Egans

  1. Which of the following are considered therapeutic gases?

    Oxygen (O2)
    O2-NO mixture
    O2-He mixture
    N2O


    a.1 and 2 only

    b.2 and 4 only

    c.3 and 4 only

    d.1, 2, and 3 only
    D
  2. What is the fire-risk classification of both N and CO2?

    a.Flammable

    b.Supports combustion

    c.Inflammable

    d.Nonflammable
    D
  3. Which of the following medical gases support combustion?
    O2
    N2O
    Compressed air
    CO2


    a.

    1 and 4 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    d.

    1, 3, and 4 only
    c.

    1, 2, and 3 only
  4. Which of the following statements regarding O2 are true?
    1.It is only slightly soluble in water.
    2. It is odorless and transparent.

    It is flammable.
    It is heavier than air.

    a.1 and 3 only

    b.1, 2, and 4 only

    c.3 and 4 only

    d.1, 2, 3 only
    b.1, 2, and 4 only
  5. What factors affect the combustion-supporting properties of O2?
    Concentration
    Partial pressure
    Humidity

    a.1 only

    b.2 only

    c.1 and 2 only

    d.1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 2 only
  6. What is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) purity standard for O2?

    a.21%

    b.90%

    c.95%

    d.99%
    D. 99%
  7. Which of the following methods of producing O2 is commonly used in the home care setting?

    a.Chemical decomposition

    b.Electrolysis

    c.Fractional distillation

    d.Physical separation
    D. physical seperation
  8. What is the key difference between small compressed gas cylinders (sizes AA to E) and their larger counterparts (sizes F to K)?

    a. Small gas cylinders do not undergo regular DOT testing.

    b. Small gas cylinders are always filled to lower pressures.

    c.Small gas cylinders cannot be used for anesthetic gases.

    d.Small gas cylinders use a yoke (not threaded) connector.
    d.

    Small gas cylinders use a yoke (not threaded) connector.
  9. A cylinder of N2O has a gauge pressure of 750 psig when full. What will be the pressure in this cylinder when it is half full?

    a.

    375 psig

    b.

    750 psig

    c.

    1500 psig

    d.

    2200 psig
    B. 750
  10. The gauge on an E cylinder of O2 reads 800 psig. Approximately how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 3 L/min?

    a.

    1 hr 15 min

    b.

    1 hr 45 min

    c.

    2 hr 10 min

    d.

    2 hr 40 min
    a. 1 hour and 15 minutes
  11. You are planning a patient transport that will take approximately 1 hr. The patient requires manual ventilation with 10 L/min of O2. What is the minimum number of full E cylinders you would take with you?
    2
  12. During inspection of the shoulder of a compressed gas cylinder, you note a plus sign (+) next to the test date. This indicates what about the cylinder?

    a.

    It is made of spun aluminum, not steel.

    b.

    It only requires a 10-year DOT inspection.

    c.

    It can be filled to 10% above its service pressure.

    d.

    It has a high coefficient of elastic expansion.
    C. it can be filled to 10 above its service pressure
  13. According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color coded blue should contain which of the following?

    a.

    Air

    b.

    He

    c.

    N2O

    d.

    O2
    C n2o
  14. According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology of the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color-coded brown and green should contain which of the following?

    a.

    O2-N2 mixture

    b.

    O2-CO2 mixture

    c.

    CO2

    d.

    O2-He mixture
    O2-He mixture
  15. When full, a gas cylinder registers a pressure of 2200 psig. After a few hours of use, the pressure gauge reads 550 psig. The cylinder is now how full?
    c. one fourth
  16. When using a Bourdon gauge against high outflow resistance, what will the flowmeter reading show?

    a.

    Exceed actual flow

    b.

    Be less than actual flow

    c.

    Equal actual flow

    d.

    Equal 50 psig
    a. exceed actual flow
  17. What cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 244 cu/ft (H/K) O2 or air cylinder?

    a.

    0.16

    b.

    0.28

    c.

    3.14

    d.

    2.41
    3.14
  18. What cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 22 cu/ft O2 or air E cylinder?

    a.

    0.28

    b.

    1.34

    c.

    2.41

    d.

    3.14
    A .28
  19. The gauge on an H cylinder of O2 reads 2000 psig. Approximately how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 6 L/min?

    a.

    1 hr 30 min

    b.

    17 hr 30 min

    c.

    18 hr 10 min

    d.

    21 hr 50 min
    B. 17 hr 30 min
  20. What is the indexed safety system for threaded high-pressure connections between large compressed gas cylinders and their attachments?

    a.

    Pin-Indexed Safety System (PISS)

    b.

    Diameter-Index Safety System (DISS)

    c.

    American Standard Safety System (ASSS)

    d.

    CGA System
    ASSS
  21. Where do respiratory therapists typically find DISS connections?
    At the outlets of pressure-reducing valves attached to cylinders
    At the nurse station
    At the station outlets of central piping systems
    At the inlets of blenders, flowmeters, ventilators, and other pneumatic equipments

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    1, 3, and 4 only

    d.

    3 and 4 only
    1, 3 and 4 only
  22. A very common application of the adjustable pressure-reducing valve is in combination with which of the following?

    a.

    Flow restrictor

    b.

    Thorpe tube flowmeter

    c.

    Bourdon gauge

    d.

    Uncompensated flowmeter
    Bourdon gauge
  23. When used to control the flow of medical gases to a patient, how is a Bourdon gauge classified?

    a.

    Fixed-orifice, variable-pressure flowmeter device

    b.

    Fixed-orifice, constant-pressure flowmeter device

    c.

    Variable-orifice, variable-pressure flowmeter device

    d.

    Variable-orifice, constant-pressure flowmeter device
    A. fixed orifice, variable pressure flowmeter device
  24. You are called by a nursing home to help set up O2 for a patient, delivered through a jet nebulizer. Unfortunately, all that is available is an old uncompensated Thorpe tube flowmeter. When set to 8 L/min, the nebulizer creates an additional 30 psig of downstream pressure. Approximately what flow of O2 will the patient now receive?

    a.

    4 L/min

    b.

    6 L/min

    c.

    8 L/min

    d.

    12 L/min
    D. 12 L/min
  25. What is the only major factor limiting the use of pressure-compensated Thorpe tube flowmeters?

    a.

    Downstream resistance

    b.

    Effect of position (gravity)

    c.

    DISS connector availability

    d.

    Use with gases other than O2
    Gravity
  26. Specific clinical objectives of oxygen (O2) therapy include which of the following?
    1 Decrease the symptoms caused by chronic hypoxemia.
    2 Decrease the workload hypoxemia imposes on the heart and lungs.
    3 Correct documented arterial hypoxemia.
    4 Correct documented respiratory acidosis.

    a.

    2 and 4 only

    b.

    3 and 4 only

    c.

    1 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3 only
    1 2 and 3 only
  27. Which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or a child?
    1 SaO2 less than 90%
    2 PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg
    3 PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg

    a.

    2 and 3 only

    b.

    1 and 2 only

    c.

    1, 2, and 3

    d.

    1 and 3 only
    1 and 3 only
  28. You start a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patient on a nasal O2 cannula at 2 L/min. What is the maximum time that should pass before assessing this patient’s PaO2 or SaO2?

    a.

    2 hr

    b.

    8 hr

    c.

    12 hr

    d.

    72 hr
    2 hours
  29. According to AARC clinical practice guidelines, what is the minimum frequency for checking the functioning of an O2 delivery system?

    a.

    Every 4 hr

    b.

    Every 8 hr

    c.

    Every 24 hr

    d.

    Every 48 hr
    every 24 hours
  30. You set up an Oxy-Hood with an FiO2 of 0.5 for a newborn infant. What is the maximum time that should pass before assessing this patient’s PaO2 or SaO2?

    a.

    1 hr

    b.

    2 hr

    c.

    8 hr

    d.

    12 hr
    1 hour
  31. When determining a need for O2 therapy, the respiratory therapist should assess which of the following?
    1. Neurologic status
    2. Pulmonary status
    3. Cardiac status

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3
    1 2 3
  32. Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia?
    1. Tachypnea
    2. Tachycardia
    3. Cyanosis
    4. Bradycardia

    a.

    2 and 3 only

    b.

    1 and 2 only

    c.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    d.

    1 and 4 only
    1 2 and 3
  33. Which of the following factors should be used in properly selecting an O2 delivery device?
    1. Knowledge of general performance of the device
    2. Physician’s preference
    3. Individual capabilities of the equipment

    a.

    2 and 3 only

    b.

    1 and 2 only

    c.

    1, 2, and 3

    d.

    1 and 3 only
    1 and 3
  34. Which of the following statements are true about low-flow O2 delivery systems?
    The greater the patient’s inspiratory flow, the greater is the FiO2.
    All low-flow devices provide variable O2 concentrations.
    The O2 provided by a low-flow device is diluted with air.
    The patient’s flow usually exceeds that from a low-flow device.

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    2 3 and 4
  35. Low-flow O2 delivery systems used in respiratory care include which of the following?
    1 Nasal O2 cannula
    2 Nasal O2 catheter
    3 Air-entrainment mask
    4 Transtracheal catheter

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 4 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    1 2 and 4
  36. Some of the major disadvantages of the transtracheal catheter are which of the following?
    1 Infection
    2 Mucus plugging
    3 Excessive oxygen use
    4 Lost tract or insertion opening

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 4 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    1 2 and 4
  37. A 27-year-old woman received from the emergency department is on a nasal cannula at 5 L/min. Approximately what FiO2 is this patient receiving?

    a.

    28%

    b.

    32%

    c.

    35%

    d.

    40%
    40%
  38. You enter the room of a patient who is receiving nasal O2 through a bubble humidifier at 5 L/min. You immediately notice that the humidifier pressure relief is popping off. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?


    a.

    Check and tighten all connections.

    b.

    Replace the humidifier with a new one.

    c.

    Look for crimped or twisted delivery tubing.

    d.

    Decrease the flow rate to 2 L/min.
    c. look for crimped or twisted delivery tubing
  39. A physician orders 2 L/min O2 through a simple mask to a 33-year-old postoperative woman with moderate hypoxemia breathing room air (PaO2 = 52 mm Hg). What would be the correct action at this time?


    a.

    Carry out the physician’s prescription exactly as written.

    b.

    Recommend that the mask be changed to a cannula at 2 L/min.

    c.

    Recommend a flow of at least 5 L/min to washout carbon dioxide (CO2).

    d.

    Do not apply the O2 until the medical director has been contacted.
    C. recommend a min of 5 L/min to washout carbon dioxide
  40. What is the minimum flow setting for a simple mask applied to an adult?


    a.

    3 L/min


    b.

    5 L/min

    c.

    8 L/min

    d.

    10 L/min
    B. 5
  41. You must deliver the highest possible FiO2 to a 67-year-old man with pulmonary edema breathing at a rate of 35/min. Which of the following O2 delivery systems would be most appropriate?

    a.

    Nonrebreathing mask at 12 to 15 L/min

    b.

    Simple mask at 12 to 15 L/min

    c.

    Partial rebreathing mask at 12 to 15 L/min

    d.

    Aerosol mask with nebulizer set to 100%
    A. nonrebreathing mask at 12 to 15
  42. A patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 8 L/min. You notice that the mask’s reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiration. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?

    a.

    Change to a partial rebreather.

    b.

    Decrease the liter flow.

    c.

    Increase the liter flow.

    d.

    Change to a simple mask.
    C. increase the liter flow
  43. A true high-flow O2 delivery system should provide at least what flow?

    a.

    60 L/min

    b.

    50 L/min

    c.

    40 L/min

    d.

    30 L/min
    A. 60 L/min
  44. You design an air-entrainment system that mixes air with O2 at a fixed ratio of 1:7. Approximately what O2 concentration will this device provide?

    a.

    33%

    b.

    40%

    c.

    80%

    d.

    90%
    D. 90%
  45. What does 1 atmospheric pressure absolute (ATA) equal?
    101 kPa
    50 psi
    760 mm Hg

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3
    c.

    1 and 3 only
  46. Compared to air, the density of an 80% He and 20% O2 mixture is about which of the following?

    a.

    Two-thirds as much

    b.

    One-half as much

    c.

    One-third as much

    d.

    One-fifth as much
    C. one third as much
  47. Before administering a helium-O2 mixture to a patient with large airway obstruction, what should you do?

    a.

    Analyze the helium concentration of the mixture.

    b.

    Heat the cylinder to ensure complete mixing of contents.

    c.

    Analyze the O2 concentration of the mixture.

    d.

    Roll the cylinder to ensure complete mixing of contents.
    C. analyze the o2 concentration of the mixture
  48. What is the level of SpO2 typically associated with discontinuation of O2 therapy?

    a.

    88%

    b.

    90%

    c.

    92%

    d.

    94%
    C. 92%
  49. What are some key patient considerations in selecting O2 therapy equipment?
    Type of airway (natural or artificial)
    Severity and cause of the hypoxemia
    Age group (infant, child, adult)
    Stability of the minute ventilation

    a.

    2 and 4 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
    D - all the above
  50. A variant of a common low-flow, nasal O2 delivery device that is capable of providing both high humidity and a high FiO2 is known as which of the following?

    a.

    High-flow nasal cannula

    b.

    Transtracheal catheter

    c.

    Nasal catheter

    d.

    Demand-flow oxygen
    A. high flow nasal cannula
  51. To confirm proper operation of an O2 blending system, what should you do?
    Test low-pressure alarms and bypass systems.
    Analyze FiO2 at 0.21, 1.00, and prescribed level.
    Confirm air and O2 inlet pressures.

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3
    ALL THE ABOVE
  52. Which of the following best defines an aerosol?

    a.

    Suspension of liquid droplets in a gas

    b.

    Suspension of particulate matter in a gas

    c.

    Molecular water dispersed throughout a carrier gas

    d.

    Suspension of liquid or solid particles in a gas
    D. suspension of liquid or solid particles in a gas
  53. With which of the following devices are therapeutic aerosols generated?
    1. Atomizers
    2. Nebulizers
    3. Humidifiers
    4. Soft mist inhalers

    a.

    1, 2, and 4 only

    b.

    1 and 4 only

    c.

    2 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
    1 2 and 4 only
  54. The mass of aerosol particles produced by a nebulizer in a given unit time best describes which quality of the aerosol?

    a.

    Stability

    b.

    Density

    c.

    Output

    d.

    Deposition
    C. Output
  55. What measure is used to identify the particle diameter, which corresponds to the most typical settling behavior of an aerosol?

    a.

    Mean mass velocity coefficient (MMVC)

    b.

    Logarithmic standard diameter (LSD)

    c.

    Mean mass aerodynamic diameter (MMAD)

    d.

    Geometric standard deviation (GSD)
    C. Mean mass aerodynamic diameter (MMAD)
  56. What measure is used to describe the variability of particle diameters in an aerosol?

    a.

    MMVC

    b.

    LSD

    c.

    MMAD

    d.

    GSD
    D. GSD
  57. What is the primary mechanism for central airway deposition of particles in the 1- to 5-µm range?

    a.

    Impaction

    b.

    Sedimentation

    c.

    Diffusion

    d.

    Brownian motion
    B. sedimetation
  58. What is the primary hazard of aerosol drug therapy?

    a.

    Adverse drug reactions

    b.

    Pulmonary infection

    c.

    Airway reactivity

    d.

    Drug reconcentration
    A. adverse drug reactions
  59. To minimize the risk of infection associated with aerosol drug therapy, what should you do?
    1 Sterilize nebulizers between patients.
    2 Frequently replace in-use units.
    3 Rinse nebulizers with sterile water.

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    1 and 3 only

    c.

    2 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3
    1 2 and 3
  60. Which of the following is not considered a drug aerosol delivery system?

    a.

    Dry powder inhalers (DPIs)

    b.

    Small-volume jet nebulizers

    c.

    Metered dose inhalers (MDIs)

    d.

    Spinning disk nebulizers
    D. spinning disk nebulizer
  61. What is the preferred method for delivering bronchodilators to spontaneously breathing and intubated, ventilated patients?

    a.

    Dry powder inhaler

    b.

    Small-volume jet nebulizer

    c.

    Metered dose inhaler

    d.

    Hand-bulb atomizer
    C. metered dose inhaler
  62. Before inspiration and actuation of a metered dose inhaler, the patient should exhale to which of the following?

    a.

    Total lung capacity

    b.

    Residual volume

    c.

    Functional residual capacity

    d.

    Expiratory reserve volume
    C. functional residual capacity
  63. Which of the following groups of patients are most likely to have difficulty using a simple metered dose inhaler for aerosol drug therapy?
    Patients in acute distress
    Infants and young children
    Elderly persons

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    1 and 3 only


    c.

    2 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3
    D 1 2 and 3
  64. To decrease the likelihood of an opportunistic yeast or fungal infection associated with metered dose inhaler (MDI) steroids, what would you recommend that a patient does?
    Cut in half the number of puffs or treatments.
    Use a spacer or holding chamber.
    Rinse the mouth after each treatment.

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    1 and 3 only

    c.

    2 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3
    C. 2 and 3 only
  65. Which of the following devices would you select to deliver an aerosolized bronchodilator to a young child?

    a.

    Metered dose inhaler (MDI) and spacer

    b.

    MDI, holding chamber, and mask

    c.

    MDI and holding chamber

    d.

    Dry powder inhaler
    b. MDI holding chamber and mask
  66. Proper use of a dry powder inhaler (DPI) requires that the patient be able to do which of the following?

    a.

    Generate inspiratory flows of 60 L/min or higher.

    b.

    Exhale forcibly through the device before drug delivery.

    c.

    Inhale slowly (<0.5 L/sec) and perform a breath-hold.

    d.

    Coordinate firing of the DPI with inspiration.
    A. generate inspiratory flows of 60 l/min or higher
  67. Patients can control a flutter valve’s pressure by changing what?


    a.

    Their inspiratory flow

    b.

    The angle of the device

    c.

    Their expiratory flow

    d.

    The expired volume
    C. their expiratory flow
  68. Advantages of the flutter valve over other airway clearance methods include which of the following?
    1 Good patient acceptance
    2 Greater effectiveness
    3 Full portability
    4 Independent use

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    2 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 3, and 4 only
    1 3 and 4
  69. Which of the following are advantages of the Acapella over the flutter?
    1 It can customize frequency.
    2 It can be used in any posture.
    3 It is more portable.
    4 It can customize flow resistance.

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 4 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
  70. Which of the following are hazards of positive airway pressure therapies (EPAP, PEP, CPAP)?
    1 Decreased venous return
    2 Epistaxis
    3 Pulmonary barotrauma
    4 Increased intracranial pressure

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 3, and 4 only
    D. 1 3 and 4 only
  71. In assessing an adult outpatient for airway clearance therapy, you notice the following: (1) no history of cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis, (2) sputum production of 30 to 50 ml/day, (3) an effective cough, and (4) good hydration. Which of the following would you recommend?

    a.

    Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration

    b.

    Positive expiratory pressure therapy

    c.

    Mechanical insufflation-exsufflation

    d.

    Intrapulmonary percussive ventilation
    B. positive expiatory pressure therapy
  72. Lung expansion methods that increase the transpulmonary pressure gradients by increasing alveolar pressure include which of the following?
    1 Incentive spirometry (IS)
    2 Positive end-expiration pressure therapy
    3 Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB)
    4 Expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP)

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    2, 3, and 4 only

    c.

    1 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
  73. When checking a patient’s intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) circuit before use, you notice that the device will not cycle off, even when you occlude the mouthpiece. What would be the most appropriate action in this case?

    a.

    Secure a new IPPB ventilator.

    b.

    Check the circuit for leaks.

    c.

    Decrease the flow setting.

    d.

    Increase the pressure setting.
    B. check the circuit for leaks
  74. Prior to starting intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) on a new patient, what should the practitioner explain?
    1 Why the physician ordered the treatment.
    2 What the IPPB treatment will do.
    3 How the IPPB treatment will feel.
    4 What the expected results are.

    a.

    1, 2, 3, and 4

    b.

    2 and 4

    c.

    2, 3, and 4

    d.

    1, 3, and 4
    a. 1 2 3 and 4
  75. Which of the following are appropriate initial settings for intermittent positive-pressure breathing given to a new patient?

    a.

    Sensitivity -2 cm H2O; pressure 20 to 25 cm H2O; high flow

    b.

    Sensitivity -3 to -4 cm H2O; pressure 5 to 10 cm H2O; moderate flow

    c.

    Sensitivity -1 to -2 cm H2O; pressure 10 to 15 cm H2O; moderate flow

    d.

    Sensitivity -8 cm H2O; pressure 15 cm H2O; moderate flow
    C. sensitivity -1 to -2 cm h2o; pressure 10 to 15
  76. Which of the following parameters should be evaluated after intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy?
    Vital signs
    Sensorium
    Breath sounds
    Temperature

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    2 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
    b. 1 2 and 3
  77. Which of the following machine performance characteristics should be monitored during intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy?
    Flow setting
    Sensitivity
    Humidity output
    Peak pressure

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 4 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
    B. 1 2 and 4 only
  78. Which of the following are appropriate volume goals for intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) therapy?
    10 to 15 ml/kg ideal body weight
    At least 30% of the inspiratory capacity (IC)
    Pressure level as high as 30 to 35 cm H2O

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1 and 2 only

    c.

    2 and 3 only

    d.

    1 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
  79. A normal cough reflex includes which of the following phases?
    Irritation
    Inspiration
    Compression
    Expulsion

    a.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    b.

    1 and 4 only

    c.

    1, 2, 3, and 4

    d.

    2 and 3 only
    C. all of the above
  80. Which of the following are necessary for normal airway clearance?
    1 Patent airway
    2 Functional mucociliary escalator
    3 Effective cough
    4 Normal pulmonary compliance

    a.

    1 and 4 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    2 and 3 only

    d.

    2 and 4 only
    B. 1 2 and 3 only
  81. Postural drainage should be considered in which of the following situations?
    1 In patients with chronic obstructive lung disease
    2 In patients who expectorate more than 25 to 30 ml sputum per day
    3I n the presence of atelectasis caused by mucus plugging
    4 In patients with cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    D. 2 3 and 4
  82. Absolute contraindications for postural drainage include which of the following?
    1 Head and neck injury (until stabilized)
    2 Active hemorrhage with hemodynamic instability
    3 Uncontrolled airway at risk for aspiration

    a.

    1 and 2 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1 and 3 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 3
    A. 1 and 2 only
  83. Which of the following are hazards or complication of postural drainage therapy?
    1 Cardiac arrhythmias
    2 Increased intracranial pressure
    3 Acute hypotension
    4 Pulmonary barotraumas

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    B. 1 2 and 3
  84. Which of the following are true of postural drainage?
    1 It is most effective in disorders causing excessive sputum.
    2 It is most effective in head-down positions greater than 25 degrees.
    3 It requires adequate systemic hydration to be effective.
    4 It improves mucociliary clearance in normal subjects.

    a.

    2 and 4 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, and 4 only
    B. 1 2 and 3 only
  85. If a patient’s chest radiograph shows infiltrates in the posterior basal segments of the lower lobes, what postural drainage position would you recommend?

    a.

    Head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees

    b.

    Patient prone with a pillow under head, bed flat

    c.

    Patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat

    d.

    Head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen
    D. head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen
  86. A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with an abscess in the right middle lobe. Which of the following positions would you recommend for this patient?

    a.

    Head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen

    b.

    Head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees

    c.

    Patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat

    d.

    Head down, patient half-rotated to left, right lung up
    D. head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen
  87. A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with aspiration pneumonia in the superior segments of the left lower lobe. Which of the following positions would you recommend for this patient?

    a.

    Patient prone with a pillow under abdomen, bed flat

    b.

    Head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen

    c.

    Head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees

    d.

    Patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat
    A. Patient prone with pillow under abdomen bed flat
  88. A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with aspiration pneumonia in the anterior segments of the upper lobes. Which of the following positions would you recommend for this patient?

    a.

    Head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen

    b.

    Patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat

    c.

    Head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees

    d.

    Patient prone with a pillow under abdomen, bed flat
    B. patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat
  89. Soon after you initiate postural drainage in a Trendelenburg position, the patient develops a vigorous and productive cough. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?

    a.

    Maintain the drainage position while carefully watching the patient.

    b.

    Move the patient to the sitting position until the cough subsides.

    c.

    Stop the treatment at once and report the incident to the nurse.

    d.

    Drop the head of the bed farther and encourage more coughing.
    B. move the patient to sitting position until the cough subsides
  90. Which of the following are considered airway clearance therapies?
    1Postural drainage and percussion
    2 Incentive spirometry
    3Positive airway pressure
    4Percussion, vibration, and oscillation

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    2, 3, and 4 only

    d.

    2 and 4 only
    B.1 2 and 3
  91. Which of the following mechanisms probably contribute to the beneficial effects of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) in treating atelectasis?
    Recruitment of collapsed alveoli
    Decreased work of breathing
    Improved distribution of ventilation
    Increased efficiency of secretion removal

    a.

    1, 2, and 4 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
    d. 1 2 3 and 4
  92. Which of the following are contraindications for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy?
    Hemodynamic instability
    Hypoventilation
    Facial trauma
    Low intracranial pressures

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    c. 1 2 and 3 only
  93. Which of the following are potential complications of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy?
    1 Barotrauma
    2 Hyperventilation
    3 Gastric distention
    4 Hypercapnia

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    2 and 3 only

    c.

    1, 3, and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    A. 1 and 3 only
  94. A 59-year-old COPD patient comes to the hospital with upper abdominal surgery. The physician diagnoses the patient with pulmonary atelectasis. The patient has a vital capacity of 25 ml/kg. Which of the following lung expansion therapy will you recommend to assist this patient’s atelectasis?

    a.

    Incentive spirometry

    b.

    IPPB

    c.

    CPAP

    d.

    EPAP
    a. incentive spirometry
  95. Which of the following are essential components of a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) flow system?
    Blended source of pressurized gas
    Nonrebreathing circuit with reservoir bag
    Low-pressure or disconnect alarm
    Expiratory threshold resistor

    a.

    3 and 4 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 4 only

    c.

    1 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
    D. 1 2 3 and 4
  96. Helium must always be combined with at least how much O2?

    a.

    20%

    b.

    30%

    c.

    40%

    d.

    50%
    A. 20%
  97. One cu/ft of liquid O2 is the equivalent to approximately how many cu/ft of gaseous O2?

    a.

    28

    b.

    244

    c.

    360

    d.

    860
    D. 860
  98. What do the components of a liquid O2 bulk storage tank include?
    Inner and outer steel shells, separated by a vacuum
    Safety system that vents O2 if warming occurs
    Vaporizer system that converts liquid O2 to gas
    Pressure-reducing valves to lower pressure to 50 psig

    a.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    b.

    2 and 4 only

    c.

    1, 2, 3, and 4

    d.

    3 and 4 only
    C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
  99. The NFPA standard for bulk liquid O2 systems requires that the reserve supply be which of the following?

    a.

    Fixed cylinder bank of 75 H cylinders

    b.

    At least one large liquid O2 cylinder

    c.

    Equal to the average gas use of 1 day

    d.

    At least 3000 cu/ft of gaseous O2
    C. equal to the average gas use of 1 day
  100. Advantages of the dry powder inhaler (DPI) drug delivery systems include which of the following?
    Low relative cost
    No propellants required
    No hand-breath coordination necessary
    Unaffected by humidity

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    B. 1 2 and 3 only
  101. Which of the following devices depends on the patient’s inspiratory effort to dispense the dose?

    a.

    Small-volume jet nebulizers

    b.

    Metered dose inhaler

    c.

    Dry powder inhaler

    d.

    Soft mist inhaler
    C. DPI
  102. Which of the following are potential indications for positive airway pressure therapies?
    Reduce air trapping in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
    Help mobilize retained secretions.
    Prevent or reverse atelectasis.
    Optimize bronchodilator delivery.

    a.

    2 and 4 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    1, 2, 3, and 4
    D. 1 2 3 and 4
  103. Contraindications for positive airway pressure therapies include which of the following?
    Intracranial pressure exceeding 20 mm Hg
    Recent facial, oral, or skull surgery or trauma
    Preexisting pulmonary barotrauma (e.g., pneumothorax)
    Air trapping/pulmonary overdistention in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

    a.

    1 and 3 only

    b.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    c.

    3 and 4 only

    d.

    2, 3, and 4 only
    B. 1 2 and 3
Author
peepeepoopoo
ID
353911
Card Set
Egans
Description
review
Updated