform b. Nuclear c. Posterior subcapsular d. Anterior subcapsular
-
254.Snow flake cataract is seen in:
a. Chalcosis b. Diabetics c. Posterior subcapsular glaucoma d. Trauma
-
255.in which of the following condition pseudo-convergent squint is seen:
a. Narrow inter- papillary distance b Abducent squint c. Broad epicanthus d. Thyrotoxicosis
-
256.False regarding cystoids macular edema is;
a. Fluoresce in angiography is diagnostic b. Visual prognosis is poor c. May develop after cataract extraction d. It is more common after intracapsular lens extraction
-
257. Inamblyopia, the treatment of choice is;
a. Conventional occlusion b. Surgery c. Orthoptic exercise d. Spectacles
-
258.A 65 year old patient underwent cataract surgery. After 6 months he presented with floaters and then loss of vision in the same eye. All this happened due to:
a. CRAO b. Retinal detachment c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Age related macular degeneration
-
259.A common criterion for cataract operation is;
a. Complication b. Maturation of cataract c. Loss of vision d. All of the above
-
260. Organism which penetrates intact corneal epithelium is:
a. Escherichia coli b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumonia
-
261.Vitreous hemorrhage is not seen in which of the following condition:
a. Vitreous degeneration b. Eales’ disease c. Hypertension d. Diabetic retinopathy
-
262. Amsler grid is used in which of the following:
A; Refractory errors b. Macular disorders c. Retinal function test d. Detecting tubular vision
-
263. Most common complication of topical steroid is;
a. Iritis b. Ptosis c. Cataract d. Glaucoma
-
264. Which of the following is the most common type of cataract following radiation;
a. Diffuse cataract b. Tear drop cataract c. Anterior subcapsular cataract d. Posterior subcapsular cataract
-
265. True regarding pathology of open angle glaucoma is:
a. Dislocation of lens b. Increased production of aqueous humor c. Obliteration or thrombosis of angular vein d. Sclerosis of trabecular mesh work
-
266.Epiphora is:
- a. Due to irritation of cornea by eyelashes b. Extropion is the most common cause
- c. Excess flow of tears due to blockade of nasal duct d. An epiphenomenon of ophthalmic allergy
-
267. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis occurs due to:
- a. Fungal infection b. Allergy to other endogenous antigens
- c. Allergy to tuberculoproteins d. Bacterial infection
-
268.A young man presented with pain, photophobia and blurring of vision with nodule at the limbus and ciliary congestion. These symptoms are suggestive of;
a. Koeppe’s nodule b. Pterygium c. Pinguecula d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
-
269.Phlycten is because of:
a. Exogenous allergy b. Degeneration c. endogenous allergy d. None of the above
-
270. most common systemic association with acute anterior uveitis is:
a. Toxoplasmosis b. Tuberculosis c. Ankylosinng spondylitis d. rheumatoid arthritis
-
271. A 25 year old boy presented with one day history of pain and redness associated with watering from his left eye. This was associated with intolerance to light. Most likely he has;
a. Chronic simple angle glaucoma b. Acute anterior uveitis c. Acute posterior uveitis d. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
-
272. In acute anterior uveitis, the shape of pupil is:
a. Dilated fixed and constricted b. Small and irregular c. Oval d. Circular
-
273. Not a feature of anterior uveitis:
a. Keratitis precipitates b. Shallow anterior chamber c. Oval d. Circular
-
274. In acute anterior uveitis the treatment of choice is:
a. Local NSAIDs b. Systemic NSAIDs c. Local steroids d. Systemic steroids
-
275. Most common systemic association with acute anterior uveitis with arthritis is:
a. Syphilis b. Tuberculosis c. ankylosing spondylitis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
-
276. Red color blindness is called;
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia c. Tritanopia d. Anopia
-
277.Red congested painful eye with mild dilated vertical oval pupil is seen in:
a. Eales’ disease b. Keratoconjunctivitis c. Anterior uvetitis d. Acute congestive glaucoma
-
278. Organism causing ulcus serpens is;
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Pneumococcus d. Pseudomonas phocyaneus
-
279.Panophthalmitis occur due to which of the following condition:
a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis b. Orbital cellulitis c. Blunt injury d. Conjunctivitis
-
280. Schwalbe’s ring corresponds to which of the following structure:
a. Ciliary body b. Schlemm canal c. Descemet’s membrane d. Corneal endothelium
-
281. In which of the following condition, Blaskowics operation is done:
a. Entropion b. Proptosis c. Ptosis d. Lagophthalmos
-
282. In which of the following condition, Lisch nodules are seen:
a. Rosacea b. Neurofibromatosis c. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
-
283. In which of the following syndrome there is ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilledema;
a. WAGR syndrome b. Vogt koyanagi harada syndrome c. Foster kennedy syndrome d. Fisher syndrome
-
284.Bilateral optic disc edema with normal CT scan Is seen in;
a. Brain tumors b. Benign intracranial hypertension c. Malignant hypertension d. None of the above
-
285. Drug used for treating herpetic keratitis is:
a. Idoxuridine b. Steroids c. Atropine d. Analgesics
-
286. In diphtheria the most common ocular complication is:
a. Optic neuritis b. Sluggish papillary reflex c. External ophthalmoplegia d. isolated ocular muscle paralysis
-
287. Most common ophthalmic affection of diphtheria is:
a. Isolated ocular palsies b. Ptosis c. Total ophthalmoplegia d. Ophthalmoplegia external
-
288. Diagnosis of herpetic corneal ulcer is made by;
a. Rose Bengal stain b. Cell culture/ PCR c. ELISA d. Giemsa stain
-
289.Intraocular foreign body which is most commonly retained is:
a.. Air gun pallet b. Chisel and hammer c. Iron d. Glass
-
290. Maximum visual activity occurs in which of the following:
a. Optic disc b. Fovea centralis cc. Macula densa d. Macula lutea
-
291.The refractive index of cornea is:
a. 1.50 b. 1.37 c. 1.33 d. 1.45
-
292. Maximum refractory power is seen in:
a. posterior surface of cornea b. Anterior surface of lens c. Posterior surface of lens d. Anterior surface of cornea
-
293.Power of eye is:
a. 60D b. 18 D c. 35D d. 20D
-
294. Thickest layer of cornea is;
a. Epithelium b. Stroma c. Bowman’s layer d. Endothelium
-
295.In which of the following condition fascicular ulcer is seen;
a. HSV keratitis b. Spring catarrh c. Riboflavin deficiency d. Phlyctenular keratitis
-
296.False regarding a patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus:
- a. Punctate keratitis may coalesce and unite to form dendritic ulcers which simulate herpes simplex
- b. Corneal involvement is always associated with tip of nasal involvement and ulcers
- c. It is lodged in the gasserian ganglion d. It is caused by varicella zoster virus
-
297.Field defect not seen in glaucoma is:
a. Temporal field is first to be affected b. Paracentral scotomas c. Isolated scotoma may develop d. Complete barring of blind spot
-
298. In CRVO which of the following is seen:
a. Cataract b. Retinal detachment c. Neovascular glaucoma d. All of the above
-
299. Bilateral lens dislocation is not seen in:
a. Homocystinuria b. Weill marchesani syndrome c. Rubella d. Marfan’s syndrome
-
300.Not a complication of blunt trauma to eye:
a. Iridodialysis b. Double perforation in iris c. Retinal detachment d. Hyphema
-
301.in which of the following condition, exudative retinal detachment is seen in;
a. Trauma b. Toxemia of pregnancy c. NIDDM d. Myopia
-
302.Gonioscopy is used in examination of:
a. Color vision b. Field of vision c. Curvature of cornea d. Angle of anterior chamber
-
303. Not a feature of acute papilledema ;
a. Postneuritic atrophy b. Hyperemic field c. Severe loss of vision d. Increased blind spot
-
304. Not seen in albinism:
a. Defective vision c. Nystagmus c. Glaucoma d. photophobia
-
305. Painless sudden loss of vision is not seen in;
a. Angle closure glaucoma b. CRAO c. Retrobulbar neuritis d. Retinal detachment
-
306.Cornea attains the size of adult cornea by;
a. 8 years b. 2 years c. 9 years d. 7 years
-
307.Color vision is due to;
a. Cones b. Bipolar cells c. Rods d.. Occipital
-
308.Carotid cavernous fistula is best treated with:
a. Fistulectomy b.No treatment is available c. Intravascular embolisation d. Ligation of internal artery
-
309. In which of the following condition frill excision is done:
a. Foreign body in eye b. Panophthalmitis c. Endophthalmitis d. Intraocular tumor
-
310. All are the effects of atropine except:
a. Loss of light reflex b. Decreased intraocular tension c. Photophobia d. Mydriasis
-
311. Campimeter is used to measure:
a. Depth of eyeball b. Color vision c. Retinal function d. Field of vision
-
312. Retinoblastoma differs from pseudoglioma in:
a. Blurring of vision b. Decreased intraocular tension c. Enlargement of optic foramen d. All of the above
-
313.most common cyst of conjunctiva is;
a. Parasitic cyst b. Lymphatic cyst c. Implantation cyst d. Retention cyst
-
314. Absence of blinking reflex and incomplete closure of lids in thyrotixicosis is known as;
a. Dalrymple’s sign b. Mobius’s sign c. Stellwag’s sign d. Von Graefe’s sign
-
315.Organism causing swimming pool conjunctivitis is;
a. Onchocerca b. Guinea worm c. Chlamydia d. All of the above
-
316. Which of the following layer of eye is avascular:
a. Choroid b. Cornea c. Sclera d. Retina
-
317. Lens dislocation does not occur in:
a. Batten mayou disease b. Trauma c. Homocystinuria d. MArfan syndrome
-
318. Vitreous opacities are not seen in:
a. Myopia b. Cnjunctivitis c. Asteroid hyalosis d. Chorioretinitis
-
319.Laser used in LASIK is:
a. Krypton b. Argon c. Excimer d. Nd-YAG
-
320. Early stage trachoma is most effectively treated with;
a. Soframycin locally b. Sulphonamides systemically c. Chloramphenicol systemically d. Penicillin locally
-
321. Best time for management of congenital cataract is:
a. At 1 year b. After 6 months c. At one month d. With in 24 hours
-
322. Hirschberg’s sign indicates;
a. Color blindness b. Angle of deviation c. Retina function d. Macular function
-
323. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is;
a. Essentially topical medications b. Trabeculoplasty c. Trabeculotomy with trabeculectomy d. Cyclocryotherapy
-
324. A 4 year old child is brought with large cornea, photophobia and lacrimation. The most likely diagnosis in this case is:
a. Megalocornea b. Keratoconus c. Congenital cataract d. Congenital glaucoma
-
325. TRabeculectomy is done in:
a. Cataract b. Glaucoma c. Ptosis d. Keratoconus
-
326.An optic nerve injury may result in all of the following except:
a. loss of vision in that eye b. Dilatation of pupil c. ptosis d. Loss of light reflex
-
327.Fasanella-servat operation is specifically indicated in;
a. Congenital ptosis b. Steroid induced ptosis c. Myasthenia gravis d. Horner’s syndrome
-
328. Aniseikonia means:
- a. Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs b. Difference in the size of corneas
- c. Differences in size of pupils d. Differences in the size of images formed by the 2 eyes
-
329.The most common ocular manifestation of AIDS is;
a. Micro aneurysms b. Hemorrhages c. Hard exudates d. Cotton wool spots
-
330. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically caused by;
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Histoplasma capsulatum
-
331. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically caused by:
- a. Cytomegalovirus b. Toxoplasma gondii
- c. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Histoplasma capsulatum
-
332.Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following structures except:
a. Lens b. Corneal epithelium c. Conjunctival epithemium d. Anterior layer of iris
-
333.A 17 year old girl keratitis and severe pain in the eye came to the hospital and Acanthamoeba keratitis was suspected. The patient gave the history of following 4 points. Out of these which is not a risk factor for acanthamoeba keratitis:
a. Extended wear contact leans b. Exposure to dirty water c. Corneal trauma d. Squamous blepharitis
-
334.A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Lanboratory diagnosis of Acanthamoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment:
a. Propamidine b. Neosporin c. Ketoconazole d. Polyhexamethylene biganide
-
335. significant loss of vision in a patient with a hypertension can occur due to all of the following except:
a. Occipital infarct b. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy c. Papilledema d. Retinal hemorrhage
-
336. A 2 month old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Congenital dacryocystitis b Mucopurulent conjunctivitis c. Encysted mucocele d. Buththalmos
-
337. Berlin’s edema is caused by;
a. Perforation injury b. Penetration injury c. Concussion injury d. Cataract
-
338. Cherry red spot is commonly seen in:
a. Gaucher’s disease b. Tay-sachs disease c. Hurles syndrome d. Von Gierke disease
-
339. Cherry red spot is seen in:
a. CRVO b. CRAO c. Branch retinal vein occlusion d. Papilledema
-
340. Cherry red spots are seen in all except:
a. Sandhoff disease b. Tay-sachs disease c. Wilson’s disease d. Mucolipidoses
-
341.Internal hordeolum is;
a. Chronic granulomatous infection of meibomian glands b. Acute suppurative infection of meibomian glands c. Acute infection of glands of Zeis d. Lacrimal gland infection
-
342. A 20 year old man complains of difficulty in reading the newspaper with his right eye 3 weeks after sustaining a gunshot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Macular edema b. Sympathetic ophthalmia c. Optic nerve avulsion d. Delayed vitreous hemorrhage
-
343. Cobblestone conjunctiva is seen in:
a. Trachoma b. Vernal catarrh c. Viral conjunctivitis d. None
-
344. Cobblestone appearance is seen in:
a. Epidemic keraconjunctivitis b. Vernal conjunctivitis c. Trachoma d. Herpes infection
-
345.A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with syndrome of burning, itching, and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:
a. Trachoma b. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis c. Mucourulent conjunctivitis d. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
-
346. All of the following are true about rubeosis iridis except:
a. Causes glaucoma b. It is a complication of diabetes mellitus c. It can easily be treated by surgery d. Is due to neovascularization
-
347.Inert intraocular foreign body is :
a. Iron b. Copper c. Aluminum d. Gold
-
348.Second order neuron in optic pathway is:
a. Rods and cones b. bipolar c. Ganglion d. Optic radiation
-
349.Subluxation of lens is seen:
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. homcysteinemia c. Ehler danlos syndrome d. Congenital dystrophies of cornea
-
350. Flower petal appearance in flurescein angiography is seen in:
a. Central serous retinopathy b. Choroidal nodulitis c. Choroiditis d. Cystoid macular edema
-
351.Vortex vein invasion in commonly seen in;
a. Retinoblastoma b. Mallignant melanoma c. optic nerve gliomas d. Medullo-epitheliomas
-
352.In a person when the image is known to form behind the retina is suffering from:
a. Astigmatism b. AMblyopia c. Myopia d. Hypermetropia
-
353. All of the following are causes of sudden painless loss of vision except:
a. Optic neuritis b. Retinitis Pigmentosa c. CRAO d. CRVO
-
354. Koeppe’s nodule is seen:
a. In the anterior lid margin b. In the conjunctival membrane c. In the cornea d. At the papillary margin of the iris
-
355.Treatment of choice for advanced panophthalmitis is;
a. Enucleation b. Evisceration c. Exenteration d. Conservative
-
356. Which cataract characterizes conclussionn injury to eye?
a. Eosette b. Sunflower c. Snowflake d. Post-capsular
-
357. Common ocular manifestation in trisomy -13 is:
a. Capillary hemangioma b. Bilaretal microphthalmos c. Neurofibroma d. Dermoid cyst
-
358. Symblepharon is caused by;
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. Neisseria gonorrheoeae c. Chlamydia trachmatis d. Oththalmia neonatorum
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359. Retrobulbar neuritis is diagnosed by;
a. Decreased dark adaptation b. Disc edema c. Swinging flash light test d. Pain on moving of eyeball
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360.Which of the following causes dendritic ulcer/
- a. Which of the following causing dendritic ulcer?
- a. Herpes virus b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pneumococci d. Streptococcus viridians
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361. Normal intraocular pressure is;
a. 5-10 mm of Hg b. 10-15 mm of Hg c. 15-20 mm of Hg d. 25-30 mm of Hg
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362. On mutation, which of the following may give rise to hereditary glaucoma:
a. Optineurin b. Ephrins c. RBA 8 d. Huntingtin
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363. All of the following signs could results from infection within the right cavernous sinus except:
a. Constricted pupil in response to light b. Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination c. Ptosis of the right eyelid d. Right opthalmoplegia
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364. Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated in:
a. Endophthalmitis b. Panophthalmitis c. Intraocular tumors d. Painful blind eye
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365. A patient is on follow up with you after enucleation of a painful blind eye. After enucleation of the eyeball, a proper sized artificial prosthetic eye is advised after a postoperative period of:
a. About 10 days b. about 20 days c. 6-8 weeks d. 12-34 weeks
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366. A 30 year old man came to the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are:
a. Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor nerve b. Inferior oblique and inferior division of oculomotor nerve c. Lateral rectus and abducent nerve d. Superior rectus and trochlear nerve
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367. Type IV hypersensitivity to mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:
a. Iriodocyclitis b. Polyarteritis nodosa c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d. Giant cell arteritis
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368.Night blindness is seen in:
a. Uveitis b. Achromatopsia c. Retinitis pigmentosa d. Infantile glaucoma
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369. Keratin precipitates are seen in;
- a. Keratin precipitates are seen in:
- a. Conjunctivitis b. Keratitis c. Uveitis d. Glaucoma
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370. SAFE strategy has been developed for the control of:
a. Onchocerciasis b. Trachoma c. Refractive error . Ocular trauma
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371. Complication of trachoma is;
a. Trichiasis b. Corneal opacity c. Cataract d. Night blindness
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372. Myopia is best corrected by:
a. Convex lenses b. Concave lenses c. Astigmatic lenses d. Prismas
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373.The operation of placation of inferior lid retractors is indicated in:
a. Senile ectropion b. Senile entropion c. Cicatricial entropion d. Paralytic entropion
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374.Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan’s syndrome?
a. Ectopia lentis b. Megalocornea c. Microspherophakia d. Microcornea
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375.Golden deposits in Descemet’s membrane are seen in:
a. Fabry’s disease b. Wilson disease c. Glycogen storage disease d. Acute rheumatic fever
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376.Polychromatic lustre is seen in:
a. Congeniatal cataract b. Post radiation cataract c. Diabetes mellitus d. Complicated cataract
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377. The molecule which is the initiator of cataract formation in the eye lens and whose 1-phosphate derivative is responsible for liver failure is:
a. Sorbitol b. Mannitol c. Inositol d. Galactitol
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378.Which laser is used in the management of after cataracts?
a. Argon b. Krypton c. Nd:YAG d. Excimer
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379. A soft contact lens user presents to you with pain, watering photophobia and white spot in the center of the cornea. What will be the initial management?
- a. start frequent antibiotic eye drops after discontinuing the contact lens
- b. Pad and bandage the eye for 12 hours
- c. Frequent instillation of artificial tear
- d. Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
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380.Painless sudden visual loss is seen in all, except:
a. CRAO b. Retinal detachment c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Angle closure glaucoma
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381. A 35 year old insulin dependent diabetes mellitus patient on insulin for the past 10 years complains of gradually progressive painless loss of vision. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Cataract b. Vitreous hemorrhage c. Total rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
- d. Tractional retinal detachment not involving the macula
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382.In which of the following conditions Berlin’s edema is seen?
a. Open angle glaucoma b. After cataract surgery c. After concessional trauma d. Diabetic retinopathy
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383. For every 100,000 population the highest prevalence of blindness in the world is seen in;
a. Subsaharan Africa b. South asia c. Easttern Europe d. Latin America
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384.A 3 year old child presents with a right convergent squint of 6 months duration. What is the appropriate management?
- a. Immediate surgical correction followed by ambylopia therapy
- b. proper refractive correction, ambylopia therapy followed by surgical correction
- c. Prescribe spectacles and defer surgery until the child is 5 year old
- d. Botulinum toxin injection followed by occlusion therapy
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385.Horner’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:
a. Miosis b. Enophthalmos c. Ptosis d. Cycloplegia
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386. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by;
- a. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by:
- a. 3rd cranial nerve b. 4th cranial nerve c. 5th cranial nerve d. 6th cranial nerve
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387. Under the WHO vision 2020 program, the SAFE strategy is adopted for which of the following disease?
a. Trachoma b. Glaucoma c. Diabetic retinopathy d. Onchoocerciasis
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388. The mother of a k1 ½ year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past one month. On CT scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the flobe. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Congenital cataract b. Retinoblastoma c. Endophthalmitis d. Coats disease
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389. Which of the following statement is true regarding acanthamoeba keratitis?
- a. For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal scraping should be cultured on a nutrient agar plate
- b. The causative agent , acanthamoeba is a heiminth whose normal habitat is soil
- c. Keratitis due to acanthamoeba Is not seen in the immonocopromised host
- d. Acanthamoeba does not depentupon host for the completion of its life cycle
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