KC10 Pilot MQF 2019 - 3rd Quarter of MQF

  1. 134. The maximum engine oil consumption is __________ quarts per hour.

    A. 2.0
    B. 1.0
    C. 0.55
    D. 0.35
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11]
  2. 135. For [engine] Out Of Limit Operations, __________ of any operations beyond the stated limits shall be recorded in the AFTO Form 781.

    A. EGT and N1
    B. EGT, N1, and fuel flow
    C. EGT and N2
    D. duration and extent
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11(N)]
  3. 136. The maximum unrestricted landing weight (MLW) of the KC-10A is __________ pounds.

    A. 400,000
    B. 411,000
    C. 436,000
    D. 556,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14]
  4. 137. Planned overweight landings are not recommended. Overweight landings may be accomplished when operational necessity dictates or in the case of emergency. Under these conditions, use _________ .

    A. 0° flaps
    B. 50° flaps
    C. a maximum of 35° flaps
    D. a maximum of 22° flaps
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (C)]
  5. 138. If the autoslats cannot be retracted, continued flight is allowed at speeds up to _______ KIAS or ________ M whichever is lower.

    A. 221; 0.51
    B. 250; 0.51
    C. 270; 0.55
    D. 270; 0.75
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  6. 139. At the minimum air refueling speed under normal conditions, a bank angle of over _________° can result in moderate buffet.

    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 25
    D. 33
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (N)]
  7. 140. During landings at weights over MLW [maximum unrestricted landing weight] the R/D at touchdown must not exceed _________ fpm and a flap overspeed/overweight as well as an aircraft overweight landing inspection must be performed (AFTO Form 781).

    A. 360
    B. 600
    C. 630
    D. 1,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (C)]
  8. 141. Maximum operating speed during fuel dump is ______ KIAS below 28,000 ft or ______ M above 28,000 ft.

    A. 325; 0.55
    B. 350; 0.88
    C. 325; 0.82
    D. 330; 0.82
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-13]
  9. 142. Acceptable starting of the APU may be accomplished in the standby control mode up to __________ feet.

    A. 10,000
    B. 20,000
    C. 25,000
    D. 32,500
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  10. 143. APU starting in the normal control mode is unrestricted up to __________ feet.

    A. 10,000
    B. 20,000
    C. 25,000
    D. 32,500
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  11. 144. The APU starter duty cycle should not exceed 1 minute on, followed by __________ off for cooling.

    A. 1 minute
    B. 3 minutes
    C. 5 minutes
    D. 10 minutes
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  12. 145. The maximum landing weight with the anti-skid inoperative is __________ pounds.

    A. 556,000
    B. 436,000
    C. 400,000
    D. 411,000
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  13. 146. The maximum landing weight with the center gear retracted is __________ pounds.

    A. 400,000
    B. 411,000
    C. 436,000
    D. 556,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  14. 147. Maximum ramp/taxi weight, normal operations is ________ pounds.

    A. 500,000
    B. 503,000
    C. 590,000
    D. 593,000
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  15. 148. Maximum start of takeoff for normal operation and maximum inflight gross weight is ________ pounds.

    A. 593,000
    B. 590,000
    C. 588,000
    D. 556,000
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (W); 3-17]
  16. 149. Normal operation, max zero fuel weight is _________ pounds.

    A. 414,000
    B. 436,000
    C. 439,000
    D. 503,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  17. 150. Which of the following is NOT true concerning APU operation?

    A. The APU is not to be used for wing anti-ice.
    B. The APU can be used for engine anti-ice.
    C. The APU will not be used during any aerial refueling.
    D. The APU will not be used with a known fuel leak in the boom pivot area.
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  18. 151. With the increased accommodation unit installed, cabin crewmembers must be provided with demand crew oxygen masks adaptable to the demand regulators on the __________.

    A. wine cellar bulkhead
    B. lavatory ceiling
    C. passenger oxygen kits
    D. portable oxygen units
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-19]
  19. 152. Minimum airspeed for centerline hose/drogue refueling from sea level to 30,000 ft MSL is:

    A. 185 KIAS
    B. 200 KIAS
    C. 230 KIAS
    D. 255 KIAS
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-20]
  20. 153. The wing pod hoses may be extended at speeds above __________ KIAS and may be retracted at a maximum of __________ KIAS.

    A. 200; 325
    B. 200; 275
    C. 230; 280
    D. 230; 300
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-20]
  21. 154. The wing air refueling pod fuel system, including the hose, must be kept full of fuel to decrease the risk of lightning strike damage and for __________.

    A. fuel temperature control
    B. proper fuel pump lubrication
    C. immediate availability of fuel for offload
    D. providing a positive inlet fuel pressure for the pod valves
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-20 (W)]
  22. 155. The Universal Air Refueling Receptacle Slipway Installation (UARRSI) hydraulic shutoff valve must remain __________ for all flight operations except when required for refueling operations.

    A. armed
    B. locked
    C. opened
    D. closed
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-21]
  23. 156. Do not reset any tripped _________ circuit breakers.

    A. lavatory
    B. fuel pump
    C. flight instrument
    D. mode 4
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-22 (C)]
  24. 157. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is _________ pounds for gross weights less than 556,000 pounds.

    A. 2000
    B. 3000
    C. 4000
    D. 5000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-65 (W)]
  25. 158. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is ____________ pounds for gross weights of 556,000 pounds or more.

    A. 5000
    B. 4000
    C. 3000
    D. 2000
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-65 (W)]
  26. 159. When aircraft gross weight exceeds ______ pounds or the sum of the zero fuel weight and fuel in the body tanks exceeds ______ pounds, the main tanks must be maintained full for structural reasons.

    A. 556,000; 414,000
    B. 414,000; 400,000
    C. 411,000; 400,000
    D. 556,000; 436,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-23 (C)]
  27. 160. The MAIN tanks 1, 2 and 3 must be maintained full if the gross weight exceeds ____ pounds.

    A. 436,000
    B. 546,000
    C. 556,000
    D. 565,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-23]
  28. 161. The MAIN tanks 1, 2 and 3 must be maintained full when the sum of zero fuel weight and weight of fuel in body tanks exceeds ______ pounds.

    A. 414,000
    B. 400,000
    C. 391,000
    D. 380,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-23]
  29. 162. Movement and use of reverse thrust are __________.

    A. allowed for combat descents only
    B. used to back up the aircraft
    C. prohibited in flight
    D. used at pilot discretion
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28 (W)]
  30. 163. The __________ function of the takeoff warning system must be operative for takeoff.

    A. parking brake
    B. stabilizer
    C. flap
    D. slat
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  31. 164. In the yaw damper system, any __________ channels must be operating prior to the start of takeoff.

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  32. 165. Use of the elevator [Load Feel] switch is limited to _______ position except for an abnormal condition.

    A. AUTO
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  33. 166. The speedbrakes are used only in the fully __________ .

    A. extended flap configuration with slats extended
    B. extended flap configuration with slats retracted
    C. retracted flap configuration and only with slats retracted
    D. retracted flap configuration, with or without slats extended
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  34. 167. Do not extend ground spoilers __________.

    A. until nosewheel is off the ground
    B. during flight
    C. unless stopping distance is critical
    D. if reverse thrust is used
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  35. 168. The __________ must be disengaged when operating on emergency power.

    A. No. 1 autopilot pitch trim function
    B. No. 2 autopilot pitch trim function
    C. No. 1 and No. 2 autopilots pitch trim functions
    D. autopilot
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  36. 169. The autopilot must be disengaged and the autopilot pitch trim (APT) disabled when an AP OUT OF TRIM light is illuminated continuously in excess of ______ seconds after the aircraft is stabilized and tracking the glideslope.

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  37. 170. Do not automatically capture glideslope above _______ during autopilot ILS coupled approaches.

    A. 2500 feet AGL
    B. 2500 feet MSL
    C. 250 knots
    D. 220 knots
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  38. 171. Do not use autopilot go-around with __________.

    A. an engine failure
    B. a generator failure
    C. less than G/A power
    D. autothrottles disconnected
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  39. 172. When executing takeoffs with derated thrust settings and using speeds limited by VMCG for maximum thrust, the flight director may command ______________.

    A. too high a pitch setting
    B. too low a pitch setting
    C. incorrect airspeed/pitch attitude if an engine failure occurs and the remaining engines thrust is increased
    D. adequate airspeed/pitch attitude if an engine failure occurs and the remaining engines thrust is increased
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  40. 173. Instrument approaches using FMS guidance must be accomplished in the FMS approach mode and GPS RAIM must be available __________.

    A. at the IAF
    B. from the IAF to the MAP
    C. for five minutes
    D. at the final approach fix
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-29]
  41. 174. Under which of the following conditions should the cockpit door be latched open during takeoffs and landings, since cockpit windows may become the primary exits?

    A. If no operable slide raft installed on the aircraft
    B. If only one slide raft is operable
    C. If only two slide rafts are operable
    D. If only three slide rafts are operable
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30 (W)]
  42. 175. Ensure autothrottles are disconnected __________ during touch and go landings.

    A. after touchdown
    B. on final approach
    C. prior to touchdown
    D. after takeoff
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  43. 176. Each door arming handle for the emergency evacuation system must be in the ________ position prior to removing the airstairs/ramp, and remain in position until arrival at the unloading ramp and stand or ramp is in position.

    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  44. 177. With only one operable [slide] raft, a one time flight may be made to a repair facility provided this flight is not an extended over water flight. The operable raft must be installed in __________ and total flight/ground crew will be __________ or less.

    A. door 1R; 12
    B. a forward door; 12
    C. door 1L; 16
    D. a forward door; 25
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  45. 178. A minimum of __________ operable slide rafts are required for all KC-10 missions.

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  46. 179. Ensure that the center accessory compartment has been inspected for fuel leaks _________.

    A. prior to the initial application of electrical power and prior to fuel servicing
    B. prior to the initial application of electrical power and after fuel servicing
    C. after the initial application of electrical power and prior to fuel servicing
    D. after the initial application of electrical power and after fuel servicing
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-5 (W)]
  47. 180. After an unsuccessful [APU] start, do not attempt another start until __________ .

    A. APU shutdown cycle is complete
    B. APU shutdown cycle is complete and APU DOOR OPEN light goes off
    C. APU shutdown cycle is complete but prior to the APU DOOR OPEN light going off
    D. a 5 minutes cooling off period
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-17 (C)]
  48. 181. With the [oxygen] regulator in the OFF position, the mask __________. Ensure regulator is in the 100% and ON position at all times during flight when position is occupied.

    A. will not allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe
    B. may allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe
    C. will not allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe unless the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet
    D. may allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe provided to cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-57 (W)]
  49. 182. BEFORE START: If all pneumatic PRESS gages are less than 25 PSI with the start valve closed, rotate all ENG PNEU SUPPLY selectors to OFF and observe pneumatic PRESS gages indicate normal pressure. If pneumatic PRESS gages continue to indicate less than 25 PSI and operational conditions necessitate the use of lower pneumatic pressure, a start may be made as low as __________.

    A. 10 PSI
    B. 15 PSI
    C. 20 PSI
    D. 22 PSI
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-60 (N)]
  50. 183. During scramble operations, prior to starting the _______, the crew will ensure that engine start will not cause a hazard to responding crewmembers.

    A. No. 1 engine
    B. No. 2 engine
    C. No. 3 engine
    D. wing engines
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-61 (W)]
  51. 184. In a scramble situation, when responding, crewmembers must approach the entry ladder from the nose of the aircraft and avoid the engine intake danger area (______________).

    A. 5 foot radius
    B. 10 foot radius
    C. 15 foot radius
    D. 20 foot radius
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-61 (W)]
  52. 185. The Takeoff Warning System does not provide notification of flaps being set to _________ during takeoff.

    A. zero
    B. 35° to 40°
    C. 41° to 45°
    D. 46° to 50°
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-67 (W)]
  53. 186. If there are any changes to takeoff procedures and/or clearances, __________ should acknowledge.

    A. the PM and FE
    B. the PM and BO
    C. the PM
    D. all crewmembers
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-67 (N)]
  54. 187. Always comply with a TCAS RA unless __________.

    A. the pilot considers it unsafe to do so or has better information about the source of the RA and can maintain safe separation
    B. in IMC conditions
    C. in the terminal area
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-71 (W)]
  55. 188. If takeoff warning horn sounds while advancing throttles [for takeoff], ___________.

    A. check that flaps are symmetrical
    B. disarm spoilers and continue takeoff
    C. discontinue takeoff
    D. disconnect the autothrottles and set takeoff thrust manually
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-73 (C)]
  56. 189. If the vertical speed selector and speed select knob are used to command climb rate and IAS, it is possible to ___________.

    A. overspeed the engines
    B. overtemp the engines
    C. exceed the Mach limit
    D. command a climb rate in excess of aircraft capability
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-78 (W)]
  57. 190. Engaging autothrottle(s) immediately after takeoff while thrust computer is in _______ can result in engine overboost.

    A. TO
    B. GA
    C. CL
    D. MCT
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-79 (C)]
  58. 191. As you approach V1 the decision to abort should be based upon _______________.

    A. the pilot not flying
    B. an increased level of criticality
    C. the best judgment of the pilot flying
    D. taking off in the remaining runway available
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-80 (N)]
  59. 192. To reduce liability of loss of a second engine (TRT or Reduced Thrust takeoff), do not advance power beyond Takeoff Rated Thrust __________.

    A. under any circumstance
    B. unless needed to maintain flight
    C. unless the aircraft is at or above the acceleration height
    D. unless the aircraft is below the acceleration height
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-82 (W)]
  60. 193. Takeoff performance (TRT or Reduced Thrust) is based on the loss of a wing engine after V1. During a Reduced Thrust takeoff, power on the remaining engines may be advanced to Go-Around Thrust, if necessary, only after reaching _________ KIAS(worst case wet/icy VMCG/VRMIN).

    A. 118
    B. 128
    C. 125
    D. 135
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-82 (W)]
  61. 194. PF will announce to the crew whenever the AP/ATS is disengaged for any reason. This will be acknowledged by the __________.

    A. PM/FE
    B. PM/BO
    C. FE/BO
    D. all crewmembers in the cockpit
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-86 (C)]
  62. 195. If takeoff power is not set by 80 knots, __________.

    A. charted takeoff performance may not be achieved
    B. advance throttles to go around power
    C. advance throttles to the stops
    D. both A and B
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-75 (W)]
  63. 196. When using the FMS for navigation, __________.

    A. crosscheck information with traditional ground-based NAVAIDS in the terminal area when available
    B. FMS navigation may be used as the sole-source of navigation information for all arrival, approach and departure procedures extracted from the aircraft database
    C. procedures must be flown as extracted, with no additions, changes or deletions from the aircrew
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-85 (N)]
  64. 197. When climbing with ___________, the engines may overboost if the throttles are not adjusted for lapse rate temperature deviation.

    A. autothrottles on
    B. autothrottles off
    C. autopilots on
    D. autopilots off
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-86 (C)]
  65. 198. The autopilot will not be used during high rates of climb (more than _____ feet per minute) or high rates of descent (more than _____ feet per minute).

    A. 8,000; 10,000
    B. 7,000; 9,000
    C. 4,000; 8,000
    D. 3,000; 5,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-91 (C)]
Card Set
KC10 Pilot MQF 2019 - 3rd Quarter of MQF
2019 KC-10 Master Question File (MQF). Released 1 Nov 2019. Contact Lt Col Vince Livie with questions/errors.