Test Questions - Sgt. Earp

  1. The below are all definitions of a:

    A pedestrian, including a person actually engaged in work upon a highway, or in work upon utility facilities along a highway, or engaged in the provision of emergency services within the right-of-way; A person operating a bicycle, motorcycle, scooter, or moped lawfully on the roadway;
    A person riding an animal; or A person lawfully operating on a public right-of-way, crosswalk, or shoulder of the roadway:
    A farm tractor or similar vehicle designed primarily for farm use; A skateboard, roller skates, or in-line skates; A horse-drawn carriage; An electric personal assistive mobility device; or A wheelchair.   –  (316.027)

    A) Vulnerable Road User
    B) Slow Moving Tarffic
    C) Limited Access User
    D) Limited Mobility User
    A) Vulnerable Road User
  2. The driver of a vehicle involved in a crash occurring on public or private property which results in injury to a person other than serious bodily injury shall immediately stop the vehicle at the scene of the crash, or as close thereto as possible, and shall remain at the scene of the crash until he or she has fulfilled the requirements of s. 316.062. A person who willfully violates this paragraph commits a _________. (316.027)



    A.   felony of the third degree
  3. The driver of a vehicle involved in a crash occurring on public or private property which results in serious bodily injury to a person shall immediately stop the vehicle at the scene of the crash, or as close thereto as possible, and shall remain at the scene of the crash until he or she has fulfilled the requirements of s. 316.062. (316.027).  A violation of this statute is a ______.



    A.   2nd degree felony
  4. The driver of a vehicle involved in a crash occurring on public or private property which results in the death of a person shall immediately stop the vehicle at the scene of the crash, or as close thereto as possible, and shall remain at the scene of the crash until he or she has fulfilled the requirements of s. 316.062. (316.027)



    A.   1st degree felony
  5. A three-wheeled motorcycle that has two wheels in the front and one wheel in the back; is equipped with a roll cage or roll hoops, a seat belt for each occupant, antilock brakes, a steering wheel, and seating that does not require the operator to straddle or sit astride it; and is manufactured in accordance with the applicable federal motorcycle safety standards (316.003)



    B.   Autocycle
  6. A bus is any motor vehicle designed for carrying _________________ and used for the transportation of persons and any motor vehicle, other than a taxicab, designed and used for the transportation of persons for compensation. (316.003)



    B.   More than 10 passengers
  7. A vehicle that has fully operational pedals for propulsion entirely by human power and meets all of the following requirements: Has four wheels and is operated in a manner similar to a bicycle.  Has at least 5 but no more than 15 seats for passengers.  Is primarily powered by pedaling but may have an auxiliary motor capable of propelling the vehicle at no more than 15 miles per hour. (316.003)



    C.   Commercial Megacycle
  8. COMMERCIAL MOTOR VEHICLE.—Any self-propelled or towed vehicle used on the public highways in commerce to transport passengers or cargo, if such vehicle: Has a gross vehicle weight rating of _______________; Is designed to transport ___________________, including the driver; or Is used to______________________________ for the purposes of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act. (316.003)




    D.   All the above
  9. A straight truck, or an articulated vehicle, which is all of the following: Registered in a state with a license plate, or any other designation issued by that state, which allows law enforcement officers to identify it as a farm vehicle. Operated by the owner or operator of a farm or ranch or by an employee or a family member of an owner or operator of a farm or ranch in accordance with s. 316.302(3) a Used to transport agricultural commodities, livestock, machinery, or supplies to or from a farm or ranch. Not used in for-hire motor carrier operations; however, for-hire motor carrier operations do not include the operation of a vehicle meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a)-(c) by a tenant pursuant to a crop-share farm lease agreement to transport the landlord’s portion of the crops under that agreement is the definition of: (316.003)



    B.   Covered Farm Vehicle
  10. Vehicle automation and safety technology that integrates sensor array, wireless vehicle-to-vehicle communications, active safety systems, and specialized software to link safety systems and synchronize acceleration and braking between two vehicles while leaving each vehicle’s steering control and systems command in the control of the vehicle’s driver in compliance with the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration rules regarding vehicle-to-vehicle communications. Is the definition of: (316.003)



    C. Driver Assistive Truck Platooning Technology
  11. A specialized combination vehicle consisting of a truck carrying a separable cargo-carrying unit combined with a semitrailer designed so that the separable cargo-carrying unit is to be loaded and unloaded through the semitrailer. The entire combination may not exceed 65 feet in length, and a single component of that combination may not exceed 34 feet in length. (316.003)



    A. Maxi-cubed vehicle
  12. An electrically powered device that: Is operated on sidewalks and crosswalks and is intended primarily for transporting property; Weighs less than 80 pounds, excluding cargo; Has a maximum speed of 12.5 mph; and Is equipped with a technology to transport personal property with the active monitoring of a property owner and primarily designed to remain within 25 feet of the property owner. (316.003)




    D) Mobile Carrier
  13. A passenger transportation network that uses a software application or other digital means to connect passengers to fully autonomous vehicles, exclusively or in addition to other vehicles, for transportation, including for-hire transportation and transportation for compensation. (316.003)




    D. On demand Autonomous Vehicle Network
  14. An electrically powered device that: Is operated on sidewalks and crosswalks and intended primarily for transporting property Weighs less than 80 pounds, excluding cargo; Has a maximum speed of 10 miles per hour; and Is equipped with technology to allow for operation of the device with or without the active control or monitoring of a natural person. (316.003)




    A. Personal Delivery Device
  15. A designated location that allows drivers of commercial motor vehicles to purchase temporary registration permits necessary to operate legally within the state. The locations and the designated routes to such locations shall be determined by the Department of Transportation. (316.003)




    D. Port of Entry
  16. That portion of a highway improved, designed, or ordinarily used for vehicular travel, exclusive of the berm or shoulder. If a highway includes two or more separate roadways, the term “roadway” refers to any such roadway separately, but not to all such roadways collectively. (316.003)




    C. Roadway
  17. Any vehicle with or without motive power, other than a pole trailer, designed for carrying persons or property and for being drawn by a motor vehicle and so constructed that some part of its weight and that of its load rests upon, or is carried by, another vehicle. (316.003)




    D. Semi-trailer
  18. Any two axles the centers of which are more than 40 inches but not more than 96 inches apart and are individually attached to or articulated from, or both, a common attachment to the vehicle, including a connecting mechanism designed to equalize the load between axles. (316.003)




    A. Tandem Axle
  19. Any vehicle with or without motive power, other than a pole trailer, designed for carrying persons or property and for being drawn by a motor vehicle. (316.003)




    D. Trailer
  20. Any motor vehicle designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation of property. (316.003)




    C. Truck
  21. Any motor vehicle designed and used primarily for drawing other vehicles and not so constructed as to carry a load other than a part of the weight of the vehicle and load so drawn.




    A. Truck-Tractor
  22. The driver of a vehicle involved in a crash resulting in injury to or death of any persons or damage to any vehicle or other property in an apparent amount of at least $500 shall immediately by the quickest means of communication give notice of the crash to the local police department, if such crash occurs within a municipality; otherwise, to the office of the county sheriff or the nearest office or station of the Florida Highway Patrol. A violation of this subsection is a noncriminal traffic infraction, punishable as a ________________ as provided in chapter 318. (316.065)




    D. Non-moving violation
  23. Any person who knowingly repairs a motor vehicle without having made a report as required by subsection (3) is guilty of a _________________. (316.065)



    B. 1st degree misdemeanor
  24. A Florida Traffic Crash Report, Long Form must be completed and submitted to the department within ______ after an investigation is completed by the law enforcement officer who in the regular course of duty investigates a motor vehicle crash. (316.066)




    A. 10 days
  25. Each party to the crash must provide the law enforcement officer with proof of insurance, which must be documented in the crash report. If a law enforcement officer submits a report on the crash, proof of insurance must be provided to the officer by each party involved in the crash. Any party who fails to provide the required information commits a ______________________ as provided in chapter 318, unless the officer determines that due to injuries or other special circumstances such insurance information cannot be provided immediately. If the person provides the law enforcement agency, _________________ after the crash, proof of insurance that was valid at the time of the crash, the law enforcement agency may void the citation. (316.066)




    D. Non-moving violation / 24 hours
  26. The driver of a vehicle that was in any manner involved in a crash resulting in damage to a vehicle or other property which does not require a law enforcement report shall, within __________ after the crash, submit a written report of the crash to the department. The report shall be submitted on a form approved by the department. (316.066)




    C. 10 days
  27. As a condition precedent to accessing a crash report within _________ after the date the report is filed, a person must present a valid driver license or other photographic identification, proof of status, or identification that demonstrates his or her qualifications to access that information and file a written sworn statement with the state or local agency in possession of the information stating that information from a crash report made confidential and exempt by this section will not be used for any commercial solicitation of accident victims, or knowingly disclosed to any third party for the purpose of such solicitation, during the period of time that the information remains confidential and exempt. (316.066)




    D. 60 days
  28. Any driver failing to file the written report required under law commits a ___________, punishable as a non-moving violation as provided in chapter 318. (316.066)




    A. Noncriminal traffic infraction
  29. It is unlawful and a _____________, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083, for any person willfully to fail or refuse to comply with any lawful order or direction of any law enforcement officer, traffic crash investigation officer as described in s. 316.640, traffic infraction enforcement officer as described in s. 316.640, or member of the fire department at the scene of a fire, rescue operation, or other emergency. (316.072)




    D. 2nd Degree Misdemeanor
  30. The foregoing provisions of driving to an emergency or in pursuit shall not relieve the driver of a vehicle specified in paragraph (a) from the duty to drive _____________ for the safety of all persons, nor shall such provisions protect the driver from the consequences of his or her reckless disregard for the safety of others. (316.072)




    B. With due regard
  31. The driver of a motor vehicle shall not follow another vehicle more closely than ___________, having due regard for the speed of such vehicles and the traffic upon, and the condition of, the highway. (316.0895)




    C. is reasonable and prudent
  32. It is unlawful for the driver of any motor truck, motor truck drawing another vehicle, or vehicle towing another vehicle or trailer, when traveling upon a roadway outside of a business or residence district, to follow _________________ of another motor truck, motor truck drawing another vehicle, or vehicle towing another vehicle or trailer. (316.0895)




    A. Within 300 feet
  33. Any person who drives any vehicle in ________________ disregard for the safety of persons or property is guilty of reckless driving. (316.192)




    D. Willful or wanton
  34. Any person who drives (operates a vehicle), in a willful and wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property, and who, by reason of such operation, causes, damage to the property or person of another commits a ________________________. (316.192)




    D. 1st degree misdemeanor
  35. Any person who drives (operates a vehicle), in a willful and wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property, and who, by reason of such operation, causes serious bodily injury to another commits ________________________. (316.192)




    B. 3rd degree felony
  36. Any person operating a vehicle upon the streets or highways within the state shall drive the same in a __________________, having regard for the width, grade, curves, corners, traffic, and all other attendant circumstances, so as not to endanger the life, limb, or property of any person. Failure to drive in such manner shall constitute __________________ and a violation of this section. (316.1925)




    B. careful and prudent manner / careless driving
  37. A person is guilty of the offense of driving under the influence and is subject to punishment as provided in subsection (2) if the person is driving or in actual physical control of a vehicle within this state and: the person is under the influence of alcoholic beverages, any chemical substance set forth in s. 877.111, or any substance controlled under chapter 893, when affected to the extent that the person’s normal faculties are impaired: (316.193)




    A. The person has a blood-alcohol level of 0.08 or more grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood
  38. A person is guilty of the offense of driving under the influence and is subject to punishment as provided in subsection (2) if the person is driving or in actual physical control of a vehicle within this state and: the person is under the influence of alcoholic beverages, any chemical substance set forth in s. 877.111, or any substance controlled under chapter 893, when affected to the extent that the person’s normal faculties are impaired: (316.193)




    C. The person has a breath-alcohol level of 0.08 or more grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.
  39. Any person who is convicted of a third violation of this section for an offense that occurs within _______ after a prior conviction for a violation of this section commits a _______________________. (316.193)




    C. 10 years / 3rd degree felony
  40. Any person who is convicted of a ____ or subsequent violation of this section, regardless of when any prior conviction for a violation of this section occurred, commits ___________________. (316.193)




    C. Fourth / 3rd degree felony
  41. Anyone who is DUI and causes damage to the property or person of another commits a____________________. (316.193)




    D. 1st degree misdemeanor
  42. Anyone who is DUI and causes serious bodily injury to another, as defined in s. 316.1933, commits a ________________________.




    A. 3rd degree felony
  43. Anyone who is DUI and causes the death of any human being or unborn child commits DUI manslaughter and commits _____________________. (316.193)




    B. 2nd degree felony
  44. Anyone who is DUI and at the time of the crash which causes a death, the person knew, or should have known, that the crash occurred; and the person failed to give information and render aid as required, commits: (316.193)




    B. 1st degree felony
  45. A person who is convicted of DUI manslaughter shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of ___________. (316.193)




    D. 4 years
  46. The law enforcement officer may use _________________ if necessary, to require such person to submit to the administration of the blood test. The blood test shall be performed in a ________________. (316.1933)




    B. reasonable force / reasonable manner
  47. If there was at that time a blood-alcohol level or breath-alcohol level of _______, it is presumed that the person ______ under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired. (316.1934)



    C.   .05 or less / was not
  48. If there was at that time a blood-alcohol level or breath-alcohol level in excess of ________, that fact does not give rise to any presumption that the person was or was not under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired but may be considered with other competent evidence in determining whether the person was under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired. (316.1934)




    C.   0.05 but less than 0.08
  49. It is unlawful for the operator of any vehicle, having knowledge that he or she has been ordered to stop such vehicle by a duly authorized law enforcement officer, willfully to refuse or fail to stop the vehicle in compliance with such order or, having stopped in knowing compliance with such order, willfully to flee in an attempt to elude the officer, and a person who violates this subsection commits a __________. (316.1935)




    A.   3rd degree felony
  50. Any person who willfully flees or attempts to elude a law enforcement officer in an authorized law enforcement patrol vehicle, with agency insignia and other jurisdictional markings prominently displayed on the vehicle, with siren and lights activated, and during the course of the fleeing or attempted eluding, drives at high speed, or in any manner which demonstrates a wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property, commits a ___________. (316.1935)



    C. 2nd degree Felony
  51. Drives at high speed, or in any manner which demonstrates a wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property and causes serious bodily injury or death to another person, including any law enforcement officer involved in pursuing or otherwise attempting to affect a stop of the person’s vehicle, commits a __________. (316.1935)



    C. 1st degree Felony
  52. _____________________ means any container of alcoholic beverage which is immediately capable of being consumed from, or the seal of which has been broken. (316.1936)



    B. Open container
  53. Any operator of a vehicle who violates this section is guilty of a _______________, punishable as provided in chapter 318. A passenger of a vehicle who violates this section is guilty of a _____________________, punishable as provided in chapter 318. (316.1936)



    C. Moving violation / non-moving violation
  54. Any person who has refused to submit to a chemical or physical test of his or her breath, blood, or urine, as described in s. 316.1932, and whose driving privilege was previously suspended for a prior refusal to submit to a lawful test of his or her breath, urine, or blood, and was lawfully arrested and has been requested to submit to the above tests commits ________ (316.1939)



    C. 1st degree misdemeanor
  55. Unless instructed by a LEO, not person shall stand or park a vehicle, whether occupied or not, except momentarily to pick up or discharge a passenger or passengers (316.1945)





    F. All the above
  56. Any person operating a moped upon a roadway at less than the normal speed of traffic at the time and place and under the conditions then existing shall ride as close as practicable to the ___________________________ except under any of the following situations: When overtaking or passing another vehicle proceeding in the same direction. When preparing for a left turn at an intersection or into a private road or driveway. When reasonably necessary to avoid any condition. (316.208)



    C. right-hand curb or edge of the roadway
  57. Any person operating a moped upon a one-way highway with two or more marked traffic lanes ___________ or edge of such roadway as practicable. (316.208)



    C. May ride as near the left-hand curb
  58. Except as provided in 49 C.F.R. s. 395.1, a person who operates a commercial motor vehicle solely in intrastate commerce not transporting any hazardous material in amounts that require placarding pursuant to 49 C.F.R. part 172 may not drive: More than ____ following 10 consecutive hours off duty; or For any period after the end of the ____ after coming on duty following 10 consecutive hours off duty (316.302)



    D. 12 hours / 16th hour
  59. 59. Except as provided in 49 C.F.R. s. 395.1, a person who operates a commercial motor vehicle solely in intrastate commerce not transporting any hazardous material in amounts that require placarding pursuant to 49 C.F.R. part 172 may not drive after having been on duty more ____________________ or _____________________if the motor carrier operates every day of the week.




    E. Both b and d
  60. 60. A vehicle or combination of vehicles operated pursuant to this paragraph having a gross vehicle weight of _______ pounds or more or having _____________ on the power unit, regardless of weight, must display the name of the vehicle owner or motor carrier and the municipality or town where the vehicle is based on each side of the power unit in letters that contrast with the background and that are readable from a distance of _____________. (316.302)



    D. 26,001 / three or more axles / 50 feet
  61. 61. A person holding a commercial driver license who is a regularly employed driver of a commercial motor vehicle and is subject to an alcohol and controlled substance testing program related to that employment ______________ be required to be part of a separate testing program for operating any bus owned and operated by a church when the driver does not receive any form of compensation for operating the bus and when the bus is used to transport people to or from church-related activities at no charge.



    C. Shall not
  62. A covered farm vehicle, as defined in s. 316.003, and the operator of such vehicle ___________ from the requirements relating to controlled substances and alcohol use and testing in 49 C.F.R. part 382; commercial driver licenses in 49 C.F.R. part 383; physical qualifications and examinations in 49 C.F.R. part 391, subpart E; hours of service of drivers in 49 C.F.R. part 395; and inspection, repair, and maintenance in 49 C.F.R. part 396, when operating: Anywhere in this state if the covered farm vehicle has a gross vehicle weight or gross vehicle weight rating, whichever is greater, of 26,001 pounds or less. Anywhere in the state of registration, or across state lines within 150 air miles of the farm or ranch with respect to which the vehicle is being operated, if the covered farm vehicle has a gross vehicle weight or gross vehicle weight rating, whichever is greater, of more than 26,001 pounds. (316.302)



    B. Are exempt
  63. A person who has not attained ___ years of age ______ operate a commercial motor vehicle, except that a person who has not attained _______ years of age _____ operate a commercial motor vehicle which has a gross vehicle weight of less than 26,001 pounds while transporting agricultural products, including horticultural or forestry products, from farm or harvest place to storage or market. (316.302)



    B. 18 / May not/ 18 / may
  64. If during an inspection a violation is found and if continuous operation would not present an unduly hazardous operating condition, the officer may give written notice requiring correction of the condition within ______________. (316.302)



    A. 14 days
  65. Any person who fails to comply with an officer’s request to submit to an inspection under this subsection commits a violation of s. 843.02 if the person resists the officer without violence or a violation of s. 843.01 if the person resists the officer with violence. (316.302) Info only no question.
    Info only no question.
  66. Any traffic enforcement officer or any person otherwise authorized to enforce this section (a non-CVE Trooper) _________ issue a traffic citation as provided by s. 316.650 to an alleged violator of any provision of this section. (316.302)



    A. May
  67. In addition to any other penalty provided in this section, a person who operates a commercial motor vehicle that bears an identification number required by this section which is false, fraudulent, or displayed without the consent of the person to whom it is assigned commits a __________________________. (316.302)



    D. 1st degree misdemeanor
  68. ____________________________means any handheld device used or capable of being used in a handheld manner, that is designed or intended to receive or transmit text or character-based messages, access or store data, or connect to the Internet or any communications service as defined in s. 812.15 and that allows text communications. (316.305)



    A. Wireless communications device
  69. Any person who violates paragraph (3)(a) commits ______________ as provided in chapter 318. Any person who commits a second or subsequent violation of paragraph (3)(a) within _________ after the date of a prior conviction for a violation of paragraph (3)(a) commits a ____________ as provided in chapter 318. (316.305)



    B. Non-moving violation / 5 years / moving violation
  70. The total outside width of any vehicle or the load thereon may not exceed ______, exclusive of safety devices determined by the department to be necessary for the safe and efficient operation of motor vehicles. (316.515)



    C. 102 inches
  71. No vehicle may exceed a height of _______, inclusive of load carried thereon. However, an automobile transporter may measure a height not to exceed ______, inclusive of the load carried thereon. (316.515)



    D. 13 feet 6 inches / 14 feet
  72. A combination of vehicles ___ qualifying as commercial motor vehicles may consist of no more than ___ units coupled together; such non-qualifying combination of vehicles may not exceed a total length of ___feet, inclusive of the load carried thereon. (316.515)



    C. Not / two / 65 feet
  73. An automobile or boat transporter semitrailer may not exceed 50 feet in length, exclusive of the load; however, the load may extend up to an additional _________ beyond the rear of the trailer.



    A. 6 feet
  74. Any straight truck or truck tractor-semitrailer combination engaged in the transportation of horticultural trees may allow the load to extend up to an additional __________ beyond the rear of the vehicle, provided the trees are resting against a retaining bar mounted above the truck bed so that the root balls of the trees rest on the floor and to the front of the truck bed and the tops of the trees extend up over and to the rear of the truck bed, and provided the overhanging portion of the load is covered with protective fabric.



    D. 10 feet
  75. A straight truck may not exceed a length of ____ in extreme overall dimension, exclusive of safety and energy conservation devices approved by the department for use on vehicles using public roads. (316.515)



    B. 40 feet
  76. A straight truck may attach a forklift to the rear of the cargo bed, provided the overall combined length of the vehicle and the forklift does not exceed ___________. (316.515)



    A. 50 feet
  77. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a straight truck may tow no more than one trailer, and the overall length of the truck-trailer combination _______, including the load thereon. (316.515)



    D. May not exceed 68 feet
  78. A semitrailer which is more than 48 feet but not more than 57 feet in extreme overall outside dimension, as measured pursuant to subparagraph 1., may operate on public roads, except roads on the State Highway System which are restricted by the Department of Transportation or other roads restricted by local authorities, if: The distance between the kingpin or other peg that locks into the fifth wheel of a truck tractor and the center of the rear axle or rear group of axles does not exceed ___________, or, in the case of a semitrailer used exclusively or primarily to transport vehicles in connection with motorsports competition events, the distance does not exceed __________ from the kingpin to the center of the rear axles. (316.515)



    A. 41 feet / 46 feet
  79. The load upon any vehicle operated alone, or the load upon the front vehicle of a combination of vehicles, may not extend more than ___ beyond the front wheels of the vehicle or the front bumper of the vehicle if it is equipped with a bumper. However, the load upon any stinger-steered automobile transporter may not extend more than ___ beyond the front bumper of the vehicle. (316.515)



    A. 3 feet / 4 feet
  80. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, equipment not exceeding 136 inches in width and not capable of speeds exceeding __________ which is used exclusively for harvesting forestry products is authorized for the purpose of transporting equipment from one point of harvest to another point of harvest, not to exceed 10 miles, by a person engaged in the harvesting of forestry products. (316.515)



    B. 20 mph
  81. Vehicles transporting tree-length unprocessed logs, when operating in the daytime and when the vehicle and load do not exceed _______; but, in respect to such movement, proper flags shall be located at the extreme ends of the load. (316.515)



    A. 75 feet
  82. “Motor vehicle” means a motor vehicle as defined in s. 316.003 which is operated on the roadways, streets, and highways of this state. The term does not include: A school bus. A bus used for the transportation of persons for compensation. A motorcycle, moped, or bicycle A farm tractor or implement of husbandry or a truck having a gross vehicle weight rating of more than ________________. (316.614)



    C. 26,000 pounds
  83. It is unlawful to operate a motor vehicle or an ____in this state unless the person is restrained by a safety belt. (316.614)



    B. Autocycle
  84. Neither a person who is _____________ or _______________is required to be restrained by a safety belt. An/ A ___________________ while on his / her route is not required to be restrained. (316.614)



    D. All the above
  85. A_____________________ of the United States Postal Service is not required to be restrained by a safety belt while performing duties in the course of his or her employment on a designated postal route. (316.614)



    A. Rural letter carrier
  86. Unless specifically authorized by the Florida Highway Patrol, a person in the state shall not color or cause to be colored any motor vehicle or motorcycle the same or similar color as the color or colors so prescribed for the Florida Highway Patrol. A person who violates this section or s. 321.02 with respect to uniforms, emblems, motor vehicles and motorcycles commits a _____________________, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. (321.03)



    B. 1st degree misdemeanor
  87. The Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles shall employ such ____________________as may be necessary for the economical and efficient operation of such department. (321.03)





    E. C and D
  88. _____________________________ means any wrecker operator who has been designated by the Division of Florida Highway Patrol as part of the wrecker operator system. (321.051)



    B. Authorized wrecker operator
  89. The division is authorized to establish maximum rates for the towing and storage of vehicles removed at the division’s request, where such rates have not been set by ________. (321.051)




    D. A and B
  90. It is unlawful for an unauthorized wrecker operator or its employees or agents to monitor police radio for communications between patrol field units and the dispatcher in order to determine the location of a wrecked or disabled vehicle for the purpose of driving by the scene of such vehicle in a manner described in paragraph (b) or paragraph (c). Any person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a _____________________. (316.051)



    C. Noncriminal violation
  91. It is unlawful for an unauthorized wrecker operator to drive by the scene of a wrecked or disabled vehicle before the arrival of the authorized wrecker operator, initiate contact with the owner or operator of such vehicle by soliciting or offering towing services and tow such vehicle. Any person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a _____________________________. (321.051)



    C. 2nd degree Misdemeanor
  92. When an unauthorized wrecker operator drives by the scene of a wrecked or disabled vehicle and the vehicle owner or operator initiates contact by signaling the wrecker operator to stop and provide towing services, the unauthorized wrecker operator must disclose to the owner or operator of the vehicle that he or she is not an authorized wrecker operator who has been designated as part of the wrecker operator system and must disclose, in writing, what charges for towing and storage will apply before the vehicle is connected to the towing apparatus. Any person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a ___________________________. (321.051)



    B. 2nd degree Misdemeanor
  93. At the scene of a wrecked or disabled vehicle, it is unlawful for a wrecker operator to falsely identify himself or herself as being part of the wrecker operator system. Any person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a ________________________. (321.051)



    D. 1st degree Misdemeanor
  94. “Alcohol concentration” means: (322.01)



    D. All the above
  95. “Commercial motor vehicle” means any motor vehicle or motor vehicle combination used on the streets or highways, which: (322.01)




    D. All the above
  96. ___________________ means the maximum loaded weight declared for purposes of registration. (322.01)



    C. Declared weight
  97. _____________________ means the value specified by the manufacturer as the maximum loaded weight of a single, combination, or articulated vehicle. (322.01)



    A. Gross vehicle weight rating
  98. “Motorcycle” means a motor vehicle powered by a motor with a displacement of more than _____________, having a seat or saddle for the use of the rider, and designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground, but excluding a tractor, tri-vehicle, or moped. (322.01)



    B. 50 cc
  99. “Tank vehicle” means a vehicle that is designed to transport any liquid or gaseous material within a tank either permanently or temporarily attached to the vehicle, if such tank has a designed capacity of _________________. (322.01)



    A. 1,000 gallons or more
  100. “Passenger vehicle” means a motor vehicle designed to transport more than 15 persons, including the driver, or a school bus designed to transport ___________________, including the driver. (322.01)



    C. More than 15 persons
  101. Any such person who fails to surrender a commercial driver license from another state when receiving a Florida license commits a __________________ as set forth in chapter 318. Any such person who makes a false affidavit concerning such licenses commits ___________________. (322.03)



    B. Moving violation / 1st degree misdemeanor
  102. A person ________________operate an autocycle, as defined in s. 316.003, without a motorcycle endorsement. (322.03)



    A. May
  103. Any person whose commercial driver license has been expired for a period of 30 days or less and who drives a commercial motor vehicle within this state is guilty of a _________________. (322.03)



    C. Non-moving violation
  104. In each case in which a nonresident, except a nonresident migrant or seasonal farm worker as defined in s. 316.003, accepts employment or engages in a trade, profession, or occupation in this state or enters his or her children to be educated in the public schools of this state, such nonresident shall, within _____________ after beginning such employment or education, be required to obtain a Florida driver license if such nonresident operates a motor vehicle on the highways of this state. (322.031)



    B. 30 days
  105. Exempt from obtaining FL DL:
    Any person working for a firm under contract to the United States Government whose residence is outside this state and whose main point of employment is outside this state may drive a noncommercial vehicle on the public roads of this state for periods up to ____________ while in this state on temporary duty, if the person has a valid driver license from the state of the person’s residence. (322.04)



    C. 60 days
  106. Exempt from obtaining FL DL: 
    A nonresident who is at least _________ years of age and who has in his or her immediate possession a valid noncommercial driver license issued to the nonresident in his or her home state or country operating a motor vehicle, other than a commercial motor vehicle, in this state. (322.04).

    A) 18
    B) 17
    C) 19
    D) 21
    A) 18
  107. A person who holds a driver license and who is under 17 years of age, when operating a motor vehicle ___________, must be accompanied by a driver who holds a valid license to operate the type of vehicle being operated and is at least 21 years of age unless that person is driving directly to or from work. (322.16)



    B. After 11 p.m. and before 6 a.m.
  108. A person who holds a driver license who is 17 years of age, when operating a motor vehicle ______________________, must be accompanied by a driver who holds a valid license to operate the type of vehicle being operated, and is at least 21 years of age unless that person is driving directly to or from work. A violation is a moving violation. (322.16)



    A. After 1 a.m. and before 5 a.m.
  109. It is a ______________, for any person to operate a motor vehicle in any manner in violation of the restrictions imposed for recommendation of any court, of the Florida Commission on Offender Review, or of the Department of Corrections with respect to any individual who is under the jurisdiction, supervision, or control of the entity that made the recommendation. A violation is a moving violation. (322.16)



    D. 2nd degree misdemeanor
  110. A person who operates a motor vehicle in violation of the restrictions imposed by the department, upon issuing a driver license, may, whenever good cause appears, impose restrictions suitable to the licensee’s driving ability with respect to the type of special mechanical control devices required on a motor vehicle that the licensee may operate, including, but not limited to, restricting the licensee to operating only vehicles equipped with air brakes, or imposing upon the licensee such other restrictions as the department determines are appropriate to assure the safe operation of a motor vehicle by the licensee. A person in violation of this section is guilty of moving violation. (322.16)




    B. Moving violation
  111. The department may further impose other suitable restrictions on use of the license with respect to time and purpose of use, including, but not limited to, a restriction providing for intrastate operation only, or may impose any other condition or restriction that the department considers necessary for driver improvement, safety, or control of drivers in this state. (322.16)



    B. Moving Violation
  112. It is unlawful for any person designated as a sexual predator or sexual offender to have in his or her possession a driver license or identification card upon which the sexual predator or sexual offender markings required by s. 322.141 are not displayed or have been altered. A violation is a ______________ (322.212)



    C. 3rd degree felony
  113. Any person who by giving a false age in any application for a driver license or identification card or who violates paragraph by possessing a driver license, identification card, or any instrument in the similitude thereof, on which the date of birth has been altered is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.



    D. 2nd degree misdemeanor
  114. A law enforcement officer or correctional officer shall, on behalf of the department, suspend the driving privilege of a person who is driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and who has an unlawful blood-alcohol level or breath-alcohol level of ________ or higher, or of a person who has refused to submit to a urine test or a test of his or her breath-alcohol or blood-alcohol level. The officer shall take the person’s driver license and issue the person a _____ temporary permit if the person is otherwise eligible for the driving privilege and shall issue the person a notice of suspension. (322.2615)



    C. .08 / 10 day
  115. If a blood test has been administered, the officer or the agency employing the officer shall transmit such results to the department within ______ after receipt of the results. (322.2615)



    A. 5 days
  116. The driver was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and had an unlawful blood-alcohol level or breath-alcohol level of 0.08 or higher and his or her driving privilege is suspended for a period of ____________ for a first offense or for a period of ___________ if his or her driving privilege has been previously suspended under this section. (322.2615)



    C. 6 months / 1 year
  117. If the person whose license was suspended requests a formal review, the department must schedule a hearing within _____ after such request is received by the department and must notify the person of the date, time, and place of the hearing. (322.2615)



    D. 30 days
  118. Notwithstanding s. 316.193, it is unlawful for a person under the age of 21 who has a blood-alcohol or breath-alcohol level of _________ or higher to drive or be in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. (322.2616)



    B. 0.02
  119. The driver was under the age of 21 and was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle while having a blood-alcohol or breath-alcohol level of 0.02 or higher; and the person’s driving privilege is suspended for a period of ________ for a first violation, or for a period of __________ if his or her driving privilege has been previously suspended as provided in this section for driving or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle with a blood-alcohol or breath-alcohol level of 0.02 or higher. (322.2616)



    D. 6 months / 1 year
  120. When a driver subject to this section has a blood-alcohol or breath-alcohol level of ___ or higher, the suspension shall remain in effect until such time as the driver has completed a substance abuse course offered by a DUI program licensed by the department. (322.2616)



    C. 0.05
  121. A minor under the age of 18 years proven to be driving with a blood-alcohol or breath-alcohol level of 0.02 or higher _____ be taken by a law enforcement officer to the addictions receiving facility in the county in which the minor is found to be so driving, if the county makes the addictions receiving facility available for such purpose. (322.2616)



    C. May
  122. The law enforcement officer shall forward to the department, within _______ after the date of the issuance of the notice of suspension, a copy of the notice of suspension, the driver license of the person receiving the notice of suspension, and an affidavit stating the officer’s grounds for belief that the person was under the age of 21 and was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle with any blood-alcohol or breath-alcohol level, and the results of any blood or breath test or an affidavit stating that a breath test was requested by a law enforcement officer or correctional officer and that the person refused to submit to such test.



    C. 5 days
  123. Except as provided in subsection (2), any person whose driver license or driving privilege has been canceled, suspended, or revoked, except a “habitual traffic offender” as defined in s. 322.264, who drives a vehicle upon the highways of this state while such license or privilege is canceled, suspended, or revoked is guilty of a __________. (322.34)



    D. Moving Violation
  124. Any person whose driver license or driving privilege has been canceled, suspended, or revoked as provided by law, or who does not have a driver license or driving privilege but is under suspension or revocation equivalent and who knows of the suspensions, or revocations commits: (322.34)




    E. Both b and c
  125. A person convicted of a third or subsequent conviction, except when defines as a felony, must serve a minimum of ______. (322.34)



    B. 10 days in jail
  126. A third or subsequent conviction of 322.34 (if the current violation or the most recent prior violation of the section is related to DWLSR equivalent status resulting from a violation of: Driving under the influence; Refusal to submit to a urine, breath-alcohol, or blood alcohol test; A traffic offense causing death or serious bodily injury; or Fleeing or eluding. (322.34) it is punishable as a ______.




    D. 3rd degree felony
  127. Any person who has been designated a habitual traffic offender as defined by s. 322.264 and who drives any motor vehicle upon the highways of this state while designated a habitual traffic offender is guilty of a _______________. (322.34)



    C. 3rd degree felony
  128. Any person who operates a motor vehicle Without having a driver license as required under s. 322.03; or While his or her driver license or driving privilege is canceled, suspended, or revoked pursuant to s. 316.655, s. 322.26(8), s. 322.27(2), or s. 322.28(2) or (4), and who by __________________ of the motor vehicle causes the death of or serious bodily injury to another human being commits a felony of the third degree. (322.34)



    D. Both b and c
  129. Any person whose driver license or driving privilege has been canceled, suspended, revoked, or disqualified, or who does not have a driver license or driving privilege but is under suspension or revocation equivalent status, and who drives a commercial motor vehicle on the highways of this state while such license or privilege is canceled, suspended, revoked, or disqualified, or while under suspension or revocation equivalent status, upon: A first conviction is guilty of a ________________, or a second or subsequent conviction is guilty of ________________. (322.34)



    D. 1st degree misdemeanor / 3rd degree felony
  130. Upon the arrest of a person for the offense of driving while the person’s driver license or driving privilege is suspended or revoked, the arresting officer shall determine: Whether the person’s driver license is suspended or revoked, or the person is under suspension or revocation equivalent status. Whether the person’s driver license has remained suspended or revoked, or the person has been under suspension or revocation equivalent status, since a conviction for the offense of driving with a suspended or revoked license. Whether the suspension, revocation, or suspension or revocation equivalent status was made under s. 316.646 or s. 627.733, relating to failure to maintain required security, or under s. 322.264, relating to habitual traffic offenders. Whether the driver is the registered owner or co-owner of the vehicle. If the arresting officer finds in the affirmative as to all of the criteria in paragraph (a), the officer shall immediately _______________________ the vehicle. (322.34)



    A. Impound or Immobilize
  131. Any person who drives a motor vehicle combination having a gross vehicle weight rating or gross vehicle weight of __________ pounds or more must possess a valid Class A driver license, if the gross vehicle weight rating or gross vehicle weight of the vehicle being towed is more than ______________ pounds. (322.54)



    D. 26,001 / 10,000
  132. Any person, except a person who possesses a valid Class A driver license, who drives a motor vehicle having a gross vehicle weight rating or gross vehicle weight of ______________ pounds or more must possess a valid Class B driver license. Any person, except a person who possesses a valid Class A driver license, who drives such vehicle towing a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight rating of _________________ must possess a valid Class B driver license. (322.54)



    C. 26,001 / 10,000 pounds or less
  133. Any person, except a person who possesses a valid Class A or a valid Class B driver license, who drives a motor vehicle having a gross vehicle weight rating of _______________________ and who is required to obtain an endorsement pursuant to paragraph (1)(b) Passenger vehicle, paragraph (1)(c) school bus, or paragraph (1)(e) hazmat requiring placarding of s. 322.57, must possess a valid Class C driver license. (322.54)



    C. Less than 26,001 pounds
  134. Any person whose commercial driver license has been expired for a period of 30 days or less and who drives a commercial motor vehicle within this state, is guilty of a non-moving violation. (322.54)



    B. Non-moving violation
  135. A person who has any alcohol in his or her body may not drive or be in actual physical control of a commercial motor vehicle in this state. Any person who violates this section is guilty of a ________________. In addition to the penalty, a person who violates this section shall be placed out-of-service immediately for a period of ____________. (322.62)



    D. Moving violation / 24 hours
  136. __________ means any assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, sexual assault, sexual battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, kidnapping, false imprisonment, or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death of one family or household member by another family or household member. (741.28)



    C. Domestic Violence
  137. Any law enforcement officer who investigates an alleged incident of domestic violence _______ assist the victim to obtain medical treatment if such is required as a result of the alleged incident to which the officer responds. (741.29)



    A. Shall
  138. Whether or not an arrest is made, the officer ________ make a written police report that is complete and clearly indicates the alleged offense was an incident of domestic violence. Such report shall be given to the officer’s supervisor and filed with the law enforcement agency in a manner that will permit data on domestic violence cases to be compiled. (741.29)



    D. Shall
  139. The law enforcement agency shall, without charge, send a copy of the initial police report, as well as any subsequent, supplemental, or related report, which excludes victim/witness statements or other materials that are part of an active criminal investigation and are exempt from disclosure under chapter 119, to the nearest locally certified domestic violence center ____________ after the agency’s receipt of the report. (741.29)



    C. Within 24 hours
  140. Whenever a law enforcement officer determines upon probable cause that an act of domestic violence has been committed within the jurisdiction the officer may arrest the person or persons suspected of its commission and charge such person or persons with the appropriate crime. The decision to arrest and charge ___________ require consent of the victim or consideration of the relationship of the parties. (741.29)



    A. Shall not
  141. If a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that two or more persons have committed a misdemeanor or felony, or if two or more persons make complaints to the officer, the officer shall try to determine who was the primary aggressor. Arrest is the preferred response only with respect to the primary aggressor and not the preferred response with respect to a person who acts in a reasonable manner to protect or defend oneself or another family or household member from domestic violence. (741.29) Info not question.
    Info not question.
  142. A person who willfully violates a condition of pretrial release provided in s. 903.047, when the original arrest was for an act of domestic violence as defined in s. 741.28, commits a ____________, and shall be held in custody until his or her first appearance. (741.29)



    C. 1st degree misdemeanor
  143. A person is _____ in using or threatening to use force, except deadly force, against another when and to the extent that the person reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to defend himself or herself or another against the other’s imminent use of unlawful force. A person who uses or threatens to use force in accordance with this subsection ____ have a duty to retreat before using or threatening to use such force. (776.012)



    B. justified / does not
  144. A person is justified in using or threatening to use deadly force if he or she reasonably believes that using or threatening to use such force is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to himself or herself or another or to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony. A person who uses or threatens to use deadly force in accordance with this subsection _______ have a duty to retreat ___________ the right to stand his or her ground if the person using or threatening to use the deadly force is not engaged in a criminal activity and is in a place where he or she has a right to be. (776.012)



    D. Does not / and has
  145. A person is justified in using or threatening to use deadly force only if he or she reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony. A person who uses or threatens to use deadly force to protect real or personal property ,including trespassing, _____________ have a duty to retreat and has the right to stand his or her ground if the person using or threatening to use the deadly force is not engaged in a criminal activity and is in a place where he or she has a right to be. (776.012)



    D. Does not
  146. A law enforcement officer, or any person whom the officer has summoned or directed to assist him or her, _____________ from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest. (776.05)



    D. Need not retreat or desist
  147. A law enforcement officer or other person who has an arrested person in his or her custody is justified in the use of ___________ which he or she reasonably believes to be necessary to prevent the escape of the arrested person from custody. (776.07)




    D. Any force
  148. _______________________ means treason; murder; manslaughter; sexual battery; carjacking; home-invasion robbery; robbery; burglary; arson; kidnapping; aggravated assault; aggravated battery; aggravated stalking; aircraft piracy; unlawful throwing, placing, or discharging of a destructive device or bomb; and any other felony which involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual. (776.08)



    A. Forcible Felony
  149. “Low-THC cannabis” means a plant of the genus Cannabis, the dried flowers of which contain ______ or less of tetrahydrocannabinol and more than ______ of cannabidiol weight for weight; the seeds thereof; the resin extracted from any part of such plant; or any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant or its seeds or resin that is dispensed from a medical marijuana treatment center. (381.986)



    A. 0.8 percent / 10 percent
  150. The department shall create and maintain a secure, electronic, and online medical marijuana use registry for physicians, patients, and caregivers as provided under this section. The medical marijuana use registry must be accessible to law enforcement agencies, qualified physicians, and _______________________________ to verify the authorization of a qualified patient or a caregiver to possess marijuana or a marijuana delivery device and record the marijuana or marijuana delivery device dispensed. (381.986)



    A. Medical marijuana treatment centers
  151. The department shall issue medical marijuana use registry identification cards for qualified patients and caregivers who are residents of this state, which must be renewed _____. (381.986)



    D. Annually
  152. The use of deadly force is _______ when a person is resisting any attempt to murder such person or to commit any felony upon him or her or upon or in any dwelling house in which such person shall be. (782.02)



    C. Justifiable
  153. ______________—Homicide is _______ when committed by accident and misfortune in doing any lawful act by lawful means with usual ordinary caution, and without any unlawful intent, or by accident and misfortune in the heat of passion, upon any sudden and sufficient provocation, or upon a sudden combat, without any dangerous weapon being used and not done in a cruel or unusual manner. (782.03)




    B. Excusable homicide / excusable
  154. _____ is the unlawful killing of a human being: When perpetrated from a premeditated design to effect the death of the person killed or any human being; When committed by a person engaged in the perpetration of, or in the attempt to perpetrate certain other crimes ___________________ and constitutes a capital felony. (782.04)



    A. Murder / First degree murder
  155. The unlawful killing of a human being, when perpetrated by any act imminently dangerous to another and evincing a depraved mind regardless of human life, although without any premeditated design to effect the death of any particular individual, is murder in the second degree and constitutes a felony of the first degree, punishable by imprisonment for a term of years not exceeding life.



    C. Second degree murder / First degree felony
  156. A defendant shall be sentenced to life imprisonment without eligibility for release upon findings by the trier of fact that, beyond a reasonable doubt: The defendant committed murder in the first degree in violation of s. 782.04(1) and a death sentence was not imposed; murder in the second or third degree or attempted murder in the first or second degree in violation of or attempted felony murder and the victim of any offense described in subsection (1) was a law enforcement officer, part-time law enforcement officer, auxiliary law enforcement officer, correctional officer, part-time correctional officer, auxiliary correctional officer, correctional probation officer, part-time correctional probation officer, or auxiliary correctional probation officer, as those terms are defined in s. 943.10, engaged in the lawful performance of a legal duty. (782.095)



    C. Life imprisonment without eligibility for release
  157. An _____________ is an intentional, unlawful threat by word or act to do violence to the person of another, coupled with an apparent ability to do so, and doing some act which creates a well-founded fear in such other person that such violence is imminent. Whoever commits an assault shall be guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree. (784.011)



    C. Assault / 2nd degree misdemeanor
  158. _____________________ is an assault: With a deadly weapon without intent to kill; or with an intent to commit a felony. Whoever commits an this violation shall be guilty of a __________. (784.021)



    D. Aggravated assault / 3rd degree felony
  159. The offense of ________occurs when a person: Actually, and intentionally touches or strikes another person against the will of the other; or Intentionally causes bodily harm to another person. Except as provided for a subsequent offense, a person who commits this violation commits a _____________. (784.03)



    D. Battery / First degree misdemeanor
  160. A person who has one prior conviction for battery, aggravated battery, or felony battery and who commits any second or subsequent battery commits a _________________. (784.03)



    B. 3rd degree felony
  161. A person commits aggravated battery who, in committing battery: Intentionally or knowingly causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement; or Uses a deadly weapon. Whoever commits aggravated battery shall be guilty of a ________________. (784.045)



    B. 2nd degree felony
  162. Whoever, through culpable negligence, exposes another person to personal injury commits a ___________________. (784.05)



    C. 2nd degree misdemeanor
  163. Whoever, through culpable negligence, inflicts actual personal injury on another commits a _____________. (784.05)



    C. 1st degree misdemeanor
  164. Whoever through negligence by storing or leaving a loaded firearm within the reach or easy access of a minor commits, if the minor obtains the firearm and uses it to inflict injury or death upon himself or herself or any other person, commits a ______________________. (784.05)



    B. 3rd degree felony
  165. When any minor child is accidentally shot by another family member, no arrest shall be made pursuant to this subsection prior to __________ after the date of the shooting. (784.05)



    C. 7 days
  166. A minor in the above statute means a person under the age of:



    A. 16
  167. Any person who is convicted of a battery on an LEO, firefighter or emergency medical care provider and et al, during the commission of the offense, such person possessed: A “firearm” or “destructive device” as those terms are defined in, shall be sentenced to a minimum term of imprisonment of ____________. A semiautomatic firearm and its high-capacity detachable box magazine, or a machine gun, shall be sentenced to a minimum term of imprisonment of ___________. (784.07)



    B. 3 years / 8 years
  168. __________________ means any firearm, which is carried on or about a person in such a manner as to conceal the firearm from the ordinary sight of another person. (790.001)



    B. Concealed firearm
  169. Means any dirk, metallic knuckles, billie, tear gas gun, chemical weapon or device, or other deadly weapon carried on or about a person in such a manner as to conceal the weapon from the ordinary sight of another person. (790.001)



    A. Concealed weapon
  170. A person who knowingly and willfully uses a self-defense chemical spray, a nonlethal stun gun or other nonlethal electric weapon or device, or a dart-firing stun gun against a law enforcement officer engaged in the performance of his or her duties commits ________________.  (FS 790.054)




    D. 3rd degree felony
  171. Any person who uses a firearm within this state ________submit to an approved chemical or physical breath test to determine the alcoholic content of the blood and to a urine test to detect the presence of controlled substances, if there is probable cause to believe that the person was using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances or that the person is lawfully arrested for any offense allegedly committed while he or she was using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances. (790.153)



    D. Shall
  172. It is a __________, a person in control of a firearm by failing to store or leave a firearm in the required manner and as a result thereof a minor gains access to the firearm, without the lawful permission of the minor’s parent or the person having charge of the minor, and possesses or exhibits it, without the supervision required by law: In a public place; or In a rude, careless, angry, or threatening manner in violation. (FS 790.174)



    B. 2nd degree misdemeanor
  173. A person may not have in his or her care, custody, possession, or control any firearm or ammunition if the person has been issued a final injunction that is currently in force and effect, restraining that person from committing acts of domestic violence, as issued under s. 741.30 or from committing acts of stalking or cyberstalking. A person who violates this statute commits a misdemeanor of the first degree. It is the intent of the Legislature that the disabilities regarding possession of firearms and ammunition are consistent with federal law. Accordingly, this section ____________ apply to a state or local officer, holding an active certification, who receives or possesses a firearm or ammunition for use in performing official duties on behalf of the officer’s employing agency, unless otherwise prohibited by the employing agency. (FS 790.233)



    D. Does not
  174. Upon issuance of a risk protection order under this section, including a temporary ex parte risk protection order, the court shall order the respondent to surrender to the local law enforcement agency all __________________ owned by the respondent in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession  and _______________________, held by the respondent. (790.401)



    D. Firearms and ammunition; concealed weapons permit
  175. Any firearm and ammunition surrendered by a respondent pursuant to subsection (7) which remains unclaimed for ___________ by the lawful owner after an order to vacate the risk protection order shall be disposed of in accordance with the law enforcement agency’s policies and procedures for the disposal of firearms in police custody. (790.401)



    B. 1 year
  176. A person who has in his or her custody or control a firearm or any ammunition or who purchases, possesses, or receives a firearm or any ammunition with knowledge that he or she is prohibited from doing so by an order issued under this section commits _______________. (790.401)



    C. 3rd degree felony
  177. A person commits theft if he or she knowingly obtains or uses, or endeavors to obtain or to use, the property of another with intent to, _____________________: Deprive the other person of a right to the property or a benefit from the property. Appropriate the property to his or her own use or to the use of any person not entitled to the use of the property.(812.014)




    E.  Temporarily or permanently
  178. If the property stolen is valued at ________ or more or is a semitrailer that was deployed by a law enforcement officer; or If the property stolen is cargo valued at ____________ or more that has entered the stream of interstate or intrastate commerce from the shipper’s loading platform to the consignee’s receiving dock; or If the offender commits any grand theft and: In the course of committing the offense the offender uses a motor vehicle as an instrumentality, other than merely as a getaway vehicle, to assist in committing the offense and thereby damages the real property of another; or In the course of committing the offense the offender causes damage to the real or personal property of another in excess of $1,000, the offender commits grand theft in the first degree punishable as a felony of the first degree. (812.014)



    A. $100,000 / $50,000
  179. If the property stolen is valued at _______ or more, but less than _______; The property stolen is cargo valued at less than ______ that has entered the stream of interstate or intrastate commerce from the shipper’s loading platform to the consignee’s receiving dock; The property stolen is emergency medical equipment, valued at ____ or more, that is taken from a facility licensed under chapter 395 or from an aircraft or vehicle The property stolen is law enforcement equipment, valued at ___ or more, that is taken from an authorized emergency vehicle, the offender commits grand theft in the second degree, punishable as a felony of the second degree.



    B. $20,000 / $100,000 / $50,000 / $300 / $300
  180. It is grand theft of the third degree and a felony of the third degree, if the property stolen is:




    E. All the above
  181. It is grand theft of the third degree and a felony of the third degree.




    E. All the above
  182. No person in the state shall be intoxicated and endanger the safety of another person or property, and no person in the state shall be intoxicated or drink any alcoholic beverage in a public place or in or upon any public conveyance and cause a public disturbance. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a ________________. (856.011)



    A. Second degree misdemeanor
  183. Any peace officer, in lieu of incarcerating an intoxicated person for violation, may take or send the intoxicated person to her or his home or to a public or private health facility, and the law enforcement officer may take reasonable measures to ascertain the commercial transportation used for such purposes is paid for by such person in advance.
    a. No question
    a. No question
  184. If a peace officer fails to gain admittance after she or he has announced her or his authority and purpose in order to make an arrest either by a warrant or when authorized to make an arrest for a felony without a warrant, the officer may use ______________ force to enter any building or property where the person to be arrested is or is reasonably believed to be. (901.19)



    A. All necessary and reasonable
  185. A search warrant cannot be issued except upon probable cause supported by affidavit or affidavits, naming or describing the person, place, or thing to be searched and particularly describing the property or thing to be seized; no search warrant shall be issued in blank, and any such warrant shall be returned within _____ after issuance thereof.



    B. 10 days
  186. A child may be taken into custody under the following circumstances




    E. All the above
  187. Except in emergency situations, a child may not be placed into or transported in any police car or similar vehicle that at the same time contains ______________________. (FS 985.101)



    D. An adult under arrest for a different offense
  188. If such delinquent act or violation of law would be a felony if committed by an adult or involves a crime of violence, the arresting authority shall immediately notify the district school superintendent, or the superintendent’s designee, of the school district with educational jurisdiction of the child. (FS985.101)



    B. School board officials
  189. A child taken into custody shall be released from custody _________________________________. (985.115)




    D. B, C and D
  190. Upon taking a child into custody, a law enforcement officer may deliver the child, for temporary custody not to exceed _________, to a secure booking area of a jail or other facility intended or used for the detention of adults, for the purpose of fingerprinting or photographing the child or awaiting appropriate transport to the department. (985.115)



    B. 6 hours
  191. If the child is released, the person taking the child into custody shall make a written report or probable cause affidavit to the appropriate juvenile probation officer within ________ after such release. (985.13)



    A. 24 hours
Author
crashley12802
ID
351990
Card Set
Test Questions - Sgt. Earp
Description
test questions for FHP Promotional exam
Updated