Work

  1. For the flight crew, the three basic components of the Threat Error Model (TEM) are?
    Threats, errors and undesired aircraft states
  2. Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good team problem solving performance?
    Team members contribute but the team leader makes the final decision
  3. One disadvantage of glass cockpit technology in the modern generation of aircraft in instrument flight is that?
    Loss of proficiency in basic instrument flying skills especially in younger pilots
  4. The Captain of a multi crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as;
    A steep authority gradient
  5. A good leader should be prepared to;
    Lead by example, motivate, delegate and consult
  6. In the event of a sudden emergency in flight the most effective communication style is;
    Assertive
  7. A senior Captain in a company has been asked to discipline a junior pilot who has a poor attitude towards procedures. The problem is to be rectified through the avenue of counselling methods. For best results, the qualities the senior Captain should demonstrate to the junior pilot are;
    Lead by example, trustworthiness and good communication skills
  8. A characteristic of good leadership would be for a Pilot in Command to;
    Consult the Co-pilot then make a decision
  9. CAR 220 specifies certain requirements for fuel record keeping. Which of the following statements is correct;
    An operator shall maintain a record of the fuel remaining in the tanks at the end of each scheduled flight and shall review continuously the adequacy of the instructions in respect of the fuel to be carried.
  10. Scenario: A large jet transport aircraft was in a holding pattern at 2000 ft while the crew investigated a landing gear fault indication. While the attention of the entire crew was diverted to the landing gear problem the aircraft slowly descended and crash landed in swampy terrain. The crash was due to;
    The failure of the Captain to manage the situation
  11. In a situation of very high cockpit workload a pilot is liable to;
    Miss information due to a narrowing of attention
  12. Under circumstances of high cockpit workload a good captain should be prepared to;
    Prioritise and delegate tasks
  13. To maintain a good communication standard between crew members it is not advisable for;
    The co-pilot to clear his mind of all doubts before bothering the captain
  14. According to the Civil Aviation Act 20A, the phrase ‘reckless operation of an aircraft’ is defined by which of the following options;
    Operating the aircraft in a manner that could endanger the person or property of another person
  15. Which of the following statements most accurately defines the term ‘Minimum Equipment List’ (MEL);
    A MEL is normally issued based upon the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) developed by the aircraft manufacturer in conjunction with operators and is approved/accepted by the national regulators
  16. Is maintaining a complete and up-to-date reference library of operational documents as required by CASA for the class of operations conducted,  a responsibility of a Chief Pilot:
    Yes
  17. Under Part 61.395, what is the minimum requirement, for a holder of a pilot licence is authorised to pilot, during take-off or landing, an aircraft of a particular category carrying a passenger by day only if the holder has,
    Within 90 days, 3 take offs and landing whilst controlling the aircraft or flight Sim
  18. With regards to a company Operations Manual (OPSMAN), which regulation outlines the process to be followed by the operator when amendments are generated?
    CAR 215
  19. One of the delegations of a Chief Pilot is to conduct the CAO 20.11 Emergency Proficiency test. How often are they required to be completed?
    Every 12 months

    Ans: CAO 20.11 Ch 12.4
  20. As Chief Pilot what option is available to you in order to achieve your own CAO 20.11 proficiency?
    A person appointed by CASA, CASA or the person appointed as Chief Pilot for another operator
  21. Appendix IV of CAO 20.11 lists the items which need to be covered during the proficiency test. Which of the following statements most correctly describes these items.
    Survival, emergency evacuation procedures, control of passengers
  22. When defining a Quality Management System (QMS), which of the following statements is most correct?
    A set of policies, processes and methodologies developed for core business training in all organisations
  23. Competency based training (CBT) is now the norm throughout the aviation industry, which of the following options provides an accurate definition of (CBT)?
    The process of collecting evidence and making judgements as to whether competence has been achieved
  24. When implementing safety management strategies, the 3 common methods can be grouped together in order as:
    • Proactive method
    • reactive method
    • preventative method
  25. During fuelling operations, the aircraft and ground fuelling equipment shall be so located that no fuel filling points or vents outlets lie. (VFR Rules)
    • Within 5m of any sealed building
    • 6m of other stationary aircraft
    • 15m any exposed public area
    • 9m any unsealed building
  26. When operating a helicopter under the VFR and the use of VMC is permissible at the destination, the PIC must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when either of the following conditions is forecast at the destination (AIP ENR  1.1 (11.7.2.2)
    Cloud – more than SCT below a ceiling of 1000Ft or visibility < 3km
  27. You are flying according to a roster developed under CAO 48.0, what is the maximum duty time which you can be rostered for?
    11 hours
  28. According to Part 61.1055, limitations on exercise of privileges of low-level ratings - recent experience, how many hours of low level as PIC must a pilot log to continue to exercise the privileges of his rating within the last 6 months ?
    2 or 10jQuery112409491358208836338_1579766502835? Hours OR flight assessment / flight review / OPC
  29. As PIC you finish work at 2215 local time after completing a tour of duty of 11 hours 20 minutes. You have been rostered to fly for the next few days, how many hours off must you be rostered (based on CAO 48.0) prior to your next flight?
    • 15 hours or
    • 9 hours or
    • 12 hours or
    • 11 hours
  30. The role of the HAAMC are,
    • control of ADs and compliance
    • Keeping a log log of ADs and their disposition
    • Ensure the AD’s status is checked before the contracted maintenance organisation issues any components to Company aircraft.
  31. Under the new Part 61 Regulations, a pilot who wants to conduct Low level Operations (or activity) would require what type of ratings (Part 61 Table 61.375)
    • Either:
    • Low level rating OR
    • aerial application rating
  32. One of the many responsibilities of a Chief Pilot employed by a non CAR 217 organisation is to maintain records of licences, ratings and route qualifications held by each flight crew member. Which regulatory document would you consult for reference?
    CAO 82.0
  33. The pilot in command of an aircraft must not fly the aircraft over any city, town or populous area at a height lower than 1,000 feet; or any other area at a height lower than 500 feet, unless approval is granted by CASA.  Where in the legislation is this found?
    CAR 157
  34. According to your Ops Manual how long must you retain employee records after the employee leaves?

    Example: Medical Certificates, Licence, Ratings, Endorsement and Approvals, Pilot conversion training, Training and Checking and Flight and Duty Time Records.
    As long as the crew member is employed by the operator

    Ans: 1A3.5
  35. During hot refuelling operations of a turbine powered helicopter, which of the following options is most correct:
    Passengers shall not embark nor disembark during the refuelling process
  36. The variable fuel reserve for helicopter Charter Operations is normally calculated at ____ % of flight fuel?
    10%

    Ans: CAAP 234-1(2.1) 8 Nov 18
  37. Which of the following items needs to be covered in the pre-flight briefing of passengers as per your company Ops Manual?
    The location and operation of the emergency exits
  38. What determines the minimum operating crew of a Helicopter?
    The certificate of airworthiness or the flight manual
  39. The holder of a night VFR rating is authorised to exercise the privileges of the rating in an aircraft of a particular category only if the holder has, within the previous ____ months, conducted at least ____ night take-off/s; and at least __ night landing/s;
    6 Months / 1 T/O  and 1 Landing

    ANS:  Part 61.965
  40. According to your Ops Manual, the Cargo carried on unoccupied passenger seats must not exceed ___ Kg.
    77 Kg

    Ans: 2B3.5
  41. According to your Ops Manual, the “Sterile Cockpit”  procedure should be applied when?
    At all times except cruise flight OR any other time the PIC determines

    Ans: 2B4.6
  42. A defect is noted prior to departure. The defect is a permissible unserviceability under the MEL. Who can enter the defect and endorse it on the maintenance release?
    The holder of the Certificate of Registration, the operator, a flight crew member or a person engaged in maintenance of the aircraft
  43. A helicopter is descending into a non-towered aerodrome from A050. At what stage in the flight do the crew set the local QNH?
    At the commencement of the descent

    Ans: ENR 1.7 - 4 Fig 1
  44. Inter and Tempo are used within a TAF or TTF to indicate variations which are of an intermittent or temporary nature. INTER indicates a change in the prevailing conditions for periods of less than (a)  ________mins & Tempo is for periods of less than ( b) _____ mins respectively.
    • 30 min
    • 60 min

    Ans: GEN 3.5 3.7.5
  45. When the Chief Pilot is absent on leave or unavailable for an extended period of time, what procedure must be carried out?
    A temporary Chief Pilot shall be appointed who is approved by CASA
  46. Ground effect will enable a helicopter to hover with less power primarily due to?
    a decrease in induced drag
  47. The upward bending of the rotor blades resulting from the combined forces of lift and centrifugal force is:
    Coning
  48. What is cause of the tail rotor roll in a helicopter?
    The tail rotor being positioned at a different level to the main rotor
  49. What is the weather conditions and minimum visibility for helicopter to operate under    Special VFR?  [ ENR 1.2 (1.2.2) ]
    Flight is conducted clear of clouds/ Visibility of 800m

    Ans: ENR 1.2 1.2.2
  50. Attitude is considered as incorporating three different elements, they are;
    • Believing (cognitive)
    • feeling (affective) and
    • acting (behavioural)
  51. When a task has been rehearsed and drilled to the point where it can be performed with no conscious monitoring, it has become a;
    motor program
  52. Which of the following is likely to have the most lasting effect on pilot motivation?
    Job satisfaction
  53. Deference is one of the ‘hazardous thoughts’ which affect human behaviour and    decision making. It refers to;
    The tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong
  54. During which period of the day will the average person find it most difficult to stay awake?
    3 am to 5 am
  55. The lapse in performance standards which occurs daily in mid-afternoon is  known as;
    The post prandial dip
  56. Chronic fatigue differs from acute fatigue in that;
    it is usually life style related and the cause may not be obvious
  57. Human error as a cause of aircraft accidents has become a major focus of safety programs for many airlines. Concerning the link between human error and aircraft safety;
    human error can be reduced through standard operating procedures (SOP’s) but never eliminated
  58. A pilot on final approach may say ‘Gear Down’ during the pre-landing checks without actually performing the action of lowering the gear. In this case the error is referred to as;
    environmental capture
  59. While conducting an instrument approach in IMC you have a mental picture of  what you expect to see when you become visual. You break out of cloud and what you see is different to your mental picture of the approach. In this situation,
    essential details will tend to be overlooked
  60. Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good team problem solving performance?
    Team members contribute but the team leader makes the final decision
  61. One disadvantage of glass cockpit technology in the modern generation of aircraft is that;
    Loss of proficiency in basic instrument flying skills especially in younger pilots
  62. A senior Captain in a company has been asked to discipline a junior pilot who has a poor attitude towards procedures. The problem is to be rectified through the avenue of counselling methods. For best results, the qualities the senior Captain should demonstrate to the junior pilot are;
    Trustworthiness and high technical competence
  63. Within a high capacity RPT operation, one of the tasks the Head of Training & Checking (HOTC) may undertake is the conduct of aircraft type endorsement training for new hire pilots. Which of the following statements is correct?
    CASA must issue an instrument of approval in accordance with CAR 5.21 before a pilot may provide endorsement training
  64. During the conduct of a pilots CIR renewal, you as the HOTC have been reviewing the pilots flight & duty times for the last month in addition to a careful review of his log book. What entries must be made into the licence holders log book, and which CAO or CAR regulation provides this detail?
    CAR 5.21 details the information to be recorded and includes; holders full name, address, date of birth, ARN, information about each flight undertaken and time spent by the holder practicing simulated instrument flight
  65. Your company holds a CAR 217 Training & Checking approval, is this approval tied to the position of (HOTC) Head of Training & Checking?
    No, the approval is assessed against and given to the organisation
  66. Which of the statements below most accurately defines the term “Fatigue Risk Management System”(FRMS)?
    Can be defined as a data driven means of continuously monitoring and maintaining fatigue related safety risks, based upon scientific principles and knowledge as well as operational experience that aim’s to ensure relevant personnel are performing at adequate levels of alertness.
  67. You are the CASA approved CAR 217 Head of Training and Checking (HOTC) for your company which operates a mixed fleet of turboprop & jet aircraft on both charter and RPT flights. Is there a regulatory requirement for your organisation to implement and maintain a Safety Management System (SMS)?
    Yes, although there is an approved CAR 217 Training & Checking program in place there is a requirement for a separate safety management system program and associated training to be maintained and provided to all staff
  68. When defining a Quality Management System (QMS), which of the following statements is most correct?
    A clear set of policies, processes and procedures required for planning and execution (production/development/service) in the core business area of an organisation
  69. Competency based training (CBT) is now the norm throughout the aviation industry, which of the following options provides an accurate definition of (CBT)?
    The process of collecting evidence and making judgements as to whether competence has been achieved
  70. You are the (HOTC) for your company who operate a fleet of aircraft which hold a minimum seating capacity of 10 passengers and up to a seating capacity of 20 seats or more. With regards to the ongoing proficiency training program required under CAO 82.0 para (10) for an aircraft with seating capacity of 20 or more, what are the requirements that must be followed in regards to the number of training
    sessions required to be conducted annually if the QSTD used is not located in Australia.
    2 sessions of training and 2 checks
  71. As a CAR 217 operator who is required to use a QSTD for a relevant activity as outlined in CAO 82.0, which of the following combination of statements detail the content your Training & Checking manual must include?
    Completion standards for any relevant activity in a synthetic training device, course outlines and syllabi
  72. You are conducting operations to and from an off shore landing site located on a fixed platform. During the en route cruise stage you notice one of the passengers is has removed his life jacket and when instructed by your First officer to put the jacket back on, insists that it is not required during flight.

    As Captain of this flight which of the statements below, is your correct command?
    I require you to wear your life jacket during all stages of flight, no exceptions
  73. The four stages by which information is processed by the brain are;
    sensation, perception, decision and response
  74. Chronic fatigue differs from acute fatigue in that;
    it is usually life style related and the cause may not be obvious
  75. A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis?
    During normal operations
Author
Barclaybrown
ID
350437
Card Set
Work
Description
Rules and Regs
Updated