Online Quiz questions

  1. According to NENA (National Emergency Number Association) what pertcentage of US & Canada have access to some type of 911 system?

    A. 93%
  2. What does PSAP mean
    Public Safety Answering Point
  3. What does a call box connect the user to?
    Directly to a telecommunicator.
  4. What is the purpose of wire in tempered glass?
    Prevents it from breaking when subjected to heat.
  5. What effect does mineral salts have on wood?

    d has no effect
    B. makes it difficult to ignite.
  6. What is another name for a Halligan bar?
    Hooligan tool.
  7. Axes are what type of tool?

    B. striking
  8. Two disadvantages of power saws over hand saws are:
    • 1. heavier
    • 2. can be difficult to start
  9. How long does a hose test last?

    D. 5 minutes
  10. What is a hose jacket used for?

    C. placed around a hose to stop a leak.
  11. Color, class and flow of hydrants.
    • C    <500 gpm    Red
    • B    <999 gpm    Orange
    • A    <1499 gpm  Green
    • AA   >1500 gpm  Light Blue
  12. Types of hose rolls.
    • 1. Straight or storage roll
    • 2. Single donut
    • 3. Twin Donut
    • 4. self-locking twin donut
  13. Fixed gallonage fog nozzle
    • delivers preset flow at rate pressure.
    • (typ. 30, 60 or 100 gpm)
  14. adjustable gallonage fog nozzle.
    • operator selects flow at rated pressure.
    • (typ. 60, 95, 125 gpm)
  15. Automatic adjusting fog nozzle.
    • nozzle automatically adjusts flow to maintain pressure.
    • Typ. 90 to 225 gpm @ 100 psi
  16. Handline hose loads?
    • 1. Minute man - nozzle @ bottom of shoulder load
    • 2. Flat load - nozzle on top
    • 3. Triple layer - nozzle on top
  17. Class B foam types?
    • 1. Protein - animal by-products, 3-6%
    • 2. Fluoroprotein- additional surfactant fast spreading film
    • 2.1. FFFP -forming water solution film on surface
    • 3. AFFF - Synthetic based, gas & light hydrocarbons
    • 4. Alcohol resistant - alcohols & polar solvents won't dissolve foam.
  18. Class A foam?
    Lower surface tension, 0.1 to 1.0%, drier applied onto bldg.
  19. Foam equipment:
    1. proportioner:
    2. eductor
    3. injector
    • 1 - two types:
    • 2 - proportioner that draws concentrate from container into moving stream of water
    • 3 - proportioner that adds concentrate to water stream under pressure.
  20. an adjustable fog nozzle is often used to apply AFFF and Class A foam.
    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  21. FF find it easy to navigate in basement fires.
    a. true
    b. false
    b. false - difficult t keep sense of orientation.
  22. Which area of a car fire should be put out first?

    B. passenger
  23. When responding to an incident the two important ascects of a building are:

    C. Building layout & Access
  24. What is a "Target hazard" property?
    • a property that poses an increases risk to FF.
    • e.g. Lumberyard, hospital, high rises, schools etc.
  25. the four functions associated with gaining access & disentangling a victim are:
    • 1. Stabilize.
    • 2. Bend, distort, displace.
    • 3. cut or sever.
    • 4. disassemble.
  26. does a fire fighter need to constantly assess and reassess the TRI scene?
    Yes. you might see something the company officer does not.
  27. 4 objectives for HazMat Ops level are:
    • 1. Analyze magnitude of incident.
    • 2. plan initial response.
    • 3. implement response.
    • 4. evaluate progress.
  28. Which of the statements is true concerning technical rescue incidents?

    D) Most firefighting gear does not work well in these incidents.
  29. Which of the following is NOT one of the three factors to consider when approaching a rescue scene

    D) Call for needed assistance.
  30. Which of the following is the NFPA Standard on operations and training for technical search-and-rescue incidents?

    A. 1670
  31. Which piece of equipment is recommended for wilderness operations, but not normally required on
    other technical rescue operations?

    C) Flares
  32. There are basic steps that all rescuers take to perform special rescues in a safe, effective, and efficient manner.
    • 1. Preparation
    • 2. Response
    • 3. Arrival and size-up
    • 4. Stabilization
    • 5. Access
    • 6. Disentanglement
    • 7. Removal
    • 8. Transport
    • 9. Security of the scene and preparation for the next call
    • 10. Postincident analysis
  33. What color police or fire tape can be used for:
    hot, warm and cold zones
  34. On a residential fire safety survey, kitchen fire extinguishers should be checked for proper charge and:

    B) visibility.
  35. Do fire codes apply to the interior of a private dwelling?

    C) In many cases, no
  36. In the urban–wildland interface zone, there should not be any  dead vegetation within ______ feet of a

    C) 30
  37. What is a typical activation temperature for a heat detector in a light-hazard occupancy such as an office building?

    A) 135°F
  38. Where are pressure-reducing valves located on standpipe systems?

    C) At each outlet
  39. Which type of extinguishing system is installed in most new commercial kitchens and is easy to clean

    A) Wet chemical
  40. Which sub-type of electrical fire cause would using a light-duty extension cord to connect a heavy-duty appliance to a wall outlet fall under?

    C) Defective installation

    not acceptable under fire codes or printed instructions.
  41. Before moving an object that is evidence to protect it from damage, fire fighters should be sure that a location sketch is drawn, that a photograph is taken, and:

    B) witnesses are present.
  42. According to NFPA 921, the six motives of arsonists are vandalism, excitement, revenge, crime concealment, profit, and:

    B) extremism.
  43. Removing and inspecting the layers of debris from a re enables inspectors to determine the sequence in
    which items burned, whether an item burned from the top down or the bottom up, and:

    C) how long it burned
  44. How, if at all, do fire chiefs of large departments usually carry out their duty of fire cause determination?

    C) By delegation.
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