Ham-Exam-EXTRA-2020

  1. E1A01 (A) [97.305, 97.307(b)]
    Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?




    B.
  2. E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
    When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?




    D.
  3. E1A03 (C) [97.305, 97.307(b)]
    What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?




    B.
  4. E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
    With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?




    D.
  5. E1A05 (C) [97.313]
    What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?




    B.
  6. E1A06 (B) [97.303(h)(1)]
    Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?




    B.
  7. E1A07 (C) [97.313(k)]
    What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 meter band?




    C.
  8. E1A08 (B) [97.219]
    If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?




    C.
  9. E1A09 (A) [97.219]
    What action or actions should you take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?




    A.
  10. E1A10 (A) [97.11]
    If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?



    D.
  11. E1A11 (B) [97.5]
    Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?




    D.
  12. E1A12 (C)
    What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?




    C.
  13. E1A13 (B) [97.5]
    Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?




    D.
  14. E1A14 (D) [97.313(l)]
    Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 meter band?




    B.
  15. E1B01 (D) [97.3]
    Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?




    D.
  16. E1B02 (A) [97.307(f)(2)]
    Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?




    B.
  17. E1B03 (A) [97.13]
    Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?




    A.
  18. E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]
    What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?




    B.
  19. E1B05 (C) [97.3]
    What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?




    B.
  20. E1B06 (A) [97.15]
    Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?




    D.
  21. E1B07 (C) [97.15]
    To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?




    A.
  22. E1B08 (D) [97.121]
    What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?




    D.
  23. E1B09 (C) [97.407]
    Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?




    C.
  24. E1B10 (A) [97.407]
    What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?




    A.
  25. E1B11 (B) [97.15]
    What does PRB-1 require of regulations affecting amateur radio?




    A.
  26. E1B12 (A) [97.303(b)]
    What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 cm band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?




    A.
  27. E1C01 (D) [97.303]
    What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?




    D.
  28. E1C02 (C) [97.117]
    Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?




    D.
  29. E1C03 (B) [97.109(d)]
    How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?




    A.
  30. E1C04 (A)
    What is meant by IARP?




    B.
  31. E1C05 (A) [97.221(c)(1), 97.115(c)]
    When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?




    A.
  32. E1C06 (C)
    Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?



    A.
  33. E1C07 (D) [97.3(a)(8)]
    At what level below a signal's mean power level is its bandwidth determined according to FCC rules?




    C.
  34. E1C08 (B) [97.213]
    What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?




    B.
  35. E1C09 (B) [97.307]
    What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?



    C.
  36. E1C10 (A) [97.307]
    What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz?




    A.
  37. E1C11 (A) [97.5]
    Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?




    D.
  38. E1C12 (D) [97.305(c)]
    On what portion of the 630 meter band are phone emissions permitted?




    B.
  39. E1C13 (C) [97.303(g)]
    What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630 meter or 2200 meter bands?




    D.
  40. E1C14 (B) [97.303(g)]
    How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Telecom Commission before operating on the 2200 meter or 630 meter band?




    B.
  41. E1D01 (A) [97.3]
    What is the definition of telemetry?




    A.
  42. E1D02 (A) [97.211(b)]
    Which of the following may transmit special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages?




    A.
  43. E1D03 (B) [97.3(a)(45)]
    What is a space telecommand station?




    B.
  44. E1D04 (A) [97.119(a)]
    Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?




    D.
  45. E1D05 (D) [97.213(d)]
    What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?




    A.
  46. E1D06 (A) [97.215(c)]
    What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?




    B.
  47. E1D07 (A) [97.207]
    Which HF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?




    B.
  48. E1D08 (D) [97.207]
    Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?




    A.
  49. E1D09 (B) [97.207]
    Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?




    A.
  50. E1D10 (B) [97.211]
    Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations (subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station)?




    A.
  51. E1D11 (D) [97.209]
    Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?




    A.
  52. E1D12 (A) [97.207(e), 97.203(g)]
    Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?




    A.
  53. E1E01 (A) [97.527]
    For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?




    D.
  54. E1E02 (C) [97.523]
    Who does Part 97 task with maintaining the pools of questions for all U.S. amateur license examinations?




    B.
  55. E1E03 (C) [97.521]
    What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?




    A.
  56. E1E04 (D) [97.509, 97.525]
    Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?




    A.
  57. E1E05 (B) [97.503]
    What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?




    D.
  58. E1E06 (C) [97.509]
    Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?



    B.
  59. E1E07 (B) [97.509]
    What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?




    D.
  60. E1E08 (C) [97.509]
    To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?




    D.
  61. E1E09 (A) [97.509]
    What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?




    D.
  62. E1E10 (C) [97.509(h)]
    What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?




    B.
  63. E1E11 (B) [97.509(m)]
    What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?




    B.
  64. E1E12 (A) [97.509(j)]
    What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?




    C.
  65. E1F01 (B) [97.305]
    On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?




    B.
  66. E1F02 (C) [97.107]
    What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?




    C.
  67. E1F03 (A) [97.315]
    Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?




    C.
  68. E1F04 (A) [97.3]
    Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?




    D.
  69. E1F05 (D) [97.303]
    Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?




    B.
  70. E1F06 (A) [1.931]
    Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?




    A.
  71. E1F07 (D) [97.113]
    When may an amateur station send a message to a business?




    D.
  72. E1F08 (A) [97.113(c)]
    Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?




    A.
  73. E1F09 (D) [97.311]
    Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emissions?




    C.
  74. E1F10 (B) [97.201]
    Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?




    A.
  75. E1F11 (D) [97.317]
    Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?




    D.
  76. E2A01 (C)
    What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?




    A.
  77. E2A02 (D)
    Which of the following occurs when a satellite is using an inverted linear transponder?




    B.
  78. E2A03 (D)
    How is the signal inverted by an inverting linear transponder?




    B.
  79. E2A04 (B)
    What is meant by the term mode? as applied to an amateur radio satellite?




    B.
  80. E2A05 (D)
    What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?




    C.
  81. E2A06 (A)
    What are Keplerian elements?




    B.
  82. E2A07 (D)
    Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?




    C.
  83. E2A08 (B)
    Why should effective radiated power to a satellite that uses a linear transponder be limited?




    A.
  84. E2A09 (A)
    What do the terms L band and S band specify regarding satellite communications?




    B.
  85. E2A10 (B)
    What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?




    C.
  86. E2A11 (B)
    What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?




    D.
  87. E2A12 (C)
    What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?




    A.
  88. E2A13 (B)
    Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?




    C.
  89. E2B01 (A)
    How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?




    D.
  90. E2B02 (C)
    How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?




    A.
  91. E2B03 (D)
    How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?




    A.
  92. E2B04 (A)
    How is color information sent in analog SSTV?




    A.
  93. E2B05 (C)
    Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?




    D.
  94. E2B06 (A)
    What is vestigial sideband modulation?




    B.
  95. E2B07 (B)
    What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?




    B.
  96. E2B08 (A)
    What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70 cm band?




    D.
  97. E2B09 (D)
    What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?




    B.
  98. E2B10 (A)
    What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?




    A.
  99. E2B11 (B)
    What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?




    A.
  100. E2B12 (A)
    What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?




    A.
  101. E2C01 (D)
    What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the U.S.?




    A.
  102. E2C02 (A)
    Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting? in connection with HF contest operating?




    B.
  103. E2C03 (A)
    From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?




    C.
  104. E2C04 (B)
    Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?




    B.
  105. E2C05 (B)
    What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?




    A.
  106. E2C06 (C)
    During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?




    C.
  107. E2C07 (A)
    What is the Cabrillo format?




    B.
  108. E2C08 (B)
    Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?




    B.
  109. E2C09 (C)
    What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?




    D.
  110. E2C10 (D)
    Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?




    C.
  111. E2C11 (A)
    How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?




    B.
  112. E2C12 (C)
    What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?




    D.
  113. E2D01 (B)
    Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?




    C.
  114. E2D02 (D)
    Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?




    A.
  115. E2D03 (D)
    Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?




    D.
  116. E2D04 (C)
    What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?




    C.
  117. E2D05 (B)
    What is one advantage of the JT65 mode?




    A.
  118. E2D06 (A)
    Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?




    A.
  119. E2D07 (C)
    What digital protocol is used by APRS?




    D.
  120. E2D08 (A)
    What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?




    C.
  121. E2D09 (A)
    What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?




    D.
  122. E2D10 (C)
    How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?




    D.
  123. E2D11 (D)
    Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate station location?




    C.
  124. E2E01 (B)
    Which of the following types of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?




    C.
  125. E2E02 (A)
    What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?




    D.
  126. E2E03 (C)
    How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?




    B.
  127. E2E04 (A)
    What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?




    D.
  128. E2E05 (A)
    Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?




    D.
  129. E2E06 (C)
    What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?




    A.
  130. E2E07 (D)
    Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?




    D.
  131. E2E08 (B)
    Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?




    D.
  132. E2E09 (D)
    Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?




    B.
  133. E2E10 (C)
    Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?




    D.
  134. E2E11 (A)
    What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?




    A.
  135. E2E12 (A)
    How do ALE stations establish contact?




    A.
  136. E2E13 (D)
    Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?




    D.
  137. E3A01 (D)
    What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?




    B.
  138. E3A02 (B)
    What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?




    C.
  139. E3A03 (A)
    When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?




    A.
  140. E3A04 (D)
    What do Hepburn maps predict?




    B.
  141. E3A05 (C)
    Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs in association with what phenomenon?




    B.
  142. E3A06 (B)
    What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?




    A.
  143. E3A07 (C)
    Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?




    B.
  144. E3A08 (A)
    When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?




    A.
  145. E3A09 (C)
    Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?




    C.
  146. E3A10 (B)
    Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?




    B.
  147. E3A11 (B)
    What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?




    A.
  148. E3A12 (C)
    What is the cause of auroral activity?




    D.
  149. E3A13 (A)
    Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?




    D.
  150. E3A14 (B)
    What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?




    A.
  151. E3B01 (A)
    What is transequatorial propagation?




    D.
  152. E3B02 (C)
    What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?




    D.
  153. E3B03 (C)
    What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?




    C.
  154. E3B04 (B)
    What is meant by the terms "extraordinary" and "ordinary" waves?




    A.
  155. E3B05 (C)
    Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?




    C.
  156. E3B06 (B)
    Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?




    A.
  157. E3B07 (C)
    What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?




    D.
  158. E3B08 (D)
    What is the term for the long path opening that exists between two points on the Earth which are simultaneously near sunrise and sunset?




    D.
  159. E3B09 (A)
    At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?




    D.
  160. E3B10 (A)
    Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?




    D.
  161. E3B11 (D)

    At what time of day can sporadic E propagation occur?



    D.
  162. E3B12 (B)
    What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?




    D.
  163. E3C01 (B)
    What does the radio communication term "ray tracing" describe?




    A.
  164. E3C02 (A)
    What is indicated by a rising A or K index?




    B.
  165. E3C03 (B)
    Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?




    D.
  166. E3C04 (C)
    What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?




    D.
  167. E3C05 (A)
    What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the sun will cause disturbed conditions?




    C.
  168. E3C06 (A)
    By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?




    D.
  169. E3C07 (D)
    Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?




    D.
  170. E3C08 (A)
    What does the space weather term G5 mean?




    B.
  171. E3C09 (B)
    How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?




    A.
  172. E3C10 (B)
    What does the 304A solar parameter measure?




    D.
  173. E3C11 (C)
    What does VOACAP software model?




    B.
  174. E3C12 (C)
    How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?




    C.
  175. E3C13 (A)
    What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?




    B.
  176. E3C14 (D)
    Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?




    C.
  177. E3C15 (B)
    What might be indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?




    C.
  178. E4A01 (A)
    Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?




    D.
  179. E4A02 (B)
    Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?




    D.
  180. E4A03 (B)
    Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?




    A.
  181. E4A04 (A)
    How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?




    D.
  182. E4A05 (D)
    What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?




    B.
  183. E4A06 (A)
    What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?




    D.
  184. E4A07 (B)
    Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?




    D.
  185. E4A08 (D)
    Which of the following measures SWR?




    B.
  186. E4A09 (A)
    Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?




    B.
  187. E4A10 (D)
    Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?




    D.
  188. E4A11 (D)
    How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?




    A.
  189. E4B01 (B)
    Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?




    D.
  190. E4B02 (A)
    What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?




    C.
  191. E4B03 (C)
    Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?




    D.
  192. E4B04 (A)
    Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?




    A.
  193. E4B05 (B)
    What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?




    B.
  194. E4B06 (D)
    How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?




    C.
  195. E4B07 (A)
    What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?




    C.
  196. E4B08 (C)
    Which of the following can be used to measure the Q of a series-tuned circuit?




    D.
  197. E4B09 (D)
    What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?




    B.
  198. E4B10 (B)
    Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?




    C.
  199. E4B11 (D)
    Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?




    D.
  200. E4C01 (D)
    What is an effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver's local oscillator?




    B.
  201. E4C02 (A)
    Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?




    D.
  202. E4C03 (C)
    What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?




    C.
  203. E4C04 (D)
    What is the noise figure of a receiver?




    C.
  204. E4C05 (B)
    What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?




    C.
  205. E4C06 (D)
    A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

    A. -174 dBm
    B. -164 dBm
    C. -155 dBm
    D. -148 dBm
    D.
  206. E4C07 (B)
    What does the MDS of a receiver represent?




    A.
  207. E4C08 (D)
    An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?




    A.
  208. E4C09 (C)
    Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?




    A.
  209. E4C10 (C)
    What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver IF bandwidths from which to select?




    D.
  210. E4C11 (D)
    Why can an attenuator be used to reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?




    C.
  211. E4C12 (D)
    Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's dynamic range?




    A.
  212. E4C13 (C)
    How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?




    A.
  213. E4C14 (D)
    What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and that uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?




    A.
  214. E4C15 (D)
    What is reciprocal mixing?




    C.
  215. E4D01 (A)
    What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?




    B.
  216. E4D02 (A)
    Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?




    B.
  217. E4D03 (B)
    How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?




    B.
  218. E4D04 (B)
    Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?




    A.
  219. E4D05 (A)
    What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?




    D.
  220. E4D06 (D)
    What is the term for spurious signals generated by the combination of two or more signals in a non-linear device or circuit?




    D.
  221. E4D07 (A)
    Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?




    A.
  222. E4D08 (C)
    What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?




    D.
  223. E4D09 (C)
    What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?




    C.
  224. E4D10 (C)
    What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?




    C.
  225. E4D11 (A)
    Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?




    A.
  226. E4D12 (A)
    What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?




    B.
  227. E4E01 (A)
    What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?




    B.
  228. E4E02 (D)
    Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced with a digital signal processing noise filter?




    C.
  229. E4E03 (B)
    Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?




    A.
  230. E4E04 (D)
    How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?




    D.
  231. E4E05 (B)
    How can radio frequency interference from an AC motor be suppressed?




    C.
  232. E4E06 (C)
    What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by a nearby personal computer?




    A.
  233. E4E07 (B)
    Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?




    A.
  234. E4E08 (B)
    What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?




    B.
  235. E4E09 (C)
    What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?




    D.
  236. E4E10 (D)
    What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?




    A.
  237. E4E11 (B)
    What could cause local AM broadcast band signals to combine to generate spurious signals in the MF or HF bands?




    D.
  238. E5A01 (A)
    What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?




    C.
  239. E5A02 (C)
    What is resonance in an LC or RLC circuit?




    C.
  240. E5A03 (D)
    What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?




    C.
  241. E5A04 (A)
    What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?




    A.
  242. E5A05 (A)
    What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?




    A.
  243. E5A06 (B)
    What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?




    B.
  244. E5A07 (A)
    What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?




    B.
  245. E5A08 (C)
    What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?




    A.
  246. E5A09 (C)
    How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?




    C.
  247. E5A10 (A)
    How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?




    A.
  248. E5A11 (C)
    What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?




    B.
  249. E5A12 (C)
    What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?




    A.
  250. E5A13 (C)
    What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?




    D.
  251. E5A14 (C)
    What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?




    D.
  252. E5A15 (A)
    Which of the following increases Q for inductors and capacitors?




    D.
  253. E5A16 (D)
    What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 10 picofarads?




    C.
  254. E5B01 (B)
    What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?




    B.
  255. E5B02 (D)
    What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?




    C.
  256. E5B03 (B)
    How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?




    A.
  257. E5B04 (D)
    What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?




    B.
  258. E5B05 (D)
    What happens to the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?




    C.
  259. E5B06 (C)
    What is susceptance?




    C.
  260. E5B07 (C)
    What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?




    B.
  261. E5B08 (A)
    What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms.




    A.
  262. E5B09 (D)
    What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?




    A.
  263. E5B10 (A)
    What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?




    D.
  264. E5B11 (B)
    What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?




    A.
  265. E5B12 (A)
    What is admittance?




    C.
  266. E5C01 (A)
    Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?




    C.
  267. E5C02 (C)
    How are impedances described in polar coordinates?




    B.
  268. E5C03 (C)
    Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?




    A.
  269. E5C04 (D)
    What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?




    D.
  270. E5C05 (C)
    What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?




    D.
  271. E5C06 (B)
    What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?




    C.
  272. E5C07 (D)
    Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?




    D.
  273. E5C08 (D)
    What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?




    D.
  274. E5C09 (A)
    When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?




    C.
  275. E5C10 (B)
    Image Upload 1
    Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?




    C.
  276. E5C11 (B)
    Image Upload 2
    Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?




    A.
  277. E5C12 (A)
    Image Upload 3
    Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?




    A.
  278. E5D01 (A)
    What is the result of skin effect?




    C.
  279. E5D02 (B)
    Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?




    B.
  280. E5D03 (D)
    What is microstrip?




    D.
  281. E5D04 (B)
    Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?




    B.
  282. E5D05 (C)
    What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?




    A.
  283. E5D06 (D)
    In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?




    B.
  284. E5D07 (B)
    How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?




    C.
  285. E5D08 (D)
    How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?




    D.
  286. E5D09 (B)
    What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?




    A.
  287. E5D10 (A)
    How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?




    D.
  288. E5D11 (C)
    What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 60-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?




    C.
  289. E5D12 (B)
    How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?




    A.
  290. E5D13 (B)
    How many watts are consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?




    C.
  291. E5D14 (A)
    What is reactive power?




    B.
  292. E5D15 (D)
    What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?




    D.
  293. E6A01 (C)
    In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?




    B.
  294. E6A02 (A)
    Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?




    D.
  295. E6A03 (C)
    Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?




    B.
  296. E6A04 (C)
    What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?




    D.
  297. E6A05 (C)
    How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?




    C.
  298. E6A06 (B)
    What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?




    A.
  299. E6A07 (D)
    Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?




    B.
  300. E6A08 (D)
    What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?




    B.
  301. E6A09 (A)
    What is a depletion-mode FET?




    C.
  302. E6A10 (B)
    Image Upload 4
    In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?




    A.
  303. E6A11 (A)
    Image Upload 5
    In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?




    C.
  304. E6A12 (D)

    Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?




    D.
  305. E6B01 (B)
    What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?




    C.
  306. E6B02 (D)
    What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?




    A.
  307. E6B03 (B)
    What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?




    A.
  308. E6B04 (A)
    What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?




    C.
  309. E6B05 (D)
    What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?




    C.
  310. E6B06 (D)
    Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?




    C.
  311. E6B07 (B)
    What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?




    D.
  312. E6B08 (A)
    Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?




    A.
  313. E6B09 (C)
    What is a common use for point-contact diodes?




    A.
  314. E6B10 (B)
    Image Upload 6
    In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?




    D.
  315. E6B11 (A)
    What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?




    A.
  316. E6C01 (A)
    What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?




    D.
  317. E6C02 (B)
    What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?




    D.
  318. E6C03 (A)
    What is tri-state logic?




    C.
  319. E6C04 (C)
    Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?




    A.
  320. E6C05 (D)
    What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?




    B.
  321. E6C06 (C)
    Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?




    A.
  322. E6C07 (B)
    What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?




    D.
  323. E6C08 (B)
    Image Upload 7
    In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?




    D.
  324. E6C09 (B)
    What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?




    C.
  325. E6C10 (D)
    Image Upload 8
    In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?




    B.
  326. E6C11 (C)
    Image Upload 9
    In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?




    A.
  327. E6D01 (A)
    Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?




    D.
  328. E6D02 (A)
    What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?




    C.
  329. E6D03 (A)
    Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?




    B.
  330. E6D04 (B)
    Which materials are commonly used as a core in an inductor?




    C.
  331. E6D05 (C)
    What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered iron in an inductor?




    A.
  332. E6D06 (D)
    What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?




    B.
  333. E6D07 (A)
    What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?




    C.
  334. E6D08 (B)
    What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?




    C.
  335. E6D09 (C)
    What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?




    C.
  336. E6D10 (A)
    What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?




    B.
  337. E6D11 (B)
    Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?




    D.
  338. E6D12 (C)
    What is inductor saturation?




    A.
  339. E6D13 (A)
    What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?




    B.
  340. E6E01 (B)
    Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?




    A.
  341. E6E02 (A)
    Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?




    A.
  342. E6E03 (D)
    Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?




    B.
  343. E6E04 (A)
    Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?




    A.
  344. E6E05 (A)
    Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?




    A.
  345. E6E06 (D)
    What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?




    A.
  346. E6E07 (D)
    What type of transmission line is used for connections to MMICs?




    D.
  347. E6E08 (A)
    How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?




    D.
  348. E6E09 (D)
    Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?




    C.
  349. E6E10 (D)
    What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?




    C.
  350. E6E11 (D)
    What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?




    D.
  351. E6E12 (C)
    Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?




    C.
  352. E6F01 (C)
    What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?




    A.
  353. E6F02 (A)
    What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?




    A.
  354. E6F03 (D)
    What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?




    D.
  355. E6F04 (B)
    What is the photovoltaic effect?




    B.
  356. E6F05 (A)
    Which describes an optical shaft encoder?




    A.
  357. E6F06 (A)
    Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?




    C.
  358. E6F07 (B)
    What is a solid-state relay?




    D.
  359. E6F08 (C)
    Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits when switching 120 VAC?




    A.
  360. E6F09 (D)
    What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?




    A.
  361. E6F10 (B)
    What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?




    A.
  362. E6F11 (B)
    What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?




    B.
  363. E7A01 (C)
    Which circuit is bistable?




    B.
  364. E7A02 (A)
    What is the function of a decade counter?




    B.
  365. E7A03 (B)
    Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?




    C.
  366. E7A04 (B)
    How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?




    A.
  367. E7A05 (D)
    Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?




    D.
  368. E7A06 (A)
    What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?




    B.
  369. E7A07 (D)
    What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?




    C.
  370. E7A08 (A)
    What logical operation does an OR gate perform?




    C.
  371. E7A09 (C)
    What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?




    B.
  372. E7A10 (C)
    What is a truth table?




    B.
  373. E7A11 (D)
    What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?




    B.
  374. E7B01 (A)
    For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull Class AB amplifier conduct?




    C.
  375. E7B02 (A)
    What is a Class D amplifier?




    B.
  376. E7B03 (A)
    Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?




    C.
  377. E7B04 (A)
    Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?




    B.
  378. E7B05 (C)
    What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?




    C.
  379. E7B06 (B)
    Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?




    A.
  380. E7B07 (D)
    Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?




    B.
  381. E7B08 (C)
    How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?




    D.
  382. E7B09 (D)
    Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?




    B.
  383. E7B10 (B)
    Image Upload 10
    In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?




    C.
  384. E7B11 (D)
    Image Upload 11
    In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?




    D.
  385. E7B12 (C)
    Image Upload 12
    What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?




    C.
  386. E7B13 (D)
    Which of the following describes an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?




    C.
  387. E7B14 (B)
    Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?




    A.
  388. E7B15 (C)
    What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?




    A.
  389. E7B16 (A)
    What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?




    C.
  390. E7B17 (A)
    Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?




    B.
  391. E7B18 (C)
    What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?




    B.
  392. E7C01 (D)
    How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?




    B.
  393. E7C02 (C)
    Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?




    A.
  394. E7C03 (A)
    What advantage does a series-L Pi-L-network have over a series-L Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?




    A.
  395. E7C04 (C)
    How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?




    C.
  396. E7C05 (D)
    Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?




    C.
  397. E7C06 (C)
    What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?




    C.
  398. E7C07 (B)
    Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?




    C.
  399. E7C08 (A)
    Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?




    D.
  400. E7C09 (D)
    What is a crystal lattice filter?




    D.
  401. E7C10 (B)
    Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter band repeater duplexer?




    A.
  402. E7C11 (C)
    Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?




    A.
  403. E7C12 (A)
    What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?




    A.
  404. E7D01 (D)
    How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?




    D.
  405. E7D02 (C)
    What is a characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?




    B.
  406. E7D03 (A)
    What device is typically used as a stable voltage reference in a linear voltage regulator?




    A.
  407. E7D04 (B)
    Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?




    C.
  408. E7D05 (D)
    Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?




    A.
  409. E7D06 (C)
    Image Upload 13
    What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?




    A.
  410. E7D07 (A)
    Image Upload 14
    What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?




    D.
  411. E7D08 (C)
    Image Upload 15
    What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?




    B.
  412. E7D09 (C)
    What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?




    D.
  413. E7D10 (C)
    What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?




    A.
  414. E7D11 (D)
    What is the function of the pass transistor in a linear voltage regulator circuit?




    A.
  415. E7D12 (C)
    What is the dropout voltage of an analog voltage regulator?




    A.
  416. E7D13 (C)
    What is the equation for calculating power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?




    A.
  417. E7D14 (D)
    What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?




    A.
  418. E7D15 (D)
    What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?




    D.
  419. E7E01 (B)
    Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?




    A.
  420. E7E02 (D)
    What is the function of a reactance modulator?




    D.
  421. E7E03 (D)
    What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?




    A.
  422. E7E04 (A)
    What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?




    B.
  423. E7E05 (D)
    What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?




    A.
  424. E7E06 (A)
    Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?




    D.
  425. E7E07 (B)
    What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?




    C.
  426. E7E08 (C)
    What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?




    C.
  427. E7E09 (A)
    What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?




    A.
  428. E7E10 (A)
    How does a diode envelope detector function?




    A.
  429. E7E11 (C)
    Which type of detector circuit is used for demodulating SSB signals?




    B.
  430. E7F01 (C)
    What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?




    A.
  431. E7F02 (A)
    What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?




    D.
  432. E7F03 (C)
    What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?




    A.
  433. E7F04 (D)
    What is a common method of generating an SSB signal using digital signal processing?




    C.
  434. E7F05 (B)
    How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?




    D.
  435. E7F06 (D)
    What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?




    B.
  436. E7F07 (C)
    What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?




    C.
  437. E7F08 (B)
    What is the function of decimation?




    B.
  438. E7F09 (A)
    Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?




    A.
  439. E7F10 (A)
    What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?




    A.
  440. E7F11 (B)
    What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling SDR receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?




    A.
  441. E7F12 (A)
    Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?




    D.
  442. E7F13 (D)
    What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?




    D.
  443. E7F14 (B)
    Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?




    A.
  444. E7G01 (A)
    What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?




    D.
  445. E7G02 (D)
    What is ringing in a filter?




    A.
  446. E7G03 (D)
    What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?




    C.
  447. E7G04 (C)
    What is meant by the "op-amp input offset voltage"?




    D.
  448. E7G05 (A)
    How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp RC audio filter circuit?




    A.
  449. E7G06 (B)
    What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?




    C.
  450. E7G07 (C)
    Image Upload 16
    What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?




    D.
  451. E7G08 (D)
    How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?




    C.
  452. E7G09 (D)
    Image Upload 17
    What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?




    A.
  453. E7G10 (C)
    Image Upload 18
    What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?




    B.
  454. E7G11 (B)
    Image Upload 19
    What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?




    A.
  455. E7G12 (A)
    What is an operational amplifier?




    B.
  456. E7H01 (D)
    What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?




    B.
  457. E7H02 (C)
    What is a microphonic?




    A.
  458. E7H03 (A)
    How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?




    C.
  459. E7H04 (C)
    How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?




    B.
  460. E7H05 (D)
    How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?




    D.
  461. E7H06 (B)
    Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?




    B.
  462. E7H07 (D)
    How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?




    C.
  463. E7H08 (A)
    Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?




    B.
  464. E7H09 (A)
    What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?




    A.
  465. E7H10 (B)
    What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?




    A.
  466. E7H11 (C)
    What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?




    B.
  467. E7H12 (B)
    Which of the following must be done to ensure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?




    A.
  468. E7H13 (D)
    Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?




    A.
  469. E7H14 (C)
    What is a phase-locked loop circuit?




    B.
  470. E7H15 (D)
    Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?




    B.
  471. E8A01 (A)
    What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?




    A.
  472. E8A02 (A)
    Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?




    C.
  473. E8A03 (A)
    What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?




    D.
  474. E8A04 (B)
    What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?




    A.
  475. E8A05 (D)
    What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?




    D.
  476. E8A06 (A)
    What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?




    C.
  477. E8A07 (B)
    What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?




    D.
  478. E8A08 (C)
    Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?




    B.
  479. E8A09 (D)
    How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?




    B.
  480. E8A10 (C)
    What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?




    D.
  481. E8A11 (A)
    Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?




    B.
  482. E8B01 (A)
    What is the modulation index of an FM signal?




    A.
  483. E8B02 (D)
    How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?




    A.
  484. E8B03 (A)
    What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?




    B.
  485. E8B04 (B)
    What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?




    B.
  486. E8B05 (D)
    What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?




    B.
  487. E8B06 (A)
    What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?




    C.
  488. E8B07 (A)
    Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?




    C.
  489. E8B08 (D)
    What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?




    C.
  490. E8B09 (B)
    What is deviation ratio?




    B.
  491. E8B10 (B)
    What is frequency division multiplexing?




    B.
  492. E8B11 (B)
    What is digital time division multiplexing?




    C.
  493. E8C01 (C)
    How is Forward Error Correction implemented?




    D.
  494. E8C02 (C)
    What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?




    A.
  495. E8C03 (A)
    Why should phase-shifting of a PSK signal be done at the zero crossing of the RF signal?




    B.
  496. E8C04 (C)
    What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?




    A.
  497. E8C05 (C)
    What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?




    D.
  498. E8C06 (C)
    What is the bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?




    D.
  499. E8C07 (A)
    What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?




    D.
  500. E8C08 (D)
    How does ARQ accomplish error correction?




    A.
  501. E8C09 (D)
    Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?




    D.
  502. E8C10 (C)
    How may symbol rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?




    D.
  503. E8C11 (A) 
    What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? 




    C.
  504. E8C12 (C)
    What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?




    B.
  505. E8D01 (A)
    Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?




    D.
  506. E8D02 (B)
    What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?




    A.
  507. E8D03 (D)
    How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?




    A.
  508. E8D04 (C)
    What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?




    B.
  509. E8D05 (A)
    What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?




    D.
  510. E8D06 (D)
    What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?




    C.
  511. E8D07 (D)
    What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?




    C.
  512. E8D08 (D)
    What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?




    D.
  513. E8D09 (D)
    What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?




    A.
  514. E8D10 (B)
    What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?




    D.
  515. E8D11 (C)
    What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?




    C.
  516. E9A01 (C)
    What is an isotropic antenna?




    D.
  517. E9A02 (D)
    What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?




    A.
  518. E9A03 (C)
    What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?




    B.
  519. E9A04 (B)
    Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?




    A.
  520. E9A05 (D)
    What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?




    B.
  521. E9A06 (A)
    What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?




    D.
  522. E9A07 (B)
    What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?




    A.
  523. E9A08 (B)
    What is antenna bandwidth?




    D.
  524. E9A09 (B)
    What is antenna efficiency?




    C.
  525. E9A10 (A)
    Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?




    D.
  526. E9A11 (C)
    Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?




    A.
  527. E9A12 (A)
    How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?




    B.
  528. E9A13 (C)
    What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?




    A.
  529. E9B01 (B)
    Image Upload 20
    In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?




    C.
  530. E9B02 (B)
    Image Upload 21
    In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?




    B.
  531. E9B03 (B)
    Image Upload 22
    In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?




    D.
  532. E9B04 (B)
    Image Upload 23
    What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?




    A.
  533. E9B05 (A)
    Image Upload 24
    What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?




    A.
  534. E9B06 (C)
    Image Upload 25
    What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?




    C.
  535. E9B07 (C)
    How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from a theoretical isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?




    A.
  536. E9B08 (D)
    What is the far field of an antenna?




    B.
  537. E9B09 (B)
    What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?




    B.
  538. E9B10 (A)
    What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?




    C.
  539. E9B11 (C)
    What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?




    A.
  540. E9C01 (D)
    What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?




    D.
  541. E9C02 (A)
    What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?




    C.
  542. E9C03 (C)
    What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?




    C.
  543. E9C04 (B)
    What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?




    A.
  544. E9C05 (A)
    Which of the following is a type of OCFD antenna?




    D.
  545. E9C06 (B)
    What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic antenna?




    D.
  546. E9C07 (A)
    What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?




    C.
  547. E9C08 (C)
    What is a folded dipole antenna?




    A.
  548. E9C09 (A)
    Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?




    D.
  549. E9C10 (B)
    Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?




    B.
  550. E9C11 (D)
    How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?




    C.
  551. E9C12 (C)
    Which of the following describes an Extended Double Zepp antenna?




    D.
  552. E9C13 (B)
    How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with increasing height above ground?




    B.
  553. E9C14 (B)
    How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?




    A.
  554. E9D01 (D)
    How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?




    A.
  555. E9D02 (C)
    How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?




    A.
  556. E9D03 (A)
    Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?




    B.
  557. E9D04 (C)
    Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?




    D.
  558. E9D05 (B)
    What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?




    D.
  559. E9D06 (B)
    What happens to the SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?




    B.
  560. E9D07 (D)
    What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?




    D.
  561. E9D08 (B)
    What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?




    B.
  562. E9D09 (D)
    What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?




    A.
  563. E9D10 (B)
    What happens to feed-point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna when operated below its resonant frequency?




    B.
  564. E9D11 (B)
    Which of the following conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?




    C.
  565. E9D12 (C)
    Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?




    C.
  566. E9E01 (B)
    What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?




    B.
  567. E9E02 (A)
    What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?




    C.
  568. E9E03 (D)
    What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?




    A.
  569. E9E04 (B)
    What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?




    B.
  570. E9E05 (A)
    How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?




    D.
  571. E9E06 (C)
    Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?




    D.
  572. E9E07 (B)
    What parameter describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?




    A.
  573. E9E08 (C)
    What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?




    B.
  574. E9E09 (C){ }
    Which of the following is used to shunt-feed a grounded tower at its base?




    B.
  575. E9E10 (C)
    Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?




    D.
  576. E9E11 (A)
    What is the primary purpose of phasing lines when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?




    D.
  577. E9F01 (D)
    What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?




    A.
  578. E9F02 (C)
    Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line?




    B.
  579. E9F03 (D)
    Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?




    B.
  580. E9F04 (B)
    What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?




    D.
  581. E9F05 (D)
    What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?




    B.
  582. E9F06 (C)
    What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?




    C.
  583. E9F07 (A)
    How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?




    B.
  584. E9F08 (D)
    Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?




    C.
  585. E9F09 (B)
    What is the approximate physical length of a foam polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?




    A.
  586. E9F10 (C)
    What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?




    D.
  587. E9F11 (C)
    What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?




    D.
  588. E9F12 (D)
    What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?




    D.
  589. E9F13 (A)
    What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?




    B.
  590. E9G01 (A)
    Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?




    C.
  591. E9G02 (B)
    What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?




    B.
  592. E9G03 (C)
    Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?




    B.
  593. E9G04 (C)
    What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?




    A.
  594. E9G05 (A)
    Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?




    A.
  595. E9G06 (B)
    Image Upload 26
    On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?




    A.
  596. E9G07 (D)
    Image Upload 27
    On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?




    C.
  597. E9G08 (C)
    What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?




    B.
  598. E9G09 (A)
    What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?




    D.
  599. E9G10 (D)
    What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?




    B.
  600. E9G11 (B)
    How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?




    B.
  601. E9H01 (D)
    When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?




    D.
  602. E9H02 (A)
    Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?




    A.
  603. E9H03 (D)
    What is Receiving Directivity Factor (RDF)?




    A.
  604. E9H04 (B)
    What is an advantage of placing a grounded electrostatic shield around a small loop direction-finding antenna?




    B.
  605. E9H05 (A)
    What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?




    B.
  606. E9H06 (C)
    What is the triangulation method of direction finding?




    A.
  607. E9H07 (D)
    Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?




    A.
  608. E9H08 (A)
    What is the function of a sense antenna?




    B.
  609. E9H09 (B)
    What is a Pennant antenna?




    C.
  610. E9H10 (D)
    How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?




    D.
  611. E9H11 (B)
    What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction finding?




    B.
  612. E0A01 (B)
    What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?




    B.
  613. E0A02 (B)
    When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?




    D.
  614. E0A03 (C)
    Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?




    B.
  615. E0A04 (C)
    When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?




    C.
  616. E0A05 (B)
    What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?




    B.
  617. E0A06 (D)
    Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?




    D.
  618. E0A07 (B)
    How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?




    A.
  619. E0A08 (C)
    What does SAR measure?




    B.
  620. E0A09 (C)
    Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?




    A.
  621. E0A10 (A)
    What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?




    A.
  622. E0A11 (C)
    Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?




    C.
Author
Colinsoon
ID
354498
Card Set
Ham-Exam-EXTRA-2020
Description
HamRadio Exam Extra 2020-2024
Updated