MQF LM Oct 2019

  1. 1. To override the #2 or #3 hydraulic aux pumps for an auto shutdown due to low quantity or overheat, __________.
    Press and hold appropriate Aux pump switch for 5 seconds
  2. 2. When the APU alert start feature is used, there will be no __________ until the Battery Bus is powered.
    fire detection or protection
  3. 3. The Battery Direct Bus, the Battery Bus, the AC and DC Emergency Buses, and the AC and DC Transfer Buses comprise the __________.
    emergency power system
  4. 4. To preclude damage to the landing gear, accomplish no more than __________ consecutive landings without a cooling period. A cooling period consists of, flying with the gear retracted for at least 20 minutes or with the gear extended for at least 10 minutes before the next landing.
  5. 5. To determine an individual aircraft’s maximum payload __________.
    subtract Operating Weight from Maximum Zero Fuel Weight
  6. 6. Following an intentional cabin depressurization above 10,000 feet, the cabin must be repressurized to less than __________ feet to reset the regulators. If the regulators are not reset, subsequent flight above 9,000 feet cabin altitude may deploy the passenger oxygen masks.
  7. 7. Below __________ feet cabin altitude, each emergency oxygen regulator SURGE MODE lever/three position toggle switch must be positioned to MAN ON/MANUAL ON position to ensure regulated oxygen is provided to passengers.
  8. 8. The passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any altitude with the -1 emergency oxygen regulator by positioning the SURGE MODE lever to the MAN ON position, and rotating the spring loaded surge knob __________ and holding momentarily (approximately __________ seconds) to open the passenger oxygen containers and start the flow of oxygen.
    clockwise; 6
  9. 9. If either the pilot’s or loadmaster’s FED ARM switch is in ARM, all four FEDS hatches can be deployed from either the __________ initiator handles.
    maintenance/ditching hatch or the forward loadmaster station
  10. 10. Portable hand fire extinguishers are provided in the following areas; __________ in the Cockpit, __________ in the Crew rest area, and __________ in the Cargo compartment.
    2; 1; 6
  11. 11. The EEBD is a __________ -minute self-contained, disposable breathing unit. There are __________ installed on the aircraft.
    15; 6
  12. 12. If the aircraft is powered by batteries alone and the pilot’s CNC indicates OFF, radio communication is possible using the __________ radio with the VHF/UHF Backup Control panel.
    COM 1
  13. 13. During AE missions, the loadmaster advises the medical crew director that seat belts are required __________.
    immediately prior to takeoff
  14. 14. The purge valve on the Legacy flight crew quick-don mask should be in the __________ position except during preflight and when oxygen is in use where smoke or fumes are not present and goggles are not required.
  15. 15. During in-flight operation of the troop doors, deploy the air deflector between __________ and __________ degrees before opening the first door.
    10; 15
  16. 16. When on/offloading vehicles, do not deflate vehicle pneumatic tires __________.
    below the tires rated inflation pressure
  17. 17. Equipment mounted on a single axle loaded with its tongue resting on the aircraft floor or ramp __________.
    will be drained
  18. 18. When the vehicle is parked on the cargo floor and parking brakes are inoperative, __________.
    install a minimum of two chains and two tiedown devices, one forward and one aft
  19. 19. When loading pallets with a bare tine forklift, one set of inner roller channels may be removed from the ramp toes if the pallet weight does not exceed __________ pounds.
  20. 20. Except where prohibited by specific procedures, open circuit breakers __________ in the event that the electrical condition was transient in nature.
    may be reset once
  21. 21. If both left and right side FEDS Shielded Mild Detonating Cord (SMDC) lines are inoperative (AA-EM w/o TCTO 1549), limit persons on board to a maximum of __________ when mission segments involve overwater flight.
  22. 22. The signal for prepare for ditching or crash landing is
    6 short rings of the alarm bell
  23. 23. All odors not identifiable by the flight crew shall be considered toxic. Refer immediately to __________.
    Fire and Smoke, Smoke, Fire, or Fumes procedure
  24. 24. When ditching is imminent, as a minimum, the loadmaster will provide __________.
    a flashlight and first aid kit
  25. 25. If a fire is being fed by oxygen from an oxygen system, the system should be turned off with the __________ until the fire is suppressed.
    manual shutoff valves
  26. 26. Selective freefall of any landing gear can be accomplished by activating the release handles only for those gear that are not extended. When lowering both main gear on one side, lower __________.
    the forward gear first
  27. 27. The maximum vertical height of a load to be jettisoned is __________ inches measured from the __________ of the pallet/platform.
    118; top
  28. 28. During cargo jettison, ensure all selected lock annunciators are __________ before stating "LOCKS RELEASED".
  29. 29. During a ditching, do not activate __________ prior to the aircraft coming to a rest as life rafts may be lost.
    FEDS hatches
  30. 30. The maximum cargo weight that can be loaded left or right of aircraft center line is __________ pounds, provided all aircraft limitations are complied with.
  31. 31. Do not use __________ cargo compartment lighting in flight. PA system speakers/volume will be deactivated during any condition that activates the cargo compartment lights because of sidewall oxygen system deployment. The speakers/volume must be manually reactivated to make PA announcements.
  32. 32. With ambient temperatures are at or below -9 °C (15 °F), the AUX pumps may not initially generate full pressure. If system pressure does not rise to at least 3500 psi within 30 seconds of selecting the pump to AUTO, select the pump to off, wait 30 seconds and proceed as follows.1. Select the AUX pump to AUTO for 30 seconds, then off for 30 seconds.2. Repeat __________ or until system pressure indicates at least 3500 psi.
    for a maximum of 10 cycles
  33. 33. If a centerline seat assembly cannot be secured with __________ serviceable floor attachment fittings that seat module shall not be installed.
  34. 34. If nonstandard cargo/equipment is presented for airlift and an air transportability certification from AFLCMC/EZFC (ATTLA) does not accompany the load, these items __________.
    may be loaded provided they do not exceed the limitations/procedures in the -9
  35. 35. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than __________ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartments D, F and G.
  36. 36. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than __________ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartment E.
  37. 37. The maximum vehicle weight of a tracked vehicle with articulated suspension loaded in E compartment is __________.
  38. 38. Tracked vehicles with articulated suspension and with wheel weights exceeding __________ lbs (average) must be loaded within 8 inches of aircraft centerline.
  39. 39. Tunner loader furnished bridge plates shall not be used when loading/offloading rolling stock from a K- loader with the ramp toes installed.
  40. 40. Hazardous cargo considered jettisonable __________ be positioned forward of non-jettisonable cargo, except when its size, weight, and location will permit jettison by hand.
    shall not
  41. 41. __________ highlight essential operating procedure, practice, condition or statement, etc. which if not strictly observed could result in damage to, or destruction of equipment or loss of mission effectiveness.
  42. 42. When cargo projects aft of the end of the logistics rails (FS __________), ensure the ramp toes do not contact the cargo while being raised to the vertical position.
  43. 43. When pedestal shoring is used under the Ramp Ground Support Pad for special loads, the shoring shall be a minimum of __________ inches long and __________ inches wide.
  44. 44. The aft end of the ramp toes shall not be supported when in the __________ position.
  45. 45. When winching a vehicle with pneumatic tires up the cargo ramp at a 15 degree angle, a single line winching configuration has a limit of __________ pounds.
  46. 46. When winching and the direction of pull is changed, the sheave __________.
    must be manually realigned to the new direction
  47. 47. In flight, the ramp toes will be __________.
    stowed on the cargo door or installed and raised to the up (vertical overcenter) position
  48. 48. Palletized seat assemblies may be loaded in the logistic rails when transported as cargo. Passengers will not occupy palletized seats in the logistic rails.
  49. 49. On aeromedical evacuation missions with litter or ambulatory patients, the ramp is restricted __________.
    to two pallets in the ADS rails or centerline floor loaded items
  50. 50. Pallets or pallet trains up to __________ pounds per pallet may be loaded into the logistics rail/lock systems provided at least one lock left and one right are engaged in each pallet.
  51. 51. The ramp loadable height capability varies between __________ at the ramp hinge to __________ inches at the end of the ramp.
    156, 116
  52. 52. Spotters are required to observe clearances and to prevent contact with the wing box structure when loading cargo higher than __________ inches forward of FS __________.
    148; 937
  53. 53. When loading ISU containers that are 90 inches or higher into the logistic rails on the aircraft ramp, __________.
    ramp toes with rollers and guide rails shall be installed
  54. 54. The primary method of loading pallets into the ADS and logistic rail system is using the ramp toes.
  55. 55. If __________ are not used, Ramirez 40K and Emerson 25K-loaders must be backed-in when preparing to load/unload cargo into the logistic rail system.
    ramp toes
  56. 56. Required restraint for cargo on the pallet/pallet train shall be provided using nets, tiedown straps, or chains. When supplemental restraint is required, additional tiedowns may be attached to the pallet or cargo floor.
  57. 57. Straps and chains shall not be mixed to restrain cargo in the same direction. However, 10,000 and 25,000 pound rated devices with the appropriate chains may be used for a given direction of restraint.
  58. 58. Netted two pallet trains that exceed __________ shall be restrained to the cargo floor.
    20,710 pounds
  59. 59. Pallets or pallet trains up to 7,800 pounds per pallet may be loaded into the ADS rail/lock system when __________.
    at least one lock left and one right are engaged in each pallet
  60. 60. Ensure the cargo is restrained for __________ prior to raising and closing the ramp when cargo is positioned on the ramp for flight.
    forward and aft directions
  61. 61. When properly installed on a single pallet, the nets provide all the necessary restraint for cargo loads up to __________ pounds when the height of stacked cargo does not exceed 96 inches.
  62. 62. The maximum wheel load on each ramp toe in the low position is __________ pounds.
  63. 63. The maximum pallet/platform weight on two ramp toes is __________ pounds except for 18-foot type VI platforms which may be increased to 14,500 pounds.
  64. 64. The maximum single axle load on the toes in the low position is __________ pounds.
  65. 65. Vehicles with transmissions that are not equipped with a neutral position shall be loaded/offloaded using the cargo winch.
  66. 66. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked to 96 inches shall not exceed __________ pounds.
  67. 67. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked above 96 inches (not to exceed 100 inches) shall not exceed __________ pounds.
  68. 68. All vehicle winching must be closely monitored by a crew of at least __________ personnel.
  69. 69. When low profile cargo does not permit the use of side nets, the top net may be used by itself provided the cargo weight does not exceed __________ pounds and cargo height does not exceed __________ inches from the pallet surface.
    2,500; 45
  70. 70. When plywood barriers and chain bridles are installed for forward restraint on palletized cargo, pallets that exceed __________ inches in height will have a minimum of __________ bridle(s) installed and the minimum thickness for the barrier will be __________ inches.
    30; 2; 3/4
  71. 71. If __________ stowage pins are not engaged on __________ side of each toe stowed on the cargo door, that toe may come loose during flight.
    lower; both left and right
  72. 72. If not carefully monitored, MHE may contact the aircraft __________ while positioning pallets/platforms for loading into the logistic rail system.
  73. 73. To maintain continuous cable tension, while winching, it may be necessary to physically __________ the vehicle/item aft when traversing the main floor/ramp hinge while the loadmaster gradually unwinds the cable.
  74. 74. Empty 463L pallets may be stacked for airlift up to a maximum of __________ pallets, excluding the base support pallet.
  75. 75. During palletized cargo loading (non –winching), the minimum distance between the aircraft ramp/toes and K- loader is __________ inches.
  76. 76. Damage may occur if cargo tiedown that spans from the main floor to the ramp is not __________or sufficiently slackened.
  77. 77. The minimum thickness of rolling shoring shall be __________ inch(es).
  78. 78. With the ramp toes in the high position, the required overlap between the ramp toe contact pads and the floor of the loader is __________ inches.
  79. 79. In the high position the ramp toes should be at an angle which causes the aft end of the toe to be above coplanar position with the ramp floor.
  80. 80. Each tiedown ring can accommodate up to __________CGU-1/B tiedown straps for any directional pull calculations.
  81. 81. When attaching multiple devices to one tiedown ring, the ring __________.
    cannot be used for both forward and aft restraint
  82. 82. Assure that a minimum of __________ turns of strap is wound around ratchet spool to prevent slippage of 5K pounds capacity strap.
    1 1/2
  83. 83. To ensure good CRM when there is a multiple loadmaster requirement, the __________ loadmaster assumes overall responsibility for completion of all checklists.
  84. 84. __________ or __________will be worn at all times while crewmembers are operating at their primary duty station.
    Headsets; helmets
  85. 85. Due to mission requirements, and at the discretion of the PIC, loadmasters may occupy a seat on the flight deck or in the cargo compartment.
  86. 86. Use of non-mission related material is prohibited by any crewmember during any critical phase of flight. After completion of the __________ Checklist, the PIC may authorize the use of other media if deemed appropriate.
  87. 87. C-17 missions can release up to __________ seats for passengers with checked bags without a baggage pallet/position.
  88. 88. ERO: Do not on-load or offload through the crew entrance door and the cargo ramp/door at the same time unless both doors are directly supervised by a/an __________.
    C-17A qualified pilot/loadmaster
  89. 89. Emergency airlift of personnel: For planning purposes, an estimate of __________ personnel can be seated on the main floor, and __________ on the ramp. The number of personnel vary depending on their size, amount of baggage/equipment carried, and the number of tiedown straps onboard the aircraft.
    300, 50
  90. 90. The maximum altitude for emergency airlift of personnel will not exceed flight level __________.
  91. 91. The __________ is the on-scene expert for load planning and accepting cargo for airlift.
  92. 92. The following smoke detectors are required for home station/main operating base departures: One AV, all 4 IRU, __________ plus two others in the cargo compartment.
    CAR 9, 10, 13, 14
  93. 93. Other than refueling/defueling with JP-4, loading/downloading flares, or servicing LOX, simultaneous servicing of fuel while loading passengers/patients, cargo (including hazardous or explosive), performing maintenance, aircrew members performing inspections or operating aircraft systems is considered normal fuel servicing operations.
  94. 94. Maintenance personnel or a crew member should be used to act as "ground" during engine starts. The engines may be started without someone outside the aircraft. If this option is used, ensure all crewmembers are thoroughly briefed.
  95. 95. The maximum FDP for a basic aircrew (including Basic +1) is __________ hours, (__________) hours when the autopilot and/or autothrottles are inoperative).
  96. 96. Maximum CDT is __________ hours for a basic aircrew.
    18 hours
  97. 97. Maximum CDT for an augmented aircrew is __________ hours.
  98. 98. __________ is the waiver authority for all missions (in regards to Minimum Equipment List).
    The WG/CC or equivalent, delegable no lower than OG/CC
  99. 99. Do not taxi an aircraft within __________ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least __________.
    25 feet; 10 feet
  100. 100. Personnel performing duties requiring them to be mobile in the cargo compartment during airdrop, low level operations, or threat environments will wear __________.
    protective headgear

    123. Instructors will receive credit for the courses they teach.

    124. Instructors are responsible to provide students with __________.
    thorough preflight briefings, post-flight briefings and critiques

    125. Should the judgement or proficiency of the trainee raise a question in the instructor’s mind as to the trainee’s ability to safely execute the duties of the aircrew position at any time during the flight, the instructor will immediately __________.
    takeover the duties

    126. An aircrew member is unqualified upon expiration of __________.
              a. qualification evaluation

              b. loss of currency exceeding 6 months

              c. completion of qualification evaluation in a different MDS

              d. all of the above
    d. all of the above

    127. Individuals who complete the applicable instructor course are qualified instructors __________.
    for all mission qualification events in which they maintain currency

    128. Instructors will review each trainee's TMS training record __________.
    prior to performing each training flight or session

    129. When performing crewmember duties, the following personnel will be under direct supervision of an instructor of like specialty:

              a. non-current crewmembers

              b. crewmembers in initial, upgrade or re-qualification flying training unless syllabus states direct supervision is not required

              c. any other personnel designated by the wing, OG, or SQ/CC

              d. all the above
    d. all the above

    130. Instructors shall be current and qualified in any event they instruct.
Card Set
MQF LM Oct 2019
MQF LM Oct 2019