Introduction to Urban and Industrial Integrated Pest Management Final Exam

  1. Pretarsal pads are an important avenue for transferring [a] to pest insects as well as a mechanism for [b].
    • residual insecticide deposits
    • spreading disease organisms
  2. The respiratory system of an insect is made up of a series of tubes, called [a], which extend into the body. These tubes open to the outside of the body through openings known as [b].
    • tracheoles
    • tracheae
    • spiracles
  3. [a] are special excretory tubes that attach to and empty into the hind portion of the digestive tract for waste removal.
    Malpighian tubules
  4. The most primitive type of mouthparts in insects is the [a] type, and all other types are thought to be modifications thereof.
    chewing
  5. The [a] are the insects' sense organs having the function of touch, smell, and in some cases, [b].
    • antennae
    • hearing
  6. An insect may be identified as such because all insects have [a] pairs of legs and [b] distinct body regions.
    • 3
    • 3
  7. When conducting an inspection, question the customer about the kind of pests, [a], and [b] or [c].
    • the number of pests
    • pest location
    • pest damage and length of time pests present
  8. Positive and accurate [a] is needed to make a thorough evaluation of the problem and an appropriate [b] for control.
    • identification
    • recommendation
  9. In green pest management, if a pesticide is needed, use products or formulations with [a] and [b].
    • reduced toxicity
    • reduced exposure potential
  10. Pest prevention using monitoring programs is key to the suppression of pests through the reduction of pest access, habitat, and availability of [a]and [b].
    • food
    • water
  11. Because of the challenges associated with the public's concern about pesticides and the environment, it will be necessary for PMPs to:
    a.)use more biorational and target-specific pesticides

    b.)use more non-chemical treatments

    c.)use more products that increase insect resistance to insecticides

    d.)practice more preventive pest management
    a.)use more biorational and target-specific pesticides

    b.)use more non-chemical treatments

    d.)practice more preventive pest management
  12. What are the primary functions of the insect head?
    sensing danger and enemies

    locating food

    recognizing mates, cohorts

    taking food
  13. In green pest management, pesticide application standards include:
    a.)using the minimum quantity to achieve control

    b.)using precise application techniques

    c.)using pesticides according to need only

    d.)using pesticides wherever possible
    a.)using the minimum quantity to achieve control

    b.)using precise application techniques

    c.)using pesticides according to need only
  14. Best record-keeping practices in green pest management include
    a.)documenting the practices used

    b.)keeping records for two years

    c.)listing only high-toxicity insecticides

    d.)maintaining records in an easy-to-understand manner
    a.)documenting the practices used

    b.)keeping records for two years

    d.)maintaining records in an easy-to-understand manner
  15. Which of the following have a significant impact on controlling insect pests?
    a.)removal of food

    b.)removing shelter (harborage)

    c.)reducing water available to pests

    d.)none of the above
    a.)removal of food

    b.)removing shelter (harborage)

    c.)reducing water available to pests
  16. It is important to know the type of mouthparts pest insects have because this knowledge
    a.)may indicate where to find the insect by looking for a suitable food source

    b.)may help in identifying the insect

    c.)may tell you how it reproduces

    d.)may tell something about the food habits of the insect
    a.)may indicate where to find the insect by looking for a suitable food source

    b.)may help in identifying the insect 

    d.)may tell something about the food habits of the insect
  17. Characteristics of insect antennae frequently used to identify some insects include
    a.)number of segments

    b.)shape of the whole antennae

    c.)shape of the antennal segments

    d.)relative size of the antennal segments
    a.)number of segments

    b.)shape of the whole antennae

    c.)shape of the antennal segments

    d.)relative size of the antennal segments
  18. Parts of an insect leg include
    a.)tibia

    b.)ankle

    c.)tarsus

    d.)femur
    a.)tibia

    c.)tarsus

    d.)femur
  19. The functions of the insect exoskeleton include:
    a.)furnishing insects with a protective covering

    b.)preventing the penetration of insecticides

    c.)providing a barrier to water loss

    d.)providing an anchoring point for muscle attachment
    a.)furnishing insects with a protective covering

    c.)providing a barrier to water loss

    d.)providing an anchoring point for muscle attachment
  20. Which of the following are hallmarks of urban insect pest management?
    a.)human factors are not included

    b.)decisions for solving pest problems are based on need

    c.)health, aesthetics, satisfaction are considered

    d.)coordination of management techniques are not important
    b.)decisions for solving pest problems are based on need

    c.)health, aesthetics, satisfaction are considered
  21. Define integrated pest management (IPM) and then list three areas where the IPM program needs to be compatible with current public expectations.
    • Definition:
    • IPM is a process that utilizes regular monitoring
    • to determine if and when a treatment is needed
    • whereby all available and effective management techniques are coordinated into the program.

    • Areas:
    • so that it is environmentally,
    • socially,
    • and economically compatible.
  22. Give a brief definition of green pest management and outline four of its essential aspects.
    • Definition: 
    • An environmentally responsible program
    • that is least toxic.


    • Aspects:
    • Customer education,
    • participation in problem solving
    • and feedback
    • to establish a working partnership.
    • Use non-chemical methods to the fullest
    • extent,
    • monitor pest populations,
    • use insecticides and formulations that are
    • least-toxic.
  23. Describe four ways insect vision differs from vision in humans.
    • Insects don’t get as clear an image of objects
    • Insect ability to distinguish form not as well developed
    • Insects are very sensitive to motion
    • Insects see farther into the UV range, but don’t see as far into the red range
  24. The initial, perhaps most important, step in solving a pest problem is the inspection. List four things you should look for during the inspection.
    • food
    • harborage
    • means of entry
    • evidence of infestation
    • moist areas
    • warm or hot areas
    • darkness
    • water
    • damage
    • droppings
    • tracks
    • actual pest specimens
  25. Adult mites have [a] pairs of legs and belong to the class [b]. Immature ticks have [c] pairs of legs and belong to the class [d].
    • four
    • Arachnida
    • three
    • Arachnida
  26. The classification hierarchy goes as follows: Kingdom, [a], [b], Order, [c], [d] , Species.
    • Phylum
    • Class
    • Family
    • Genus
  27. [a] are of the insect order Ephemerptera, and undergo an additional stage called the [b] stage, where they go through one molt after becoming an adult.
    • Mayflies
    • subimago
  28. Insects belong to the phylum [a], which means [b].
    • Arthropoda
    • jointed legs (foot or appendage)
  29. Some insects, such as cockroaches, enclose several eggs together in a(n) [a].
    ootheca/capsule
  30. Cockroaches and termites undergo [a] metamorphosis. The life stages involved are [b], [c], and [d].
    • gradual
    • egg
    • nymph
    • adult
  31. [a] hormone is associated with the process of shedding the old cuticle.
    Juvenile/Molting/Ecclysone
  32. About [a] percent of the dry weight of an insect's exoskeleton is chitin.
    50
  33. Juvenile hormone (JH) is involved in the molting process. During the between-molt stages of insects, JH levels are relatively [a].
    high
  34. Millipedes belong to the class [a].
    Diplopoda
  35. An unknown insect may be identified by referring to
    a.)pictorial keys

    b.)your local sanitation department

    c.)the cooperative extension service

    d.)diagnostic keys
    a.)pictorial keys

    c.)the cooperative extension service

    d.)diagnostic keys
  36. Common insects occurring in the Order Isoptera include
    a.)silverfish

    b.)bristletails

    c.)termites

    d.)earwigs
    c.)termites
  37. Arthropods are distinguished from other animals by having
    a.)a segmented (jointed) body

    b.)paired, segmented appendages

    c.)an internal skeleton

    d.)bilateral symmetry
    a.)a segmented (jointed) body

    b.)paired, segmented appendages

    d.)bilateral symmetry
  38. Human beings belong to the
    a.)Family Hominidae

    b.)Class Mammalia

    c.)Genus Blattella

    d.)Animal Kingdom
    a.)Family Hominidae

    b.)Class Mammalia

    d.)Animal Kingdom
  39. Examples of insects that undergo gradual metamorphosis include
    a.)ants

    b.)bedbugs

    c.)cockroaches

    d.)dragonflies
    b.)bedbugs

    c.)cockroaches
  40. Class Insecta is characterized by the presence of
    a.)two pairs of antennae

    b.)four pairs of wings

    c.)usually one or two pairs of wings

    d.)three distinct body regions
    c.)usually one or two pairs of wings

    d.)three distinct body regions
  41. The arthropods include:
    a.)booklice

    b.)lobsters

    c.)centipedes

    d.)earwigs
    a.)booklice

    b.)lobsters

    c.)centipedes

    d.)earwigs
  42. The German cockroach belongs to the
    a.)Animal kingdom

    b.)Class Mammalia

    c.)Phylum Arthropoda

    d.)Family Coccidae
    a.)Animal kingdom

    c.)Phylum Arthropoda
  43. The insect order Hymenoptera include the
    a.)ants

    b.)bees

    c.)termites

    d.)wasps
    a.)ants

    b.)bees

    d.)wasps
  44. The Class Insecta includes
    a.)ticks

    b.)mites

    c.)spiders

    d.)beetles
    d.)beetles
  45. List the life stages for insects having complete metamorphosis.
    Egg

    Larva

    Pupa

    Adult
  46. List the life stages for insects having no metamorphosis (i.e., without metamorphosis).
    Egg

    Young

    Adult
  47. List the life stages for insects having gradual metamorphosis.
    Egg

    Nymph

    Adult
  48. What characteristics can be used to separate insects (Insecta) from spiders (Arachnida)? Contrast the three characteristics
    • Insects:
    • 3 body regions (head,thorax, abdomen)
    • 3 pairs of legs
    • 1 or 2 pairs of wings
    • Antennae present

    • Arachnida:
    • 2 body regions (cephalothorax, abdomen)
    • 4 pairs of legs
    • no wings
    • no antennae
  49. List 2 distinguishing features between millipedes and centipedes
    millipedes have 2 pairs of legs on each segment, centipedes have 1 pair

    millipedes have short antennae, centipedes usually have long antennae and many are jointed

    millipedes legs are joined to the underside of the body, centipede legs are joined close to the underside of the body
  50. What are the types of metamorphosis that occur in insects, and give an insect example for each type?
    • Ametabolous (without) - silverfsh
    • Hemimetabolous (gradual) - cockroaches, termites, earwigs, crickets, bed bugs & lice
    • Hemimetabolous (incomplete) - mayflies, dragonflies & damselflies
    • Holometabolous (complete) - fleas, flies, beetles, moths, ants, wasps and mosquitos
  51. [a] are chemicals that contact the outside of the insect's body directly while being applied.
    Contact insecticides
  52. The neonicotinoid compounds [a] and [b] are examples of active ingredients that disrupt transmissions of nerve impulses across synapses.
    • imidacloprid
    • acetamidprid
    • thiamethoxam
    • dinotefuran
  53. Most inorganics have rather [a] killing action and are some of the oldest insecticides, but [b] is an example of one that continues to be widely used today.
    • slow
    • boric acid
  54. Any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest is called a [a].
    pesticide
  55. The amount of technical pesticide which will kill one half of a group of test animals is called the [a] The higher this number is for a particular pesticide, the [b] the toxicity of the pesticide.
    • LD50
    • lower
  56. [a] repel insects, mites, and ticks, and vertebrate pests.
    Repellents
  57. Natural pyrethrins are used in combination with [a] such as piperonyl butoxide, to add insect killing power to the rapid flushing and knockdown action of pyrethrins.
    synergists
  58. [a] are gaseous pesticides whose physical properties enable them to penetrate solid material, such as wood and stored foods.
    Fumigants
  59. The mode of action for both organophosphates and carbamates involves the inhibition of an important enzyme in the nervous system called [a].
    cholinesterase
  60. The oral LD 50 value for cypermethrin is 247 mg/kg, compared to >5,000 mg/kg for hexaflumuron; therefore, [a] is the more toxic of these two pesticides.
    cypermethrin
  61. Dessicant insecticides
    a.)must be swallowed to have action on pests

    b.)are very fast acting

    c.)have examples in pyrethrins, chlorpyrifos, and fipronil

    d.)disrupt the protective, waxy outer coating on the insect cuticle
    d.)disrupt the protective, waxy outer coating on the insect cuticle
  62. Synthetic pyrethroids
    a.)are pyrethrin-like materials synthesized by chemists

    b.)act by disrupting proper functioning of nerve axons

    c.)generally have some form of improved action compared to natural pyrethrins

    d.)have long residual action and may have rather poor flushing and knockdown activity
    a.)are pyrethrin-like materials synthesized by chemists

    b.)act by disrupting proper functioning of nerve axons

    c.)generally have some form of improved action compared to natural pyrethrins
  63. Pheromones
    a.)cause death by dehydration

    b.)kill pest eggs

    c.)destroy microorganisms

    d.)are chemicals used by insects and vertebrates to communicate with each other (to attract, to repel, to alarm, etc.)
    d.)are chemicals used by insects and vertebrates to communicate with each other (to attract, to repel, to alarm, etc.)
  64. Boric acid is still widely used today because it
    a.)has long residual action

    b.)is non-repellent to cockroaches and ants

    c.)has a fast killing action

    d.)has no know pest resistance problems
    a.)has long residual action

    b.)is non-repellent to cockroaches and ants

    d.)has no know pest resistance problems
  65. The type of formulation can greatly affect the
    a.)resistance of the pest to the active ingredient

    b.)persistence of the effective residual activity

    c.)speed of contact action

    d.)variety of surface types on which effective residual action can be achieved
    b.)persistence of the effective residual activity

    c.)speed of contact action

    d.)variety of surface types on which effective residual action can be achieved
  66. You should not keep an emulsion in a sprayer overnight because
    a.)of the fire hazard

    b.)the emulsion will likely separate out

    c.)the insecticide could chemically degrade when left for an extended period

    d.)it is prohibited by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act
    b.)the emulsion will likely separate out

    c.)the insecticide could chemically degrade when left for an extended period
  67. Resistance
    a.)may be physiological or behavioral

    b.)is a measurable lessening of an insecticide's effectiveness

    c.)occurs frequently in pests with high rates of reproduction

    d.)is a population, not an individual response to the presence of insecticides
    a.)may be physiological or behavioral

    b.)is a measurable lessening of an insecticide's effectiveness

    c.)occurs frequently in pests with high rates of reproduction

    d.)is a population, not an individual response to the presence of insecticides
  68. The ingredients in a finished emulsion are
    a.)water

    b.)a wettable powder

    c.)an emulsifier

    d.)oil solvent
    a.)water

    c.)an emulsifier

    d.)oil solvent
  69. Repellents include
    a.)4-aminopyridine

    b.)d-limonene

    c.)picaridin

    d.)actamiprid
    a.)4-aminopyridine

    b.)d-limonene

    c.)picaridin
  70. The way in which active and inert ingredients are preparedfor sale to the user
    formulation
  71. Chemicals in a product that produce the pesticide effect
    active ingredient
  72. A detergent-like chemical that aids in suspending one liquid in another
    emulsifier
  73. A substance in a pesticide product having no pesticidal action
    inert ingredient
  74. Pesticides which form poisonous gases when applied
    fumigants
  75. The purest available form of any pesticide
    technical grade
  76. List two advantages of using an insect growth regulator (IGR) over another insecticidal compound.
    • disrupt growth and development
    • low toxicity to mammals
    • sterilize insects
    • can be used when insects are resistant to other chemicals
  77. List the names of three insect growth regulators (IGRs)
    • hydroprene (Gentrol)
    • methoprene (Precor)
    • pyriproxifen (Nylar, Archer)
  78. Name five (5) factors the pest management professional should consider when choosing the best pesticide formulation for the job.
    • biological
    • structural
    • environmental
    • human
    • label directions and precautions
    • surface to be treated
    • equipment available
    • safety
    • pest (type, habits)
    • cost
  79. The two kinds of clues to pesticide poisoning are [a] and [b].
    • symptoms
    • signs
  80. As a general rule, pesticides carried in a service vehicle should be in their original [a], with the original [b] on them.
    • container
    • label
  81. Pesticides are safe when properly and carefully applied according to [a].
    label directions
  82. [a] is the degree of danger involved in exposure to the pesticide as it is used.
    Hazard
  83. People that have extreme concern about the use of any pesticides and other chemicals are called [a].
    chemophobic
  84. If a company is sued for an accident or mishap involving a pesticide safety issue, a key aspect of the legal defense is the ability to demonstrate and [a] the company's ongoing commitment to [b].
    • document
    • safety
  85. A rapid response, often within minutes or hours, to a single exposure or dose of the chemical is called [a] toxicity.
    acute
  86. Pesticides are EPA labelled. The EPA grants only a label [a]; the pest management professional is responsible for [b] use.
    • registration
    • safe
  87. When mixing pesticides, the professional wears safety gloves made from [a], [b], or neoprene.
    • rubber
    • polyethylene
  88. Work clothes used during pesticide applications should always be washed [a] from other items.
    separately
  89. If a pesticide poisoning is suspected due to symptoms being exhibited in an individual
    a.)stop the exposure

    b.)call a physician

    c.)save the pesticide container and label for the physician to evaluate

    d.)carry the pesticide container in the passenger compartment of the vehicle while transporting the affected person to medical help
    a.)stop the exposure

    b.)call a physician

    c.)save the pesticide container and label for the physician to evaluate
  90. Electrical equipment can be particularly hazardous in pest management work. What advice should always be observed in this regard?
    a.)breaks in wires or insulation should be simply taped over

    b.)electrically driven tools must be wired for three wire service, so that they can be easily grounded

    c.)improper grounding can cause electrical shocks

    d.)ordinary household extension cords are adequate for electric power tools
    b.)electrically driven tools must be wired for three wire service, so that they can be easily grounded

    c.)improper grounding can cause electrical shocks
  91. Some of the ways to avoid pesticide exposure via absorption include
    a.)using protective clothing

    b.)not laundering clothing

    c.)keeping safety equipment clean and in good working condition

    d.)washing hands before using the bathroom
    a.)using protective clothing

    c.)keeping safety equipment clean and in good working condition

    d.)washing hands before using the bathroom
  92. Respirator cartridges
    a.)come with instructions on how often to change them

    b.)should be immediately thrown away if they are old

    c.)should not be removed before cleaning

    d.)always contain a filter and absorbent material
    a.)come with instructions on how often to change them

    b.)should be immediately thrown away if they are old

    d.)always contain a filter and absorbent material
  93. Signs and symptoms produced by mild poisoning with pyrethroid insecticides include
    a.)allergic-type reactions

    b.)tingling or irritation of facial skin

    c.)dizziness

    d.)unconsciousness
    a.)allergic-type reactions

    b.)tingling or irritation of facial skin
  94. Proper storage of pesticides in buildings includes
    a.)checking containers regularly for any sign of leaks or deterioration of contents

    b.)providing for adequate ventilation in the storage area

    c.)keeping the storage area locked securely at all times

    d.)keeping them near an open flame to avoid freezing
    a.)checking containers regularly for any sign of leaks or deterioration of contents

    b.)providing for adequate ventilation in the storage area

    c.)keeping the storage area locked securely at all times
  95. When should outdoor applications of pesticides not be made?
    a.)when the wind velocity is in excess of three to four miles per hour

    b.)immediately before a heavy rainstorm

    c.)when drift of insecticide sprays into bodies of water could occur

    d.)in areas where pets or children are present
    a.)when the wind velocity is in excess of three to four miles per hour

    b.)immediately before a heavy rainstorm

    c.)when drift of insecticide sprays into bodies of water could occur

    d.)in areas where pets or children are present
  96. Some representative responses to toxic chemicals may include:
    a.)effects on the nervous system

    b.)effects on the reproductive system

    c.)the possibility of infertility or birth defects

    d.)irritation and allergic skin reactions
    a.)effects on the nervous system

    b.)effects on the reproductive system

    c.)the possibility of infertility or birth defects

    d.)irritation and allergic skin reactions
  97. Chemicals are toxic to people and animals in varying degrees, depending on
    a.)the individual animal or person involved

    b.)the means of chemical entry into the body (inhalation, ingestion, or absorption)

    c.)the type of chemical

    d.)the EPA
    a.)the individual animal or person involved

    b.)the means of chemical entry into the body (inhalation, ingestion, or absorption)

    c.)the type of chemical
  98. Special protective clothing
    a.)is always required when the professional makes spot treatments with insecticides or places rodent baits or traps

    b.)is required when applying insecticides to enclosed spaces

    c.)is required when prolonged exposure to an insecticide may occur

    d.)must be washed regularly to prevent skin absorption of insecticides
    b.)is required when applying insecticides to enclosed spaces

    c.)is required when prolonged exposure to an insecticide may occur

    d.)must be washed regularly to prevent skin absorption of insecticides
  99. 24-hour hotline set up by pesticide manufacturers to provide emergency information
    CHEMTREC
  100. A device used for preventing electrical shock, by breaking a circuit to shut off electrical current
    ground fault interrupter
  101. the innate (natural) capacity of a chemical to be poisonous at some level
    toxicity
  102. pesticides that break down slowly after being applied and can remain in the environment without change for a long time
    persistent pesticide
  103. People with extreme concern about the use of pesticides or pesticide other chemicals
    chemophobic
  104. Describe the five (5) steps of the triple-rinse procedure to remove pesticide residues from empty pesticide containers.
    • drain container into spray tank
    • fill container 1/4 full with water
    • cap container and shake
    • drain rinse mixture into spray tank
    • repeat 2 more times
  105. List four (4) general first-aid instructions for pesticide poisonings.
    • give mouth to mouth or CPR if breathing has stopped
    • stop the exposure
    • call for help
    • save the label for use by medical responders
  106. List four important items that might be used for a pesticide spill.
    • towels
    • rags
    • absorbent/kitty litter
    • plastic bags
    • broom/dust pan
    • shovel
  107. Give two reasons why the rule of thumb less is better is used when it comes to pesticides.
    • Problems with regulatory compliance will be greatly reduced
    • Many problems will be avoided in case of fire, accident, other disaster
  108. Most nozzles on the hand-held sprayer offer a four-way multi-tip which can produce two [a] spray patterns and two [b] spray patterns.
    • pin stream
    • flat fan
  109. The hand-held [a] sprayer is the most widely used piece of pesticide application equipment in the industry.
    compressed air
  110. Equipment for applying pesticides can be placed into five general groups: 1) bait applicators; 2) [a] ; 3) [b]; 4) [c] and 5) [d] .
    • exterior bait stations
    • sprayers
    • aerosol and fogging equipment
    • dusters
  111. The amount of pressure that builds up in the tank is expressed as [a] or [b].
    • PSI
    • pounds per inch
  112. Sprayer pressure affects the amount of insecticide applied and the type of pesticide [a].
    coverage
  113. Droplets of 100 to 400 microns are classified as [a], while droplets larger than 400 microns are referred to as [b].
    • fine sprays
    • coarse sprays
  114. Lacquers are too [a] to be applied with standard nozzles and tips, and the use of [b] and hand-application is required.
    • thick
    • paintbrushes
  115. The concept of ULD treatments using a [a] involves distributing a very small amount of concentrated insecticide solution over a relatively [b] area.
    • cold fogger
    • large
  116. Droplets produced by cold foggers are in the 5 to 15 micron range and remain airborne for periods of [a] hours.
    two to six
  117. Generally, it is the size of the opening in the nozzle through which the liquid is forced which determines the insecticide [a] size.
    droplet
  118. Regarding backpack or knapsack sprayers,
    a.)most professionals don't use tanks exceeding the 3-gal. capacity

    b.)they are used for applying herbicides and insecticides to building perimeter

    c.)most use specialized hand-operated levers

    d.)they are the choice for precision applications using low pressures
    a.)most professionals don't use tanks exceeding the 3-gal. capacity

    b.)they are used for applying herbicides and insecticides to building perimeter

    c.)most use specialized hand-operated levers
  119. To keep up-to-date on pest control equipment, the professional can:
    a.)review current trade magazines

    b.)review equipment information brochures

    c.)talk with their suppliers

    d.)attend educational conferences and seminars
    a.)review current trade magazines

    b.)review equipment information brochures

    c.)talk with their suppliers

    d.)attend educational conferences and seminars
  120. Some important considerations when selecting the right pump for the job include
    a.)the amount of pressure needed for the spraying operation

    b.)if high pressure or larger volume applications will be made

    c.)the LD50 of pesticides used

    d.)the type of pesticide formulation that will be used in the sprayer
    a.)the amount of pressure needed for the spraying operation

    b.)if high pressure or larger volume applications will be made

    d.)the type of pesticide formulation that will be used in the sprayer
  121. Foam applicators
    a.)have been mostly used for termite control efforts in the past

    b.)are available as handheld units for applying to hard-to-reach structural voids

    c.)are not good for treating floor drains

    d.)provide good residual coverage
    a.)have been mostly used for termite control efforts in the past

    b.)are available as handheld units for applying to hard-to-reach structural voids

    d.)provide good residual coverage
  122. If a compressed air sprayer is used daily, it should be cleaned thoroughly at least once a week. To clean the tank
    a.)never use ammonia or other detergents to clean inside the tank

    b.)scrub the outside of the tank with steel wool and detergent

    c.)fill the tank with hot water and soak overnight

    d.)rinse the tank thoroughly with clean water
    b.)scrub the outside of the tank with steel wool and detergent

    d.)rinse the tank thoroughly with clean water
  123. A nozzle may be unclogged safely by
    a.)using a soft bristle brush

    b.)back-flushing with water

    c.)using a knife

    d.)cleaning the nozzle with a pin
    a.)using a soft bristle brush

    b.)back-flushing with water
  124. Power sprayer nozzle performance depends on:
    a.)nozzle design or type

    b.)operating pressure

    c.)size of the opening

    d.)distance from nozzle to target
    a.)nozzle design or type

    b.)operating pressure

    c.)size of the opening

    d.)distance from nozzle to target
  125. A power sprayer system can be broken down into five major components, including
    a.)tank

    b.)pump and motor

    c.)shunt

    d.)applicator or nozzle
    a.)tank

    b.)pump and motor

    d.)applicator or nozzle
  126. Liquid insecticidal sprays are categorized according to the size of the particle that makes up the spray. Which of the following are correct?
    a.)coarse spray = droplet size of 400 microns and larger

    b.)mist aerosol = 100-400 microns

    c.)fog aerosols = 50-100 microns

    d.)vapors = less than 0.001 microns
    a.)coarse spray = droplet size of 400 microns and larger

    d.)vapors = less than 0.001 microns
  127. Proper calibration of cold fogging equipment is critical because
    a.)large droplets will settle out of the air too rapidly

    b.)small droplets will be deflected around the target insect rather than hitting and sticking on it

    c.)machines producing a visible fog create the potential for various hazards

    d.)droplets may be too wet
    a.)large droplets will settle out of the air too rapidly

    b.)small droplets will be deflected around the target insect rather than hitting and sticking on it

    c.)machines producing a visible fog create the potential for various hazards
  128. Provides an even coat of spray on flat surfaces
    flat-fan nozzle
  129. Simple in form and function, but probably the most important piece of (ULD) equipment in the pest management industry
    flashlight
  130. Pressurized aerosol containers
    PACS
  131. Distributing a very small amount of concentrated insecticide solution over a relatively large area
    ultra-low dosage
  132. Unit of measure (1/1,000 of a millimeter) used to determine the diameter of spray droplets
    micron
  133. List five safety considerations when using thermal foggers.
    • -amounts of 1 gal. of pesticide per 50,000 cu. ft. of enclosed space must never be exceeded
    • - open flames must be extinguished
    • - these machines must be kept away from all combustible materials and appliances
    • - electric switches must not be operated (on or off) if there is any fog in the air
    • - avoid touching heated portions of the machine as well as not allowing machine to touch any objects
  134. List six (6) helpful tips for the proper and safe use of cold fogging machines indoors.
    • - wear respirator
    • - evacuate building occupants
    • - remove exposed food, utensils
    • - cover food-contact surfaces
    • - close all doors, windows
    • - turn off all pilot lights
    • - before people return, ventilate rooms
    • - thoroughly wash food-contact surfaces after treatment
  135. Explain how a compressed air sprayer works. Include the four (4) major steps.
    • - air is pumped into spray mixture from pump cylinder
    • - air rises to top of tank and is compressed
    • - compressed air exerts pressuer on spray mixture
    • - spray mixtureis forced into discharge tube and hose when valve is opened
  136. Because some species are good [a], cockroaches are well known for moving to new areas via "hitchhiking".
    fliers
  137. Female cockroaches which are carrying egg cases are said to be [a].
    gravid
  138. Wings of adult cockroaches may be [a] and functional or [b] and almost nonexistent.
    • long
    • short
  139. Cockroaches may be seen in the [a] particularly when a heavy [b] is present.
    • daytime
    • population/infestation
  140. [a] is a behavioral trait in cockroaches where they generally prefer to have the side or top of their body touching another object.
    Thigmotaxis
  141. Following a thorough inspection, [a] efforts will help to eliminate [b], [c], and [d] available to cockroach populations.
    • sanitation
    • food
    • moisture
    • harborage
  142. Perhaps the most basic principle for applying insecticides against cockroaches is to place them directly into or near [a].
    • crack & crevices
    • harborages
  143. Cockroaches develop by [a] metamorphosis that consists of three stages [b], [c], and [d].
    • gradual
    • egg
    • nymph
    • adult
  144. The effect where the frass of cockroaches that fed on insecticide bait is itself eaten by and causes death in other cockroaches is called [a] .
    secondary kill/horizontal transfer
  145. The [a] cockroach appears to have been introduced through the Port of Tampa, Florida. It is very similar in appearance to the [b] cockroach, but has very different behavior.
    • Asian
    • German
  146. The Oriental cockroach
    a.)may spend considerable time outdoors in warm weather

    b.)female has wings that cover about 3/4 of her abdomen

    c.)cannot fly

    d.)is seldom found in the upper floors of buildings
    a.)may spend considerable time outdoors in warm weather

    c.)cannot fly

    d.)is seldom found in the upper floors of buildings
  147. The German cockroach
    a.)is the most common cockroach species in houses, apartments, restaurants, and hotels

    b.)female lacks wings

    c.)nymphs are often nearly black in color

    d.)adults have two dark stripes on the thorax
    a.)is the most common cockroach species in houses, apartments, restaurants, and hotels

    c.)nymphs are often nearly black in color

    d.)adults have two dark stripes on the thorax
  148. The Australian cockroach
    a.)is similar in appearance to the American cockroach

    b.)is usually more than 1 1/4 in. long

    c.)is reddish brown with yellow stripes along the wings

    d.)has symmetrical, brown and elongated egg capsules
    a.)is similar in appearance to the American cockroach

    c.)is reddish brown with yellow stripes along the wings

    d.)has symmetrical, brown and elongated egg capsules
  149. The brown cockroach
    a.)is distributed in the northern states, from Washington to Ohio

    b.)resembles the American cockroach

    c.)occurs both indoors and outdoors

    d.)normally feeds on plant material
    b.)resembles the American cockroach

    c.)occurs both indoors and outdoors

    d.)normally feeds on plant material
  150. Cockroach control
    a.)can usually be accomplished without using insecticides

    b.)can be accomplished by using the crack and crevice treatment method

    c.)with a compressed air sprayer can best be accomplished with a fan type nozzle

    d.)cannot involve the use of insecticides in food processing and handling areas
    b.)can be accomplished by using the crack and crevice treatment method
  151. Good sanitation
    a.)is the first aspect of the treatment phase in cockroach management

    b.)helps to eliminate food, moisture, and harborage available to the cockroach

    c.)alone can substantially reduce German cockroach population size

    d.)places stress on cockroaches
    a.)is the first aspect of the treatment phase in cockroach management

    b.)helps to eliminate food, moisture, and harborage available to the cockroach

    d.)places stress on cockroaches
  152. Insect growth regulators (IGRs)
    a.)are not useful in cockroach management programs

    b.)are most effective when used in conjunction with conventional residual insecticides

    c.)are recommended for outdoor use against cockroaches

    d.)restrict the high reproductive potential of cockroach populations
    b.)are most effective when used in conjunction with conventional residual insecticides

    d.)restrict the high reproductive potential of cockroach populations
  153. In German cockroach management,
    a.)the key is to only focus on one of the management tools available

    b.)thoroughness in important in inspection

    c.)greater levels of control is achievable since the late 1980's

    d.)dusts are one of the most effective types of residual insecticide
    b.)thoroughness in important in inspection

    c.)greater levels of control is achievable since the late 1980's

    d.)dusts are one of the most effective types of residual insecticide
  154. The following are residual insecticide applications recognized by the EPA
    a.)spot

    b.)space treatment

    c.)general

    d.)crack and crevice
    a.)spot

    c.)general

    d.)crack and crevice
  155. Cockroaches
    a.)generally prefer a warm, moist environment

    b.)have gradual metamorphosis

    c.)have piercing-sucking mouthparts

    d.)are not active at night
    a.)generally prefer a warm, moist environment

    b.)have gradual metamorphosis
  156. Dark brown or nearly black; females have rudimentary wings called wing pads; adult females are 1.25 inches long and males are 1 inch in length
    oriental cockroach
  157. Uniformly mahogany brown color; about 1 inch long
    smoky brown cockroach
  158. Two dark longitudinal stripes on the pronotum; adults are ½ to 5/8 inches long
    German cockroach
  159. Two lighter transverse bands across the base of the wings and abdomen; adults are about ½ inch long
    Brown banded cockroach
  160. Dark brown with the sides of the thorax and front half of the wings margined with yellow; about 2/3 inch long
    Woods cockroach
  161. Reddish brown with yellow border on the upper surface of the pronotum; adults are 1.5 inches or more in length
    American cockroach
  162. Provide two (2) similarities of indoor and outdoor Green Pest Management options for cockroaches for indoor infestations
    • Placing emphasis on inspection and monitoring
    • Boric acid
    • Dust bait formulations
    • Desiccating dusts
  163. Give four (4) reasons why German cockroaches are so successful as pests.
    • large # of eggs per egg capsule
    • fast development
    • female carries the egg capsule
    • smaller than other cockroaches (especially nymphs)
    • resistant to insecticides
    • fast to mature, high reproductive potential
  164. Why are crack and crevice treatments usually best for German cockroach control?
    • - insects spend a lot of time there
    • - safer, more controlled application
    • - less environmental contamination
    • - less risk to nontargets
    • - lower cost
    • - insecticide is protected and last longer
  165. Baits generally consist of cellulose based material impregnated with an [a] or a slow acting [b]
    • insect growth regulator
    • toxicant
  166. Termites are [a] insects that live in groups called [b].
    • social
    • colonies
  167. One of the primary means of communication among termites is via [a], which is the mutual exchange of nutrients and transfer of food between colony members.
    trophallaxis
  168. The [a] caste serves specifically to protect the colony. They do this by gathering and then facing their large and hard heads and mandibles [b] when openings are made into termite colonies.
    • soldier
    • outward
  169. In order to present the results of a termite [a] to the client, it is necessary to make an adequate [b] of the building to be treated.
    • inspection
    • diagram
  170. Termites construct tubes (called mud tubes) which serve to provide them with a [a] environment and [b] them from their enemies.
    • moist
    • protect
  171. Modifying the structure so as to provide a barrier that cannot be penetrated by termites is called [a].
    mechanical alteration
  172. The major objective in soil treatment for subterranean termite control is to establish a [a] between the termite nest in the ground and the wood in a structure.
    chemical barrier
  173. A tool used to force termiticide into holes through concrete slabs to the fill underneath is called a [a]. This device is essential, as it [b] the hole around the application rod during treatment.
    • subslab injector
    • seals
  174. A joist is one of a series of [a] beams used to support floor and ceiling loads, and supported in turn by larger beams, [b], [c], or [d].
    • parallel
    • girders
    • bearing walls
    • foundation
  175. Advantages of termite baits over liquids include
    a.)best for use on slab foundation having heat ducts below

    b.)usually less expensive

    c.)always faster acting

    d.)tend to be a more environmentally sound approach
    a.)best for use on slab foundation having heat ducts below

    d.)tend to be a more environmentally sound approach
  176. Termite tubes (mud tubes)
    a.)conceal the termites

    b.)provide the termites a moist environment

    c.)protect the termites from ants

    d.)collect decaying wood
    a.)conceal the termites

    b.)provide the termites a moist environment

    c.)protect the termites from ants
  177. The Formosan subterranean termite
    a.)has the name Coptotermes formosanus

    b.)is one of the most aggressive and economically important species of termite

    c.)is often less difficult to control than other subterranean species

    d.)can be quite active when free of soil contact
    a.)has the name Coptotermes formosanus

    b.)is one of the most aggressive and economically important species of termite

    d.)can be quite active when free of soil contact
  178. Periodic inspections to maintain the success of termite control treatments
    a.)usually are made annually or semi-annually

    b.)need not be as thorough as the initial inspection

    c.)usually are not necessary

    d.)include a very careful check of all wood near grade level
    a.)usually are made annually or semi-annually

    d.)include a very careful check of all wood near grade level
  179. Foundations can be of the following general types:
    a.)solid

    b.)basement

    c.)crawl space

    d.)slab
    b.)basement

    c.)crawl space

    d.)slab
  180. Direct treatment strategies for IPM and Green termite management include
    a.)physical barriers

    b.)reducing wood and soil moisture

    c.)repellent termiticides

    d.)reduced-risk baits
    a.)physical barriers

    c.)repellent termiticides

    d.)reduced-risk baits
  181. Subterranean termites consume wood at approximately
    a.)100 percent of their body weight each day

    b.)2 to 3 percent of their body weight each day

    c.)do not consume wood, only excavate it for nesting

    d.)54 percent of their body weight each day
    b.)2 to 3 percent of their body weight each day
  182. Subterranean termites are closely dependent upon specific environmental conditions such as
    a.)moisture, to prevent desiccation (drying) of their soft bodies

    b.)moisture, to provide a moist environment for the growth of microorganisms, particularly fungi

    c.)warm temperatures

    d.)very dry nesting areas
    a.)moisture, to prevent desiccation (drying) of their soft bodies

    b.)moisture, to provide a moist environment for the growth of microorganisms, particularly fungi

    c.)warm temperatures
  183. Swarmer termites differ from swarmer ants in that
    a.)termites have broad waists while ants have thin waists

    b.)swarmer termites are strong, powerful fliers

    c.)termites have elbowed antennae and ants do not

    d.)termites have two pairs of equal-length wings while ants have two pairs of unequal-length wings
    a.)termites have broad waists while ants have thin waists

    d.)termites have two pairs of equal-length wings while ants have two pairs of unequal-length wings
  184. Termite-shields
    a.)are a physical barrier to direct termite invasion

    b.)make the termite progress less visible

    c.)force the termites to stop building tubes altogether

    d.)function mainly as an aid in termite detection
    a.)are a physical barrier to direct termite invasion

    d.)function mainly as an aid in termite detection
  185. Openings in mortar between bricks in lower courses to provide drainage for moisture that accumulates between bricks and sheathing
    weep holes
  186. A basic slab type construction where the foundation wall and footing are separated from the concrete slab floor by an expansion joint
    slab
    floating slab
  187. Strips of aluminum, lead, tin or copper that are let into the joints of a wall so as to lap over gutters
    flashing
  188. A shield (metal) placed in or on a foundation wall, other mass of masonry, or around pipes to prevent passage of termites
    termite shield
  189. A basic slab type construction where the concrete foundation footing and the slab floor are formed as one continuous unit
    monolithic slab
  190. Name three (3) factors that influence the number and placement of below-ground monitoring stations.
    • - product used
    • - characteristics of the site
    • - amount of termite activity
  191. Describe three (3) ways the professional can detect termite galleries in wood that are not visible from the surface.
    • - tap wood, listen for hollow sound
    • - probe wood
    • - listen for ticking sound soldiers make
    • - termite detecting dogs
    • - gas detectors
    • - sound detectors
    • - borescope
    • - moisture meters
  192. For subterranean termite control, name three (3) procedures that are considered mechanical alterations.
    • - concrete or metal barriers
    • - remove cellulose debris
    • - eliminate moisture
    • - improve ventilation
    • - eliminate wood to soil contact
    • - wood replacement
    • - termite shields
  193. Provide three (3) procedures that should be followed when a re-treatment is necessary
    • • Determine where termites are active
    • • Determine how they are gaining entry
    • • Determine why the area is being used as an entry point
    • • Determine the best method for treatment#
    • • Remember to inspect adjoining areas for reinfestation
  194. The Ambrosia beetles are so named because they feed only on [a].
    ambrosia fungus
  195. Drywood termites have the ability to live in wood without contact with the [a] and are frequently carried in [b] objects into geographical areas where they are not normally found.
    • soil/ground
    • infested/wood/furniture
  196. The term "powderpost beetle," used broadly, applies to any of the following three closely related families: Lyctidae, [a], and [b].
    • Bostrichidae
    • Anobiidae
  197. The [a] has a rusty red-brown to black color, covered with fine yellow hairs, giving it a velvety appearance.
    velvety powderpost beetle
  198. Drywood termite infestations are frequently detected by the presence of the six-sided [a] which have been pushed out of the galleries.
    fecal pellets/frass/excretal pellets
  199. Borates are toxic to [a] , but are not considered significantly hazardous to [b].
    • wood-boring beetles / decay fungi / many termite species
    • humans / livestock
  200. Termites other than [a] termites are divided into two groups: drywood and [b] termites.
    • subterranean
    • dampwood/rottenwood
  201. The largest termites are found in the [a] termite group; they require wood with a high degree of [b].
    • dampwood/rottenwood
    • moisture
  202. Beetles belong to the Order Coloeptera, the largest of the insect orders. The [a] stage is responsible for almost all damage done to wood by beetles.
    larval/larvae
  203. The first step in controlling wood decay is to locate and eliminate the source of [a]. This can usually be accomplished by mechanical alterations which provide for adequate circulation of [b].
    • moisture
    • air
  204. The West Indian rough-headed powderpost drywood termite

    a.)is of no commercial significance in the US

    b.)has soldier heads that are plug-like

    c.)is extremely destructive to woodwork

    d.)has the scientific name Cryptotermes brevis
    b.)has soldier heads that are plug-like

    c.)is extremely destructive to woodwork

    d.)has the scientific name Cryptotermes brevis
  205. The Pacific dampwood termite

    a.)is the largest of the native US termites

    b.)is most commonly found in the warm and dry inland areas

    c.)can survive for long periods in dry, sound wood

    d.)is a significant pest at low altitudes
    a.)is the largest of the native US termites

    c.)can survive for long periods in dry, sound wood

    d.)is a significant pest at low altitudes
  206. Residual insecticides (used against wood-boring beetles)

    a.)that are oil-based give better control because of greater penetration into the wood

    b.)should be water based formulations

    c.)that are sprays should be applied at a low pressure using a flat fan nozzle

    d.)may have oil carriers that have a solvent action on some wood finishes
    b.)should be water based formulations

    c.)that are sprays should be applied at a low pressure using a flat fan nozzle

    d.)may have oil carriers that have a solvent action on some wood finishes
  207. Preventive measures to help reduce non-subterranean termite infestations include

    a.)painting exterior wood

    b.)inspecting lumber used in construction

    c.)do not use moist or moisture-damaged wood

    d.)screen all doors, windows, and ventilation openings
    a.)painting exterior wood

    b.)inspecting lumber used in construction

    c.)do not use moist or moisture-damaged wood

    d.)screen all doors, windows, and ventilation openings
  208. In heat fumigation,

    a.)structures are tarped

    b.)hot air is blown until a constant of 140 °F to 150 °F temperatures are reached

    c.)temperature probes are not used

    d.)it is more practical and economical for areas of manageable size
    a.)structures are tarped

    b.)hot air is blown until a constant of 140 °F to 150 °F temperatures are reached

    d.)it is more practical and economical for areas of manageable size
  209. Wood damage in buildings caused by fungi

    a.)can easily be controlled using fungicides

    b.)especially rot fungi

    c.)is best controlled by reducing moisture in and around structures

    d.)usually start as a result of subterranean termite infestation
    b.)especially rot fungi

    c.)is best controlled by reducing moisture in and around structures
  210. Moisture meters

    a.)are not a useful component of a moisture control program

    b.)can be used to monitor the success of moisture control programs

    c.)are useful for determining the potential for wood decay

    d.)can be used to determine the moisture level in wood
    b.)can be used to monitor the success of moisture control programs

    c.)are useful for determining the potential for wood decay

    d.)can be used to determine the moisture level in wood
  211. The old house borer

    a.)feeds as a larva on living trees, recently felled logs, and seasoned lumber

    b.)indoors is the only Cerambycid of major economic importance that can reinfest dry seasoned wood

    c.)is a member of the Cerambycidae family

    d.)has a very short life cycle
    a.)feeds as a larva on living trees, recently felled logs, and seasoned lumber

    b.)indoors is the only Cerambycid of major economic importance that can reinfest dry seasoned wood

    c.)is a member of the Cerambycidae family
  212. When inspecting for drywood termites

    a.)wooden furnishings in the home need not be checked

    b.)look for plugs in entrance and exit holes used by the termites

    c.)the building perimeter should be checked carefully

    d.)tap the wood to detect hollow galleries
    b.)look for plugs in entrance and exit holes used by the termites

    c.)the building perimeter should be checked carefully

    d.)tap the wood to detect hollow galleries
  213. Toxic mold

    a.)can be harmful to humans through production of toxins and allergens

    b.)is easily identified and controlled

    c.)can trigger allergic reactions in sensitive individuals

    d.)is a wood-destroying organism
    a.)can be harmful to humans through production of toxins and allergens

    c.)can trigger allergic reactions in sensitive individuals
  214. 1/8" exit holes in hardwoods only; frass is fine
    lyctid beetles
  215. 1/16 - 1/8" exit holes; frass contains tiny bun-shaped pellets
    anobiid beetles
  216. ¼ - 3/8" oval-shaped exit holes in softwoods only
    old house borers
  217. Dark staining near small tunnels and holes in wood
    ambrosia beetles
  218. Clean chambers and tunnels without fine frass; hard pellets packed in galleries
    drywood termites
  219. Provide five (5) guidelines for chemical management of wood-boring beetles.
    • • If infestation is not widespread, limited area treatment by surface treatment or injection
    • • Residual insecticides approved for use against wood-boring beetles applied as surface treatments
    • • Combine knowledge of beetles with knowledge of insecticides
    • • Sprays should be applied at low pressure and use a flat-fan nozzle for thorough coverage
    • • Compressed-air sprayer to inject directly into galleries
    • • Repeat injections into exit-holes
    • • Oil solution is best for treating fnished wood, best to apply small amount
  220. List four (4) examples of procedures that can be used in a successful moisture control program.
    • - vapor barrier
    • - attic vent
    • - crawl space ventilation
    • - dehumidifers
    • - cental air/heat
    • - use a moisture meter
  221. The term "powderpost beetle" applies to three closely-related families of insects. List them.
    • Lyctidae
    • Bostrichidae
    • Anobiidae
  222. Name a wood-boring insect (not termites) that can digest the cellulose that is found in wood.
    • old house borer
    • Anobiids (deathwatch beetle)
    • powderpost beetle
  223. Ants are known to use a number of chemical [a] to communicate between individuals within the same colony. These may be [b], [c], or [d]pheromones.
    • pheromones
    • alarm
    • trail
    • sex
  224. Fire ants are active and aggressive, and may kill young wildlife, or produce sores or nausea in humans. Four species are commonly found as pests in the US: the [a] ant, the [b] ant, the [c]ant, and the [d] ant.
    • southern fire
    • fire
    • red imported fire
    • black imported
  225. Ant colonies include the following members: workers, one or more [a], eggs, larvae, and [b].
    • reproductive
    • pupae
  226. The galleries of [a] ants, excavated in wood, often resemble the work of [b], but are distinguished by their entirely clean and sandpapered appearance.
    • carpenter
    • termites
  227. Odors can sometimes be an important guide for identification of certain ants. The [a] which is a common indoor species, gives off a very unpleasant odor when crushed, but the [b] ant, which may swarm around foundations early in the spring and be mistaken for termites, smells like oil of citronella when crushed.
    • odorous house ant
    • large yellow/citronella
  228. Wasps differs from bees in that most wasps feed their young [a] or [b] and not pollen.
    • insects and spiders
    • meat particles
  229. Winged forms of ants, called [a] or [b], leave the nest at suitable times to mate.
    • alates
    • swarmers
  230. Foraging ants bring food or water back to the colony and pass it to other nest-tending workers by a mouth-to-mouth process called trophallaxis. For this reason, ant baits that include a [a] and [b] toxicant are useful.
    • non-repellent
    • slow-acting
  231. Attempts to control [a] ants with spray or dust applications indoors will cause the colony to split into sub-colonies; this process is called [b]. Thus, this species is difficult to control.
    • Pharaoh
    • budding
  232. The [a] wasps discussed in the chapter belong to the family [b], and include the paper wasps, [c], and [d].
    • social/Vespid
    • Vespidae
    • hornets
    • yellowjackets
  233. The smallest of the common Vespid wasps are [a]. The location most species typically build their nests is [b].
    • yellowjackets
    • underground
  234. Control of ground-nesting yellowjacket nests can often be done safely during the [a], but will generally create fewer safety concerns when the job is scheduled at [b].
    • day
    • night
  235. Ants that are likely to nest indoors include the

    a.)harvester ant

    b.)thief ant

    c.)odorous house ants

    d.)crazy ant
    b.)thief ant

    c.)odorous house ants

    d.)crazy ant
  236. Ants that have a food preference for proteins are

    a.)Carpenter ants

    b.)Ghost ants

    c.)Fire ants

    d.)Pharaoh ants
    a.)Carpenter ants

    c.)Fire ants

    d.)Pharaoh ants
  237. Baits may be useful in ant control programs. The professional should

    a.)apply repellent insecticides in the same area baits are used

    b.)place baits along ant foraging trails

    c.)store baits with other pesticides or volatile chemicals

    d.)have other food sources removed
    b.)place baits along ant foraging trails

    d.)have other food sources removed
  238. The Asian Needle ant

    a.)is native to East Asia

    b.)have small colony sizes

    c.)do not sting

    d.)have workers at about 1/10 to 1/8 in.
    a.)is native to East Asia

    b.)have small colony sizes

    d.)have workers at about 1/10 to 1/8 in.
  239. Control of hornets and yellowjackets should be attempted during nighttime hours because

    a.)there is less chance of damaging plants

    b.)most professionals prefer working at night

    c.)these insects aggressively defend their nests during the daytime

    d.)the whole colony is in the nest
    c.)these insects aggressively defend their nests during the daytime

    d.)the whole colony is in the nest
  240. Ants may affect us adversely by:
    a.)contaminating food

    b.)stinging and biting

    c.)nesting in structual cavities

    d.)consuming (eating and digesting) wood
    a.)contaminating food

    b.)stinging and biting

    c.)nesting in structual cavities
  241. The successful management of ants often requires an exact identification of the species involved because

    a.)ants have a wide variety of feeding habits

    b.)ants are resistant to most insecticides

    c.)professionals need to know where to search for the nest

    d.)ants are smarter than other insects
    a.)ants have a wide variety of feeding habits

    c.)professionals need to know where to search for the nest
  242. The reason the success rate for starting new ant colonies is low is

    a.)predation

    b.)competition within species

    c.)environmental extremes

    d.)ants do not start new colonies
    a.)predation

    b.)competition within species

    c.)environmental extremes
  243. Wasps and bees

    a.)are generally beneficial insects

    b.)may produce venom which can cause severe allergic reactions

    c.)both produce honey

    d.)both have hairy bodies
    a.)are generally beneficial insects

    b.)may produce venom which can cause severe allergic reactions
  244. The following characteristics are associated with ants

    a.)equal-sized front and hind wings

    b.)broad waists

    c.)elbowed antennae

    d.)pedicel
    c.)elbowed antennae

    d.)pedicel
  245. Name two (2) problems that may arise following control of honey bee colonies in wall voids.
    • - melted wax can stain walls
    • - other pests may be attracted to the honey
    • - bees could be forced indoors
  246. Provide 3 guidelines for green pest management options for outdoor infestations of ants
    • • Indirect control – determine what ants are feeding on in the landscape and remove or reduce those
    • • Thorough exclusion
    • • Inorganic dusts (eg. boric acid) to where ants may enter
    • • Boric acid bait formulations (eg. granules, liquids, gels, pastes) in plastic stations
  247. List five (5) things to look for (not places to look!) when inspecting for carpenter ant nests indoors.
    • 1. wood debris ejected from nest
    • 2. “windows” or small openings to the nest
    • 3. foragers
    • 4. swarmers
    • 5. damaged wood
    • 6. dead ants
  248. An external feeder found in most any stored food product and feeding in or near a tunnel-like case with frass incorporated into it is the [a].
    Indian meal moth
  249. The [a] is identified by the six saw-like projections on each side of its thorax. This insect does not fly.
    sawtoothed grain beetle
  250. Damage done to grain by rice or granary weevils can be detected by a staining technique which makes the [a] visible.
    • egg plugs
    • feeding punctures
    • mechanical punctures
    • gelatinous egg plugs
  251. The adult [a] has distinct longitudinal lines on the wing covers. These beetles are good fliers.
    drugstore beetle
  252. Stored product pests damage about [a] of the world's grain production and [b] far more food than they eat.
    • 10%
    • contaminate
  253. In mills and warehouses, it is essential to [a] regularly for the presence of stored food pests. [b] is at the forefront of preventing infestations.
    • inspect
    • sanitation
  254. [a] are considered a miscellaneous stored product pest. This insect is tiny, pale colored and sometimes occurs in large numbers in flour or grain.
    Psocids / booklice / grain mites
  255. Insects in the group called [a] feed entirely within the kernels of whole grain. An example of an insect with this feeding behavior is the [b]
    • internal feeders
    • rice weevil
    • granary weevil
    • maize weevil
    • lesser grain borer
    • Angoumois grain moth
  256. The distance at which an insect responds to an insect light trap is determined by lamp [a] and [b], in addition to [c] and [d] of the specific insect.
    • type
    • design
    • visual activity
    • nature
  257. Adult females of the [a] and the [b] bore a small hole into a grain kernel, deposit an egg, and seal the hole with a gelatinous fluid. The egg, larval, and [c] stages of these insects are spent inside the kernel.
    • rice weevil
    • granary weevil
    • pupal
  258. The lesser grain borer

    a.)larva has its head retracted at about the level of the mandibles

    b.)only bores into books as larva

    c.)represents a transitional feeding form

    d.)larva has very long body setae
    a.)larva has its head retracted at about the level of the mandibles

    c.)represents a transitional feeding form
  259. Example of insects that are considered scavengers include the

    a.)confused flour beetle

    b.)cadelle

    c.)cigarette beetle

    d.)rice weevil
    a.)confused flour beetle
  260. The following are residual applications recognized by the EPA

    a.)general

    b.)perimeter barrier

    c.)spot

    d.)crack and crevice
    a.)general

    b.)perimeter barrier

    c.)spot

    d.)crack and crevice
  261. The Mediterranean flour moth

    a.)has copper colored wings like the Indian meal moth

    b.)can infest flour, nuts, chocolate, and beans

    c.)larvae spin silken threads as they move about

    d.)is found in damp, dark places in spoiled grain products
    b.)can infest flour, nuts, chocolate, and beans

    c.)larvae spin silken threads as they move about
  262. Non-insecticidal pest management measures for stored product pests include

    a.)physical exclusion devices

    b.)modified atmospheres

    c.)pheromones

    d.)controlled temperatures
    a.)physical exclusion devices

    b.)modified atmospheres

    c.)pheromones

    d.)controlled temperatures
  263. The flat grain beetle

    a.)adults are flattened and reddish brown

    b.)have slender antennae

    c.)larva have sclerotized, hook-like structures on the head

    d.)larva is more than 1/12 in. long
    a.)adults are flattened and reddish brown

    b.)have slender antennae
  264. The following fall under the EPA's definition of "food"

    a.)cigarettes

    b.)chewing gum

    c.)bird seed

    d.)sodas
    b.)chewing gum

    c.)bird seed

    d.)sodas
  265. In stored product pest management, the use of insecticides may be reduced significantly by

    a.)good sanitation

    b.)insect proofing (exclusion)

    c.)proper storage practices

    d.)using insect electrocutors and/or light traps
    a.)good sanitation

    b.)insect proofing (exclusion)

    c.)proper storage practices

    d.)using insect electrocutors and/or light traps
  266. The rice weevil

    a.)is widely distributed due to grain and food distribution

    b.)adults can fly

    c.)adults cannot fly

    d.)belongs to the Family Curculionidae
    a.)is widely distributed due to grain and food distribution

    b.)adults can fly

    d.)belongs to the Family Curculionidae
  267. FIFO

    a.)means the oldest stock should be rotated out of storage last

    b.)is a practice known in the food industry

    c.)is an essential practice in proper storage and stock rotation

    d.)stands for First In, First Out
    b.)is a practice known in the food industry

    c.)is an essential practice in proper storage and stock rotation

    d.)stands for First In, First Out
  268. In non-food areas of food serving establishments, residual insecticides

    a.)may be applied according to label directions

    b.)are not allowed

    c.)can be applied only to cracks and crevices

    d.)may be applied only when the food service establishment is closed
    a.)may be applied according to label directions
  269. Describe the Angoumous grain moth
    small yellowish-white moth with pointed hind wings
  270. Describe the confused flour beetle
    reddish-brown beetle about 3mm long; antennae ends in a four-segmented club
  271. Describe the drugstore beetle
    cylindrical, brown beetle about 3mm long with distinct longitudinal lines on the wingcovers
  272. Describe the Indianmeal moth
    moth whose front wings are tan on the front 1/3 and coppery colored on the remaining 2/3 of the wing
  273. Describe the granary weevil
    chestnut brown beetle with snout; no markings on its back
  274. Describe the rice weevil
    reddish-brown beetle with snout, four light red or yellow spots on the wing covers
  275. Describe the cadelle
    5/8 inch-long larva which is dirty-white in color; dark-brown head and the mouth openingis directed forward
  276. List the four (4) groups into which stored product insects are separated, based on their feeding habits.
    • - internal feeders
    • - external feeders
    • - scavengers
    • - secondary feeders
  277. Outline five (5) steps in managing stored product pests in homes
    • • Find source of infestation
    • • Eliminate source of infestation
    • • Look carefully into all cracks and crevices where food debris may be accumulating
    • • Check sealed containers
    • • Check under cabinets for spillage
    • • Check open or accessible wall voids for spillage
    • • Check on pet food
    • • Thoroughly vacuum and clean drawersSpray all cracks and crevices and other insect harborages with standard residual materialsCover all drawer bottoms and shelves with paper after insecticide has driedDo not replace food products on shelves until insecticide is completely dryAdvise homeowner of what was done and what not to do
  278. The [a] tick is the tick most commonly encountered by the PMP. This tick is a vector of the causal organism of [b].
    • American Dog Tick
    • Rocky Mountain spotted fever (R. richettsii)
  279. Tick paralysis occurs during the [a] process when the host is afflicted with a [b] that develops gradually and may result in death.
    • feeding
    • paralytic condition
  280. When dealing with suspected delusory parasitosis, the pest management professional must remember that it is illegal to use a [a] where no pest is present.
    pesticide
  281. The disease organism for [a] is a spirochete bacterium; it is vectored by the hard tick, Ixodes scapularis, which commonly attacks white-tailed deer and various [b] species.
    • Lyme disease
    • rodent
  282. House dust mites are not ectoparasitic, but rather they feed primarily on scales of [a], commonly called [b].
    • skin
    • dander
  283. The most easily seen external feature on ticks that distinguishes them from mites are the [a] which surround the external openings of the respiratory system.
    • spiracular plates
    • stigmatal plates
  284. The [a] flea is the chief carrier of the causal organisms of bubonic plague and murine typhus. [b] are the preferred host, but it does occasionally bite people.
    • oriental rat
    • Rats
  285. The [a] stage in the flea life cycle is often not killed during an insecticide treatment. For this reason, [b] fleas may emerge for several days up to a couple of weeks after treatment.
    • pupal
    • adult
  286. Parasites that live and feed within a host's body are called [a].
    endoparasites
  287. The itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei, causes a skin rash called [a].
    • scabies
    • 7-year itch
  288. Fleas have [a] mouthparts to penetrate the skin of the [b] and suck blood.
    • piercing-sucking
    • host
  289. Lice

    a.)are found on the host animal only when they are feeding

    b.)are wingless parasites of warm-blooded animals

    c.)occur only on people

    d.)do not suck blood
    b.)are wingless parasites of warm-blooded animals
  290. The human flea

    a.)is commonly encountered in homes on the Pacific Coast

    b.)is regularly found on swine

    c.)cannot survive exclusively on human hosts

    d.)is a normal carrier of disease organisms
    a.)is commonly encountered in homes on the Pacific Coast

    b.)is regularly found on swine
  291. Body lice

    a.)place their eggs on the body hairs of humans

    b.)remain on the host's body at all times

    c.)are vectors of typhus and relapsing fever

    d.)do not suck blood
    c.)are vectors of typhus and relapsing fever
  292. Adult fleas emerge from the pupal stage after being triggered by

    a.)vibrations from nearby footsteps

    b.)hot dry conditions

    c.)warm, humid conditions

    d.)cold, wet conditions
    a.)vibrations from nearby footsteps

    c.)warm, humid conditions
  293. The brown dog tick

    a.)has only one stage that feeds on dogs

    b.)can be found behind baseboards at all life stages

    c.)can be found outdoors in the cold months in the northern U.S.

    d.)can infest dogs by direct contact with other dogs
    b.)can be found behind baseboards at all life stages
  294. Mite control measures include

    a.)eliminating host animals

    b.)applying residual miticide sprays or dusts

    c.)removing bird nests

    d.)positive identifications by an acarologist
    a.)eliminating host animals

    b.)applying residual miticide sprays or dusts

    c.)removing bird nests
  295. Adult mites

    a.)have no antennae

    b.)have their head and thorax fused into a single region, called a cephalothorax

    c.)have mouthparts grouped together in a capitulum

    d.)have four pairs of legs
    a.)have no antennae

    b.)have their head and thorax fused into a single region, called a cephalothorax

    c.)have mouthparts grouped together in a capitulum

    d.)have four pairs of legs
  296. Cat fleas

    a.)are found on domestic pets

    b.)are intermediate hosts of the dog tapeworm, Dipylidium caninum (L.)

    c.)can cause a skin reaction in humans when they bite

    d.)prefer locations where dust and organic debris accumulate
    a.)are found on domestic pets

    b.)are intermediate hosts of the dog tapeworm, Dipylidium caninum (L.)

    c.)can cause a skin reaction in humans when they bite

    d.)prefer locations where dust and organic debris accumulate
  297. When treating for fleas, the pest management professional should

    a.)apply the insecticide under low pressure

    b.)treat the customer's pets

    c.)take precautions to avoid staining of carpets

    d.)treat behind and below furniture
    a.)apply the insecticide under low pressure

    c.)take precautions to avoid staining of carpets

    d.)treat behind and below furniture
  298. List three (3) management steps that can be taken to reduce house dust mite problems.
    • - lower humidity levels to below 50%
    • - eliminate loose - and long - piled carpeting and upholstery
    • - use benzyl benzoate to treat carpeting, upholstery, and other infested surfaces
  299. Besides treatment of fleas on the pet, insecticide applications are also required indoors and outdoors. Provide one relevant dog behavior to keep in mind, explain why it is relevant and then provide two actions to take when treating flea harborage areas.
    • Behavior: Dogs tend to shake themselves whenever they wake from sleeping
    • Explanation: Flea eggs deposited on fur fly in all directions, hitting walls and falling behind furniture. 
    • Behavior: Dogs frequently lounge on furniture 
    • Explanation: Adult flea droppings are concentrated there, providing substrate for larvae. 
    • Actions:
    • Move furniture to allow thorough treatment
    • Remove cushions from upholstered chairs or sofas
    • Treat undersides of cushions
  300. What should the pest management professional do if he/she suspects an imaginary infestation? Name three appropriate actions and one action that should not be taken.
    • Appropriate Actions:
    • Thorough Inspections
    • Give client collection vial
    • Suggest they speak to a physician
    • Explain that many things can cause itching.
    • Do Not:
    • Treat when no pest is found
    • Provide medical or psychiatric diagnoses.
  301. List five (5) non-chemical procedures that will help reduce tick problems.
    • - cut grass and weeds
    • - remove clutter/debris to reduce rodent harborage
    • - remove bird nests
    • - fence yard
    • - screen home
    • - seal cracks
    • - groom pets
  302. Bed bugs are of the insect Family [a], in the Order [b].
    • Cimicidae
    • Hemiptera
  303. A bed bug infestation can be recognized (without actually seeing the insects) by observing [a] spots and [b] spots left on sheets and pillow cases.
    • fecal
    • blood
  304. Bed bugs generally hide in cracks and crevices during the [a] and come out to feed during the [b].
    • day
    • night
  305. [a] are pests of bats that can and often do feed on humans. A distinguishing feature from common bed bugs are the [b].
    • Bat bugs
    • longer body hairs / broader wing pads
  306. Besides blood loss and itching, bed bugs reduce the quality of life for those living in infested premises by causing discomfort, [a], and [b].
    • anxiety
    • lack of sleep
  307. All true bugs' including bed bugs' life cycle is [a], with the number of nymphal stages usually being at [b].
    • incomplete / gradual
    • five
  308. The masked hunter, sometimes called the [a], inflicts a severe wound when it bites.
    kissing bug
  309. Excluding domestic or other animals from both the [a] and the crawlspace is important in managing conenose bugs.
    dwelling
  310. Bed bugs and conenose bugs have [a] mouthparts.
    piercing-sucking
  311. Insecticide choice is usually critical because some bed bug populations are [a] to certain pyrethroids.
    resistant
  312. Tenants and homeowners can prevent beg bug infestations by

    a.)being vigilant when acquiring used furniture

    b.)closely inspecting secondhand items after taking them home

    c.)laundering or placing secondhand items in dryer where possible

    d.)taking home curbside or landfill items
    a.)being vigilant when acquiring used furniture

    c.)laundering or placing secondhand items in dryer where possible
  313. The family Cimicidae includes the

    a.)wheel bug

    b.)black Corsair

    c.)swallow bug

    d.)bat bug
    b.)black Corsair

    c.)swallow bug
  314. Depending on the bed bug management program being offered, the customer may be asked to

    a.)keep the bedroom closed for several weeks

    b.)empty all closets and chests of drawers

    c.)thoroughly vacuum mattresses and bed frames

    d.)clear the attic of stored items
    b.)empty all closets and chests of drawers

    c.)thoroughly vacuum mattresses and bed frames
  315. Bed bug hiding areas include

    a.)behind wood trim and paneling

    b.)under carpeting

    c.)behind electrical outlet face plates

    d.)inside the oven
    a.)behind wood trim and paneling

    b.)under carpeting

    c.)behind electrical outlet face plates
  316. When staying in hotels

    a.)keep your luggage locked on the floor

    b.)keep personal items stored in chest of drawers

    c.)inspect items as they are removed from a suitcase upon arriving home

    d.)examine cracks and crevices in headboards
    c.)inspect items as they are removed from a suitcase upon arriving home

    d.)examine cracks and crevices in headboards
  317. Conenose bugs

    a.)are blood feeding in some cases

    b.)are predaceous on other insects in some cases

    c.)are members of the bed bug family

    d.)are vectors of malaria
    a.)are blood feeding in some cases

    b.)are predaceous on other insects in some cases
  318. Bed bug eggs

    a.)are small, opaque white and elongate

    b.)are always found directly on the host's body

    c.)hatch within 10 days under normal room temperature

    d.)have red eye dots near the top
    a.)are small, opaque white and elongate

    c.)hatch within 10 days under normal room temperature

    d.)have red eye dots near the top
  319. Owners and managers of commercial and institutional bed bug accounts may need to

    a.)close down their facility indefinitely

    b.)keep certain rooms out of service for some period of time

    c.)institute certain housekeeping practices

    d.)correct certain structural deficiencies
    b.)keep certain rooms out of service for some period of time

    d.)correct certain structural deficiencies
  320. Chemical treatments for bed bugs include

    a.)fumigation

    b.)sprays

    c.)baits

    d.)aerosols
    a.)fumigation

    b.)sprays

    d.)aerosols
  321. Bed bug management involves

    a.)having an open contract so that treatment can be adjusted over time

    b.)instructing clients on chemical treatments they can use to supplement the program

    c.)using mattress encasements

    d.)teaching the client how to do visual inspections
    c.)using mattress encasements
  322. Outline three (3) ways mattress encasements are useful in bed bug control.
    • • Seal bed bugs inside to save on vacuuming, steaming or insecticide treatments
    • • Avoid having insecticide residues close to humans
    • • Assist in dealing with bed bugs on the encasement during subsequent service visits
    • • Help protect recently purchased mattresses and box springs
    • • Eliminates mattresses and box springs as potential harborage sites
  323. List four (4) factors that have led to the recurrence of bed bugs in the U.S. and many other countries.
    • - immigration
    • - worldwide travel
    • - rental/used furniture
    • - changes in pest management practices (i.e. less residual insecticides)
    • - don’t recognize bites (have gone so long without seeing them)
  324. Outline eight (8) reasons why bed bugs can be extremely difficult to control.
    • People don't realize they have an infested residence until infestation is widespread
    • Bed  bugs take blood meals while host is sleeping
    • Bite is painless
    • Reaction to bite might not occur for days, if at all
    • Bed bugs are small and secretive, staying hidden during daytime
    • The usual means of determination of amount of treatment needed, visual inspection, is limited
    • They can remain hidden or inactive for weeks
    • The bite will usually not be recognized as being caused by bed bugs
    • They mimic certain diseases and bites from other arthropods
    • Many monitoring trap tools are inadequate
    • Difficult to know size and location of infestation
    • Bed bug eggs are hidden and scattered
    • Finding and killing them is difficult
    • Lack of cooperation from customers in preparation and follow-up treatments
    • Lack of good results that often occur with today's insecticide treatments
    • Lack of training/experience of treating PMP
  325. List five (5) measures that are needed for a successful conenose bug management program.
    • • identify areas of bug activity
    • • exclude animals from dwelling and crawlspace
    • • general residual application to all areas where bugs can hide
    • • implement a rodent and bird control program
    • • use yellow or sodium vapor lights around structures, swimming pools, etc.
  326. Flies and mosquitoes belong to the Order [a], ("di" means [b]; "pteron" means [c]. Members have one pair of functional wings and one pair of reduced wings that serve as balancing organs and are called [d].
    • Diptera
    • two
    • wing
    • halteres
  327. Both flies and mosquitoes have a [a] metamorphosis.
    complete
  328. The West Nile Virus is the causative agent of West Nile encephalitis. The key to managing this disease is mosquito [a] and control, and personal protection from mosquito bites.
    • prevention
    • management
  329. The most important pest of wineries, pickle plants, and canneries is the [a].
    • fruit fly
    • Drosophila
    • vinegar fly
  330. [a] are larger than house flies, and females of many species lay [b] on meat scraps, decayed flesh or on dog excrement.
    • Flesh flies
    • living larvae
  331. Dog heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis) is a small roundworm transmitted to dogs through [a]. Once inside an untreated dog's body, the worms grow and lodge in the heart and nearby [b].
    • mosquito bites
    • blood vessels
  332. In the fall, adult [a] congregate in the voids of houses, particularly in the walls.
    • cluster flies
    • face flies
  333. he most important source of bottle flies and blow flies in urban areas are [a]. Single cans have produced more than [b] flies in one week.
    • garbage cans
    • 30,000
  334. Both house flies and blow flies have mouthparts which enable them to ingest only [a] food. Solid food is liquefied by means of regurgitating [b].
    • liquid
    • saliva
  335. Fungus gnats can be avoided by not overwatering [a] or allowing moisture to accumulate.
    • house plants
    • grass
    • lawn
  336. Encephalitis

    a.)is easily diagnosed in humans

    b.)outbreaks occur in early spring

    c.)is caused by viruses that attack the central nervous system

    d.)is vectored by several species of mosquitoes
    c.)is caused by viruses that attack the central nervous system

    d.)is vectored by several species of mosquitoes
  337. The deer fly and horse fly

    a.)are occasional pests of humans

    b.)males feed on blood

    c.)are aggressive, persistent feeders

    d.)have been implicated in transmitting tularemia
    a.)are occasional pests of humans

    c.)are aggressive, persistent feeders

    d.)have been implicated in transmitting tularemia
  338. The following are important because they are biting flies that attack humans

    a.)horse flies

    b.)stable flies

    c.)black flies

    d.)deer flies
    a.)horse flies

    b.)stable flies

    c.)black flies

    d.)deer flies
  339. Before selecting an insecticide for a mosquito control program, the following should be considered

    a.)toxicity

    b.)residual activity

    c.)cost

    d.)effectiveness
    a.)toxicity

    b.)residual activity

    c.)cost

    d.)effectiveness
  340. Flies such as

    a.)fruit flies are active only indoors in the warm summer months

    b.)moth flies will readily bite people

    c.)phorid flies occupy breeding areas that are occasionally very difficult to locate

    d.)eye gnats are not often associated with livestock operations
    c.)phorid flies occupy breeding areas that are occasionally very difficult to locate
  341. The following important domestic flies can be managed chemically by use of residual and contact sprays

    a.)house fly

    b.)horse fly

    c.)fruit fly

    d.)moth fly
    a.)house fly

    b.)horse fly

    c.)fruit fly

    d.)moth fly
  342. Mosquitoes

    a.)can be important carriers of disease organisms

    b.)in the pupal stage, possess respiratory tubes for breathing

    c.)can be distinguished easily from other flies by their size

    d.)do not need to be properly identified for effective control
    a.)can be important carriers of disease organisms

    b.)in the pupal stage, possess respiratory tubes for breathing
  343. Hippelates flies

    a.)are attracted to the eyes of the victim

    b.)are non-biting

    c.)posses a large frontal triangle

    d.)are rarely in suburban areas
    a.)are attracted to the eyes of the victim

    b.)are non-biting

    c.)posses a large frontal triangle
  344. The little house fly, Fannia canicularis (L.)

    a.)is smaller than the house fly

    b.)larva develops inside earthworms

    c.)appears in the early spring

    d.)is a younger stage of the common house fly
    a.)is smaller than the house fly

    c.)appears in the early spring
  345. Permanent water mosquitoes

    a.)include Ochlerotatus trivitatus

    b.)lay their eggs in ponds and lakes

    c.)include Coquillettidia perturbans

    d.)do not lay their eggs in shallow water
    b.)lay their eggs in ponds and lakes

    c.)include Coquillettidia perturbans
  346. Besides residual sprays on dumpsters, good sanitation is the basic step in all fly management. Name five (5) sanitation or habitat alteration measures that will aid in fly control.
    • - remove decaying organic matter
    • - use tight-ftting garbage can lids
    • - keep garbage cans away from doors
    • - tight screens
    • - air curtains on doors
    • - residual sprays on dumpsters
  347. Both face flies and cluster flies overwinter in walls of buildings and may emerge in the spring or on warm days during the winter. List five (5) steps that may be followed to achieve control.
    • - inject insecticide into wall voids
    • - seal openings
    • - dust voids
    • - use aerosols
    • - residual sprays in attic
    • - spray under eaves outside
    • - vacuum adults
  348. Larvae of cheese or ham skippers are important pests of cheese and meat. Outline three (3) approaches to cheese or ham skipper management.
    • Tightly screen openings into storage rooms for meat or cheese
    • No less than 30 mesh to the inch
    • Sanitation is most important
    • Thoroughly clean all surfaces in storage areas
    • Remove all meat or cheese scraps, crumbs, and grease
    • Space sprays of synergized pyrethrins to control adults flies
    • Contamination of food products should be avoided by following label directions
    • Proper storage techniques
    • Proper storage temperatures
  349. The most effective control of mosquitoes around the home is to prevent them from breeding. Outline seven (7) measures to eliminate breeding sites.
    • Destroy or dispose of old aluminum cans, old tires, or any other artificial water container
    • Weekly inspection of water in flower pots and plant containers
    • Change water if mosquito larvae are seen
    • Loosen soil in pots regularly
    • Change water in bird baths and wading pools once or twice a week
    • Drain wading pools when not in use
    • Stock garden and lily ponds with top-feeding minnows
    • Keep rain gutters unclogged and flat roofs dry
    • Drain and fill stagnant pools, puddles, ditches, or swampy places around home or property
    • Keep margins of small ponds clear of vegetation
    • Place tight covers over cisterns, cesspools, septic tanks, fire barrels, rain barrels, and tubs where water is stored
    • Fill all tree holes with sand or mortar, or drain them
    • Remove all tree stumps that may hold water
  350. Before applying chemical treatments to control slugs or [a], remove all rotting boards and other debris that provide hiding and breeding sites.
    snails
  351. The number of [a] entering a structure can be reduced by maintaining a plant-free band of pea gravel or coarse sand around the foundation.
    • clover mites
    • occasional invaders
  352. There is little, if any, evidence that any particular color of light is [a] to insects, but [b] light is generally the least attractive to insects.
    • repellent
    • yellow
  353. The [a] spider is widely distributed over the warmer portions of the United States. Females are easily identified because of their globular, shiny black [b] with two reddish or yellowish triangles on the underside.
    • black widow
    • abdomen
  354. The term [a] includes those pests that often occur in buildings at some stage of their life cycle but that do not usually complete their whole life cycle within the building.
    occasional invaders
  355. The [a] is a dangerous arthropod with a distinctive violin shaped marking on the cephalothorax. Following a painful bite, a sore may develop that heals very [b].
    • brown recluse spider
    • slowly
  356. In addition to being a nuisance when they invade structures, these small black and white bugs (Order Hemiptera), called [a], are also severe pests of certain common [b].
    • chinch bugs
    • turf grass
  357. [a] and [b] are wingless insects with three long, slender appendages called "bristle tails" projecting from the rear of their bodies.
    • Silverfish
    • firebrats
  358. The behavior and feeding habits of [a] and [b] are very similar to those of millipedes, and so the management and pesticide control methods are the same.
    • pillbugs
    • sowbugs
  359. Because it feeds on small [a] larvae, and [b], the house centipede is beneficial, but most homeowners considers its presence sufficient reason for control.
    • insect
    • spiders
  360. The root weevil

    a.)is of the genus Otiorhynchus

    b.)larval stages attack plant root systems

    c.)has a shorter snout than other weevils

    d.)adult is very damaging indoors
    a.)is of the genus Otiorhynchus

    b.)larval stages attack plant root systems

    c.)has a shorter snout than other weevils
  361. The multicolored Asian lady beetle

    a.)has a high reproductive capacity

    b.)are most usefully identified by very bright markings on the thorax

    c.)orient especially to buildings warmed by sunlight

    d.)often become disoriented during dispersal periods
    a.)has a high reproductive capacity

    c.)orient especially to buildings warmed by sunlight

    d.)often become disoriented during dispersal periods
  362. Techniques used to reduce light-attractant insect problems around buildings include

    a.)reducing excessive illumination

    b.)indirect lighting

    c.)least attractive lights

    d.)placing indoor lights so that they are visible from outside
    a.)reducing excessive illumination

    b.)indirect lighting

    c.)least attractive lights
  363. The professional can easily identify spiders from insects because spiders

    a.)have six legs

    b.)lack wings and antennae

    c.)are always black

    d.)bodies have two parts - a cephalothorax and an abdomen
    b.)lack wings and antennae

    d.)bodies have two parts - a cephalothorax and an abdomen
  364. Most occasional invaders

    a.)usually cause massive damage

    b.)do not usually complete their entire life cycle indoors

    c.)attack people and pets

    d.)can never be controlled using pesticides
    b.)do not usually complete their entire life cycle indoors
  365. Caterpillars

    a.)may migrate indoors to search for food and moisture

    b.)cannot be controlled indoors using residual insecticides

    c.)do not include cutworms

    d.)may migrate indoors to search for pupation sites
    a.)may migrate indoors to search for food and moisture

    d.)may migrate indoors to search for pupation sites
  366. Crickets

    a.)are not attracted to lights

    b.)can be controlled outdoors with various residual insecticides

    c.)are found only in the midwestern United States

    d.)have a gradual metamorphosis
    b.)can be controlled outdoors with various residual insecticides

    d.)have a gradual metamorphosis
  367. Centipedes

    a.)live outdoors in damp areas

    b.)are predaceous on insects, spiders, and other arthropods

    c.)have one pair of legs per segment

    d.)have two pairs of legs per segment
    a.)live outdoors in damp areas

    b.)are predaceous on insects, spiders, and other arthropods

    c.)have one pair of legs per segment
  368. Springtails

    a.)usually prefer dry habitats

    b.)possess a forked appendage on the lower abdomen

    c.)have no wings

    d.)damage paper products in the home
    b.)possess a forked appendage on the lower abdomen

    c.)have no wings
  369. The following are types of dermestid beetles

    a.)larder beetle

    b.)lady beetle

    c.)hide beetle

    d.)black larder beetle
    a.)larder beetle

    c.)hide beetle

    d.)black larder beetle
  370. Millipedes

    a.)are beneficial, as are centipedes, because they eat insects, spiders, and other arthropods

    b.)are crustaceans, as are pill bugs and sowbugs

    c.)feed on damp and decaying vegetable matter

    d.)normally live outdoors in damp places
    c.)feed on damp and decaying vegetable matter

    d.)normally live outdoors in damp places
  371. List four (4) factors that may stimulate pest movement into structures.
    • - weather extremes
    • - food (odor) inside
    • - attraction to light
    • - over wintering
    • - landscaping
    • - over population
    • - heat
    • - cold
    • - excessive rainfall
  372. The reddish brown scavenger and fungus beetles are sometimes found in large numbers inside buildings. Outline four (4) issues of buildings that can lead to their infestation by these insects.
    • • High levels of moisture within exterior wall voids
    • • Wood used for construction that was not adequately dried beforehand
    • • New homes that are inadequately heated during cool periods
    • • Tight building construction and insulation techniques
    • • Overuse of humidifers
  373. Name the four (4) most common chinch bugs found in lawns.
    • - chinch bug
    • - southern chinch bug
    • -hairy chinch bug
    • - false chinch bug
  374. The severity of a person's reaction to the bite of a black widow spider depends on several factors. Name four (4).
    • - area of the body the bite occurs
    • - person’s size
    • - depth of bite
    • - outside temperature
    • - season
    • - amount of venom injected
  375. Regardless of the insecticide being used to control fabric pests, be sure to tell the homeowner to keep small [a] and [b] away from treated furniture and carpeting until they are completely dry.
    • children
    • pets
  376. Pest management professionals should never attempt to mothproof [a]. Mothproofing implies [b] applications of an insecticide to avoid infestation.
    • clothing
    • preventive
  377. Fabric insects are able to digest [a] and utilize it as an energy source. This material is found in hair, feathers, and skin.
    keratin
  378. [a] (in moth balls) is effective for preventive control of fabric pests, but is less desirable to use than paradichlorobenzene /(PDCB) and is no longer available in the US.
    Naphthalene
  379. Clothes moths have [a] metamorphosis.
    complete
  380. When using a microscope to examine damaged goods, care should be taken to avoid confusing [a] with [b], which are frequently of the same color as the fabric the pest larvae are feeding on.
    • eggs
    • frass
  381. Odd beetle larvae are similar in appearance to larvae of the other carpet beetles, but odd beetle larvae do not have long [a] at the tip of the abdomen.
    • hairs
    • haustisetae
  382. Hide beetles are considered miscellaneous pests, but also fabric pests because they can be found in [a] and [b] that process [c] and [d].
    • tanneries
    • warehouses
    • hides
    • skins
  383. When controlling existing fabric insect infestations in carpet, it is important to apply a sufficient amount of spray to get the insecticide down into the pile where the [a] stages are feeding.
    larval
  384. Unlike carpet beetles, clothes moths are rarely seen flying around [a] at night.
    lights
  385. Fabric insects

    a.)are troublesome because they use cellulose as an energy source

    b.)are never found in stored foods

    c.)occasionally damage synthetic fibers

    d.)include silverfish, which are considered a true fabric insect
    c.)occasionally damage synthetic fibers
  386. The black carpet beetle

    a.)is commonly found on dead animal carcasses in nature

    b.)female lays approximately 50 eggs over three weeks

    c.)eggs are rarely deposited on lint accumulations

    d.)are general feeders
    a.)is commonly found on dead animal carcasses in nature

    b.)female lays approximately 50 eggs over three weeks

    d.)are general feeders
  387. Webbing clothes moths

    a.)are most abundant in the warm summer months

    b.)feed as both adults and larvae

    c.)prefer to feed on recently cleaned fabric

    d.)are usually seen flying around rooms where infestations are located
    a.)are most abundant in the warm summer months
  388. When controlling fabric pests

    a.)it is important to maintain household cleanliness

    b.)it is not important to clean carpets prior to treatment

    c.)small children and pets can contact treated surfaces before they are dry

    d.)only use water-based chemicals
    a.)it is important to maintain household cleanliness
  389. The webbing clothes moth

    a.)larval development depends on food quality, relative humidity, and temperature

    b.)larvae produce feeding tunnels of silk

    c.)adults are long lived, usually with a lifespan of one year

    d.)is the most common clothes moth in the United States
    a.)larval development depends on food quality, relative humidity, and temperature

    b.)larvae produce feeding tunnels of silk

    d.)is the most common clothes moth in the United States
  390. Mothproofing

    a.)is the same thing as moth control

    b.)of clothing should not be done by the pest management professional

    c.)is often accomplished during the manufacture of woolen items

    d.)does not give permanent protection
    b.)of clothing should not be done by the pest management professional

    c.)is often accomplished during the manufacture of woolen items

    d.)does not give permanent protection
  391. If furniture is infested with fabric insects

    a.)special attention should be given to the padding inside upholstered furniture

    b.)dusts are useful when applied to areas not in direct contact with people or pets

    c.)sprays may be applied to exposed padding

    d.)soak upholstery thoroughly
    a.)special attention should be given to the padding inside upholstered furniture

    b.)dusts are useful when applied to areas not in direct contact with people or pets

    c.)sprays may be applied to exposed padding
  392. Carpet beetles

    a.)are found only in bird nests

    b.)damage woolens when they are in the adult stage

    c.)undergo incomplete metamorphosis

    d.)as a group, are considered more economically important than clothes moths
    d.)as a group, are considered more economically important than clothes moths
  393. Common species of grain moths sometimes found flying in homes can be confused with clothes moths. These grain moths include the

    a.)sunflower moth

    b.)Angoumois grain moth

    c.)Indianmeal moth

    d.)wax moth
    b.)Angoumois grain moth

    c.)Indianmeal moth
  394. The casemaking clothes moth

    a.)can be identified reliably with three dark spots on the wings

    b.)adults typically have somewhat smaller wingspread compared to webbing clothes moths

    c.)essentially leave no signs of webbing on infested fabric

    d.)is a particular pest of feathers and down
    b.)adults typically have somewhat smaller wingspread compared to webbing clothes moths

    c.)essentially leave no signs of webbing on infested fabric

    d.)is a particular pest of feathers and down
  395. The key (on page 396) for recognition of damage identifies three (3) kinds of damage not caused by insects. List these types of damage and tell how to distinguish each type.
    • mechanical damage - fabric cut, pulled
    • rodents - fabric cut, pulled, plus soiled and hairs present
    • burns - irregular hoes with charred edges
  396. In recent years, there seems to have been an increase in carpet beetle problems. Give two (2) reasons that may have contributed to this trend.
    • - more natural fabrics in homes
    • - loss of some long-used residual products
  397. List five (5) sanitation procedures to prevent fabric pest infestations
    • Exclusion
    • Bagging or packaging susceptible items in tightly sealed containers
    • Place furs in cold storage
    • Brushing, airing, vacuuming, dry cleaning
    • Use nozzle-type cleaners directed at edge of carpeting
    • Roll back carpet several inches to vacuum underside
    • Thoroughly clean areas under baseboard, behind door casing, under heat radiators
    • Use vacuum cleaner with strong suction
    • Avoid prolonged storage of garments, bedding, fur, etc
    • Destroy potential breeding sites (old pieces of woolen fabric, old feather pillows)
  398. Carpeting can be stained by certain insecticides. List five (5) precautions the professional may take when applying either water-based or oil-based sprays to carpets.
    • • note stains already present
    • • place furniture on pads
    • • wait to dry before walking on carpet
    • • wear clean shoes or shoe covers
    • • don’t soak the carpet
    • • test chemical on scraps
    • • clean carpet before treatment
    • • thoroughly dry before oil-spray treatment
    • • remove all furniture from the room
  399. Rodenticides that cause death in rodents by disrupting the normal blood clotting mechanisms, causing rodents to die of internal bleeding, are called [a]
    anticoagulants
  400. The process of altering structural features of buildings in such a way as to prevent entry of rodents is called [a]
    • rodent proofing
    • exclusion
  401. First generation anticoagulants are considered [a] dose rodenticides
    multiple
  402. A female Norway rat produces between [a] young per litter. In her lifetime she will typically produce about [b] litters
    • 8 to 12
    • 4 to 7
  403. The rodenticide [a] kills rodents by disrupting the energy production within the cells of the body, It kills anticoagulant-resistant rodents because of this completely different [b]
    • bromethalin
    • mode of action
  404. The rickettsial organism Rickettsia typhi is transmitted from infected rats to people by the oriental rat flea, and causes the disease [a]
    murine typhus
  405. The Norway rat is a social animal and thus lives in [a], often as a ground dwelling animal in earthen burrows
    colonies
  406. Inspection aisles is the practice of having products placed on pallets [a] inches from adjacent walls, not stacked more than two pallets wide and separated by an aisle, and preferably [b] inches off the floor
    • 18 to 24
    • 8 to 12
  407. Today's rodenticides are categorized into two broad categories: [a] and [b]
    • anticoagulants
    • non-anticoagulants
  408. Research in 1999 demonstrated that the house mouse carries a protein within its [a] that can trigger severe cases of asthma in susceptible peopleurine
    urine
  409. Rats

    a.)require up to one ounce of water daily when feeding on dry food

    b.)have rather poor vision and hearing but their senses of taste and touch are highly developed

    c.)are often wary of new foods, new objects, or changes in their environment

    d.)can be controlled with fewer bait placements than mice
    a.)require up to one ounce of water daily when feeding on dry food

    c.)are often wary of new foods, new objects, or changes in their environment

    d.)can be controlled with fewer bait placements than mice
  410. The roof rat

    a.)may establish nests in trees or in attics

    b.)is also known as the black rat

    c.)has a pointed snout and large ears

    d.)is an important pest throughout the entire United States
    a.)may establish nests in trees or in attics

    b.)is also known as the black rat

    c.)has a pointed snout and large ears
  411. Second generation anticoagulants

    a.)cause death only after multiple feedings

    b.)may cause death after a single feeding

    c.)are not effective for controlling mice

    d.)can kill rodents resistant to first-generation anticoagulants
    b.)may cause death after a single feeding

    d.)can kill rodents resistant to first-generation anticoagulants
  412. The Norway rat

    a.)is an excellent climber and prefers to nest in the upper parts of buildings

    b.)survives in colder climates than the roof rat

    c.)is slender bodied with large, prominent ears

    d.)is also known as the brown rat
    b.)survives in colder climates than the roof rat

    d.)is also known as the brown rat
  413. Anticoagulant baits make excellent rodenticides because

    a.)rodents do not develop bait-shyness

    b.)they are relatively low in hazard to people and pets

    c.)antidotes are available

    d.)rodents die very quickly
    a.)rodents do not develop bait-shyness

    b.)they are relatively low in hazard to people and pets

    c.)antidotes are available
  414. Tamper-resistant bait boxes help

    a.)keep baits attractive to rodents by protecting bait from dirt

    b.)decrease the chance of accidental spillage

    c.)minimize contact between people, pets and wildlife, and the rodenticide

    d.)by encouraging rodents to feed on the baits
    a.)keep baits attractive to rodents by protecting bait from dirt

    b.)decrease the chance of accidental spillage

    c.)minimize contact between people, pets and wildlife, and the rodenticide

    d.)by encouraging rodents to feed on the baits
  415. The following are useful tips regarding the use of rodent traps

    a.)keep traps clean and in good working condition

    b.)use traps with warped bases

    c.)never handle dead rodents with bare hands

    d.)gloves shouldn't be worn when installing traps
    a.)keep traps clean and in good working condition

    c.)never handle dead rodents with bare hands
  416. An integrated pest management approach to rodent control includes

    a.)rodent-proofing (exclusion)

    b.)population reduction

    c.)rodent inspection

    d.)sanitation
    a.)rodent-proofing (exclusion)

    b.)population reduction

    c.)rodent inspection

    d.)sanitation
  417. The following are proper and safe use of tracking powders

    a.)all tracking powders can be used outdoors and indoors

    b.)use of tracking powder stations

    c.)tracking powder should only be applied at ground level

    d.)tracking powder can be placed near air currents
    b.)use of tracking powder stations

    c.)tracking powder should only be applied at ground level
  418. The following rodenticides are classified as first generation anticoagulants

    a.)warfarin

    b.)brodifacoum

    c.)bromadiolone

    d.)diphacinone
    a.)warfarin

    d.)diphacinone
  419. The following are rodent signs that the professional can see, smell, or listen for during an inspection

    a.)droppings

    b.)rodent sounds

    c.)urine stains

    d.)grease marks
    a.)droppings

    b.)rodent sounds

    c.)urine stains

    d.)grease marks
  420. Provide three (3) reasons why trapping is one of the most effective methods of controlling rodents, and then five (5) drawbacks of trapping.
    • Reasons why trapping is effective: 
    • Provides alternative for clients who are against pesticides being used
    • Quick results for small infestations
    • Allows for immediate disposal of dead rodents
    • Eliminates potential odor problems in inaccessible areas
    • Drawbacks: 
    • Laborious and time -consuming for large infestations
    • Not as cost-effective as baiting
    • Some rodents avoid traps or develop fear of traps
    • Some traps can seriously injure people, pets, and wildlife if accidentally encountered
    • Some traps do not provide a humane way of killing rodents
  421. Provide eight (8) techniques for baiting mice
    • Numerous bait placements containing small amounts of bait
    • Place baits near exterior openings where mice are suspected of entering, or next to all doorways within building that remain open
    • Establish permanent bait stations in commercial facilities
    • Place bait directly between suspected mouse harborage and food sources
    • Place baits in favorite feeding locations
    • Corners within rooms, cabinets, and appliances
    • Install baits in warm areas
    • Use mouse-size bait boxes
    • space bait placements 8-12 ft. apart
    • At each follow-up visit, move existing bait placements not being visited 5 ft. in another direction to intercept different mouse territories
    • Bait in 3D format
    • Bait test with 3-4 different formulations
    • Keep baits fresh
  422. The three principal pest birds that the pest management professional will be most likely to encounter are the [a], [b], and [c].
    • sparrow
    • starling
    • pigeon/rock doves
  423. In general, there are three broad types of bird repellents: [a], [b], and [c].
    • tactile
    • sound
    • visual
  424. The three species of bats most frequently encountered by pest management professionals are the [a], [b], and [c].
    • big brown bat
    • little brown bat
    • Mexican free-tailed bat
  425. Naphthalene flakes have been used to [a] birds from buildings, but it must be applied in relatively [b] amounts to be effective.
    • repel
    • large
  426. The two animal groups most commonly associated with rabies cases in the US are [a] and [b].
    • raccoons
    • skunks
  427. Any of the wild vertebrates that interact with people in and around urban areas, other than the commensal rodents and bird pests, are categorized as [a].
    urban wildlife
  428. Because of hantavius and Lyme disease, both the [a] mouse and the [b] mouse have increased in their significance in urban areas.
    • white-footed
    • deer
  429. The professional should always check with the federal, state and local [a] before starting any urban wildlife control effort.
    • laws
    • wildlife agency
    • ordinances
    • conservation officer
  430. The regular removal of all [a] can significantly reduce a sparrow population over time. To be most effective, they should be destroyed at [b] day intervals.
    • nests
    • 10 to 14
  431. [a] is a respiratory disease in humans caused by inhaling spores from the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. This disease is not spread directly by [b].
    • Histoplasmosis
    • birds
  432. Avitrol is a bait commonly used in bird management programs. This bait

    a.)produces distress symptoms in affected birds, which frightens the flock

    b.)may be blended at various ratios depending on the mortality level desired

    c.)produces secondary poisoning

    d.)will never kill birds
    a.)produces distress symptoms in affected birds, which frightens the flock

    b.)may be blended at various ratios depending on the mortality level desired
  433. The following are federally protected by law in the US

    a.)Mississippi kites

    b.)common pigeons

    c.)house sparrows

    d.)European starling
    a.)Mississippi kites
  434. Tips for excluding birds from buildings include the following

    a.)broken windows should be sealed

    b.)signs should be placed flat against a building to prevent roosting

    c.)building ventilators should be netted

    d.)vines should be removed from walls
    a.)broken windows should be sealed

    b.)signs should be placed flat against a building to prevent roosting

    c.)building ventilators should be netted

    d.)vines should be removed from walls
  435. Woodrats

    a.)are about the same size as Norway rats

    b.)readily attacks wires

    c.)are very social animals

    d.)construct large stick nests in some species
    a.)are about the same size as Norway rats

    b.)readily attacks wires

    d.)construct large stick nests in some species
  436. The European starling

    a.)is native to the United States

    b.)prefers to roost in groups and utilizes buildings that offer protection from bad weather

    c.)is not considered a pest in urban areas

    d.)may become a serious pest in feedlots, consuming large amounts of animal feed
    b.)prefers to roost in groups and utilizes buildings that offer protection from bad weather

    d.)may become a serious pest in feedlots, consuming large amounts of animal feed
  437. Pocket gophers

    a.)are repelled by "repellent" plants like Euphorbia lathyris

    b.)are named for their fur-lined pouches outside of their mouths

    c.)have small ears, eyes and lips

    d.)are social animals
    b.)are named for their fur-lined pouches outside of their mouths

    c.)have small ears, eyes and lips
  438. Bats

    a.)may be infected with rabies, but the infected percentage is low

    b.)are blind

    c.)are the only mammals capable of flight

    d.)often attack people and get tangled in their hair
    a.)may be infected with rabies, but the infected percentage is low

    c.)are the only mammals capable of flight
  439. Venomous snakes can be recognized by their

    a.)narrow heads

    b.)prominent pits between eye and nostril

    c.)lack of pits between eye and nostril

    d.)prominent triangular head
    b.)prominent pits between eye and nostril

    d.)prominent triangular head
  440. Toxicants are registered for the control of

    a.)shrews

    b.)pocket gophers

    c.)feral cats

    d.)snakes
    b.)pocket gophers
  441. Animals that may occasionally enter buildings, but do not become established or reproduce indoors include

    a.)shrews

    b.)voles

    c.)house mice

    d.)rats
    a.)shrews

    b.)voles
  442. Exclusion is the only method that will rid a building of bats permanently. What is the best time of year to bat-proof a building? Why?
    • Late fall, winter or early spring
    • Bats will be gone at these times
  443. It is important to first inspect and evaluate a bat infestation. List five (5) things that a professional should determine
    • all possible exit and entry points of the bats
    • any structural defciencies of the building
    • the bat roosting site inside the structure
    • the size of the infesting colony
    • the species of the bat pest
  444. List three (3) disadvantages associated with the use of chemical repellents in bird management programs.
    • - aesthetically unpleasing
    • - annoying to window cleaners
    • - birds may place nesting material over the repellent
  445. Birds are known to carry a number of ectoparasites. Eight (8) of the more common ectoparasites associated with pigeons and other birds are listed in the text. Please list all eight.
    • - pigeon nest bug (Cimex columbarius)
    • - pigeon tick (Argas refluxus)
    • - pigeon fly (Pseudolynchia canariensis)
    • - European chicken flea (Ceratophyllus gallinae)
    • - flea
    • - conenose bug (Triatoma rubrofasciata)
    • - chicken mite (Dermanyssus gallinae)
    • - northern fowl mite (Ornithonyssus sylviarum)
    • - pigeon flea - (Ceratophyllus collumbae)
  446. In food plants, a central [a] should be established for production and maintenance staff to use in recording pest [b] and location.
    • log book
    • occurrence/sightings
  447. Any pesticides used in USDA plants must be registered by the [a] for use in food-handling establishments.
    EPA
  448. Several of the more common pests found in hospitals are known to carry [a] inside or on the surface of their bodies.
    bacteria
  449. Some pesticides that have been cleared by the [a] for use in food-handling establishments are not permitted for use in some [b] inspected food processing plants.
    • EPA
    • USDA
  450. The plant [a] supervises the overall sanitation of a food plant.
    • plant sanitarian
    • quality assurance manager
    • QA manager
  451. Detailed record-keeping is especially valuable during [a] conducted by the pest management firm, while reviewing progress and issues with [b].
    • quality control reviews
    • hospital administration
  452. Only [a] and some related pesticides are permitted to have food residue or tolerance levels above zero.
    pyrethrum
  453. Defect action levels established by the FDA represents the maximum allowable levels for defects such as the presence of [a] fragments, molds, or [b] hairs.
    • insect
    • rodent
  454. Sanitation can be defined as the promotion of [a] and prevention of [b] by the maintenance of sanitary conditions.
    • hygiene
    • disease
  455. When considering the use of pesticides in hospitals, distinguish between [a] and [b] areas.
    • patient
    • non-patient
  456. The following factors make pest management difficult in food plants

    a.)cleaning measures can destroy insecticide deposits

    b.)management in some plants is reluctant to spend money on such programs

    c.)warm buildings and warm, moist process areas favor pests

    d.)food odors attract insects to food plants
    a.)cleaning measures can destroy insecticide deposits

    b.)management in some plants is reluctant to spend money on such programs

    c.)warm buildings and warm, moist process areas favor pests

    d.)food odors attract insects to food plants
  457. The sanitation inspection, or survey

    a.)must include all the things to be considered in any inspection

    b.)is intended to discover anything that might cause or permit contamination or adulteration of food

    c.)needs a PMP that is alert to each new situation

    d.)necessitates considering the raw product all the way until the finished product with the customer
    b.)is intended to discover anything that might cause or permit contamination or adulteration of food

    c.)needs a PMP that is alert to each new situation

    d.)necessitates considering the raw product all the way until the finished product with the customer
  458. Personnel conducting pest management programs for hospitals must

    a.)be highly qualified and well trained

    b.)present a professional image

    c.)communicate effectively with hospital staff

    d.)must work to gain cooperation and support from hospital staff
    a.)be highly qualified and well trained

    b.)present a professional image

    c.)communicate effectively with hospital staff

    d.)must work to gain cooperation and support from hospital staff
  459. The following should be considered in pest management for supermarkets

    a.)be sure that the quick and complete cleanup of all spills is routine throughout the facility

    b.)work with the store management to correct chronic problems

    c.)remember that the meat department doesn't fall under the USDA guidelines

    d.)check that spilled food and other clutter has not collected under or behind shelves or in corners
    a.)be sure that the quick and complete cleanup of all spills is routine throughout the facility

    b.)work with the store management to correct chronic problems

    d.)check that spilled food and other clutter has not collected under or behind shelves or in corners
  460. Some benefits of a sanitation inspection to the food processor include

    a.)constructive recommendations so that corrective measures can be taken to prevent pest problems

    b.)receiving the best return for investment in sanitation

    c.)avoiding regulatory action and bad publicity

    d.)achieving preventive sanitation
    a.)constructive recommendations so that corrective measures can be taken to prevent pest problems

    b.)receiving the best return for investment in sanitation

    c.)avoiding regulatory action and bad publicity

    d.)achieving preventive sanitation
  461. Pesticide use in hospitals

    a.)is regulated by the USDA and FDA

    b.)should be most conservative in patient care areas

    c.)should be limited to a formulation with very low or no odor

    d.)is prohibited in all areas
    b.)should be most conservative in patient care areas

    c.)should be limited to a formulation with very low or no odor
  462. The following are the difficulties in pest management in computer and high-tech facilities

    a.)many pests are unique to these facilities

    b.)presence of any type of pest is unacceptable

    c.)normal house dust must be eliminated

    d.)restricted use of pest management techniques
    b.)presence of any type of pest is unacceptable

    c.)normal house dust must be eliminated

    d.)restricted use of pest management techniques
  463. When beginning the service of a new account, the plant manager should be interviewed to obtain information regarding the

    a.)past history of inspections

    b.)return product policy

    c.)storage and stock rotation procedures

    d.)plant and grounds maintenance
    a.)past history of inspections

    b.)return product policy

    c.)storage and stock rotation procedures

    d.)plant and grounds maintenance
  464. Non-chemical measures that might prove useful in a food plant include

    a.)self-closing doors

    b.)inflatable dock cushions to prevent pest entry

    c.)light traps

    d.)glue boards
    a.)self-closing doors

    b.)inflatable dock cushions to prevent pest entry

    c.)light traps

    d.)glue boards
  465. Key pests encountered in supermarkets include

    a.)German cockroaches

    b.)stored product pests

    c.)flies

    d.)mice
    a.)German cockroaches

    b.)stored product pests

    c.)flies

    d.)mice
  466. List three (3) pest hot spots found in a zoo. For each hot spot, provide an example of a pest that might be found there.
    • • steam tunnels, related sewer and drainage systems – cockroaches
    • • manure, garbage – flies, yellowjackets, paper wasps
    • • shade trees, shrubs – yellowjackets, paper wasps
    • • moldings and edges around cages – cockroaches, mice
    • • floor drains – cockroaches, flies, rodents
    • • electric conduit – rodent (runways)
    • • light fxtures – potential cockroach harborage
    • • signs and display cases – cockroaches, rodents, ants
    • • food service stands, snack bars, employee locker rooms, animal diet preparation areas, ponds or outdoor water holes
    • – cockroaches, rodents
  467. A holistic approach to pest management involves stepping back from the structures involved and considering all the aspects that can contribute to ongoing pest problems, or represent difficulties toward gaining acceptable pest management results. Name the three (3) aspects involved.
    • • construction
    • • operation
    • • surrounding environment
  468. An increasing number of food producers are turning to certified organic farming on a global scale. List four (4) of the components of the National Orgnanic Program (NOP)
    • • organic information for producers, handlers, processors and retailers
    • • standard organic labeling for consumers
    • • organic farming production and marketing
    • • organic product export and import
  469. List the seven (7) steps, or aspects, that should be considered in designing a complete pest management program for a hospital.
    • - education
    • - inspections and trapping/monitoring
    • - exclusion and mechanical repairs
    • - sanitation
    • - physical control
    • - pesticides
    • - quality control, record keeping, and communication
  470. Good fumigation stewardship depends on crew members dedicated to [a] for themselves, their crew members, site employees, and neighbors.
    safety
  471. Post-harvest fumigations are conducted to protect a [a] commodity once it has been [b], and can be subdivided into [c] and [d] fumigations.
    • food
    • harvested
    • structural
    • commodity
  472. [a], or hydrogen phosphide, is an effective and widely used fumigant, primarily for stored commodity fumigation.
    Phosphine
  473. The [a] stage is the most difficult to kill using phosphine and sulfuryl fluoride, whereas the [b] stage is generally more tolerant than other stages to methyl bromide.
    • egg
    • pupal
  474. To ensure security during a fumigation, [a] are required in some states or localities for round-the-clock surveillance.
    guards
  475. Chloropicrin is commonly used as a [a] agent for odorless fumigants.
    warning
  476. Infrared (IR) analyzers have the benefit of [a] response, [b] readings, [c] of accuracy, a relatively wide concentration measurement range, and a [d]interference from CO2.
    • rapid
    • continuous
    • high degree
    • lack of
  477. Boiling point is the temperature at which a fumigant changes from a [a] to [b].
    • liquid
    • gas
  478. Both insect and vertebrate pests have a [a] for ventilation of carbon dioxide out of their bodies and intake of oxygen.
    respiratory system
  479. Fumigants kill a wide range of pests in treated areas, but no protective [a] is left behind when the fumigation is completed.
    • residue
    • residual
  480. Examples of fumigants include

    a.)permethrin

    b.)sulfuryl fluoride

    c.)methyl bromide

    d.)methyl hydrofluron
    b.)sulfuryl fluoride

    c.)methyl bromide
  481. Temperature is an important factor influencing the toxicity of fumigants because

    a.)gases are more active at lower temperatures and reach the target pest more rapidly

    b.)gases are more active at higher temperatures

    c.)temperature is not an important factor

    d.)insects are more active at higher temperatures and are controlled at lower doses
    b.)gases are more active at higher temperatures

    d.)insects are more active at higher temperatures and are controlled at lower doses
  482. Fumigants

    a.)can effectively control wood-destroying insects

    b.)are very toxic

    c.)are Restricted Use Pesticides

    d.)penetrate cracks and crevices, pores in wood, and the commodity being treated
    a.)can effectively control wood-destroying insects

    b.)are very toxic

    c.)are Restricted Use Pesticides

    d.)penetrate cracks and crevices, pores in wood, and the commodity being treated
  483. Quarantine fumigation treatment schedules

    a.)describe the maximum fumigant concentration to be measured at intervals during the exposure period

    b.)are developed by the regulatory authorities

    c.)ensured a sufficient concentration of the fumigant has been maintained for the prescribed period

    d.)is based on the temperature to control the target pest(s)
    b.)are developed by the regulatory authorities

    c.)ensured a sufficient concentration of the fumigant has been maintained for the prescribed period

    d.)is based on the temperature to control the target pest(s)
  484. Methyl bromide

    a.)is colorless and odorless

    b.)can break down into hydrobromic acid, a very corrosive compound

    c.)reacts chemically with certain materials and foods

    d.)is effective only against a limited number of pests
    a.)is colorless and odorless

    b.)can break down into hydrobromic acid, a very corrosive compound

    c.)reacts chemically with certain materials and foods
  485. Sulfuryl fluoride

    a.)can be used where heat sources are present (turned on)

    b.)reacts with many compounds, therefore is difficult to aerate

    c.)has a low boiling point, so a heat exchanger is not needed to convert it to a gas

    d.)is colorless and odorless
    c.)has a low boiling point, so a heat exchanger is not needed to convert it to a gas

    d.)is colorless and odorless
  486. A fumiscope

    a.)can monitor sulfuryl flouride fumigations

    b.)can monitor phosphine fumigations

    c.)involves the use of an electric current

    d.)analyzes thermal conductivity
    a.)can monitor sulfuryl flouride fumigations

    c.)involves the use of an electric current

    d.)analyzes thermal conductivity
  487. Halogen leak detectors

    a.)of the TIF brand measure the difference in electrical potential

    b.)indicate the presence of methyl bromide or sulfuryl fluoride

    c.)detect gases containing halogens

    d.)can be used as clearance devices
    a.)of the TIF brand measure the difference in electrical potential

    b.)indicate the presence of methyl bromide or sulfuryl fluoride

    c.)detect gases containing halogens
  488. Chamber fumigation

    a.)is the least effective method of fumigation because gases escape quickly

    b.)can be carried out in portable chambers

    c.)involves the use of vaults or small rooms specifically constructed to confine the fumigant

    d.)generally holds the gas very well
    b.)can be carried out in portable chambers

    c.)involves the use of vaults or small rooms specifically constructed to confine the fumigant

    d.)generally holds the gas very well
  489. A self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

    a.)can be fitted with tanks that supply up to 60 minutes of air

    b.)maintains a slightly positive pressure of air inside the face piece, helping prevent contaminated air from seeping in

    c.)supplies a clean supply of air from a self-contained tank carried on the wearer's back

    d.)is equipped with filters that clean the air from the surrounding atmosphere
    a.)can be fitted with tanks that supply up to 60 minutes of air

    b.)maintains a slightly positive pressure of air inside the face piece, helping prevent contaminated air from seeping in

    c.)supplies a clean supply of air from a self-contained tank carried on the wearer's back
  490. The slow diffusion of fumigant from materials; the reverse of sorption
    desorption
  491. Temperature at which a fumigant changes from a liquid to a gas
    boiling point
  492. Active ingredient in Vikane TM
    sulfuryl fluoride
  493. CT value necessary to kill a specified percent of a pest population
    lethal dosage
  494. The act of introducing a toxic chemical into an enclosed space in such a manner that it quickly disperses in the gas phase to reach the target organism
    fumigation
  495. The time required to lose half the concentration of gas during the fumigation
    half-loss time (HLT)
  496. There are three (3) important phases in a specific fumigation job: pre-fumigation, actual fumigation, and postfumigation. List six (6) steps the professional fumigator should take during the post-fumigation phase.
    • - aerate building
    • - confrm gas concentration is low enough to enter
    • - notify authorities that fumigation is over
    • - remove warning signs
    • - remove sealing material and equipment
    • - check efficacy
    • - aesthetically prepare for return shipment of fumigant containers
    • - disposal of fumigant residues
    • - discuss results with customer and fellow workers
    • - update FMP to improve safety and efciency for future fumigations
  497. Modified atmospheres is the process of modifying the interstitial air space so that the atmosphere is lethal to the target insects. List two (2) benefits and two (2) drawbacks of this method.
    • Benefits:
    • • elimination of pesticide residues
    • • reduced safety risk compared to fumigants
    • • environmental safety due to confned space
    • • potentially extended commodity shelf-life due to confned space
    • • reduced oxygen concentration
    • Drawbacks:
    • • need for long exposures to achieve high levels of insect control (except the high-pressure CO2 treatment)
    • • difculty in sufciently sealing the structures to maintain low O2 or high CO2 concentrations
    • • potentially high gas costs when treating large structures
  498. List three general methods used to confine fumigants discussed in this chapter. Which method is the most effective in containing gases?
    • - chamber method (most effective at containing gas)
    • - tarp method
    • - tape and seal method
  499. Provide eight techniques for baiting rats.
    • Remove food sources prior to installing baits.
    • Space baits from 15 to 50 feet apart, closer for severe infestations.
    • Place baits between rat harborage and their food sources.
    • When baiting rat burrows, use loose pellet bait or crumbled blocks.
    • Burrows should'nt be caved in until seven days after baiting, and rebait any reopen burrows. 
    • Once bait stations are in place and in use, they should not be changed or moved.
    • Adult rats can consume 2 ounces of food nightly, provide enough to allow all rats to obtain a lethal dose.
    • For first generation anticoagulants to be affective, rodents may need to feed on the bait several times over several days. Make bait available until all feeding activity ceases.
    • The quantity of bait used for placement, and correct spacing between each bait station are both essential for successful baiting programs. The label dosage rates of the rodenticide product should be accurately followed.
    • For baiting in damp locations, bait blocks that offer maximum weather ability should be used and potentially wired down.
    • Rats require 1/2 to one fluid ounce of water daily, in dry situations, liquid baits maybe used.
    • When conducting fresh food baiting programs place the baits during the late afternoon to ensure freshness.
  500. List advantages and disadvantages of using dusts for insect pest management.
    • Advantages: Ready to use, no mixing.
    • Exceptional residual when active ingredient dry.
    • Disadvantages: takes experience to apply correctly.
    • Visible residues possible.
    • Difficult to control dispersal of dust particles to non-target areas.
  501. What are the different castes of termites found within a termite colony?
    Workers are responsible for nest building, food gathering and feeding of the reproductives and soldiers. Soldiers serve only to defend the colony against enemies.  Reproductives are responsible for meeting and egg laying.
  502. What are the three species of commensal rodents of importance to pest management professionals?
    The house mouse, the Norway (or brown) rat, and the roof (black) rat.
  503. What are three ways by which termites communicate with each other in a colony?
    Pheromones, sound, trophallaxis.
  504. What is a manifest and why should you carry one in your vehicle?
    A manifest lists the types and amounts of pesticides or other hazardous materials carried in the vehicle; it must be carried during pesticide transport.  In case of a large spill or a vehicle accident involving a spill, the proper agencies may have to be notified and they will need to know the types and amounts of pesticides or other hazardous materials involved.
  505. What are signal words, and what three signal words are used by the EPA?
    Most labels for conventional pesticide products include a signal word on the front label panel to alert the user to the relative level of toxicity, and some additional precautionary statements that are placed adjacent to the signal word or on the back panel. The EPA uses three signal words danger, warning and caution
  506. List the three signal words and their definitions.
    There are three signal words: danger, warning, and caution. Danger signals that the pesticide is highly toxic. Warning signals that the product is moderately toxic. Caution signals that the product is slightly toxic.
  507. Define synergists.
    Synergists are materials that if used alone normally would have a little toxicity to insects. However, when combined with another active ingredient, they enhance the activity of an insecticide.
  508. Describe the excretory system of insects
    Waste materials are discharged through the body wall, the digestive tract, and the rectum. Special excretory tubes known as Malpighian tubules are attached to, and empty into the hind portion of the digestive tract
  509. Describe a lamellate antennae
    Leaf like
  510. Define ommatidia
    The many small lenses making up the compound eye
  511. Describe a setaceous antennae
    Tapering
  512. Describe a moniliform antennae
    Bead like
  513. Describe a filiform antennae
    Thread like
  514. If an insect has a tapering antennae, it's called
    Setaceous
  515. Define entomology
    The study of insects
  516. Describe chewing lapping mouth parts in insects and describe their function
    Found in some bees and wasps. Used for chewing solids, and sucking up exposed liquids, especially nectar. Upper lip is a simple flap covering the upper jaws. Upper jaws are two solid structures with tooth like projections on the inner side. Jaws move from side to side (transversely), and are used to tear off or bite food and chew it. Lower jaws and lip are elongated to form a "tongue" with which the insect can suck up or lap up liquids.
  517. If an insect has an elbowed antennae, it's called
    Geniculate
  518. Name the three layers of the cuticle
    Epicuticle, Exocuticle, Endocuticle
  519. Describe the typical insect's head and list it's three functions
    Hollow capsule formed from six fused segments that contain the brain.

    • Locating and taking food.
    • Recognizing mates, cohorts, and enemies.
    • Sensing danger.
  520. Name and describe the hardening of the cuticle of an insect
    Sclerotization- Sclerotin molecules bond together to form a protein matrix. Chitin fills the gaps in the matrix. The epicuticle is coated with wax, and sometimes cement, which produces the waterproof outer layer.
  521. If an insect has a bead like antennae, it's called
    Moniliform
  522. Define epicuticle
    Wax coating found on the outer most layer that provides a barrier to water loss from the insect's body. Disruption of this layer can cause water imbalance, which leads to death from desiccation. It is believed that inorganic pesticides such as diatomaceous earth kill in this manner.
  523. Insects antennae has a head, it's called
    Capitate
  524. If an insect has a leaf like antennae, it's called
    Lamellate
  525. Describe piercing-sucking insect mouthparts
    A proboscis, or snout, a slender tubular beak within which are are enclosed four long, slender stylets. Stylets pierce the tissue and suck up the liquid food.
  526. Name the living and nonliving layers of cells making up an insect's exoskeleton
    • Epidermis (living)
    • Cuticle (nonliving)
  527. Describe the five functions of an insect's antennae
    Navigation, food location, communication with other members of the same species, mate location, and grasping in some species.
  528. Describe a capitate antennae
    Having a head
  529. Insects respond instinctively in a largely automatic manner. There is no intelligence involved in their reactions. True or false?
    True
  530. Name three functions of functional insect wings
    Forage for food over great distance, dispersal over wide geographic ranges, quickly escape danger
  531. List six principal types of insect mouthparts
    Chewing, chewing-lapping, piercing-sucking, rasping-sucking, siphoning, and sponging
  532. Describe a pectinate antennae
    Comb like (pyrochorid beetle)
  533. Name the three segments of an insect
    Head, thorax, abdomen
  534. Describe the leg of an insect and its function
    Always jointed. Consists of six parts: coxa and trochanter connect insect leg to the body, with the trochanter being between the coxa and femur. The femur corresponds more or less to the thigh of humans, and the tibia to the lower leg. The tarsus is composed of several joints and corresponds to the foot. The last tarsal segment usually bears a pair of claws, and frequently pads or lobes between the claws. These claws and pads form the pretarsus.
  535. Insect has a saw-like antenna, it's called
    Serrate
  536. And insect's cuticle is primarily made up of what two substances?
    • Sclerotin (protein)
    • Chitin (polysaccharide)
  537. Describe siphoning mouth parts in insects and describe their function
    Identifiable by the elongated lower jaw in moths and butterflies. The parts are interlocked to form a long slender tube through which exposed liquids are sucked up. This tube or "tongue" is coiled like a watch spring when not in use.
  538. Define ocelli
    Simple eyes located on the upper part of the head between the compound eyes, and only perceive light. Insects may have 0 to 3 simple eyes in adult stage.
  539. Describe an aristate antennae
    Feathery bristles (flies)
  540. What two structures can be found on the thorax of an insect?
    Legs and wings
  541. Describe rasping – sucking insect mouthparts
    Three needle like organs called stylets lacerate or rasp the epidermis of plants until the sap flows out.
  542. The small, hole-like opening on either side of each of the first seven or eight abdominal segments when 10 are present, that open into the internal respiratory system of an insect
    Spiracles
  543. What structures, if any, can be found on the abdomen of an insect?
    Sex organs called cerci, which look like hairs or bristle like extensions
  544. Describe a geniculate antennae
    Elbowed (ants)
  545. Define molting as it pertains to insects
    Replacing the old outer layer with a new one
  546. What three structures can be found on the head of an insect?
    Eyes, antennae, mouth parts
  547. Describe the reproductive system of insects and its importance pertaining to pest management
    In most insects there are two sexes, although some species have both organs present in the same individual. Populations of social insects are predominantly non-reproductive females. The organs important for pest management purposes are the external organs located at the tip of the abdomen.
  548. Describe the circulatory system of an insect
    No blood vessels. An open ended tube located along the insect's upper side and running the entire length of its body pumps blood. This tube picks up blood from the back portions of the body and pumps it into the head, at which point it flows back around the body parts to the rear, where it is picked up and pumped again. Blood flows in an open manner within the body
  549. The shape of the insect's external features are defined by its
    Exoskeleton
  550. Describe a serrate antennae
    Saw-like (drugstore beetle)
  551. What three things does an insect's exoskeleton protect against?
    Parasites, predators, abrasive damage in the environment
  552. Describe the body wall of an insect
    • Completely covers the insect. Sclerites– portions of the body wall that are hardened to form plates.
    • Other portions are soft and flexible forming membranous sutures, or joints, between the sclerites. The body wall is always one piece, with hard and soft portions being variations of the same structure.
  553. Drive a clavate antennae
    Clubbed (ladybird beetle)
  554. If an insect has a clubbed antennae, it's called
    Clavate
  555. Describe the muscular system of insects
    Some insects have over 2000 muscles. The muscles are arranged internally in a very efficient system allowing some insects to lift objects 20 times their weight.
  556. An insect's abdomen is typically composed of how many segments?
    11, but the last segment may be so small or specialized that only 10 segments are easily visible.
  557. Name three types of appendages that may appear on the last segment of the abdomen of an insect
    • Cerci - hairs, or bristle like extensions
    • Genital appendages – claspers of the male, ovipositors of the female
  558. Describe setae and gland cells and describe their functions
    Modifications to structures found in the exoskeleton in the form of sensory hairs and gland cells. These specialized structures are used for communication, food location, and other interactions between the insect and it's environment
  559. Describe the seven structures of a chewing insect's mouthparts
    • Labrum – upper lip, simple flat covering upper jaws.
    • Mandibles – upper jaws, two jaws with tooth like projections on inner side. Move transversely.  Used to tear and chew.
    • Hypopharynx – Tongue, fleshy sensory organ in mouth.
    • Maxillae- lower jaws, pair consisting of several parts, move transversely. They pick up and hold food for biting and spooning. Maxillary palpus attached to outside and it may be used for taste, touch and smell.
    • Labium – lower lip, bears a labial palpus on each side, same function as the maxillary palpus
  560. If a fly has antennae resembling feathery bristles, it's antennae are
    Aristate
  561. If an insect has a thread like antennae, it's called
    Filiform
  562. Define exoskeleton and list its functions
    The hard outer covering of the body and the firm portion to which muscles are attached.
  563. Describe the thorax of an insect and its functions
    The middle region of an insect body. Made up of three segments, to which legs and wings, if present, are attached. Segments are hard and frequently fused together to provide a firm base for wings/leg muscle attachment. Primitive insects like cockroaches have small slit like openings on either side of the thorax called spiracles, which are external openings to the respiratory system. A membranous neck region called the cervix allows freedom of movement of the head.
  564. Define bilateral symmetry
    Both sides, left and right, are the same
  565. If an insect has a comb like antennae, it's called
    Pectinate
  566. Describe the insect nervous system
    A brain in the head, pairs of nerve centers in each body segment called ganglia. A nerve cord connects these nerves centers in the brain. The ganglia and the nerve cord are located on the bottom side of the insect's body. Nerve endings are concentrated in mouthparts, antennae, and tarsi.
  567. How does an insect's exoskeleton help produce such great strength relative to their size?
    A combination of rigid and flexible materials in the exoskeleton permit very accurate joint movements, with minimal amounts of muscle mass and movement.
  568. Describe the respiratory system of insects
    A series of tubes called tracheae which extends into the body cavity. These tracheae divide into smaller tubes called tracheoles, which carry oxygen directly to the tissues in the insect body. Tracheae open to the outside of the body through spiracles.
  569. Describe insect wings
    Wings are an outgrowth of the body wall on the last two segments of the thorax. Most adult insects have two pair, but some have one or none. Most insect's wings consist of a thin membrane but on some insects, the front pair are leathery, thickened, or hard.
  570. Describe six functions of insect blood
    • Absorbing food materials from digestive system and carrying them to body tissues.
    • Picking up waste material and delivering it to the excretory organs to be discharged from the body.
    • Small amounts of oxygen are dissolved and carried to body tissue, but this is not a primary function as in warm blooded animals.
    • Heal wounds.
    • Dispose of bacteria.
    • Maintenance and change of internal body pressure.
  571. The three senses of an insect's antennae
    • Touch
    • smell
    • hearing (in some cases)
  572. Describe sponging insect mouthparts and their function
    The lower lip is elongated to form the outer covering of the soft beak containing salivary duct and food channel. The tip of the lower lip is enlarged into a sponging organ that has a series of grooves radiating from the center. When dipped into food source, liquid flows up these grooves until it reaches food channel. Food is sucked up food channel into esophagus.
  573. Define diluent in terms of pesticide formulation
    Any liquid or solid material used to dilute or carry in active ingredient.
  574. Fine emulsion as it pertains to pesticide formulation
    A mixture in which one liquid is suspended as microscopic drops in another liquid, such as oil and water.
  575. Define propellant in terms of pesticide formulation
    The chemicals, usually simple hydrocarbon gases, like propane, butane and isobutane, used to pressurize aerosol formulations.
  576. Define soluble ingredient in terms of pesticide formulation
    An ingredient that will dissolve in a liquid, where the liquid is called a solvent.
  577. Defined spreader in terms of pesticide formulation
    A chemical that increases the area a given volume or liquid will cover on a solid or in another liquid.
  578. Define sticker in terms of pesticide formulation
    A material added to a pesticide to increase its adherence (especially to the foliage of plants).
  579. Define surfactant in terms of pesticide formulation
    A chemical that increases the emulsifying, dispersing, spreading and wetting properties of a pesticide product.
  580. Define suspension in terms of pesticide formulation
    Finally divided solid particles mixed in a liquid, often because of the addition of a suspending agent, and remaining suspended in the liquid for an extended period of time after shaking.
  581. Define wetting agent in terms of pesticide formulation
    A chemical that causes a liquid to spread out, wet or contact surfaces more thoroughly.
  582. Name the five main steps in a pest management program.
    • Inspection
    • identification
    • recommendation
    • treatment/implementation of pest management
    • evaluation (including corrective actions as needed)
  583. Describe non-chemical measures that can be used near sensitive equipment such as computers.
    • Eliminate all food presence within the facility.
    • When external panels are removed to open the equipment for inspection, cockroaches can be vacuumed up directly.
    • The use of sticky traps, glue boards or mechanical traps can also be effective.
    • Some types of equipment can be enclosed in plastic bags and the air inside the bag replaced with carbon dioxide or nitrogen so the pests will be deprived of oxygen for two or three days and asphyxiated.
    • Use caulking or other pest exclusion techniques whenever possible.  
    • The air handling system can be adjusted to create a positive air pressure within the facility causing a rush of air to exit the facility whenever a door is opened, preventing fly entry.
  584. What are some examples of food areas in food handling establishments?
    This term includes areas for receiving, serving, storage, packaging, preparing, edible waste, storage and enclosed processing systems.
Author
Demoniac38
ID
351023
Card Set
Introduction to Urban and Industrial Integrated Pest Management Final Exam
Description
Here it is, all at once, you masochist. It's broken into chapter-specific chunks, also. Be sure to get all 19 parts and four supplementals.
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