Trouble

5. Do not refuel as a receiver above __________ feet.

A. 33,000
B. 31,000
C. 29,000
D. 25,000

18. During the RECEIVER PREPARATION FOR CONTACT checklist the transponder will normally be set to standby. If additional situational awareness of multitanker or multi-receiver formations is desired, the APX-119 transponder should be set to the following: __________.

A. Master Switch "TA"
B. ATC Mode "OF" (off)
C. BCST Mode "OF" (off)
D. all of the above

19. During a breakaway, the receiver pilot should use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overrunning does occur, under no conditions should a turn, either right or left, be made until ___________ has been attained.

A. a positive rate of climb
B. positive separation
C. a descent to the rendezvous altitude
D. an effective breakaway

22. Per ATP 3.3.4.2, tankers will establish the applicable contact air refueling airspeed before the receiver reaches _____ NM. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than ______ KIAS, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.

A. 1/2; 10
B. 1/2; 5
C. 1; 5
D. 3; 10

29. Except in an emergency, do not engage or disengage the autopilot while the receiver is ___________ as unscheduled attitude changes can occur.

A. in the contact position
B. inside the astern position
C. returning to astern
D. inside 1/2 NM

34. During C-130 refueling, do not raise or lower slats/flaps when the receiver is closer than __________ because of the resultant pitch change of the tanker.

A. the astern position
B. 1 NM
C. 1/2 NM
D. 3 NM

42. If a circuit breaker trips, a cooling period of __________ seconds should be allowed before resetting. A tripped circuit breaker should never be reset ___________.

A. 60; more than once
B. 60; unless an emergency condition exists
C. 90; more than once
D. 90; unless an emergency condition exists

43. If __________ trips, do not reset until maintenance personnel can ensure solenoid housing is intact and that the solenoid coil is not shorted to the solenoid case.

A. manifold scavenge pump circuit breaker
B. manifold scavenge pump pressure low light circuit breaker
C. manifold scavenge valve circuit breaker
D. manifold scavenge transfer pump circuit breaker

44. If numerous circuit breakers trip for one or more sub-systems, the circuit breakers should __________.

A. never be reset
B. not be reset unless an emergency condition exists, until maintenance actions are complete
C. not be reset more than once
D. not be reset before a 90 seconds cooling period

50. With __________ engaged, activation of the Hydraulic System 3 Shutoff Valve will cause __________.

A. Autopilot 1; Autopilot 1 pitch control to become inoperative
B. Autopilot 2; Autopilot 2 pitch control to become inoperative
C. Autothrottle 1; Autothrottle 1 control to become inoperative
D. Autothrottle 2; Autothrottle 2 control to become inoperative

57. In AUTO mode, cabin altitude remains at departure airfield elevation until aircraft is __________, at which time cabin altitude changes as indicated in the Automatic Pressurization Schedule.

A. 5000 feet MSL
B. 5000 feet above airfield
C. Pressure Height for Acceleration
D. just after rotation

62. If the [navigation database] effective date is __________, the database is out of date.

A. amber
B. red
C. white
D. dashes

64. When a GPS databased approach is contained in the active flight plan, a predictive RAIM check is performed _______.

A. upon entering the FMS TERMINAL mode (31 NM to destination airport)
B. upon crossing the Initial Approach Fix (IAF)
C. when transitioning to the FMS APPROACH mode (2 NM from the Final Approach Fix (FAF))
D. Both A and C

71. During a LOSS OF ALL ENGINES/GENERATORS, if engine 1 or 3 does not restart within approximately ________ , immediate consideration should be given to restarting engine 2. Do not operate _________.

A. 15 seconds; control surfaces
B. 30 seconds; flaps/slats
C. 45 seconds; flaps/slats
D. 3 minutes; rudders

75. A missed approach should not be attempted if __________ with DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 2 INOP.

A. upper rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
B. lower rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
C. both rudders are operative but thrust is asymmetric
D. both rudders are inoperative and thrust is asymmetric

76. After alternate landing gear extension do not exceed __________ KIAS.

A. 230
B. 260
C. 280
D. 300

77. For DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 3 INOP, if upper rudder is inop do not reduce speed to below __________ until landing is assured.

A. VMCA (127 KIAS)
B. VMCA (137 KIAS)
C. VMCA (147 KIAS)
D. VMCA (157 KIAS)

78. During the period that all ENG PNEU SUPPLY Sels are off, the aircraft will depressurize at approximately __________.

A. 500 FPM
B. 1000 FPM
C. 1500 FPM
D. 2000 FPM

86. In a ditching situation, cabin doors may not open for evacuation __________.

A. only if the cabin is pressurized above 9.1 psi
B. only if the cabin is pressurized above 8.6 psi
C. only is the cabin is pressurized above 3.0 psi
D. if cabin is pressurized

88. If volts and frequency indicate after a CSD disconnect button is pushed, __________.

A. shut down the engine immediately
B. continue engine operation with the generator on
C. continue engine operation with the generator off
D. reset the generator, then shut the engine down if volts and frequency still indicate

89. Failure of the L EMER DC BUS or the R EMER DC BUS will cause the failure of the associated CDU, BSIU, EHSI, EADI and civil GPS. Navigation guidance can be restored to the functioning side by:

A. Placing the EMER PWR SW to ON.
B. Splitting the 1553 bus.
C. selecting the respective autopilot or autopilot 2 if both autopilots were off when the system failed.
D. depowering the failed component.

91. During SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON, spoilers deploy automatically upon touchdown with 35° flap and upon __________ if less flaps are used.

A. on main wheel spinup
B. on nosewheel strut compression
C. selection of reverse thrust
D. the ARM function will not work with 22°/EXT

94. With the loss of all GPSs, the __________ navigation solutions provide more accurate navigation solutions than a INU ONLY navigation solution.

A. MIL 1 or MIL2
B. GPS 1 or GPS2
C. CIV1 or CIV2
D. INU1 or INU3

95. If GPS1 and GPS2 both fail, and subsequently one GPS is restored, the ___________will use the first GPS restored.

A. Pitot Static System
B. FMS
C. CDU
D. INU

96. During a NO FLAP/NO SLAT LANDING, with the alternate gear extension lever in the raised position, __________.

A. nose gear steering to the right is limited to 25°
B. nose gear steering to the left is limited to 25°
C. the outboard ailerons will be unlocked
D. Both A and C

98. During takeoff, if takeoff is continued with the SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON, __________.

A. delay flap retraction until reaching VSR
B. If aircraft behavior is abnormal (unusual deck angles, buffer, asymmetry, etc.) slats should be retracted at VSR
C. to prevent exceeding flap limit speeds, flaps may be retracted to 15 degrees prior to reaching approximately 220 kts
D. all of the above

101. During STALL WARNING OR AUTO SLAT MALFUNCTION with the SLAT RESET SW-LT AND SLAT DISAGREE LT ON, the_________ slats are extended. Do not exceed __________ or 0.75 Mach whichever is lower.

A. inboard; 250 KIAS
B. inboard; 270 KIAS
C. inboard; 271 KIAS
D. outboard; 270 KIAS

102. During cruise if the slat reset switch light and slat disagree light are still on (after STALL WARNING OR AUTO SLAT MALFUNCTION and the slat reset switch-light was pushed) the __________.

A. slats are retracted
B. slats are in the takeoff range
C. inboard slats are extended
D. outboard slats are extended

103. During FUEL DUMP, with AR PUMP OVRD selected, FWD TANK fuel will continue to dump __________ pounds.

A. until it reaches 15,000
B. below 15,000
C. until it reaches 11,500
D. until it reaches 5,000

104. FUEL DUMP in response to a takeoff emergency should not be initiated prior to __________.

A. slat retraction speed
B. reviewing the FUEL DUMP checklist procedures
C. reaching TWO ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT
D. reaching THREE ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT

105. If the ABNORMAL BRAKE checklist is initiated for a HIGH ENERGY STOP (any stop initiated in excess of ______ knots), make AFTO 781A entry.

A. 80
B. 100
C. 130
D. 150

107. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (DANGER ZONE), which of the following is NOT true?

A. Immediately move aircraft to clear active runway or ramp
B. Do not set parking brake
C. Fire is possible within 30 minutes
D. After 5 minutes, fog or foam may be used to reduce cooling time

109. In a GEAR UNSAFE LT(S) ON WITH GEAR HANDLE UP (CONFIRMED ON BOTH PANELS) situation, if gear does not appear normal (for example, if main gear retraction is blocked by gear door) or if condition of gear cannot be determined, __________.

A. do not attempt additional gear retraction
B. one attempt to retract the gear can be made
C. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 230 KIAS
D. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 185 KIAS

110. Under operation with single pneumatic system, do not operate more than one air conditioning pack with power set at or above __________.

A. MCR
B. MCT
C. CL
D. GA

111. During an ABNORMAL START, do not select alternate ignition before completion of _____ second motoring period.

A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60

112. During an ABNORMAL START, if fuel flow was above __________ PPH, a second attempt may result in a hot start.

A. 400
B. 500
C. 600
D. 700

114. Engine anti-ice will be turned on immediately after engine start when outside air temperature is __________ and __________.

A. at 8°C or less; moisture is visible
B. at 8°C or less; the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3°C or less
C. below 6°C; visible moisture in any form is present or the temperature dewpoint spread is 6°C or less
D. below 6°C; visible moisture in any form is present or the temperature dewpoint spread is 3°C or less

116. Maximum slat operating speed, landing setting, is ______ KIAS or ______ Mach.

A. 221; 0.55
B. 221; 0.51
C. 250; 0.54
D. 270; 0.55

118. Do not attempt [engine] starter re-engagement __________% N2 rpm. Starter damage may occur.

A. above 20
B. below 20
C. above 30
D. below 30

119. The [engine] starter motor may be operated continuously for as long as __________.

A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

121. During engine start, the normal EGT limit is __________ °C.

A. 700
B. 750
C. 800
D. 900

122. During engine start, the maximum EGT limit is __________ °C.

A. 900
B. 910
C. 945
D. 960

123. During engine start, EGT in excess of __________ °C requires a 781 entry.

A. 750
B. 800
C. 900
D. 910

124. During engine start, EGT peaks between 750°C and 900°C are limited to __________ seconds.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

128. Autoslat extension maximum speed is ______ KIAS or _______ M whichever is lower.

A. 170; 0.51
B. 221; 0.51
C. 270; 0.55
D. 270; 0.70

129. Maximum N1 for takeoff, climb, cruise and MCT is ________.

A. 100%
B. 109.5%
C. 118.5%
D. 125%

130. Max EGT during takeoff is _______ °C for 2 minutes and _______ °C for 5 minutes.

A. 800; 750
B. 900; 800
C. 945; 910
D. 960; 945

131. During takeoff, an EGT reading between 946°C and 960°C is limited to __________ minutes.

A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

134. The maximum engine oil consumption is __________ quarts per hour.

A. 2.0
B. 1.0
C. 0.55
D. 0.35

138. If the autoslats cannot be retracted, continued flight is allowed at speeds up to _______ KIAS or ________ M whichever is lower.

A. 221; 0.51
B. 250; 0.51
C. 270; 0.55
D. 270; 0.75

141. Maximum operating speed during fuel dump is ______ KIAS below 28,000 ft or ______ M above 28,000 ft.

A. 325; 0.55
B. 350; 0.88
C. 325; 0.82
D. 330; 0.82

151. With the increased accommodation unit installed, cabin crewmembers must be provided with demand crew oxygen masks adaptable to the demand regulators on the __________.

A. wine cellar bulkhead
B. lavatory ceiling
C. passenger oxygen kits
D. portable oxygen units

152. Minimum airspeed for centerline hose/drogue refueling from sea level to 30,000 ft MSL is:

A. 185 KIAS
B. 200 KIAS
C. 230 KIAS
D. 255 KIAS

153. The wing pod hoses may be extended at speeds above __________ KIAS and may be retracted at a maximum of __________ KIAS.

A. 200; 325
B. 200; 275
C. 230; 280
D. 230; 300

174. Under which of the following conditions should the cockpit door be latched open during takeoffs and landings, since cockpit windows may become the primary exits?

A. If no operable slide raft installed on the aircraft
B. If only one slide raft is operable
C. If only two slide rafts are operable
D. If only three slide rafts are operable

176. Each door arming handle for the emergency evacuation system must be in the ________ position prior to removing the airstairs/ramp, and remain in position until arrival at the unloading ramp and stand or ramp is in position.

A. SLIDE ARMED
B. SLIDE DISARMED
C. DOOR ARMED
D. EMERGENCY OVERRIDE

178. A minimum of __________ operable slide rafts are required for all KC-10 missions.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

182. BEFORE START: If all pneumatic PRESS gages are less than 25 PSI with the start valve closed, rotate all ENG PNEU SUPPLY selectors to OFF and observe pneumatic PRESS gages indicate normal pressure. If pneumatic PRESS gages continue to indicate less than 25 PSI and operational conditions necessitate the use of lower pneumatic pressure, a start may be made as low as__________.

A. 10 PSI
B. 15 PSI
C. 20 PSI
D. 22 PSI

186. If there are any changes to takeoff procedures and/or clearances, __________ should acknowledge.

A. the PM and FE
B. the PM and BO
C. the PM
D. all crewmembers

194. PF will announce to the crew whenever the AP/ATS is disengaged for any reason. This will be acknowledged by the __________.

A. PM/FE
B. PM/BO
C. FE/BO
D. all crewmembers in the cockpit

205. While flying an approach, __________.

A. consider executing a go around/missed approach any time an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated
B. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
C. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear caution is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
D. both A and B

207. Below __________, the aircraft should be stabilized on the approach in landing configuration.

A. 500 feet HAT
B. 500 feet MSL
C. 1000 feet HAT
D. 1000 feet AGL

212. If landing approach is made in icing conditions or landing is made with snow or slush on runway, move FLAP/SLAT handle to __________.

A. 50°/EXT
B. 35°/EXT
C. 22°/EXT
D. 0°/EXT

214. In an upset situation, excessive use of __________ may aggravate an upset situation or may result in loss of control and/or high structural loads.

A. pitch trim
B. rudder
C. aileron trim
D. both A and B

218. Any accumulation of snow, slush, or ice in the cavity areas forward of flight control surfaces, or on the wing leading edge behind the slat structures, __________.

A. it creates no significant hazard
B. it must be removed prior to takeoff
C. it should be removed if in contact with the control linkage
D. it must be removed prior to powering up hydraulic systems

219. Extreme cold (below -45°F for 6 hours or more) or light snow, ice, or frost deposits may compromise certain aspects of the aircraft's _____________ and safety equipment.

A. fire detection
B. communications
C. emergency escape
D. temperature control

221. CG for taxi or takeoff on contaminated runways should be __________.

A. 23% MAC or more
B. 23% MAC or less
C. 32% MAC or more
D. 32% MAC or less

232. Takeoff will not be attempted when __________.

A. Severe loss shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL or windshear conditions are associated with convective activity
B. Severe gain shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL
C. Winds exceed 50 knots
D. all of the above

233. During the Maximum Performance Maneuver, increase pitch ___________.

A. at 3 degrees per second to 21 degrees
B. immediately to the stick shaker
C. as required to control vertical speed and altitude
D. at 3 degrees per second to 15 degrees

242. The environmental envelope of the airplane extends from __________.

A. -54°C to 50°C
B. -54°C to 40°C
C. -54°C to 50°C, not to exceed Standard Day +40°C
D. -54°C to 40°C, not to exceed Standard Day +50°C

243. If the crosswind component exceeds __________ knots on a dry runway, takeoff will not be attempted.

A. 31
B. 21
C. 11
D. 45

245. When the crosswind component exceeds ________ knots, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

A. 23
B. 31
C. 45
D. 10

264. Minimum runway length is __________ feet. Minimum runway width is __________ feet.

A. 6,000; 129
B. 6,000; 141
C. 7,000; 147
D. 7,000; 148