KC10 Pilot FULL MQF (2019)

  1. 1. The refueling anchor pattern is a ______________ with legs separated by as little as 7 nm for smaller, slower tankers such as the KC-130 and as much as 20 nm for larger, faster tankers.

    A. right hand race track pattern
    B. left hand race track pattern
    C. point parallel rendezvous
    D. enroute rendezvous
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 [50]
  2. 2. The geographical point along the planned AAR track where fuel transfer should commence is the__________.

    A. Contact Point
    B. ARIP
    C. ARCP
    D. Anchor Point
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 [9]
  3. 3. The initial formation position for a receiver joining a tanker is the __________.

    A. fingertip position
    B. echelon left position
    C. cocked position
    D. on deck position
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 [10]
  4. 4. The Toboggan maneuver is a request from receiver for the tanker to start a slow descent, maintaining the refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is _____________ and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

    A. 400 feet per NM
    B. 500 feet per minute
    C. between 300 and 500 feet per minute
    D. 500 feet per NM
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 [18]
  5. 5. Do not refuel as a receiver above __________ feet.

    A. 33,000
    B. 31,000
    C. 29,000
    D. 25,000
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-3 (C)]
  6. 6. Do not transmit on the HF radio when __________.  Transmitting on the HF may cause uncommanded KC-10 air refueling boom movement, endangering the tanker or receiver aircraft and crews.

    A. only in contact with a KC-10A
    B. only in close proximity to the KC-10A
    C. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10A air refueling boom
    D. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10A air refueling boom, during night operations only.
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-4 (W)]
  7. 7. If radio communication capability is lost or unreadable between the boom operator and receiver pilot, contacts will not be attempted except __________.

    A. when operational necessity dictates
    B. during an emergency fuel situation
    C. when flying a Higher Headquarters Directed (HHD) mission
    D. when authorized by the ATO or SPINS
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-4 (C)]
  8. 8. Approaching boom limits at relatively high velocity can cause __________ as a result of an inability to disconnect due to binding action of the boom nozzle.

    A. inner limit disconnect
    B. loss of contact signal
    C. structural damage
    D. boom operator airsickness
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-15 (C)]
  9. 9. All appropriate equipment should be operating a minimum of ______ (______ for A/A) prior to rendezvous control times (ARCT, RZ, etc.).

    A. 15 min; 15 min
    B. 30 min; 30 min
    C. 15 min; 30 min
    D. 30 min; 15 min
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-4]
  10. 10. Normally, the tanker will orbit in a __________ pattern at a speed of __________.

    A. Left hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
    B. Right hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
    C. Left hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight
    D. Right hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-4 (N)]
  11. 11. To help insure safe operation when range between aircraft is not known and the receiver has to descend through air refueling altitude, tankers will not initiate final turn to refueling track unless __________ rendezvous altitude.

    A. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at proper
    B. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at proper
    C. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet above
    D. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet below
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-4 (W)]
  12. 12. If the KC-10A receiver is more than __________ in trail with the tanker, the airspeed may be increased for closure. The normal speed schedule will be resumed at __________ in trail.

    A. 3 NM; 1 NM
    B. 1 NM; 1/2 NM
    C. 4 NM; 3 NM
    D. 2 NM; 1/2 NM
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-10 (N)]
  13. 13. Attempts to effect a contact during a loss of any air refueling lighting that results in less than desired illumination will be at the discretion of the __________.

    A. tanker mission commander
    B. boom operator
    C. receiver pilot
    D. flight engineer
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-3 (N), 8.4-5 (N)]
  14. 14. After a disconnect, remain stabilized in the contact position until the _____________.

    A. pilot director lights show a disconnect
    B. PM visually confirms that the disconnect annunciator is illuminated and the boom is clear
    C. flight engineer resets the UARSSI system
    D. boom operator directs a return to astern
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-4 (C)]
  15. 15. Normal backout from the contact position should be accomplished ______________to prevent adverse trim changes to both receiver and tanker.

    A. smoothly
    B. slowly
    C. rapidly
    D. both a and b
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-5 (N)]
  16. 16. When notified that a KC-10A boom flight control system failure has occurred, __________.

    A. initiate a breakaway immediately
    B. initiate a disconnect immediately
    C. do not initiate a disconnect unless directed by the boom operator
    D. select amplifier override and continue air refueling
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-5 (W)]
  17. 17. _______ Air Refueling will not be conducted while tobogganing except in case of __________.

    A. Drogue; emergency
    B. Tanker; AWACs mission requirements
    C. Drogue; FTU training
    D. WARP; FTU training
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-7 (W)]
  18. 18. During the RECEIVER PREPARATION FOR CONTACT checklist the transponder will normally be set to standby. If additional situational awareness of multitanker or multi-receiver formations is desired, the APX-119 transponder should be set to the following: __________.

    A. Master Switch "TA"
    B. ATC Mode "OF" (off)
    C. BCST Mode "OF" (off)
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-153]
  19. 19. During a breakaway, the receiver pilot should use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overrunning does occur, under no conditions should a turn, either right or left, be made until ___________ has been attained.

    A. a positive rate of climb
    B. positive separation
    C. a descent to the rendezvous altitude
    D. an effective breakaway
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-61 (W)]
  20. 20. If the KC-10 receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time, the receiver shall ___________ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker and has the tanker in visual contact.

    A. establish a positive rate of descent to 1000 feet below air refueling altitude
    B. immediately transition to instruments and level off
    C. immediately turn away from the track
    D. immediately extend full speed brakes
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-61 (W)]
  21. 21. Pressure boom refueling will not be attempted except ______________.

    A. during VMC conditions
    B. during daylight hours
    C. when needed to complete a checkride
    D. when an emergency fuel shortage exists aboard the receiver aircraft
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-63 (N)]
  22. 22. Per ATP 3.3.4.2, tankers will establish the applicable contact air refueling airspeed before the receiver reaches _____ NM. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than ______ KIAS, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.

    A. 1/2; 10
    B. 1/2; 5
    C. 1; 5
    D. 3; 10
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 [32]
  23. 23. It is the responsibility of _____ to ensure positive separation throughout refueling operations.

    A. tanker formation lead
    B. receiver formation lead
    C. tanker and receiver formation leads
    D. all formation members (both tanker and receiver)
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 [120]
  24. 24. When using autothrottles for air refueling, speed changes should be made slowly and deliberately (____ knot increments) to preclude rapid throttle movements.

    A. 8
    B. 5
    C. 3
    D. 1
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  25. 25. Particular attention should be given when using the heading select knob with autothrottles engaged. The close proximity to and similarity with the speed knob creates the potential for ____________.

    A. inadvertent speed changes
    B. inadvertent heading changes
    C. abrupt autopilot maneuvering
    D. autothrottle disconnect
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  26. 26. If the receiver fails to attain stabilized position, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, __________.

    A. the boom operator must advise the crew
    B. air refueling operations should be terminated
    C. breakaway procedures will be initiated
    D. disconnect the autopilot during closure and contact
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-3 (W), 8.4-3 (W)]
  27. 27. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will take prompt action in the event of __________.

    A. a rapid backout by receiver
    B. a receiver aircraft limit demo
    C. an inadvertent disconnect or boom failure
    D. an autopilot malfunction or breakaway
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  28. 28. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will keep __________.

    A. one hand on the throttles and the other hand on the control column
    B. one hand on the control column and the other hand available for immediate throttle operation
    C. one thumb on the control column disconnect switch and the other thumb on the throttle disconnect button
    D. both hands on the control column
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  29. 29. Except in an emergency, do not engage or disengage the autopilot while the receiver is ___________ as unscheduled attitude changes can occur.

    A. in the contact position
    B. inside the astern position
    C. returning to astern
    D. inside 1/2 NM
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  30. 30. If an overrunning receiver flies under the tanker, the tanker autopilot may sense low pressure as a climbing indication and ________________.

    A. slow down, increasing collision possibility
    B. initiate a rapid climb with resultant speed loss
    C. report erroneous altitudes through the Mode C
    D. initiate a descent into the lower aircraft
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-3 (W), 8.4-3 (W)]
  31. 31. Do not use ___________ modes of the autopilot during air refueling.

    A. auto throttle
    B. heading select
    C. INU TACAN update
    D. navigation
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-149 (W), 8.4-3 (W)]
  32. 32. If excessive fuel spillage occurs, initiate a disconnect. Discontinue refueling except in an emergency or __________.

    A. when dictated by operational requirements
    B. to avoid embarrassment
    C. under all circumstances
    D. unless it is a checkride
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-5 (W)]
  33. 33. If the centerline hose will not rewind, it should not be jettisoned __________ unless aircraft safety requires immediate action.

    A. above 28,000 ft
    B. over the water
    C. over a populated area
    D. over a rural area
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-175 (W)]
  34. 34. During C-130 refueling, do not raise or lower slats/flaps when the receiver is closer than __________ because of the resultant pitch change of the tanker.

    A. the astern position
    B. 1 NM
    C. 1/2 NM
    D. 3 NM
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2.(C) US SRD [8-46 (W)]
  35. 35. With two or more tankers/one receiver, during final turn to the AAR track, the tanker formation will move into echelon formation on the right of the tanker leader, __________.

    A. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    B. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    C. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    D. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 [116]
  36. 36. Special consideration should be accorded ___________ above idle as injury to personnel or damage to equipment could occur if they are in the blast pattern area.

    A. throttle settings
    B. number 1 and 3 engine throttle settings
    C. number 2 engine throttle settings
    D. reverse thrust throttle settings
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.1-10 (W)]
  37. 37. When cargo or passengers are carried, the environmental curtain shall be fully installed. This will ensure that the occupants have adequate protection from _____________.

    A. loose cargo loads
    B. cold from the cargo compartment
    C. heat from the cargo compartment
    D. smoke, fumes, and noise
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.1-64 (W)]
  38. 38. The APU should not be operated __________ because the fire agent cannot be discharged.

    A. when the battery is removed or disconnected
    B. below -40°C
    C. above 50°C
    D. if the aircraft is cold soaked
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.2-20 (C)]
  39. 39. Do not operate __________ during ground refueling or defueling operations.

    A. Radio only
    B. Radar only
    C. Radio or radar only
    D. Radar, Radio Altimeter, HF Radios, and IFF
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.3-19 (C)]
  40. 40. __________ shall be stationed at the Flight Engineers Fuel Control Panel for AC pumping unit defueling and at ground defueling units for all defueling operations.

    A. A qualified pilot
    B. Qualified personnel
    C. A fuel specialist
    D. A qualified engineer or unqualified engineer with direct instructor supervision
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.3-19 (C)]
  41. 41. When operating in manual boom latching mode, the __________ initiate all disconnects.

    A. tanker must
    B. receiver must
    C. either tanker or receiver may
    D. AWACs controller must
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.3-24 (C)]
  42. 42. If a circuit breaker trips, a cooling period of __________ seconds should be allowed before resetting. A tripped circuit breaker should never be reset ___________.

    A. 60; more than once
    B. 60; unless an emergency condition exists
    C. 90; more than once
    D. 90; unless an emergency condition exists
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  43. 43. If __________ trips, do not reset until maintenance personnel can ensure solenoid housing is intact and that the solenoid coil is not shorted to the solenoid case.

    A. manifold scavenge pump circuit breaker
    B. manifold scavenge pump pressure low light circuit breaker
    C. manifold scavenge valve circuit breaker
    D. manifold scavenge transfer pump circuit breaker
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  44. 44. If numerous circuit breakers trip for one or more sub-systems, the circuit breakers should __________.

    A. never be reset
    B. not be reset unless an emergency condition exists, until maintenance actions are complete
    C. not be reset more than once
    D. not be reset before a 90 seconds cooling period
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  45. 45. Circuit breakers __________ in the event a Kapton wire flashover occurs.

    A. may not open
    B. will open
    C. will be reset immediately
    D. will not be reset under any circumstance
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  46. 46. Do not use EMER PWR SW to restore L EMER AC BUS __________.

    A. under any circumstance
    B. if the ADG is deployed
    C. if R EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM D-21) trips
    D. if L EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM B-21) trips
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-30 (C), 2A-42 (C)]
  47. 47. Failure to monitor the throttle positions, with the autothrottles engaged and in any mode, may result in _______.

    A. disengagement
    B. inadvertent speed changes
    C. engine overspeed
    D. excessive fuel consumption
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-40 (C), 1.6-46 (C)]
  48. 48. When climbing in the __________ mode, the airspeed must be closely monitored. The autopilot will command the stabilizer trim and elevator to maintain this rate of climb and the engines may not produce sufficient thrust to maintain the airspeed, due to gross weight and high altitudes.

    A. IAS HOLD
    B. Control Wheel Steering
    C. Mach Hold
    D. Vertical Speed
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-40 (C), 4-87 (C)]
  49. 49. The maximum pitch attitude for the AT/SC system is _______ for takeoff and _______ for go-around.

    A. 15°; 22°
    B. 22°; 22°
    C. 22°; 15°
    D. there is no limit on the commanded pitch attitude
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-27 (N)]
  50. 50. With __________ engaged, activation of the Hydraulic System 3 Shutoff Valve will cause __________.

    A. Autopilot 1; Autopilot 1 pitch control to become inoperative
    B. Autopilot 2; Autopilot 2 pitch control to become inoperative
    C. Autothrottle 1; Autothrottle 1 control to become inoperative
    D. Autothrottle 2; Autothrottle 2 control to become inoperative
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-53 (W)]
  51. 51. Do not select GA mode when above __________ feet pressure altitude.

    A. 10,000
    B. 12,000
    C. 14,000
    D. 16,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-61 (C)]
  52. 52. After aircraft reaches ________, the thrust computer stops updating the N1 readout. The computer begins updating again when a new thrust mode is selected.

    A. 30 knots
    B. 80 knots
    C. 100 knots
    D. V1 speed
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-61 (N)]
  53. 53. When applying manual braking techniques, excess pedal pressure/deflection can result in __________.

    A. worn/blown tires
    B. skids
    C. center gear lower drag link failure
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.7-15 (C)]
  54. 54. If DOOR DISARM light remains on with slide arming lever in SLIDE ARMED position,__________.

    A. move door control switch from the neutral position
    B. open door manually
    C. call maintenance
    D. recycle door
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.8-4 (C)]
  55. 55. Structural damage may occur if the cargo door is operated in winds exceeding ______ knots.

    A. 40
    B. 30
    C. 20
    D. 10
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.8-15 (C)]
  56. 56. To avoid possible damage to the aircraft and/or ladder, raise ladder to the retracted position when________________.

    A. aircraft is to be moved
    B. ladder is not in use and wind velocities of 35 knots are anticipated
    C. aircraft is to be left unattended
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.8-22 (C)]
  57. 57. In AUTO mode, cabin altitude remains at departure airfield elevation until aircraft is __________, at which time cabin altitude changes as indicated in the Automatic Pressurization Schedule.

    A. 5000 feet MSL
    B. 5000 feet above airfield
    C. Pressure Height for Acceleration
    D. just after rotation
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.10-3 (N)]
  58. 58. Bunks will not be occupied __________.

    A. during takeoffs and landings
    B. by crew chiefs
    C. during air refueling operations
    D. when cruising above 35,000 feet
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.11-9 (W)]
  59. 59. If an oxygen system circuit malfunction cannot be corrected, _____________.

    A. dispatch from MOB will not be attempted
    B. only qualified crew will use affected seats
    C. affected seats in the IAU must be replaced
    D. personnel shall not occupy the affected seats during flight
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.11-14 (W), 4-19]
  60. 60. Do not transmit on HF radio when __________.

    A. the aircraft is on the ground and not properly grounded
    B. the APU is running
    C. thunderstorms are within 10 NM
    D. the aircraft is on the ground and personnel are working on the external skin surfaces or the boom
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.13-3 (W)]
  61. 61. Do not key the HF system when personnel are within __________ feet of the HF antenna.

    A. 50
    B. 100
    C. 150
    D. 200
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.13-3 (W)]
  62. 62. If the [navigation database] effective date is __________, the database is out of date.

    A. amber
    B. red
    C. white
    D. dashes
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-33]
  63. 63. To delete a DISCONTINUITY __________ before pressing the LSK adjacent to the prompt boxes above the DISCONTINUTY.

    A. Press the CLR DEL function key to show DELETE in the scratchpad
    B. Press the LSK for the next applicable waypoint (waypoint shows in the scratchpad)
    C. Roll inverted and Valsalva
    D. Either A or B
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-150]
  64. 64. When a GPS databased approach is contained in the active flight plan, a predictive RAIM check is performed _______.

    A. upon entering the FMS TERMINAL mode (31 NM to destination airport)
    B. upon crossing the Initial Approach Fix (IAF)
    C. when transitioning to the FMS APPROACH mode (2 NM from the Final Approach Fix (FAF))
    D. Both A and C
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-188]
  65. 65. The radar antenna may be damaged if the function switch is moved to __________ while the aircraft is in motion.

    A. WX
    B. TEST
    C. STBY
    D. OFF
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-202 (C)]
  66. 66. Do not select __________ unless personnel are clear of the antenna radiation area.

    A. OFF to STBY
    B. STBY to TEST
    C. TEST to STBY
    D. WX, MAP 1, MAP 2, or BCN
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-207 (W)]
  67. 67. The precipitation diffuses the radar signal and reduces the receiver's ability to detect the signal return. The amount of signal dissipation is directly proportional to the rate of rainfall. It is possible for __________.

    A. the KC-10 radar to compensate for signal diffusion and attenuation
    B. the radar to depict all weather formations regardless of precipitation
    C. long range scale to give the best resolution of weather echoes
    D. a storm cell to mask another cell, which could be larger and/or more intense
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-208 (C)]
  68. 68. All TCAS aural warnings are inhibited below _______ feet radio altitude on approach and up to _______ feet radio altitude on departure.

    A. 100; 500
    B. 200; 500
    C. 500; 1000
    D. 900; 1100
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-218 (N)]
  69. 69. The boom shall be maintained full of fuel when the departure, enroute or arrival flight path may place the aircraft __________ .

    A. within 10 NM of bad weather
    B. in the vicinity of lightning
    C. within 25 NM of bad weather
    D. in the vicinity of bad weather
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.15-8 (W)]
  70. 70. All intermittent system failure lights will __________.

    A. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 3 minutes
    B. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 5 minutes
    C. be treated the same as steady lights
    D. not be troubleshot
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-2 (C)]
  71. 71. During a LOSS OF ALL ENGINES/GENERATORS, if engine 1 or 3 does not restart within approximately ________ , immediate consideration should be given to restarting engine 2. Do not operate _________.

    A. 15 seconds; control surfaces
    B. 30 seconds; flaps/slats
    C. 45 seconds; flaps/slats
    D. 3 minutes; rudders
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-4 (W)]
  72. 72. With a loss of all generators and emergency power only, the battery cannot be relied upon for more than __________. Attempting an APU start will discharge the battery.

    A. 5 minute
    B. 15 minutes
    C. 30 minutes
    D. 45 minutes
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-7 (N)]
  73. 73. With a DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE __________.

    A. autothrottles may be used except for approach and landing with flaps less than 35°
    B. land at nearest suitable airfield
    C. minimize use of more than one hydraulic powered control at a time
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-25 (N)]
  74. 74. With DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 2 INOP, do not reduce speed to below VMCA until __________.

    A. landing is assured
    B. flaps are set for landing
    C. all gear are down and locked
    D. the flare is initiated
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-28 (W)]
  75. 75. A missed approach should not be attempted if __________ with DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 2 INOP.

    A. upper rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
    B. lower rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
    C. both rudders are operative but thrust is asymmetric
    D. both rudders are inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-28 (W)]
  76. 76. After alternate landing gear extension do not exceed __________ KIAS.

    A. 230
    B. 260
    C. 280
    D. 300
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-29 (C), 2-32 (C), 3-13]
  77. 77. For DUAL HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILURE SYS 1 & 3 INOP, if upper rudder is inop do not reduce speed to below __________ until landing is assured.

    A. VMCA (127 KIAS)
    B. VMCA (137 KIAS)
    C. VMCA (147 KIAS)
    D. VMCA (157 KIAS)
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-32 (W)]
  78. 78. During the period that all ENG PNEU SUPPLY Sels are off, the aircraft will depressurize at approximately __________.

    A. 500 FPM
    B. 1000 FPM
    C. 1500 FPM
    D. 2000 FPM
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-42 (N)]
  79. 79. If both fire agent bottles for engine 2 have been discharged, do not ____________.

    A. start APU
    B. restart number 2 engine
    C. attempt a go-around
    D. use associated air conditioning system
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-47 (C)]
  80. 80. During TWO ENGINE OPERATION, once the aircraft is configured for landing, __________ may not exist at high gross weights and extreme ambient conditions with an additional engine failure.

    A. go-around capability
    B. directional control
    C. glide path control
    D. course control
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-50 (W)]
  81. 81. During TWO ENGINE OPERATION __________.

    A. For 2-engine landing, use 35° flaps
    B. delay slat/flap and landing gear extension as long as practical
    C. do not use autopilot for go-around
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-50 (N)]
  82. 82. During SINGLE ENGINE OPERATION (UNLESS COMMITTED ON FINAL), if cabin pressure cannot be maintained, passenger oxygen masks should automatically deploy at approximately __________ feet cabin altitude; __________ minutes of oxygen available.

    A. 8,000; 11
    B. 14,000; 22
    C. 10,000; 33
    D. 12,000; 44
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-55 (W)]
  83. 83. Under which of the following conditions MAY a single engine missed approach be attempted?

    A. Airspeed below single engine approach speed
    B. Gear is extended
    C. Airspeed above single engine approach speed
    D. Less than 1,000 feet above airfield elevation
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-57 (W)]
  84. 84. During a CONTROLLABILITY CHECK, __________ to the point at which full control deflection is required about any axis.

    A. allow speed to decrease
    B. allow speed to increase
    C. never allow speed to decrease
    D. never allow speed to increase
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-64 (W)]
  85. 85. Under what condition should a controllability check in the planned landing configuration be considered?

    A. Damage has occurred to any portion of the airplane structure sufficient to change the airplane normal flight and control characteristics.
    B. The aircraft experiences in flight control malfunctions.
    C. There is an uncorrectable fuel imbalance.
    D. All of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-64]
  86. 86. In a ditching situation, cabin doors may not open for evacuation __________.

    A. only if the cabin is pressurized above 9.1 psi
    B. only if the cabin is pressurized above 8.6 psi
    C. only is the cabin is pressurized above 3.0 psi
    D. if cabin is pressurized
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-67 (W)]
  87. 87. Damage to the slats can result if wing anti-ice is operated on the ground for more than ______ seconds.

    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 30
    D. 45
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-19 (C)]
  88. 88. If volts and frequency indicate after a CSD disconnect button is pushed, __________.

    A. shut down the engine immediately
    B. continue engine operation with the generator on
    C. continue engine operation with the generator off
    D. reset the generator, then shut the engine down if volts and frequency still indicate
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-26 (N)]
  89. 89. Failure of the L EMER DC BUS or the R EMER DC BUS will cause the failure of the associated CDU, BSIU, EHSI, EADI and civil GPS. Navigation guidance can be restored to the functioning side by:

    A. Placing the EMER PWR SW to ON.
    B. Splitting the 1553 bus.
    C. selecting the respective autopilot or autopilot 2 if both autopilots were off when the system failed.
    D. depowering the failed component.
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-45 (N)]
  90. 90. If final flap selection is less than 35°, it is possible that the boom will contact the runway at ______ body angle, struts extended and _______ struts compressed.

    A. 13°; 11°
    B. 11°; 13°
    C. 10°; 12°
    D. 10°; 12°
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-54 (C)]
  91. 91. During SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON, spoilers deploy automatically upon touchdown with 35° flap and upon __________ if less flaps are used.

    A. on main wheel spinup
    B. on nosewheel strut compression
    C. selection of reverse thrust
    D. the ARM function will not work with 22°/EXT
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-79]
  92. 92. With a complete pitot blockage, airspeed will __________ in a climb and __________ in a descent provided static port is unblocked.

    A. INCREASE; INCREASE
    B. DECREASE; DECREASE
    C. INCREASE; DECREASE
    D. DECREASE; INCREASE
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-58 (N)]
  93. 93. If the static system is blocked, altimeter and VSI will show __________ regardless of the aircraft's pitch attitude and power settings.

    A. a climb
    B. a descent
    C. level flight
    D. off flags
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-59 (W)]
  94. 94. With the loss of all GPSs, the __________ navigation solutions provide more accurate navigation solutions than a INU ONLY navigation solution.

    A. MIL 1 or MIL2
    B. GPS 1 or GPS2
    C. CIV1 or CIV2
    D. INU1 or INU3
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-63 (N)]
  95. 95. If GPS1 and GPS2 both fail, and subsequently one GPS is restored, the ___________will use the first GPS restored.

    A. Pitot Static System
    B. FMS
    C. CDU
    D. INU
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-63 (N)]
  96. 96. During a NO FLAP/NO SLAT LANDING, with the alternate gear extension lever in the raised position, __________.

    A. nose gear steering to the right is limited to 25°
    B. nose gear steering to the left is limited to 25°
    C. the outboard ailerons will be unlocked
    D. Both A and C
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-72 (N)]
  97. 97. If the SELECT FLAP LIMIT OVRD light is on _______________.

    A. structural damage may occur if flap limit airspeeds are exceeded
    B. the flaps are still protected from structural damage due to overspeed
    C. extension and retraction of the flaps will now be inhibited
    D. it will take 20 seconds longer to extend or retract the flaps
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-74 (C)]
  98. 98. During takeoff, if takeoff is continued with the SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON, __________.

    A. delay flap retraction until reaching VSR
    B. If aircraft behavior is abnormal (unusual deck angles, buffer, asymmetry, etc.) slats should be retracted at VSR
    C. to prevent exceeding flap limit speeds, flaps may be retracted to 15 degrees prior to reaching approximately 220 kts
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-75]
  99. 99. With SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON during takeoff or go-around, do not move FLAP/SLAT handle until ___________.

    A. 500 feet above airfield elevation
    B. a safe altitude and airspeed has been attained
    C. 1000 feet above airfield elevation
    D. minimum acceleration height
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-75 (C)]
  100. 100. During a stabilizer inoperative landing be prepared to ___________.

    A. use maximum control column force for flare
    B. maintain thrust until nosewheel touchdown
    C. push forward abruptly to lower the nose
    D. use a higher than normal sink rate during flare
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-80 (C)]
  101. 101. During STALL WARNING OR AUTO SLAT MALFUNCTION with the SLAT RESET SW-LT AND SLAT DISAGREE LT ON, the __________ slats are extended. Do not exceed __________ or 0.75 Mach whichever is lower.

    A. inboard; 250 KIAS
    B. inboard; 270 KIAS
    C. inboard; 271 KIAS
    D. outboard; 270 KIAS
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-81 (C)]
  102. 102. During cruise if the slat reset switch light and slat disagree light are still on (after STALL WARNING OR AUTO SLAT MALFUNCTION and the slat reset switch-light was pushed) the __________.

    A. slats are retracted
    B. slats are in the takeoff range
    C. inboard slats are extended
    D. outboard slats are extended
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-81 (C)]
  103. 103. During FUEL DUMP, with AR PUMP OVRD selected, FWD TANK fuel will continue to dump __________ pounds.

    A. until it reaches 15,000
    B. below 15,000
    C. until it reaches 11,500
    D. until it reaches 5,000
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-89 (W)]
  104. 104. FUEL DUMP in response to a takeoff emergency should not be initiated prior to __________.

    A. slat retraction speed
    B. reviewing the FUEL DUMP checklist procedures
    C. reaching TWO ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT
    D. reaching THREE ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-89 (N)]
  105. 105. If the ABNORMAL BRAKE checklist is initiated for a HIGH ENERGY STOP (any stop initiated in excess of _______ knots), make AFTO 781A entry.

    A. 80
    B. 100
    C. 130
    D. 150
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-118 (N)]
  106. 106. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (CAUTION ZONE), if a 400°C temperature exists for more than _____ minutes, wheel fuse plugs may activate and deflate the tire(s).

    A. 60
    B. 30
    C. 10
    D. 5
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-119 (W)]
  107. 107. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (DANGER ZONE), which of the following is NOT true?

    A. Immediately move aircraft to clear active runway or ramp
    B. Do not set parking brake
    C. Fire is possible within 30 minutes
    D. After 5 minutes, fog or foam may be used to reduce cooling time
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-119 (W)]
  108. 108. In a GEAR HANDLE WILL NOT MOVE TO DOWN POSITION situation, after the main gear alternate gear extension lever is raised and latched, the main gear alternate extension lever must be __________.

    A. stowed to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
    B. left in the raised position to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
    C. stowed after the alternate gear ext handle-center gear is pulled
    D. stowed after the gear lights indicate 4 green
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-123 (C)]
  109. 109. In a GEAR UNSAFE LT(S) ON WITH GEAR HANDLE UP (CONFIRMED ON BOTH PANELS) situation, if gear does not appear normal (for example, if main gear retraction is blocked by gear door) or if condition of gear cannot be determined, __________.

    A. do not attempt additional gear retraction
    B. one attempt to retract the gear can be made
    C. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 230 KIAS
    D. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 185 KIAS
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-129 (C)]
  110. 110. Under operation with single pneumatic system, do not operate more than one air conditioning pack with power set at or above __________.

    A. MCR
    B. MCT
    C. CL
    D. GA
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-137 (C)]
  111. 111. During an ABNORMAL START, do not select alternate ignition before completion of __________ second motoring period.

    A. 15
    B. 30
    C. 45
    D. 60
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-142 (C)]
  112. 112. During an ABNORMAL START, if fuel flow was above __________ PPH, a second attempt may result in a hot start.

    A. 400
    B. 500
    C. 600
    D. 700
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-142 (C)]
  113. 113. To prevent transcowl clevis damage, ________when failure to stow is noted during ground operations.

    A. manually stow the thrust reverser
    B. immediately shut down the respective engine
    C. do not attempt to stow a thrust reverser
    D. operate the engine with minimum thrust
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-152 (C)]
  114. 114. Engine anti-ice will be turned on immediately after engine start when outside air temperature is __________ and __________.

    A. at 8°C or less; moisture is visible
    B. at 8°C or less; the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3°C or less
    C. below 6°C; visible moisture in any form is present or the temperature dewpoint spread is 6°C or less
    D. below 6°C; visible moisture in any form is present or the temperature dewpoint spread is 3°C or less
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-3]
  115. 115. Windshield anti-ice selectors should be in ______________.

    A. HIGH only for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
    B. NORM for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
    C. off when icing conditions are imminent
    D. auto when icing conditions are imminent
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-3]
  116. 116. Maximum slat operating speed, landing setting, is ______ KIAS or ______ Mach.

    A. 221; 0.55
    B. 221; 0.51
    C. 250; 0.54
    D. 270; 0.55
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-13]
  117. 117. The __________ must be operational for dispatch.

    A. No. 1 Auxiliary Pump Switch
    B. No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switch
    C. No. 1 and No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switches
    D. No. 3 Auxiliary Pump Switch
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-9]
  118. 118. Do not attempt [engine] starter re-engagement __________% N2 rpm. Starter damage may occur.

    A. above 20
    B. below 20
    C. above 30
    D. below 30
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10 (C)]
  119. 119. The [engine] starter motor may be operated continuously for as long as __________.

    A. 1 minute
    B. 3 minutes
    C. 5 minutes
    D. 10 minutes
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-9]
  120. 120. Normally [engine starter] re-engagement should be made with N2 rpm below 20%. Under emergency conditions such as engine fire indication, reengagement may be made with N2 rpm as high as __________.

    A. 25%
    B. 30%
    C. 35%
    D. 40%
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  121. 121. During engine start, the normal EGT limit is __________ °C.

    A. 700
    B. 750
    C. 800
    D. 900
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  122. 122. During engine start, the maximum EGT limit is __________ °C.

    A. 900
    B. 910
    C. 945
    D. 960
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  123. 123. During engine start, EGT in excess of __________ °C requires a 781 entry.

    A. 750
    B. 800
    C. 900
    D. 910
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  124. 124. During engine start, EGT peaks between 750°C and 900°C are limited to __________ seconds.

    A. 10
    B. 20
    C. 30
    D. 40
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  125. 125. One start is allowed in the __________ range and the intended flight may be
    completed before maintenance action.

    A. 945°C to 960°C
    B. 910°C to 945°C
    C. 900°C to 910°C
    D. 800°C to 900°C
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  126. 126. Following two consecutive 5 minute engine starting cycles, a ________ cooling period is required between additional 5 minute cycles.

    A. 30 second
    B. 5 minute
    C. 10 minute
    D. 20 minute
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-9]
  127. 127. The limiting tailwind component is __________ knots.

    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 21
    D. 31
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  128. 128. Autoslat extension maximum speed is ______ KIAS or _______ M whichever is lower.

    A. 170; 0.51
    B. 221; 0.51
    C. 270; 0.55
    D. 270; 0.70
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  129. 129. Maximum N1 for takeoff, climb, cruise and MCT is ________.

    A. 100%
    B. 109.5%
    C. 118.5%
    D. 125%
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11]
  130. 130. Max EGT during takeoff is _______ °C for 2 minutes and _______ °C for 5 minutes.

    A. 800; 750
    B. 900; 800
    C. 945; 910
    D. 960; 945
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11]
  131. 131. During takeoff, an EGT reading between 946°C and 960°C is limited to __________ minutes.

    A. 2
    B. 5
    C. 7
    D. 10
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11]
  132. 132. The normal takeoff thrust duration of 5 minutes may be extended to _____ minutes for engine-out contingency.

    A. 7
    B. 10
    C. 15
    D. 20
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11]
  133. 133. The normal engine oil consumption is __________ quarts per hour.

    A. 2.0
    B. 1.0
    C. 0.55
    D. 0.35
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11]
  134. 134. The maximum engine oil consumption is __________ quarts per hour.

    A. 2.0
    B. 1.0
    C. 0.55
    D. 0.35
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11]
  135. 135. For [engine] Out Of Limit Operations, __________ of any operations beyond the stated limits shall be recorded in the AFTO Form 781.

    A. EGT and N1
    B. EGT, N1, and fuel flow
    C. EGT and N2
    D. duration and extent
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11(N)]
  136. 136. The maximum unrestricted landing weight (MLW) of the KC-10A is __________ pounds.

    A. 400,000
    B. 411,000
    C. 436,000
    D. 556,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14]
  137. 137. Planned overweight landings are not recommended. Overweight landings may be accomplished when operational necessity dictates or in the case of emergency. Under these conditions, use _________ .

    A. 0° flaps
    B. 50° flaps
    C. a maximum of 35° flaps
    D. a maximum of 22° flaps
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (C)]
  138. 138. If the autoslats cannot be retracted, continued flight is allowed at speeds up to _______ KIAS or ________ M whichever is lower.

    A. 221; 0.51
    B. 250; 0.51
    C. 270; 0.55
    D. 270; 0.75
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  139. 139. At the minimum air refueling speed under normal conditions, a bank angle of over ____ ° can result in moderate buffet.

    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 25
    D. 33
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (N)]
  140. 140. During landings at weights over MLW [maximum unrestricted landing weight] the R/D at touchdown must not exceed _________ fpm and a flap overspeed/overweight as well as an aircraft overweight landing inspection must be performed (AFTO Form 781).

    A. 360
    B. 600
    C. 630
    D. 1,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (C)]
  141. 141. Maximum operating speed during fuel dump is ______ KIAS below 28,000 ft or ______ M above 28,000 ft.

    A. 325; 0.55
    B. 350; 0.88
    C. 325; 0.82
    D. 330; 0.82
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-13]
  142. 142. Acceptable starting of the APU may be accomplished in the standby control mode up to __________ feet.

    A. 10,000
    B. 20,000
    C. 25,000
    D. 32,500
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  143. 143. APU starting in the normal control mode is unrestricted up to __________ feet.

    A. 10,000
    B. 20,000
    C. 25,000
    D. 32,500
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  144. 144. The APU starter duty cycle should not exceed 1 minute on, followed by __________ off for cooling.

    A. 1 minute
    B. 3 minutes
    C. 5 minutes
    D. 10 minutes
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  145. 145. The maximum landing weight with the anti-skid inoperative is __________ pounds.

    A. 556,000
    B. 436,000
    C. 400,000
    D. 411,000
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  146. 146. The maximum landing weight with the center gear retracted is __________ pounds.

    A. 400,000
    B. 411,000
    C. 436,000
    D. 556,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  147. 147. Maximum ramp/taxi weight, normal operations is ________ pounds.

    A. 500,000
    B. 503,000
    C. 590,000
    D. 593,000
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  148. 148. Maximum start of takeoff for normal operation and maximum inflight gross weight is ________ pounds.

    A. 593,000
    B. 590,000
    C. 588,000
    D. 556,000
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 (W); 3-17]
  149. 149. Normal operation, max zero fuel weight is _________ pounds.

    A. 414,000
    B. 436,000
    C. 439,000
    D. 503,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  150. 150. Which of the following is NOT true concerning APU operation?

    A. The APU is not to be used for wing anti-ice.
    B. The APU can be used for engine anti-ice.
    C. The APU will not be used during any aerial refueling.
    D. The APU will not be used with a known fuel leak in the boom pivot area.
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-17]
  151. 151. With the increased accommodation unit installed, cabin crewmembers must be provided with demand crew oxygen masks adaptable to the demand regulators on the __________.

    A. wine cellar bulkhead
    B. lavatory ceiling
    C. passenger oxygen kits
    D. portable oxygen units
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-19]
  152. 152. Minimum airspeed for centerline hose/drogue refueling from sea level to 30,000 ft MSL is:

    A. 185 KIAS
    B. 200 KIAS
    C. 230 KIAS
    D. 255 KIAS
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-20]
  153. 153. The wing pod hoses may be extended at speeds above __________ KIAS and may be retracted at a maximum of __________ KIAS.

    A. 200; 325
    B. 200; 275
    C. 230; 280
    D. 230; 300
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-20]
  154. 154. The wing air refueling pod fuel system, including the hose, must be kept full of fuel to decrease the risk of lightning strike damage and for __________ .

    A. fuel temperature control
    B. proper fuel pump lubrication
    C. immediate availability of fuel for offload
    D. providing a positive inlet fuel pressure for the pod valves
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-20 (W)]
  155. 155. The Universal Air Refueling Receptacle Slipway Installation (UARRSI) hydraulic shutoff valve must remain __________ for all flight operations except when required for refueling operations.

    A. armed
    B. locked
    C. opened
    D. closed
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-21]
  156. 156. Do not reset any tripped _________ circuit breakers.

    A. lavatory
    B. fuel pump
    C. flight instrument
    D. mode 4
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-22 (C)]
  157. 157. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is ____________ pounds for gross weights less than 556,000 pounds.

    A. 2000
    B. 3000
    C. 4000
    D. 5000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-65 (W)]
  158. 158. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is ____________ pounds for gross weights of 556,000 pounds or more.

    A. 5000
    B. 4000
    C. 3000
    D. 2000
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-65 (W)]
  159. 159. When aircraft gross weight exceeds ______ pounds or the sum of the zero fuel weight and fuel in the body tanks exceeds ______ pounds, the main tanks must be maintained full for structural reasons.

    A. 556,000; 414,000
    B. 414,000; 400,000
    C. 411,000; 400,000
    D. 556,000; 436,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-23 (C)]
  160. 160. The MAIN tanks 1, 2 and 3 must be maintained full if the gross weight exceeds ____ pounds.

    A. 436,000
    B. 546,000
    C. 556,000
    D. 565,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-23]
  161. 161. The MAIN tanks 1, 2 and 3 must be maintained full when the sum of zero fuel weight and weight of fuel in body tanks exceeds ______ pounds.

    A. 414,000
    B. 400,000
    C. 391,000
    D. 380,000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-23]
  162. 162. Movement and use of reverse thrust are __________.

    A. allowed for combat descents only
    B. used to back up the aircraft
    C. prohibited in flight
    D. used at pilot discretion
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28 (W)]
  163. 163. The __________ function of the takeoff warning system must be operative for takeoff.

    A. parking brake
    B. stabilizer
    C. flap
    D. slat
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  164. 164. In the yaw damper system, any __________ channels must be operating prior to the start of takeoff.

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  165. 165. Use of the elevator [Load Feel] switch is limited to _______ position except for an abnormal condition.

    A. AUTO
    B. MANUAL
    C. OVERRIDE
    D. DISENGAGED
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  166. 166. The speedbrakes are used only in the fully __________ .

    A. extended flap configuration with slats extended
    B. extended flap configuration with slats retracted
    C. retracted flap configuration and only with slats retracted
    D. retracted flap configuration, with or without slats extended
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  167. 167. Do not extend ground spoilers __________.

    A. until nosewheel is off the ground
    B. during flight
    C. unless stopping distance is critical
    D. if reverse thrust is used
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  168. 168. The __________ must be disengaged when operating on emergency power.

    A. No. 1 autopilot pitch trim function
    B. No. 2 autopilot pitch trim function
    C. No. 1 and No. 2 autopilots pitch trim functions
    D. autopilot
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  169. 169. The autopilot must be disengaged and the autopilot pitch trim (APT) disabled when an AP OUT OF TRIM light is illuminated continuously in excess of __________ seconds after the aircraft is stabilized and tracking the glideslope.

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  170. 170. Do not automatically capture glideslope above _______ during autopilot ILS coupled approaches.

    A. 2500 feet AGL
    B. 2500 feet MSL
    C. 250 knots
    D. 220 knots
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  171. 171. Do not use autopilot go-around with __________.

    A. an engine failure
    B. a generator failure
    C. less than G/A power
    D. autothrottles disconnected
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  172. 172. When executing takeoffs with derated thrust settings and using speeds limited by VMCG for maximum thrust, the flight director may command ______________.

    A. too high a pitch setting
    B. too low a pitch setting
    C. incorrect airspeed/pitch attitude if an engine failure occurs and the remaining enginesthrust is increased
    D. adequate airspeed/pitch attitude if an engine failure occurs and the remaining enginesthrust is increased
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-28]
  173. 173. Instrument approaches using FMS guidance must be accomplished in the FMS approach mode and GPS RAIM must be available __________.

    A. at the IAF
    B. from the IAF to the MAP
    C. for five minutes
    D. at the final approach fix
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-29]
  174. 174. Under which of the following conditions should the cockpit door be latched open during takeoffs and landings, since cockpit windows may become the primary exits?

    A. If no operable slide raft installed on the aircraft
    B. If only one slide raft is operable
    C. If only two slide rafts are operable
    D. If only three slide rafts are operable
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30 (W)]
  175. 175. Ensure autothrottles are disconnected __________ during touch and go landings.

    A. after touchdown
    B. on final approach
    C. prior to touchdown
    D. after takeoff
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  176. 176. Each door arming handle for the emergency evacuation system must be in the ________ position prior to removing the airstairs/ramp, and remain in position until arrival at the unloading ramp and stand or ramp is in position.

    A. SLIDE ARMED
    B. SLIDE DISARMED
    C. DOOR ARMED
    D. EMERGENCY OVERRIDE
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  177. 177. With only one operable [slide] raft, a one time flight may be made to a repair facility provided this flight is not an extended over water flight. The operable raft must be installed in __________ and total flight/ground crew will be __________ or less.

    A. door 1R; 12
    B. a forward door; 12
    C. door 1L; 16
    D. a forward door; 25
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  178. 178. A minimum of __________ operable slide rafts are required for all KC-10 missions.

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-30]
  179. 179. Ensure that the center accessory compartment has been inspected for fuel leaks _________.

    A. prior to the initial application of electrical power and prior to fuel servicing
    B. prior to the initial application of electrical power and after fuel servicing
    C. after the initial application of electrical power and prior to fuel servicing
    D. after the initial application of electrical power and after fuel servicing
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-5 (W)]
  180. 180. After an unsuccessful [APU] start, do not attempt another start until __________ .

    A. APU shutdown cycle is complete
    B. APU shutdown cycle is complete and APU DOOR OPEN light goes off
    C. APU shutdown cycle is complete but prior to the APU DOOR OPEN light going off
    D. a 5 minutes cooling off period
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-17 (C)]
  181. 181. With the [oxygen] regulator in the OFF position, the mask __________. Ensure regulator is in the 100% and ON position at all times during flight when position is occupied.

    A. will not allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe
    B. may allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe
    C. will not allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe unless the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet
    D. may allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe provided to cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-57 (W)]
  182. 182. BEFORE START: If all pneumatic PRESS gages are less than 25 PSI with the start valve closed, rotate all ENG PNEU SUPPLY selectors to OFF and observe pneumatic PRESS gages indicate normal pressure. If pneumatic PRESS gages continue to indicate less than 25 PSI and operational conditions necessitate the use of lower pneumatic pressure, a start may be made as low as ______.

    A. 10 PSI
    B. 15 PSI
    C. 20 PSI
    D. 22 PSI
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-60 (N)]
  183. 183. During scramble operations, prior to starting the _______, the crew will ensure that engine start will not cause a hazard to responding crewmembers.

    A. No. 1 engine
    B. No. 2 engine
    C. No. 3 engine
    D. wing engines
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-61 (W)]
  184. 184. In a scramble situation, when responding, crewmembers must approach the entry ladder from the nose of the aircraft and avoid the engine intake danger area (______________).

    A. 5 foot radius
    B. 10 foot radius
    C. 15 foot radius
    D. 20 foot radius
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-61 (W)]
  185. 185. The Takeoff Warning System does not provide notification of flaps being set to _________ during takeoff.

    A. zero
    B. 35° to 40°
    C. 41° to 45°
    D. 46° to 50°
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-67 (W)]
  186. 186. If there are any changes to takeoff procedures and/or clearances, __________ should acknowledge.

    A. the PM and FE
    B. the PM and BO
    C. the PM
    D. all crewmembers
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-67 (N)]
  187. 187. Always comply with a TCAS RA unless __________.

    A. the pilot considers it unsafe to do so or has better information about the source of the RA and can maintain safe separation
    B. in IMC conditions
    C. in the terminal area
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-71 (W)]
  188. 188. If takeoff warning horn sounds while advancing throttles [for takeoff], ___________.

    A. check that flaps are symmetrical
    B. disarm spoilers and continue takeoff
    C. discontinue takeoff
    D. disconnect the autothrottles and set takeoff thrust manually
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-73 (C)]
  189. 189. If the vertical speed selector and speed select knob are used to command climb rate and IAS, it is possible to ___________.

    A. overspeed the engines
    B. overtemp the engines
    C. exceed the Mach limit
    D. command a climb rate in excess of aircraft capability
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-78 (W)]
  190. 190. Engaging autothrottle(s) immediately after takeoff while thrust computer is in _______ can result in engine overboost.

    A. TO
    B. GA
    C. CL
    D. MCT
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-79 (C)]
  191. 191. As you approach V1 the decision to abort should be based upon _______________.

    A. the pilot not flying
    B. an increased level of criticality
    C. the best judgment of the pilot flying
    D. taking off in the remaining runway available
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-80 (N)]
  192. 192. To reduce liability of loss of a second engine (TRT or Reduced Thrust takeoff), do not advance power beyond Takeoff Rated Thrust __________.

    A. under any circumstance
    B. unless needed to maintain flight
    C. unless the aircraft is at or above the acceleration height
    D. unless the aircraft is below the acceleration height
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-82 (W)]
  193. 193. Takeoff performance (TRT or Reduced Thrust) is based on the loss of a wing engine after V1. During a Reduced Thrust takeoff, power on the remaining engines may be advanced to Go-Around Thrust, if necessary, only after reaching ________ KIAS worst case wet/icy VMCG/VRMIN).

    A. 118
    B. 128
    C. 125
    D. 135
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-82 (W)]
  194. 194. PF will announce to the crew whenever the AP/ATS is disengaged for any reason. This will be acknowledged by the __________.

    A. PM/FE
    B. PM/BO
    C. FE/BO
    D. all crewmembers in the cockpit
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-86 (C)]
  195. 195. If takeoff power is not set by 80 knots, __________.

    A. charted takeoff performance may not be achieved
    B. advance throttles to go around power
    C. advance throttles to the stops
    D. both A and B
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-75 (W)]
  196. 196. When using the FMS for navigation, __________.

    A. crosscheck information with traditional ground-based NAVAIDS in the terminal area when available
    B. FMS navigation may be used as the sole-source of navigation information for all arrival, approach and departure procedures extracted from the aircraft database
    C. procedures must be flown as extracted, with no additions, changes or deletions from the aircrew
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-85 (N)]
  197. 197. When climbing with ___________, the engines may overboost if the throttles are not adjusted for lapse rate temperature deviation.

    A. autothrottles on
    B. autothrottles off
    C. autopilots on
    D. autopilots off
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-86 (C)]
  198. 198. The autopilot will not be used during high rates of climb (more than _____ feet per minute) or high rates of descent (more than _____ feet per minute).

    A. 8,000; 10,000
    B. 7,000; 9,000
    C. 4,000; 8,000
    D. 3,000; 5,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-91 (C)]
  199. 199. An autopilot lever engaged in ________ will not drop to OFF if the respective hydraulic System fails (climb, cruise, descent).

    A. CMD
    B. MAN
    C. TURB
    D. SPD
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-91 (C)]
  200. 200. When immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, GPWS warning requires __________.

    A. verifying aircraft altitude on radar altimeter
    B. verifying validity of the warning
    C. identifying aircraft configuration
    D. prompt and decisive action
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-94 (W)]
  201. 201. Regarding GPWS activation when immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, _____________ short duration warnings.

    A. query ATC about
    B. do not ignore
    C. examine the low charts during
    D. attempt to verify the validity of
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-94 (W)]
  202. 202. If GPWS activation is caused when another aircraft flies directly under the KC-10 during air refueling or formation flight, the crew must ____________.

    A. take quick and decisive action
    B. perform an immediate and aggressive escape maneuver
    C. use all available resources, including radios and radio altimeter, to ascertain the situation and take appropriate action
    D. climb 1,000 ft to the top of the block
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-94 (W)]
  203. 203. After one pilot states "I am on the FMS," ______________ by the other pilot is required.

    A. nothing
    B. acknowledgement
    C. "You have it"
    D. "Roger"
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[5-4 (W)]
  204. 204. Before executing the FMS Flight Plan (FPLN), Pilot/FE will confirm/verify with the __________ prior to pressing the EXEC function key on the CDU.

    A. flight plan
    B. boom operator
    C. other pilot
    D. All of the above
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[5-4 (N)]
  205. 205. While flying an approach, __________.

    A. consider executing a go around/missed approach any time an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated
    B. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
    C. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear caution is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
    D. both A and B
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-97 (W), 7-26 (W)]
  206. 206. Normally, do not exceed __________ fpm descent when below 2000 feet AGL.

    A. 1000
    B. 1500
    C. 2000
    D. 2500
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-97 (N)]
  207. 207. Below __________, the aircraft should be stabilized on the approach in landing configuration.

    A. 500 feet HAT
    B. 500 feet MSL
    C. 1000 feet HAT
    D. 1000 feet AGL
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-98 (W)]
  208. 208. Missed approach is not recommended if fuel in any main tank is ______ pounds or less.

    A. 1500
    B. 2000
    C. 2500
    D. 3000
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-102 (W)]
  209. 209. Do not select GA on the thrust computer indicator until __________ feet pressure altitude.

    A. above 14,000
    B. below 14,000
    C. above 18,000
    D. below 18,000
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-102 (C)]
  210. 210. Initiate a missed approach/go around if the aircraft is not stabilized on the approach, in final landing configuration, by __________.

    A. 500 feet HAT
    B. MDA
    C. 1000 feet MSL
    D. DA
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-105 (W)]
  211. 211. Do not land prior to an approach end cable that has been reported as ________. Do not land on any cable. Damage to aircraft or cable can occur.

    A. raised
    B. secured
    C. under repair
    D. slack or loose
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-105 (C)]
  212. 212. If landing approach is made in icing conditions or landing is made with snow or slush on runway, move FLAP/SLAT handle to __________.

    A. 50°/EXT
    B. 35°/EXT
    C. 22°/EXT
    D. 0°/EXT
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-109 (C)]
  213. 213. During a touch and go landing, when the throttles are advanced the takeoff warning horn may sound momentarily, __________.

    A. the pilot in command will call for an abort
    B. the pilot in command should consider aborting
    C. the pilot in command should confirm that everything is correctly positioned and advise the crew
    D. the pilot not fly should reset the flaps to 15°/EXT and the flight engineer should recycle the spoiler handle to 2/3 then back to RET
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-121 (N)]
  214. 214. In an upset situation, excessive use of __________ may aggravate an upset situation or may result in loss of control and/or high structural loads.

    A. pitch trim
    B. rudder
    C. aileron trim
    D. both A and B
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1 [6-5 (W)]
  215. 215. If sustained slat oscillation cannot be eliminated __________.

    A. accelerate to an airspeed that permits slats to be retracted
    B. continued operation is permitted for mission accomplishment
    C. no AFTO FORM 781 write-up is required
    D. land at the nearest suitable airfield
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[6-10 (C)]
  216. 216. When operating in continuous icing conditions, takeoff must be made as soon as possible after the application of deicing/anti-icing fluid. Regardless of the type of fluid used, a visual inspection must be made immediately prior to takeoff (within 5 minutes). This inspection should be __________.

    A. made by tower
    B. annotated in the aircraft forms
    C. an external inspection performed by qualified personnel
    D. made using 1L or 1R doors
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-4 (W)]
  217. 217. Ice, snow, or frost, must be removed from the __________ prior to takeoff, except as otherwise authorized by TO 1C-10(K)A-1, section VII.

    A. fuselage and wings only
    B. fuselage, wings and flight controls only
    C. fuselage, wings, flight controls and tail surfaces only
    D. fuselage, wings, flight controls, tail surfaces, and the refueling boom
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-5 (W)]
  218. 218. Any accumulation of snow, slush, or ice in the cavity areas forward of flight control surfaces, or on the wing leading edge behind the slat structures, __________.

    A. it creates no significant hazard
    B. it must be removed prior to takeoff
    C. it should be removed if in contact with the control linkage
    D. it must be removed prior to powering up hydraulic systems
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-5 (C)]
  219. 219. Extreme cold (below -45°F for 6 hours or more) or light snow, ice, or frost deposits may compromise certain aspects of the aircraft's _____________ and safety equipment.

    A. fire detection
    B. communications
    C. emergency escape
    D. temperature control
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-6 (W)]
  220. 220. In cold weather, make sure all instruments have warmed up ___________.

    A. sufficiently to ensure normal operations
    B. for 3 minutes prior to takeoff
    C. prior to starting the engines
    D. prior to initiating taxi
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-8 (W)]
  221. 221. CG for taxi or takeoff on contaminated runways should be __________.

    A. 23% MAC or more
    B. 23% MAC or less
    C. 32% MAC or more
    D. 32% MAC or less
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-9 (N), 7-11 (N)]
  222. 222. During takeoffs on a slippery runway, __________.

    A. apply some nose down elevator to improve the steering characteristics of the nose gear
    B. do not use differential thrust
    C. maintain heading using small rudder pedal steering inputs
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-11 (C)]
  223. 223. Nose gear steering of ____ or more may cause the nose gear to slip on the icy (wet) runway.

    A. 3°
    B. 5°
    C. 10°
    D. 11°
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-11 (C)]
  224. 224. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over __________ inch of wet snow, slush and/or water on the runway.

    A. 1/4
    B. 1/2
    C. 1
    D. 4
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-11 (W)]
  225. 225. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over _________ inch(es) of dry snow on the runway.

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-11 (W)]
  226. 226. If anti-icing is inoperative, climb or descend to an altitude where the TAT is warmer than +6°C or colder than _______ °C. If possible, avoid clouds where the TAT is between 0° and -20°C. Fly above _________ KTAS.

    A. -10; 450
    B. -15; 400
    C. -20; 400
    D. -32; 450
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-12 (C)]
  227. 227. After encountering conditions favorable to induction icing for an extended period of time, __________.

    A. accomplish ice shedding procedures
    B. advance throttles slowly to MCT then back to cruise setting
    C. make an AFTO 781 entry
    D. recycle engine anti-ice switches to ensure proper operation
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-12]
  228. 228. If the approach was made through icing conditions or if the runway was covered by slush or snow, retract flaps to __________ during taxi in.

    A. 0°
    B. 15°
    C. 22°
    D. 25°
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-14]
  229. 229. In heavy rain the PF should remain on instruments ______________.

    A. unless visual contact is made with the airfield
    B. unless the rain repellent is working
    C. until the other pilot sees the runway
    D. until reaching minimums
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-15 (W)]
  230. 230. If encountering severe turbulence, target airspeed is within the range of __________.

    A. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85 Mach, whichever is lower
    B. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85 Mach, whichever is higher
    C. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80 Mach, whichever is lower
    D. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80 Mach, whichever is higher
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-20]
  231. 231. When windshear conditions exist or are forecasted, __________ .

    A. takeoff will not be attempted
    B. takeoff should not be attempted
    C. apply Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear procedures
    D. do not apply Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear procedures
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-23 (W)]
  232. 232. Takeoff will not be attempted when __________.

    A. Severe loss shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL or windshear conditions are associated with convective activity
    B. Severe gain shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL
    C. Winds exceed 50 knots
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-23 (W)]
  233. 233. During the Maximum Performance Maneuver, increase pitch ___________.

    A. at 3 degrees per second to 21 degrees
    B. immediately to the stick shaker
    C. as required to control vertical speed and altitude
    D. at 3 degrees per second to 15 degrees
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-23 (N)]
  234. 234. FMS wind information may be erroneous below a TAS of _________.

    A. 120 knots
    B. 140 IAS
    C. 130 knots
    D. 107 knots
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-24 (N)]
  235. 235. In windshear conditions, ____________ or impact with the ground will occur.

    A. increase pitch until encountering buffet onset
    B. disregard GPWS warning activation
    C. do not exceed go-around power
    D. disregard the flight director command bars
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-24 (W)]
  236. 236. During an approach with wind shear conditions suspected, if an IAS speed margin in excess of VAPP +______ knots is required to maintain reference groundspeed serious consideration should be given to NOT attempting the approach or discontinuing the approach once initiated. If this margin is still required below _______ feet, discontinue the approach.

    A. 10; 200
    B. 20; 200
    C. 20; 500
    D. 10; 500
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[7-26 (W)]
  237. 237. To compute minimum air refueling speed, add __________ knots without wing air refueling pods or __________ knots with wing air refueling pods installed to the _________ speed.

    A. 10; 20; stick shaker
    B. 5; 10; stick shaker
    C. 10; 20; 1.2G buffet
    D. 5; 10; 1.2G buffet
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[1-14]
  238. 238. Landings or unplanned go-arounds are allowed at outside temperatures up to a maximum of __________.

    A. 40°C
    B. 45°C
    C. 50°C
    D. 55°C
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[2-3 (N)]
  239. 239. Takeoff thrust set between 40 and 80 knots may not be used higher than __________ feet pressure height above the airfield pressure altitude.

    A. 1000
    B. 2000
    C. 3000
    D. 4000
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[2-5 (C)]
  240. 240. The all engine climb gradient data ___________ to determine obstacle clearance capabilities in lieu of the engine out gradient data.

    A. may be used
    B. will be used
    C. will not be used
    D. must be used
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-6 (W)]
  241. 241. Takeoff data [in TO 1C-10(K)A-1-1] is presented for pressure altitudes from ________ feet.

    A. SL to 8000
    B. SL to 14,000
    C. -1,000 to 8000
    D. -1,000 to 14,000
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-8 (W)]
  242. 242. The environmental envelope of the airplane extends from __________.

    A. -54°C to 50°C
    B. -54°C to 40°C
    C. -54°C to 50°C, not to exceed Standard Day +40°C
    D. -54°C to 40°C, not to exceed Standard Day +50°C
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-8 (W)]
  243. 243. If the crosswind component exceeds __________ knots on a dry runway, takeoff will not be attempted.

    A. 31
    B. 21
    C. 11
    D. 45
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-9 (W)]
  244. 244. If the wind direction is greater than __________ from the runway heading, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

    A. 10°
    B. 23°
    C. 31°
    D. 45°
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-9 (C)]
  245. 245. When the crosswind component exceeds ________ knots, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

    A. 23
    B. 31
    C. 45
    D. 10
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-9 (C)]
  246. 246. The takeoff profile for obstacle clearance and climb gradient is based on maintaining the computed climb speed. Therefore, the __________ is the primary instrument for takeoff guidance.

    A. vertical speed indicator
    B. airspeed indicator
    C. flight director
    D. horizontal Situation Indicator
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-12 (C)]
  247. 247. The climbout flightpath is calculated assuming gear retraction is initiated __________ seconds after liftoff and completed 10.5 seconds later.

    A. two
    B. three
    C. four
    D. five
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-11]
  248. 248. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if RCR value is __________.

    A. 10 or below
    B. less than 10
    C. 14 or below
    D. less than 14
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-15 (W)]
  249. 249. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if:

    A. RSC is used for TOLD computations
    B. Tailwinds are used for mission accomplishment
    C. The anti-skid braking system or one main gear wheel brake is inoperative
    D. Both A and C
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-15 (W)]
  250. 250. Takeoff into suspected windshear will not be attempted unless the charted performance limiting VR exceeds the charted actual weight VR by at least ______ knots.

    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 20
    D. 25
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-17 (W)]
  251. 251. When air refueling the KC-10 to inflight maximum gross weight, the planned air refueling altitude will be no higher than the pressure altitude of _____________ feet.

    A. 2,000
    B. 25,000
    C. 25,500
    D. 31,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[7-2 (C)]
  252. 252. A-10 A/R with KC-10 gross weight above ____________ is not recommended due to A-10 power limitations.

    A. 540,000 lbs
    B. 556,000 lbs
    C. 436,000 lbs
    D. 575,000 lbs
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[7-7]
  253. 253. The pressure altitude of _________ feet should be used as the base planning altitude for receiver air refueling. Altitudes up to _________ feet below optimum altitude for gross weight at the end of air refueling may be used. In no case will air refueling be planned above a pressure altitude of __________ feet.

    A. 20,000; 1,000; 25,000
    B. 25,500; 1,000; 31,000
    C. 25,000; 2,000; 31,000
    D. 41,000; 2,000; 42,000
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[7-2 (C)]
  254. 254. The landing gear may only be extended at speeds below the gear extension placard speed of ________ KIAS. When the gear is down, the aircraft may be accelerated to a speed of ________ KIAS.

    A. 270; 350
    B. 260; 350
    C. 260; 300
    D. 300; 260
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[8-2 (C)]
  255. 255. It is recommended that __________ when runway conditions are not clearly defined.

    A. the takeoff or landing not be attempted
    B. a visual inspection be made by the aircraft commander
    C. a conservative RCR be used
    D. takeoff or landing be delayed until a RCR can be determined
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1-1[3-10, 9-4]
  256. 256. Aircrew members will not fly if any alcohol is consumed within __________ hours prior to takeoff or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.

    A. 8
    B. 10
    C. 12
    D. 24
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 [2.7.1.2]
  257. 257. Do not enter aircrew members into crew rest __________.

    A. 45 minutes after landing
    B. until they complete official post-flight duties
    C. 45 minutes after final engine shut down
    D. until 1 hour after engine shutdown
    • Answer: B
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 AMC Sup [2.1.5.1]
  258. 258. Both pilots will monitor _________ emergency frequencies to the maximum extent possible. Exception: Only one crewmember is required to monitor guard frequencies during __________.

    A. AMC common and AMC interplane; formation flights
    B. UHF guard and VHF ATC; formation flights
    C. UHF ATC and VHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AAR
    D. UHF and VHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AAR
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 AMC Sup [3.23.7.2.5]
  259. 259. [Aircrew members will not fly] if any alcohol is consumed within ______ hours prior to legal for alert time for ALPHA and BRAVO.

    A. 8
    B. 10
    C. 12
    D. 24
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 AMC Sup [2.7.1.2]
  260. 260. When filing to a remote or island destination, aircrews may use __________ holding/reserve fuel (in lieu of an alternate).

    A. 2+00
    B. 1+15
    C. 0+45
    D. 0+30
    • Answer: A
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 AMC Sup [4.15.3.3.1]
  261. 261. Flight into areas of ________________ is prohibited.

    A. known or forecast moderate or greater mountain wave turbulence
    B. forecast or reported severe icing
    C. forecast or reported severe turbulence
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 AMC Sup [6.4.1.3, 6.4.1.3.1, 6.4.1.4]
  262. 262. If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least _______ feet, aircrew will avoid them by at least _______NMs at or above flight level FL230 or _______NMs below FL230.

    A. 2000; 10; 5
    B. 5000; 15; 10
    C. 2000; 20; 10
    D. 5000; 30; 15
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 AMC Sup [6.4.1.2.1, 6.4.1.2.1.1, 6.4.1.2.1.2]
  263. 263. If involved in a mishap or incident, __________, pull the CVR circuit breaker(s) to preserve recordings of flight deck conversations for safety analysis.

    A. immediately after terminating the emergency
    B. after landing
    C. after landing and terminating the emergency
    D. never
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: AFI 11-202V3 AMC Sup [9.4.5]
  264. 264. Minimum runway length is ______ feet. Minimum runway width is _______ feet.

    A. 6,000; 129
    B. 6,000; 141
    C. 7,000; 147
    D. 7,000; 148
    • Answer: C
    • Ref: AFMAN 11-2KC-10V3 [5.13.1]
  265. 265. Reverse air refueling into a KC-135 is only permitted __________.

    A. for operational necessity
    B. IAW FTU syllabus training requirements
    C. in an emergency
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Ref: AFMAN 11-2KC-10V3 [14.2.7]
Author
PokerPilot
ID
353257
Card Set
KC10 Pilot FULL MQF (2019)
Description
2019 KC-10 Master Question File (MQF). Released 1 Nov 2019. Contact Lt Col Vince Livie with questions/errors.
Updated