KC10 Pilot MQF 2019 - 2nd Quarter of MQF

67. The precipitation diffuses the radar signal and reduces the receiver's ability to detect the signal return. The amount of signal dissipation is directly proportional to the rate of rainfall. It is possible for __________.

A. the KC-10 radar to compensate for signal diffusion and attenuation
B. the radar to depict all weather formations regardless of precipitation
C. long range scale to give the best resolution of weather echoes
D. a storm cell to mask another cell, which could be larger and/or more intense

68. All TCAS aural warnings are inhibited below _______ feet radio altitude on approach and up to _______ feet radio altitude on departure.

A. 100; 500
B. 200; 500
C. 500; 1000
D. 900; 1100

69. The boom shall be maintained full of fuel when the departure, enroute or arrival flight path may place the aircraft __________ .

A. within 10 NM of bad weather
B. in the vicinity of lightning
C. within 25 NM of bad weather
D. in the vicinity of bad weather

70. All intermittent system failure lights will __________.

A. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 3 minutes
B. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 5 minutes
C. be treated the same as steady lights
D. not be troubleshot

71. During a LOSS OF ALL ENGINES/GENERATORS, if engine 1 or 3 does not restart within approximately ________ , immediate consideration should be given to restarting engine 2. Do not operate _________.

A. 15 seconds; control surfaces
B. 30 seconds; flaps/slats
C. 45 seconds; flaps/slats
D. 3 minutes; rudders

72. With a loss of all generators and emergency power only, the battery cannot be relied upon for more than __________. Attempting an APU start will discharge the battery.

A. 5 minute
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 45 minutes

73. With a DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE __________.

A. autothrottles may be used except for approach and landing with flaps less than 35°
B. land at nearest suitable airfield
C. minimize use of more than one hydraulic powered control at a time
D. all of the above

74. With DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 2 INOP, do not reduce speed to below VMCA until __________.

A. landing is assured
B. flaps are set for landing
C. all gear are down and locked
D. the flare is initiated

75. A missed approach should not be attempted if __________ with DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 2 INOP.

A. upper rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
B. lower rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
C. both rudders are operative but thrust is asymmetric
D. both rudders are inoperative and thrust is asymmetric

76. After alternate landing gear extension do not exceed __________ KIAS.

A. 230
B. 260
C. 280
D. 300

77. For DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 3 INOP, if upper rudder is inop do not reduce speed to below __________ until landing is assured.

A. VMCA (127 KIAS)
B. VMCA (137 KIAS)
C. VMCA (147 KIAS)
D. VMCA (157 KIAS)

78. During the period that all ENG PNEU SUPPLY Sels are off, the aircraft will depressurize at approximately __________.

A. 500 FPM
B. 1000 FPM
C. 1500 FPM
D. 2000 FPM

79. If both fire agent bottles for engine 2 have been discharged, do not ____________.

A. start APU
B. restart number 2 engine
C. attempt a go-around
D. use associated air conditioning system

80. During TWO ENGINE OPERATION, once the aircraft is configured for landing, __________ may not exist at high gross weights and extreme ambient conditions with an additional engine failure.

A. go-around capability
B. directional control
C. glide path control
D. course control

81. During TWO ENGINE OPERATION __________.

A. For 2-engine landing, use 35° flaps
B. delay slat/flap and landing gear extension as long as practical
C. do not use autopilot for go-around
D. all of the above

82. During SINGLE ENGINE OPERATION (UNLESS COMMITTED ON FINAL), if cabin pressure cannot be maintained, passenger oxygen masks should automatically deploy at approximately __________ feet cabin altitude; __________ minutes of oxygen available.

A. 8,000; 11
B. 14,000; 22
C. 10,000; 33
D. 12,000; 44

83. Under which of the following conditions MAY a single engine missed approach be attempted?

A. Airspeed below single engine approach speed
B. Gear is extended
C. Airspeed above single engine approach speed
D. Less than 1,000 feet above airfield elevation

84. During a CONTROLLABILITY CHECK, __________ to the point at which full control deflection is required about any axis.

A. allow speed to decrease
B. allow speed to increase
C. never allow speed to decrease
D. never allow speed to increase

85. Under what condition should a controllability check in the planned landing configuration be considered?

A. Damage has occurred to any portion of the airplane structure sufficient to change the airplane normal flight and control characteristics.
B. The aircraft experiences in flight control malfunctions.
C. There is an uncorrectable fuel imbalance.
D. All of the above

86. In a ditching situation, cabin doors may not open for evacuation __________.

A. only if the cabin is pressurized above 9.1 psi
B. only if the cabin is pressurized above 8.6 psi
C. only is the cabin is pressurized above 3.0 psi
D. if cabin is pressurized

87. Damage to the slats can result if wing anti-ice is operated on the ground for more than ________ seconds.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45

88. If volts and frequency indicate after a CSD disconnect button is pushed, __________.

A. shut down the engine immediately
B. continue engine operation with the generator on
C. continue engine operation with the generator off
D. reset the generator, then shut the engine down if volts and frequency still indicate

89. Failure of the L EMER DC BUS or the R EMER DC BUS will cause the failure of the associated CDU, BSIU, EHSI, EADI and civil GPS. Navigation guidance can be restored to the functioning side by:

A. Placing the EMER PWR SW to ON.
B. Splitting the 1553 bus.
C. selecting the respective autopilot or autopilot 2 if both autopilots were off when the system failed.
D. depowering the failed component.

90. If final flap selection is less than 35°, it is possible that the boom will contact the runway at ______ body angle, struts extended and _______ struts compressed.

A. 13°; 11°
B. 11°; 13°
C. 10°; 12°
D. 10°; 12°

91. During SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON, spoilers deploy automatically upon touchdown with 35° flap and upon __________ if less flaps are used.

A. on main wheel spinup
B. on nosewheel strut compression
C. selection of reverse thrust
D. the ARM function will not work with 22°/EXT

92. With a complete pitot blockage, airspeed will __________ in a climb and __________ in a descent provided static port is unblocked.

A. INCREASE; INCREASE
B. DECREASE; DECREASE
C. INCREASE; DECREASE
D. DECREASE; INCREASE

93. If the static system is blocked, altimeter and VSI will show __________ regardless of the aircraft's pitch attitude and power settings.

A. a climb
B. a descent
C. level flight
D. off flags

94. With the loss of all GPSs, the __________ navigation solutions provide more accurate navigation solutions than a INU ONLY navigation solution.

A. MIL 1 or MIL2
B. GPS 1 or GPS2
C. CIV1 or CIV2
D. INU1 or INU3

95. If GPS1 and GPS2 both fail, and subsequently one GPS is restored, the ___________will use the first GPS restored.

A. Pitot Static System
B. FMS
C. CDU
D. INU

96. During a NO FLAP/NO SLAT LANDING, with the alternate gear extension lever in the raised position, __________.

A. nose gear steering to the right is limited to 25°
B. nose gear steering to the left is limited to 25°
C. the outboard ailerons will be unlocked
D. Both A and C

97. If the SELECT FLAP LIMIT OVRD light is on _______________.

A. structural damage may occur if flap limit airspeeds are exceeded
B. the flaps are still protected from structural damage due to overspeed
C. extension and retraction of the flaps will now be inhibited
D. it will take 20 seconds longer to extend or retract the flaps

98. During takeoff, if takeoff is continued with the SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON, __________.

A. delay flap retraction until reaching VSR
B. If aircraft behavior is abnormal (unusual deck angles, buffer, asymmetry, etc.) slats should be retracted at VSR
C. to prevent exceeding flap limit speeds, flaps may be retracted to 15 degrees prior to reaching approximately 220 kts
D. all of the above

99. With SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON during takeoff or go-around, do not move FLAP/SLAT handle until ___________.

A. 500 feet above airfield elevation
B. a safe altitude and airspeed has been attained
C. 1000 feet above airfield elevation
D. minimum acceleration height

100. During a stabilizer inoperative landing be prepared to ___________.

A. use maximum control column force for flare
B. maintain thrust until nosewheel touchdown
C. push forward abruptly to lower the nose
D. use a higher than normal sink rate during flare

101. During STALL WARNING OR AUTO SLAT MALFUNCTION with the SLAT RESET SW-LT AND SLAT DISAGREE LT ON, the __________ slats are extended. Do not exceed __________ or 0.75 Mach whichever is lower.

A. inboard; 250 KIAS
B. inboard; 270 KIAS
C. inboard; 271 KIAS
D. outboard; 270 KIAS

102. During cruise if the slat reset switch light and slat disagree light are still on (after STALL WARNING OR AUTO SLAT MALFUNCTION and the slat reset switch-light was pushed) the __________.

A. slats are retracted
B. slats are in the takeoff range
C. inboard slats are extended
D. outboard slats are extended

103. During FUEL DUMP, with AR PUMP OVRD selected, FWD TANK fuel will continue to dump __________ pounds.

A. until it reaches 15,000
B. below 15,000
C. until it reaches 11,500
D. until it reaches 5,000

104. FUEL DUMP in response to a takeoff emergency should not be initiated prior to __________.

A. slat retraction speed
B. reviewing the FUEL DUMP checklist procedures
C. reaching TWO ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT
D. reaching THREE ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT

105. If the ABNORMAL BRAKE checklist is initiated for a HIGH ENERGY STOP (any stop initiated in excess of _______ knots), make AFTO 781A entry.

A. 80
B. 100
C. 130
D. 150

106. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (CAUTION ZONE), if a 400°C temperature exists for more than __________ minutes, wheel fuse plugs may activate and deflate the tire(s).

A. 60
B. 30
C. 10
D. 5

107. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (DANGER ZONE), which of the following is NOT true?

A. Immediately move aircraft to clear active runway or ramp
B. Do not set parking brake
C. Fire is possible within 30 minutes
D. After 5 minutes, fog or foam may be used to reduce cooling time

108. In a GEAR HANDLE WILL NOT MOVE TO DOWN POSITION situation, after the main gear alternate gear extension lever is raised and latched, the main gear alternate extension lever must be __________.

A. stowed to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
B. left in the raised position to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
C. stowed after the alternate gear ext handle-center gear is pulled
D. stowed after the gear lights indicate 4 green

109. In a GEAR UNSAFE LT(S) ON WITH GEAR HANDLE UP (CONFIRMED ON BOTH PANELS) situation, if gear does not appear normal (for example, if main gear retraction is blocked by gear door) or if condition of gear cannot be determined, __________ .

A. do not attempt additional gear retraction
B. one attempt to retract the gear can be made
C. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 230 KIAS
D. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 185 KIAS

110. Under operation with single pneumatic system, do not operate more than one air conditioning pack with power set at or above __________.

A. MCR
B. MCT
C. CL
D. GA

111. During an ABNORMAL START, do not select alternate ignition before completion of _____ second motoring period.

A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60

112. During an ABNORMAL START, if fuel flow was above __________ PPH, a second attempt may result in a hot start.

A. 400
B. 500
C. 600
D. 700

113. To prevent transcowl clevis damage, ________when failure to stow is noted during ground operations.

A. manually stow the thrust reverser
B. immediately shut down the respective engine
C. do not attempt to stow a thrust reverser
D. operate the engine with minimum thrust

114. Engine anti-ice will be turned on immediately after engine start when outside air temperature is __________ and __________.

A. at 8°C or less; moisture is visible
B. at 8°C or less; the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3°C or less
C. below 6°C; visible moisture in any form is present or the temperature dewpoint spread is 6°C or less
D. below 6°C; visible moisture in any form is present or the temperature dewpoint spread is 3°C or less

115. Windshield anti-ice selectors should be in ______________.

A. HIGH only for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
B. NORM for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
C. off when icing conditions are imminent
D. auto when icing conditions are imminent

116. Maximum slat operating speed, landing setting, is ______ KIAS or ______ Mach.

A. 221; 0.55
B. 221; 0.51
C. 250; 0.54
D. 270; 0.55

117. The __________ must be operational for dispatch.

A. No. 1 Auxiliary Pump Switch
B. No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switch
C. No. 1 and No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switches
D. No. 3 Auxiliary Pump Switch

118. Do not attempt [engine] starter re-engagement __________% N2 rpm. Starter damage may occur.

A. above 20
B. below 20
C. above 30
D. below 30

119. The [engine] starter motor may be operated continuously for as long as __________.

A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

120. Normally [engine starter] re-engagement should be made with N2 rpm below 20%. Under emergency conditions such as engine fire indication, reengagement may be made with N2 rpm as high as __________.

A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 35%
D. 40%

121. During engine start, the normal EGT limit is __________ °C.

A. 700
B. 750
C. 800
D. 900

122. During engine start, the maximum EGT limit is __________ °C.

A. 900
B. 910
C. 945
D. 960

123. During engine start, EGT in excess of __________ °C requires a 781 entry.

A. 750
B. 800
C. 900
D. 910

124. During engine start, EGT peaks between 750°C and 900°C are limited to __________ seconds.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

125. One start is allowed in the __________ range and the intended flight may be completed before maintenance action.

A. 945°C to 960°C
B. 910°C to 945°C
C. 900°C to 910°C
D. 800°C to 900°C

126. Following two consecutive 5 minute engine starting cycles, a ________ cooling period is required between additional 5 minute cycles.

A. 30 second
B. 5 minute
C. 10 minute
D. 20 minute

127. The limiting tailwind component is __________ knots.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 21
D. 31

128. Autoslat extension maximum speed is ______ KIAS or _______ M whichever is lower.

A. 170; 0.51
B. 221; 0.51
C. 270; 0.55
D. 270; 0.70

129. Maximum N1 for takeoff, climb, cruise and MCT is ________.

A. 100%
B. 109.5%
C. 118.5%
D. 125%

130. Max EGT during takeoff is _______ °C for 2 minutes and _______ °C for 5 minutes.

A. 800; 750
B. 900; 800
C. 945; 910
D. 960; 945

131. During takeoff, an EGT reading between 946°C and 960°C is limited to __________ minutes.

A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

132. The normal takeoff thrust duration of 5 minutes may be extended to __________ minutes for engine-out contingency.

A. 7
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

133. The normal engine oil consumption is __________ quarts per hour.

A. 2.0
B. 1.0
C. 0.55
D. 0.35