2019-2023 General-Ham License Exam

  1. G1A01 [97.301]
    On which HF/MF bands is a General class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?




    A. ....(Not Common Bands, 40,20,15 meters)
  2. G1A02 [97.305]
    On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?




    D. ....(30meters, 10.1MHz<---Rtty & Data ONLY)
  3. G1A03 [97.305]
    On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?




    A. .....(30meters, 10.1MHz<---Rtty & Data ONLY)
  4. G1A04 [97.303 (h)]
    Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?




    C. ....(60meters, 5.3Mhz, few frequencies only, ERP 100w to Diple)
  5. G1A05 [97.301]
    Which of the following frequencies is in the General class portion of the 40-meter band in ITU Region 2?




    C. ....(7.3, 14.35, 21.45, 29.7-->Right Edge)
  6. G1A06 [97.301]
    Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75-meter phone band?




    C. ....(3.8-4.0)
  7. G1A07 [97.301]
    Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 20-meter phone band?




    A. ....(7.3, 14.35, 21.45, 29.7)
  8. G1A08 [97.301]
    Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80-meter band?




    B. ....(3.5-3.6, Rtty & Data)
  9. G1A09 [97.301]
    Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?




    B. ....(21.275-21.450).
  10. G1A10 [97.301]
    Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General class license?




    C. ....(10 meters ok to all E.A.G class)
  11. G1A11 [97.301]
    When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?




    D. The upper frequency end
  12. G1A12 [97.303]
    Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?




    C. ....(No harmful interference plz)
  13. G1A13 [97.303(5)(h)(2)(j)]
    What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?




    D. ....(move away or stop)
  14. G1A14 [97.301]
    Which of the following may apply in areas under FCC jurisdiction outside of ITU Region 2?




    D. ....(Frequencies differ)
  15. G1A15 [97.205]
    What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?




    D. ....(above 29.5)
  16. G1B01 [97.15 ]
    What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?




    D. ....(>200 feet has to notify FAA, FCC)
  17. G1B02 [97.203]
    With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?




    D. ....(same band same location, One Beacon Only)
  18. G1B03 [97.3 (9)]
    Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?




    C. ....(observation of propagation and reception)
  19. G1B04 [97.113]
    Which of the following transmissions is permitted?




    A. ....(occationaly, weather and propagation)
  20. G1B05 [97.111((5)]
    Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?




    C. ....(for learning Morse)
  21. G1B06 [97.15, PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)]
    Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radio antenna structures?




    A. ....(must accommodate reasonably)
  22. G1B07 [97.113 (4)]
    What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?




    D. ....(no obscure)
  23. G1B08 [97.101 ]
    When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?




    B.
  24. G1B09 [97.203]
    On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?




    D.
  25. G1B10 [97.203]
    What is the power limit for beacon stations?




    D.
  26. G1B11 [97.101 ]
    Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice," as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?




    B. .
  27. G1B12 [97.111 (1)]
    When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?




    D.
  28. G1C01 [97.313(1)]
    What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?




    A.
  29. G1C02 [97.313]
    What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?




    A.
  30. G1C03 [97.303(h)(1)]
    What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?




    A. .
  31. G1C04 [97.313 ]
    Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?




    A. .
  32. G1C05 [97.313]
    What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?




    A.
  33. G1C06 [97.313]
    What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?




    D.
  34. G1C07 [97.305, 97.307(f)(3)]
    What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?




    B.
  35. G1C08 [97.307(f)(3)]
    What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?




    B.
  36. G1C09 [97.305 and 97.307(f)(5)]
    What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?




    B. .
  37. G1C10 [97.305 and 97.307(f)(4)]
    What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?




    C.
  38. G1C11 [97.305 and 97.307(f)(5)]
    What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?




    C.
  39. G1C12 [97.303(i)]
    Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?




    A. .
  40. G1C13 [97.309 (4)]
    What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?




    C.
  41. G1C14 [97.313(i)]
    What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?




    C.
  42. G1C15 [97.313]
    What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power output?




    A.
  43. G1D01 [97.501, 97.505 ]
    Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired Amateur Radio license?




    B. .
  44. G1D02 [97.509(3)(i)]
    What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operator license?




    D.
  45. G1D03 [97.9]
    On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?




    D.
  46. G1D04 [97.509(3)(i)]
    Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician class license examination?




    D. .
  47. G1D05 [97.509(3)(i)]
    Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician class license examination?




    A.
  48. G1D06 [97.119(f)(2)]
    When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician class licensee and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website?




    A. .
  49. G1D07 [97.509(1)]
    Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?




    B.
  50. G1D08 [97.509(3)]
    Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?




    B.
  51. G1D09 [97.9]
    How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?




    B.
  52. G1D10 [97.509(2)]
    What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?




    D.
  53. G1D11 [97.505]
    What is required to obtain a new General Class license after a previously-held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?




    A.
  54. G1E01 [97.115(2)]
    Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?




    B. .
  55. G1E02 [97.205]
    When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?




    C.
  56. G1E03 [97.221]
    What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?




    C. .
  57. G1E04 [97.13, 97.303, 97.311]
    Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?




    A.
  58. G1E05 [97.115 (2),97.117]
    What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?




    B.
  59. G1E06 [97.301, ITU Radio Regulations]
    The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?




    B.
  60. G1E07 [97.111]
    In what part of the 13-centimeter band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?




    A.
  61. G1E08
    (B) [97.313(j)]
    What is the maximum PEP output allowed for
    spread spectrum transmissions?



    A.
  62. G1E09 [97.115]
    Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?




    D. .
  63. G1E10 [97.101]
    Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24. 930 and 28.200 MHz?




    C. .
  64. G1E11
    (D) [97.221, 97.305]
    On what bands may automatically controlled
    stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?




    A.
  65. G2A01
    Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?




    A. .
  66. G2A02
    Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?




    D.
  67. G2A03
    Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?




    A. .
  68. G2A04
    Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?




    B. .
  69. G2A05
    Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?




    D.
  70. G2A06
    Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?




    D.
  71. G2A07
    Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?




    B.
  72. G2A08
    What is the recommended way to break in to a phone contact?




    D.
  73. G2A09
    Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?




    B.
  74. G2A10
    Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?




    B.
  75. G2A11
    Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states who calls "CQ DX"?




    D.
  76. G2A12
    What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?




    A.
  77. G2B01 (C) [97.101(b), (c)]
    Which of the following is true concerning
    access to frequencies?





    use of frequencies
    A.
  78. G2B02
    What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?




    A.
  79. G2B03
    What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact and you notice interference from other stations on the frequency?




    C.
  80. G2B04
    When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?




    C.
  81. G2B05
    When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?




    C.
  82. G2B06
    What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?




    B. .
  83. G2B07
    Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?




    D.
  84. G2B08
    What is the voluntary band plan restriction for U.S. stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 to 50.125 MHz band segment?




    D. .
  85. G2B09 [97.407 ]
    Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?




    D. .
  86. G2B10 [97.405]
    When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?




    D.
  87. G2B11 [97.405]
    What frequency should be used to send a distress call?




    A. .
  88. G2C01
    Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?




    C.
  89. G2C02
    What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS?"




    B. .
  90. G2C03
    What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?




    D.
  91. G2C04
    What does the Q signal "QRL?"mean?




    A.
  92. G2C05
    What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?




    C.
  93. G2C06
    What does the term "Zero beat" mean in CW operation?




    B.
  94. G2C07
    When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?




    D. .
  95. G2C08
    What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?




    C.
  96. G2C09
    What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?




    D.
  97. G2C10
    What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?




    A.
  98. G2C11
    What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?




    B.
  99. G2D01
    What is the Volunteer Monitoring Program?




    C. .
  100. G2D02
    Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?




    A.
  101. G2D03
    What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?




    C.
  102. G2D04
    Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?




    B.
  103. G2D05
    Which of the following is a good way to indicate on a clear frequency in the HF phone bands that you are looking for a contact with any station?




    D.
  104. G2D06
    How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "Long-path" contact with another station?




    A.
  105. G2D07
    Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?




    C.
  106. G2D08
    What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?




    C.
  107. G2D09
    Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?




    D.
  108. G2D10
    What is QRP operation?




    B.
  109. G2D11
    Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?




    D.
  110. G2E01
    Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?




    B.
  111. G2E02
    How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?




    A.
  112. G2E03
    What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?




    B.
  113. G2E04
    What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions (avoiding the DX propagation beacons)?




    A.
  114. G2E05
    What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?




    A.
  115. G2E06
    What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?




    C.
  116. G2E07
    What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?




    B. .
  117. G2E08
    In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?




    C.
  118. G2E09
    How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?




    B.
  119. G2E10
    Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?




    C.
  120. G2E11
    Which of the following is characteristic of the FT8 mode of the WSJT-X family?




    C.
  121. G2E12
    Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?




    C.
  122. G2E13
    Which communication system sometimes uses the internet to transfer messages?




    D. .
  123. G2E14
    What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?




    B.
  124. G2E15
    Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?




    C.
  125. G3A01
    What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?




    B. .
  126. G3A02
    What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?




    D.
  127. G3A03
    Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?




    D.
  128. G3A04
    Which of the following are least reliable for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?




    B.
  129. G3A05
    What is the solar flux index?




    D.
  130. G3A06
    What is a geomagnetic storm?




    D.
  131. G3A07
    At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?




    B.
  132. G3A08
    Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?




    C.
  133. G3A09
    What benefit can high geomagnetic activity have on radio communications?




    A. .
  134. G3A10
    What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a roughly 28-day cycle?




    B.
  135. G3A11
    How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on Earth?




    B.
  136. G3A12
    What does the K-index indicate?




    A.
  137. G3A13
    What does the A-index indicate?




    D.
  138. G3A14
    How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?




    A.
  139. G3B01
    What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?




    A.
  140. G3B02
    What factors affect the MUF?




    D.
  141. G3B03
    Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?




    A. .
  142. G3B04
    What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?




    B. .
  143. G3B05
    What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?




    D. .
  144. G3B06
    What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?




    D.
  145. G3B07
    What does LUF stand for?




    D. .
  146. G3B08
    What does MUF stand for?




    A.
  147. G3B09
    What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?




    C.
  148. G3B10
    What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?




    A.
  149. G3B11
    What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?




    B. .
  150. G3C01
    Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of Earth?




    D. .
  151. G3C02
    Where on Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?




    A. .
  152. G3C03
    Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?




    A.
  153. G3C04
    What does the term "critical angle" mean, as used in radio wave propagation?




    C.
  154. G3C05
    Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?




    A.
  155. G3C06
    What is a characteristic of HF scatter?




    C.
  156. G3C07
    What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?




    B.
  157. G3C08
    Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?




    B. .
  158. G3C09
    What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?




    A.
  159. G3C10
    What is Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) propagation?




    D.
  160. G3C11
    Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?




    A.
  161. G4A01
    What is the purpose of the "Notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?




    B.
  162. G4A02
    What is one advantage of selecting the opposite, or "Reverse," sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?




    B.
  163. G4A03
    What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "Split" mode?




    B.
  164. G4A04
    What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?




    D.
  165. G4A05
    What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?




    B.
  166. G4A06
    What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?




    A.
  167. G4A07
    What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?




    C.
  168. G4A08
    What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?




    D.
  169. G4A09
    Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?




    D.
  170. G4A10
    What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?




    D.
  171. G4A11
    Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?




    B. .
  172. G4A12
    Which of the following is a common use for the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?




    A.
  173. G4A13
    What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?




    B. .
  174. G4A14
    What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?




    A.
  175. G4A15
    Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?




    A.
  176. G4A16
    How does a noise blanker work?




    C.
  177. G4A17
    What happens as the noise reduction control level in a receiver is increased?




    D. .
  178. G4B01
    What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?




    B.
  179. G4B02
    Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?




    B.
  180. G4B03
    Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?




    B. .
  181. G4B04
    What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?




    D.
  182. G4B05
    Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?




    A.
  183. G4B06
    What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?




    B.
  184. G4B07
    What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?




    B.
  185. G4B08
    Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?




    C. .
  186. G4B09
    Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?




    C.
  187. G4B10
    Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?




    A. .
  188. G4B11
    Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?




    D.
  189. G4B12
    What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?




    A.
  190. G4B13
    What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?




    D.
  191. G4B14
    What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with digital readout?




    B.
  192. G4B15
    What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?




    B. .
  193. G4C01
    Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?




    B.
  194. G4C02
    Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?




    C.
  195. G4C03
    What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?




    A.
  196. G4C04
    What is the effect on an audio device when there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?




    D. .
  197. G4C05
    What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?




    C.
  198. G4C06
    What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?




    A.
  199. G4C07
    Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?




    D.
  200. G4C08
    Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?




    C. .
  201. G4C09
    How can a ground loop be avoided?




    C.
  202. G4C10
    What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?




    A. .
  203. G4C11
    What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?




    D.
  204. G4C12
    Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?




    B. .
  205. G4C13
    Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?




    C.
  206. G4D01
    What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?




    C. .
  207. G4D02
    Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?




    A.
  208. G4D03
    Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?




    C.
  209. G4D04
    What does an S meter measure?




    D.
  210. G4D05
    How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?




    D.
  211. G4D06
    Where is an S meter found?




    D. .
  212. G4D07
    How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?




    A.
  213. G4D08
    What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?




    C.
  214. G4D09
    What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?




    A.
  215. G4D10
    How close to the lower edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?




    A. .
  216. G4D11
    How close to the upper edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?




    B.
  217. G4E01
    What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?




    C.
  218. G4E02
    What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?




    B.
  219. G4E03
    Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?




    B. .
  220. G4E04
    Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?




    A.
  221. G4E05
    Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?




    B.
  222. G4E06
    What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?




    C.
  223. G4E07
    Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio installed in a vehicle?




    B.
  224. G4E08
    What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?




    B. .
  225. G4E09
    What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?




    A.
  226. G4E10
    What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?




    B.
  227. G4E11
    Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?




    D.
  228. G5A01
    What is impedance?




    B.
  229. G5A02
    What is reactance?




    D.
  230. G5A03
    Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?




    A.
  231. G5A04
    Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?




    C.
  232. G5A05
    How does an inductor react to AC?




    C.
  233. G5A06
    How does a capacitor react to AC?




    A. .
  234. G5A07
    What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?




    D.
  235. G5A08
    What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?




    B.
  236. G5A09
    What unit is used to measure reactance?




    C.
  237. G5A10
    Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?




    C.
  238. G5A11
    Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?




    D. .
  239. G5B01
    What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?




    D.
  240. G5B02
    How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?




    B.
  241. G5B03
    How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?




    D.
  242. G5B04
    How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?




    C. .
  243. G5B05
    How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?




    C. .
  244. G5B06
    What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?




    C.
  245. G5B07
    What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?




    B.
  246. G5B08
    What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120.0 volts?




    C.
  247. G5B09
    What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?




    A.
  248. G5B10
    What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?




    D.
  249. G5B11
    What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?




    C.
  250. G5B12
    What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?




    B.
  251. G5B13
    What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?




    B.
  252. G5B14
    What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?




    A.
  253. G5C01
    What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?




    C.
  254. G5C02
    What happens if a signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?




    C. .
  255. G5C03
    Which of the following components increases the total resistance of a resistor?




    B.
  256. G5C04
    What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?




    C.
  257. G5C05
    If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?




    A.
  258. G5C06
    What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?




    A.
  259. G5C07
    What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?




    D. .
  260. G5C08
    What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?




    B.
  261. G5C09
    What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?




    A.
  262. G5C10
    What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?




    D.
  263. G5C11
    What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?




    B.
  264. G5C12
    What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?




    A.
  265. G5C13
    Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?




    B.
  266. G5C14
    Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?




    A.
  267. G5C15
    What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?




    C. .
  268. G5C16
    Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step-up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?




    C.
  269. G5C17
    What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?




    D.
  270. G5C18
    What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?




    D.
  271. G6A01
    What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead-acid battery?



    C.
  272. G6A01
    What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead-acid battery?



    A.
  273. G6A02
    What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?



    D.
  274. G6A03
    What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?



    C.
  275. G6A04
    Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?



    B.
  276. G6A05
    What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?



    B.
  277. G6A06
    Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?



    C.
  278. G6A07
    What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?



    A.
  279. G6A08
    What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?



    D.
  280. G6A09
    Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?



    C.
  281. G6A10
    Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?



    B.
  282. G6A11
    What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?



    C.
  283. G6A12
    What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?



    A.
  284. G6A13
    Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?



    A.
  285. G6A14
    Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?



    C.
  286. G6B01
    What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?



    D.
  287. G6B02
    What is meant by the term MMIC?



    D.
  288. G6B03
    Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?



    B.
  289. G6B04
    What is meant by the term ROM?



    D.
  290. G6B05
    What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?



    C.
  291. G6B06
    What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?



    B.
  292. G6B07
    Which of the following describes a type N connector?



    D.
  293. G6B08
    How is an LED biased when emitting light?



    A.
  294. G6B09
    Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?



    B.
  295. G6B10
    How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?



    B.
  296. G6B11
    What is a type SMA connector?



    B.
  297. G6B12
    Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?



    B.
  298. G6B13
    Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?



    D.
  299. G7A01
    What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?



    A.
  300. G7A02
    Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?



    C.
  301. G7A03
    Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?



    A.
  302. G7A04
    What is an advantage of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?



    A.
  303. G7A05
    What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?



    C.
  304. G7A06
    What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?



    C.
  305. G7A07
    What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?



    A.
  306. G7A08
    Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?



    B.
  307. G7A09
    Image Upload 1
    Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?



    A.
  308. G7A10
    Image Upload 2
    Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?



    A.
  309. G7A11
    Image Upload 3
    Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?



    B.
  310. G7A12
    Image Upload 4
    Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?



    D.
  311. G7A13
    Image Upload 5
    Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?



    B.
  312. G7B01
    What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?



    D.
  313. G7B02
    Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?



    A.
  314. G7B03
    Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?



    C.
  315. G7B04
    Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?



    D.
  316. G7B05
    How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?



    A.
  317. G7B06
    What is a shift register?



    D.
  318. G7B07
    Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?



    A.
  319. G7B08
    How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?



    D.
  320. G7B09
    What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?



    B.
  321. G7B10
    Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?



    C.
  322. G7B11
    For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?



    C.
  323. G7C01
    Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?



    A.
  324. G7C02
    Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?



    B.
  325. G7C03
    What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?



    C.
  326. G7C04
    What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?



    C.
  327. G7C05
    Which of the following is an advantage of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?



    C.
  328. G7C06
    What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?



    B.
  329. G7C07
    What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?



    D.
  330. G7C08
    What circuit is used in analog FM receivers to convert IF output signals to audio?



    C.
  331. G7C09
    What is the phase difference between the I and Q signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?



    B.
  332. G7C10
    What is an advantage of using I and Q signals in software-defined radios (SDRs)?



    C.
  333. G7C11
    What is meant by the term software-defined radio?(SDR)?
    A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
    B. A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
    C. A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
    D. A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
  334. G7C12 
    What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter抯 output power is less than half the input power?



    D.
  335. G7C13
    What term specifies a filter's maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?



    D.
  336. G7C14
    The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?



    B.
  337. G7C15
    What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?



    B.
  338. G7C16
    Which of the following is a typical application for a Direct Digital Synthesizer?



    D.
  339. G8A01
    How is an FSK signal generated?



    B.
  340. G8A02
    What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?



    A.
  341. G8A03
    What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?



    D.
  342. G8A04
    What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?



    C.
  343. G8A05
    What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?



    D.
  344. G8A06 (D)
    Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?



    D.
  345. G8A07
    Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?



    C.
  346. G8A08
    Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?



    B.
  347. G8A09
    What type of modulation is used by the FT8 digital mode?



    C.
  348. G8A10
    What is meant by the term "flat-topping," when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?



    B.
  349. G8A11
    What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?



    D.
  350. G8A12
    Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?



    D.
  351. G8B01
    Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?



    A.
  352. G8B02
    If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?



    B.
  353. G8B03
    What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?



    C.
  354. G8B04
    What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?



    A.
  355. G8B05
    What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR-III signal at maximum data rate?



    D.
  356. G8B06
    What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?



    B.
  357. G8B07
    What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?



    A.
  358. G8B08
    Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?



    C.
  359. G8B09
    Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?



    C.
  360. G8B10
    What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?



    B.
  361. G8B11
    What combination of a mixer抯 Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?



    B.
  362. G8B12
    What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit or connection to produce unwanted spurious outputs?



    D.
  363. G8C01
    On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?



    C.
  364. G8C02
    Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?



    C.
  365. G8C03
    What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?



    A.
  366. G8C04
    Which of the following describes Baudot code?



    A.
  367. G8C05
    In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?



    B.
  368. G8C06
    What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?



    A.
  369. G8C07
    How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?



    C.
  370. G8C08
    Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?



    C.
  371. G8C09
    What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?



    D.
  372. G8C10
    How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?



    D.
  373. G8C11
    How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?



    D.
  374. G8C12
    Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?



    A.
  375. G8C13
    What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital signal?



    C.
  376. G8C14
    Which of the following describes a waterfall display?



    C.
  377. G9A01
    Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?



    D.
  378. G9A02
    What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?



    D.
  379. G9A03
    What is the typical characteristic impedance of "window line" parallel transmission line?



    A.
  380. G9A04
    What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?



    B.
  381. G9A05
    How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?



    C.
  382. G9A06
    In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?



    D.
  383. G9A07
    What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?



    C.
  384. G9A08
    If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?



    D.
  385. G9A09
    What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?



    B.
  386. G9A10
    What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?



    A.
  387. G9A11
    What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?



    C.
  388. G9A12
    What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?



    C.
  389. G9A13
    What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?



    B.
  390. G9B01
    What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?



    A.
  391. G9B02
    Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed-point impedance of a quarter wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?



    D.
  392. G9B03
    Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave, ground-plane vertical antenna?



    B.
  393. G9B04
    What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?



    C.
  394. G9B05
    How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?



    B.
  395. G9B06
    Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?



    C.
  396. G9B07
    How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?



    B.
  397. G9B08
    How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?



    A.
  398. G9B09
    Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?



    B.
  399. G9B10
    What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?



    A.
  400. G9B11
    What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?



    A.
  401. G9B12
    What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?



    D.
  402. G9C01
    Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?



    C.
  403. G9C02
    What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?



    C.
  404. G9C03
    How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?



    C.
  405. G9C04
    How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?



    B.
  406. G9C05
    How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?



    C.
  407. G9C06
    What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?



    D.
  408. G9C07
    What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?



    D.
  409. G9C08
    What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?



    D.
  410. G9C09
    How does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?



    A.
  411. G9C10
    Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?



    D.
  412. G9C11
    Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?



    B.
  413. G9C12
    Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?



    B.
  414. G9C13
    Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?



    D.
  415. G9C14
    How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?



    D.
  416. G9C15
    What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?



    D.
  417. G9C16
    What is a beta or hairpin match?



    B.
  418. G9D01
    Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?



    A.
  419. G9D02
    What is the feed-point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?



    D.
  420. G9D03
    In which direction is the maximum radiation from a portable VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?



    D.
  421. G9D04
    What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?



    A.
  422. G9D05
    What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?



    D.
  423. G9D06
    Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?



    D.
  424. G9D07
    Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?



    D.
  425. G9D08
    How does a "screwdriver" mobile antenna adjust its feed-point impedance?



    A.
  426. G9D09
    What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?



    B.
  427. G9D10
    In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/3 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?



    C.
  428. G9D11
    Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?



    D.
  429. G9D12
    What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?



    A.
  430. G9D13
    What is the combined vertical and horizontal polarization pattern of a multi-wavelength, horizontal loop antenna?



    B.
  431. G0A01
    What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?



    A.
  432. G0A02
    Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?



    D.
  433. G0A03 [97.13(1)]
    How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?



    C.
  434. G0A04
    What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?



    D.
  435. G0A05
    What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?



    A.
  436. G0A06
    What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?



    C.
  437. G0A07
    What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?



    D.
  438. G0A08
    Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?



    D.
  439. G0A09
    What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?



    B.
  440. G0A10
    What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?



    C.
  441. G0A11
    What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?



    B.
  442. G0B01
    Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?



    C.
  443. G0B02
    According the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20 ampere circuit breaker?



    B.
  444. G0B03
    Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?



    A.
  445. G0B04
    Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?



    C.
  446. G0B05
    Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?



    A.
  447. G0B06
    Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?



    C.
  448. G0B07
    Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?



    D.
  449. G0B08
    What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?



    B.
  450. G0B09
    Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?



    C.
  451. G0B10
    Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?



    A.
  452. G0B11
    Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?



    D.
  453. G0B12 What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?



    D.
  454. G0B13
    What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?



    D.
  455. G0B14
    What precaution should you take whenever you adjust or repair an antenna?



    D.
Author
Colinsoon
ID
353994
Card Set
2019-2023 General-Ham License Exam
Description
2019-2023 General-Ham License Exam
Updated