KC10 Pilot MQF 2019 - 1st Quarter of MQF

1. The refueling anchor pattern is a ______________ with legs separated by as little as 7 nm for smaller, slower tankers such as the KC-130 and as much as 20 nm for larger, faster tankers.

A. right hand race track pattern
B. left hand race track pattern
C. point parallel rendezvous
D. enroute rendezvous

2. The geographical point along the planned AAR track where fuel transfer should commence is the__________.

A. Contact Point
B. ARIP
C. ARCP
D. Anchor Point

3. The initial formation position for a receiver joining a tanker is the __________.

A. fingertip position
B. echelon left position
C. cocked position
D. on deck position

4. The Toboggan maneuver is a request from receiver for the tanker to start a slow descent, maintaining the refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is _____________ and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

A. 400 feet per NM
B. 500 feet per minute
C. between 300 and 500 feet per minute
D. 500 feet per NM

5. Do not refuel as a receiver above __________ feet.

A. 33,000
B. 31,000
C. 29,000
D. 25,000

6. Do not transmit on the HF radio when __________. Transmitting on the HF may cause uncommanded KC-10 air refueling boom movement, endangering the tanker or receiver aircraft and crews.

A. only in contact with a KC-10A
B. only in close proximity to the KC-10A
C. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10A air refueling boom
D. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10A air refueling boom, during night operations only.

7. If radio communication capability is lost or unreadable between the boom operator and receiver pilot, contacts will not be attempted except __________.

A. when operational necessity dictates
B. during an emergency fuel situation
C. when flying a Higher Headquarters Directed (HHD) mission
D. when authorized by the ATO or SPINS

8. Approaching boom limits at relatively high velocity can cause __________ as a result of an inability to disconnect due to binding action of the boom nozzle.

A. inner limit disconnect
B. loss of contact signal
C. structural damage
D. boom operator airsickness

9. All appropriate equipment should be operating a minimum of _____ ( _____ for A/A) prior to rendezvous control times (ARCT, RZ, etc.).

A. 15 min; 15 min
B. 30 min; 30 min
C. 15 min; 30 min
D. 30 min; 15 min

10. Normally, the tanker will orbit in a __________ pattern at a speed of __________.

A. Left hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
B. Right hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
C. Left hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight
D. Right hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight

11. To help insure safe operation when range between aircraft is not known and the receiver has to descend through air refueling altitude, tankers will not initiate final turn to refueling track unless __________ rendezvous altitude.

A. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at proper
B. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at proper
C. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet above
D. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet below

12. If the KC-10A receiver is more than __________ in trail with the tanker, the airspeed may be increased for closure. The normal speed schedule will be resumed at __________ in trail.

A. 3 NM; 1 NM
B. 1 NM; 1/2 NM
C. 4 NM; 3 NM
D. 2 NM; 1/2 NM

13. Attempts to effect a contact during a loss of any air refueling lighting that results in less than desired illumination will be at the discretion of the __________.

A. tanker mission commander
B. boom operator
C. receiver pilot
D. flight engineer

14. After a disconnect, remain stabilized in the contact position until the _____________.

A. pilot director lights show a disconnect
B. PM visually confirms that the disconnect annunciator is illuminated and the boom is clear
C. flight engineer resets the UARSSI system
D. boom operator directs a return to astern

15. Normal backout from the contact position should be accomplished ______________to prevent adverse trim changes to both receiver and tanker.

A. smoothly
B. slowly
C. rapidly
D. both a and b

16. When notified that a KC-10A boom flight control system failure has occurred, __________.

A. initiate a breakaway immediately
B. initiate a disconnect immediately
C. do not initiate a disconnect unless directed by the boom operator
D. select amplifier override and continue air refueling

17. _______ Air Refueling will not be conducted while tobogganing except in case of __________.

A. Drogue; emergency
B. Tanker; AWACs mission requirements
C. Drogue; FTU training
D. WARP; FTU training

18. During the RECEIVER PREPARATION FOR CONTACT checklist the transponder will normally be set to standby. If additional situational awareness of multitanker or multi-receiver formations is desired, the APX-119 transponder should be set to the following: __________.

A. Master Switch "TA"
B. ATC Mode "OF" (off)
C. BCST Mode "OF" (off)
D. all of the above

19. During a breakaway, the receiver pilot should use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overrunning does occur, under no conditions should a turn, either right or left, be made until ___________ has been attained.

A. a positive rate of climb
B. positive separation
C. a descent to the rendezvous altitude
D. an effective breakaway

20. If the KC-10 receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time, the receiver shall ___________ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker and has the tanker in visual contact.

A. establish a positive rate of descent to 1000 feet below air refueling altitude
B. immediately transition to instruments and level off
C. immediately turn away from the track
D. immediately extend full speed brakes

21. Pressure boom refueling will not be attempted except ______________.

A. during VMC conditions
B. during daylight hours
C. when needed to complete a checkride
D. when an emergency fuel shortage exists aboard the receiver aircraft

22. Per ATP 3.3.4.2, tankers will establish the applicable contact air refueling airspeed before the receiver reaches _____ NM. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than ______ KIAS, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.

A. 1/2; 10
B. 1/2; 5
C. 1; 5
D. 3; 10

23. It is the responsibility of _____ to ensure positive separation throughout refueling operations.

A. tanker formation lead
B. receiver formation lead
C. tanker and receiver formation leads
D. all formation members (both tanker and receiver)

24. When using autothrottles for air refueling, speed changes should be made slowly and deliberately (____ knot increments) to preclude rapid throttle movements.

A. 8
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1

25. Particular attention should be given when using the heading select knob with autothrottles engaged. The close proximity to and similarity with the speed knob creates the potential for ____________.

A. inadvertent speed changes
B. inadvertent heading changes
C. abrupt autopilot maneuvering
D. autothrottle disconnect

26. If the receiver fails to attain stabilized position, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, __________.

A. the boom operator must advise the crew
B. air refueling operations should be terminated
C. breakaway procedures will be initiated
D. disconnect the autopilot during closure and contact

27. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will take prompt action in the event of __________.

A. a rapid backout by receiver
B. a receiver aircraft limit demo
C. an inadvertent disconnect or boom failure
D. an autopilot malfunction or breakaway

28. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will keep __________.

A. one hand on the throttles and the other hand on the control column
B. one hand on the control column and the other hand available for immediate throttle operation
C. one thumb on the control column disconnect switch and the other thumb on the throttle disconnect button
D. both hands on the control column

29. Except in an emergency, do not engage or disengage the autopilot while the receiver is ___________ as unscheduled attitude changes can occur.

A. in the contact position
B. inside the astern position
C. returning to astern
D. inside 1/2 NM

30. If an overrunning receiver flies under the tanker, the tanker autopilot may sense low pressure as a climbing indication and ________________.

A. slow down, increasing collision possibility
B. initiate a rapid climb with resultant speed loss
C. report erroneous altitudes through the Mode C
D. initiate a descent into the lower aircraft

31. Do not use ___________ modes of the autopilot during air refueling.

A. auto throttle
B. heading select
C. INU TACAN update
D. navigation

32. If excessive fuel spillage occurs, initiate a disconnect. Discontinue refueling except in an emergency or __________.

A. when dictated by operational requirements
B. to avoid embarrassment
C. under all circumstances
D. unless it is a checkride

33. If the centerline hose will not rewind, it should not be jettisoned __________ unless aircraft safety requires immediate action.

A. above 28,000 ft
B. over the water
C. over a populated area
D. over a rural area

34. During C-130 refueling, do not raise or lower slats/flaps when the receiver is closer than __________ because of the resultant pitch change of the tanker.

A. the astern position
B. 1 NM
C. 1/2 NM
D. 3 NM

35. With two or more tankers/one receiver, during final turn to the AAR track, the tanker formation will move into echelon formation on the right of the tanker leader, __________.

A. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
B. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
C. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
D. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon

36. Special consideration should be accorded ___________ above idle as injury to personnel or damage to equipment could occur if they are in the blast pattern area.

A. throttle settings
B. number 1 and 3 engine throttle settings
C. number 2 engine throttle settings
D. reverse thrust throttle settings

37. When cargo or passengers are carried, the environmental curtain shall be fully installed. This will ensure that the occupants have adequate protection from _____________.

A. loose cargo loads
B. cold from the cargo compartment
C. heat from the cargo compartment
D. smoke, fumes, and noise

38. The APU should not be operated __________ because the fire agent cannot be discharged.

A. when the battery is removed or disconnected
B. below -40°C
C. above 50°C
D. if the aircraft is cold soaked

39. Do not operate __________ during ground refueling or defueling operations.

A. Radio only
B. Radar only
C. Radio or radar only
D. Radar, Radio Altimeter, HF Radios, and IFF

40. __________ shall be stationed at the Flight Engineers Fuel Control Panel for AC pumping unit defueling and at ground defueling units for all defueling operations.

A. A qualified pilot
B. Qualified personnel
C. A fuel specialist
D. A qualified engineer or unqualified engineer with direct instructor supervision

41. When operating in manual boom latching mode, the __________ initiate all disconnects.

A. tanker must
B. receiver must
C. either tanker or receiver may
D. AWACs controller must

42. If a circuit breaker trips, a cooling period of __________ seconds should be allowed before resetting. A tripped circuit breaker should never be reset ___________.

A. 60; more than once
B. 60; unless an emergency condition exists
C. 90; more than once
D. 90; unless an emergency condition exists

43. If __________ trips, do not reset until maintenance personnel can ensure solenoid housing is intact and that the solenoid coil is not shorted to the solenoid case.

A. manifold scavenge pump circuit breaker
B. manifold scavenge pump pressure low light circuit breaker
C. manifold scavenge valve circuit breaker
D. manifold scavenge transfer pump circuit breaker

44. If numerous circuit breakers trip for one or more sub-systems, the circuit breakers should __________.

A. never be reset
B. not be reset unless an emergency condition exists, until maintenance actions are complete
C. not be reset more than once
D. not be reset before a 90 seconds cooling period

45. Circuit breakers __________ in the event a Kapton wire flashover occurs.

A. may not open
B. will open
C. will be reset immediately
D. will not be reset under any circumstance

46. Do not use EMER PWR SW to restore L EMER AC BUS __________.

A. under any circumstance
B. if the ADG is deployed
C. if R EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM D-21) trips
D. if L EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM B-21) trips

47. Failure to monitor the throttle positions, with the autothrottles engaged and in any mode, may result in _______.

A. disengagement
B. inadvertent speed changes
C. engine overspeed
D. excessive fuel consumption

48. When climbing in the __________ mode, the airspeed must be closely monitored. The autopilot will command the stabilizer trim and elevator to maintain this rate of climb and the engines may not produce sufficient thrust to maintain the airspeed, due to gross weight and high altitudes.

A. IAS HOLD
B. Control Wheel Steering
C. Mach Hold
D. Vertical Speed

49. The maximum pitch attitude for the AT/SC system is _______ for takeoff and _______ for go-around.

A. 15°; 22°
B. 22°; 22°
C. 22°; 15°
D. there is no limit on the commanded pitch attitude

50. With __________ engaged, activation of the Hydraulic System 3 Shutoff Valve will cause __________.

A. Autopilot 1; Autopilot 1 pitch control to become inoperative
B. Autopilot 2; Autopilot 2 pitch control to become inoperative
C. Autothrottle 1; Autothrottle 1 control to become inoperative
D. Autothrottle 2; Autothrottle 2 control to become inoperative

51. Do not select GA mode when above __________ feet pressure altitude.

A. 10,000
B. 12,000
C. 14,000
D. 16,000

52. After aircraft reaches ________, the thrust computer stops updating the N1 readout. The computer begins updating again when a new thrust mode is selected.

A. 30 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 100 knots
D. V1 speed

53. When applying manual braking techniques, excess pedal pressure/deflection can result in __________.

A. worn/blown tires
B. skids
C. center gear lower drag link failure
D. all of the above

54. If DOOR DISARM light remains on with slide arming lever in SLIDE ARMED position,__________.

A. move door control switch from the neutral position
B. open door manually
C. call maintenance
D. recycle door

55. Structural damage may occur if the cargo door is operated in winds exceeding ______ knots.

A. 40
B. 30
C. 20
D. 10

56. To avoid possible damage to the aircraft and/or ladder, raise ladder to the retracted position when________________.

A. aircraft is to be moved
B. ladder is not in use and wind velocities of 35 knots are anticipated
C. aircraft is to be left unattended
D. all of the above

57. In AUTO mode, cabin altitude remains at departure airfield elevation until aircraft is __________, at which time cabin altitude changes as indicated in the Automatic Pressurization Schedule.

A. 5000 feet MSL
B. 5000 feet above airfield
C. Pressure Height for Acceleration
D. just after rotation

58. Bunks will not be occupied __________.

A. during takeoffs and landings
B. by crew chiefs
C. during air refueling operations
D. when cruising above 35,000 feet

59. If an oxygen system circuit malfunction cannot be corrected, _____________.

A. dispatch from MOB will not be attempted
B. only qualified crew will use affected seats
C. affected seats in the IAU must be replaced
D. personnel shall not occupy the affected seats during flight

60. Do not transmit on HF radio when __________.

A. the aircraft is on the ground and not properly grounded
B. the APU is running
C. thunderstorms are within 10 NM
D. the aircraft is on the ground and personnel are working on the external skin surfaces or the boom

61. Do not key the HF system when personnel are within __________ feet of the HF antenna.

A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

62. If the [navigation database] effective date is __________, the database is out of date.

A. amber
B. red
C. white
D. dashes

63. To delete a DISCONTINUITY __________ before pressing the LSK adjacent to the prompt boxes above the DISCONTINUTY.

A. Press the CLR DEL function key to show DELETE in the scratchpad
B. Press the LSK for the next applicable waypoint (waypoint shows in the scratchpad)
C. Roll inverted and Valsalva
D. Either A or B

64. When a GPS databased approach is contained in the active flight plan, a predictive RAIM check is performed _______.

A. upon entering the FMS TERMINAL mode (31 NM to destination airport)
B. upon crossing the Initial Approach Fix (IAF)
C. when transitioning to the FMS APPROACH mode (2 NM from the Final Approach Fix (FAF))
D. Both A and C

65. The radar antenna may be damaged if the function switch is moved to __________ while the aircraft is in motion.

A. WX
B. TEST
C. STBY
D. OFF

66. Do not select __________ unless personnel are clear of the antenna radiation area.

A. OFF to STBY
B. STBY to TEST
C. TEST to STBY
D. WX, MAP 1, MAP 2, or BCN