2020 CQT Questions

  1. 1.)  Q.1. Is the Captain responsible for providing instruction to
    the First Officer?
    • The Captain is responsible for providing instruction to the First Officer, as necessary, to ensure professional growth and proficiency.
    • The Captain should advise the First Officer of deviations from established policies, procedures, and/or regulations.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3
  2. 2.)  Q.2. During the Arrival Briefing, the Captain does not brief the touchdown point/exit plan. As the First Officer, what is
    your responsibility in this situation?
    • Ensure the Captain briefs all applicable items.
    • In accordance with the FOM, the First Officer should advise the Captain of deviations from established policies, procedures, and/or regulations.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3
  3. The Crew is on an originating flight, the Operations Agent is at the podium and hands the crew the WN-966 form before they make their way down the jetbridge. As they approach the aircraft, they notice the security seals are still in place on the forward entry door. 

    3.)  Q.1.1. Can they open the door?
    No.

    Reference: Operations Binder 2.6
  4. 4.)  Q.1.2. Once the Ops Agent has opened the door, can they leave the WN-966 form unattended on the Flight Attendants workstation?
    No.

    Note: Once the WN-966 is complete, ensure the form is controlled and handed to the Operations Agent, as required for SSI material.

    (Ops binder, 6.2 pg 2-42)

    Reference: Operations Binder 2.6
  5. Once the L-1 door has been properly opened, the Crew enters the aircraft to begin their normal preflight duties.

    5.)  Q.2.1. Who performs the Flight Deck Door Access System
    test?
    Normally the First Officer but either pilot can accomplish it.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 6
  6. 6.)  Q.2.2. Who performs the preflight of the Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) box?
    The Captain.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 6
  7. 7.)  Q.2.3. What new emergency equipment has been added to the MAX fleet?
    Where is it located and how is it tested?
    Flashlight. Behind Captain’s seat on lower front of 4th flight deck jumpseat, test is accomplished by pressing the push-to-test button.


    Reference: MAX AOM Chapter 6
  8. 8.)  Q.2.4. Describe the BLUE circuit breaker collar color system used by Southwest Airlines.
    BLUE collars are used exclusively to identify circuit breakers that are required to be pulled by Flight Deck Crew as part of a non-normal procedure.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 5
  9. 9.)  Q.2.5. What are the other color circuit breaker collars used
    for?
    All other colored circuit breaker collars are used by maintenance.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 5
  10. 10.)  Q.2.6. Is the Takeoff and Landing Report (TLR) required for flight?
    No. However, the TLR is normally included with the flight paperwork.


    Reference: AOM Chapter 17
  11. 11.)  Q.2.7. What would you do if you didn't receive a Takeoff
    and Landing Report (TLR) with the flight paperwork?
    • It is not required for flight; however, you can request that the Ops Agent print it.
    • The TLR can be used to review and brief Engine Failure Procedures (EFPs) before the PWB Takeoff Data becomes available.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 17
  12. 12.)  Q.2.8. If the Crew doesn’t receive a TLR from the Ops Agent, and the runway is affected by a NOTAM, how can the Crew obtain the correct alias code to input on the ACARS TO CONDITIONS page 1/2?
    By selecting RUNWAYS> LSK 1R, and then selecting REQUEST RUNWAYS> LSK 4R.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 17
  13. 13.) Q.2.9. On the dispatch release, what fields are populated under the ALTERNATE DATA section for takeoff alternates compared to landing alternates?
    Takeoff alternates only have ELEV and MSA field data.


    Reference: FOM Chapter 17
  14. 14.) Q.2.10. What are the two possible driftdown solutions that can be listed on the Dispatch Release (Non-ETOPS)?
    Describe them.
    Method 1 and Method 2.

    Method 1: ATOG values allows for enough performance in the event of an engine failure anywhere from V1 to destination to achieve a positive climb gradient at an altitude of at least 1000 ft above all terrain and obstruction within 5 SM on each side of the intended track. The aircraft would also have a positive climb gradient at 1500 ft above the destination airport.

    Method 2: ATOG values allow for enough performance in the event of an engine failure to continue flight from the cruising altitude to a diversion airport where a landing can be made, clearing all terrain and obstructions within 5 SM of the intended track by at least 2,000 ft vertically. The aircraft would also have a positive climb gradient at 1,500 ft above the diversion airport.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 17
  15. 15.) Q.2.11. When dispatched under Exemption 15466, what must be included in the remarks section of the Dispatch
    Release?
    • A remark identifying which rule was used. (i.e.,
    • "Dispatched under Exemption 15466 1-1-2 Rule" or
    • "Dispatched under Exemption 15466 1-1-3 Rule"


    Reference: FOM Chapter 17
  16. 16.) Q.2.12. If this flight was being dispatched to Cuba, where would you locate the required communication equipment needed to operate this flight and what are they?
    IFOM 2 Region, SATCOM or HF radio.

    Reference: IFOM Chapter 2
  17. 17.) Q.2.13. What additional briefing is mandatory when departing Reagan National on Rwy 01?
    P-56 Avoidance Briefing.

    Reference: KDCA SIP
  18. 18.) Q.2.14. If it's hot on the aircraft and preconditioned air is being used, can we also use a pack to help cool the aircraft?
    The use of a pack is not authorized when a preconditioned air source is being used to heat or cool the aircraft.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3 
  19. 19.) Q.2.15. Use of WiFi on the flight deck is limited to [   ] and [   ] via the WiFi network 2Wire43612.
    Approved EFB devices; applications (e.g. WSI Pilot Brief Optima).  

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  20. 20.) Q.2.16. Where can Crews find definitions for MOCA, MEA, MCA and Grid MORA?
    Jeppesen B737 Route Manual, which can be accessed through Comply365 or within JeppFD Pro X.

    Reference: Jepp B737 Route Manual
  21. 21.) Q.2.17. Who must the Crew coordinate with to utilize the HD10 Team Accommodation Delay Code?
    Dispatcher and Operations Agent.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 21
  22. 22.) Q.2.18. Hand signals may only be used for pushback, engine start, and towing operations under what conditions?
    •  The aircraft's communication panel is out of service (deferred)
    •  The ramp agent is under yellow alert for lightning within eight miles of the airport
    •  The station does not have headset capability
    •  All available headsets are out of service

    Reference: FOM Chapter 21
  23. 23.) Q.2.19. Are Crews authorized to make electrical or hydraulic power changes during pushback?
    No, momentary pressurization of nose wheel steering may cause towbar damage and injury to personnel.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  24. 24.) Q.2.20. Who can select the <LOAD FMC> prompt after reviewing the PWB takeoff data?
    Either Pilot.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 6
  25. 25.) Q.2.21. When does PWB return an all engine climb thrust setting (e.g., CLB2, CLB1, CLB, as indicated below the RDCD or MAX field on the TAKEOFF DATA page)?
    When a climb gradient is input into the PWB takeoff conditions page.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 17 
  26. 26.) Q.2.22. Why do the Pilots need to verify that the loaded PWB N1 data meets the requirement from the ACARS TAKEOFF DATA message?
    PWB all engine climb thrust settings do not auto-populate.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 17
  27. 27.) Q.2.23. How would the Pilots verify the new weight and balance report number after pushback has commenced?
    Contact Dispatch to verify.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  28. The preflight continues normally, the door is closed, and all appropriate checklists have been completed. The aircraft is cleared for pushback and the Captain informs the ground Crew they are cleared to push; the Ground Crew commences the push and clears the aircraft for engine start. The Captain then instructs the FO to start number 2. 

    28.) Q.3.1. Since this is the first flight of the day, in what position should the ignition Selector Switch be placed?
    Right

    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  29. 29.) Q.3.2. When shall the ignitor switch be placed in BOTH for the first flight of the day?
    • When all conditions are met;
    • 1. - first flight of the day,
    • 2. - airport elevation at or above 2,000 ft MSL, and
    • 3. - temperature is below 5°C/41°F.

    Reference: AOM Chapters 6 and 15
  30. 30.) Q.3.3. The FO completes the Before Start Flow and starts the number 2 engine. What defines ‘rollback’?
    EGT start limit redline is no longer shown.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 7 
  31. 31.) Q.3.4. How is stabilization/warmup time determined?
    After rollback, the FO’s start their clock.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 7
  32. 32.) Q.3.5. How would you know the EEC has detected an impending hot start?
    White box surrounding the EGT digital readout flashes white.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  33. 33.) Q.3.6. When should shoulder harnesses be worn by the Flight Crew?
    • Takeoff - From before commencing pushback until flaps indicate up
    • Landing - From the Approach Checklist until clearing the runway

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3 
  34. 34.) Q.3.7. When should cell phones (PEDs) be turned off by the Flight Crew?
    Ensure PEDs are turned off and stowed prior to pushback.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3
  35. 35.) Q.3.8. What are the recommended breakaway thrust settings to begin taxi?
    • 35 percent N1 - congested ramps
    • 40 percent N1 - non-congested ramps
    • 45 percent N1 - taxiways

    Reference: FOM Chapter 8 / AOM Chapter 8
  36. 36.) Q.3.9. For the first flight of the day for the NG or MAX, when can takeoff thrust be applied? Is this a Limitation?
    On the first flight of the day, operate engines at or near idle, after rollback, for a minimum of five minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust. This is only a recommendation as indicated by the “R”.

    Reference: AOM Chapters 1 and 3
  37. The Crew begins their taxi and receives two rings from the Flight Attendants.

    37.) Q.4.1. What does two rings indicate?
    For the Flight Deck Crew to answer the service interphone.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 16
  38. The Flight Attendants inform the Crew the temperature is excessively hot in the cabin. 

    38.) Q.5.1. How would the Flight Deck make the cabin more comfortable for the Passengers and Crew?
    They can follow the optimum cooling procedures.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15 
  39. 39.) Q.5.2. What are the optimum cooling procedures?
    • R PACK Switch.....................................HIGH
    • ISOLATION VALVE Switch .....................OPEN
    • L PACK Switch .................................... HIGH
    • ENG BLEED Switches.............................OFF
    • APU BLEED Switch................................ON
    • RECIRC FAN Switch(es)..........................AUTO

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15
  40. Alternately, the weather is at the other end of the spectrum. It is now lightly snowing and the OAT is 1 degree C. The airport is backed up with takeoff delays running 45 minutes. 

    40.) Q.6.1. When can you use engine and/or APU bleeds after deicing?
    Wait one minute prior to turning engine and APU bleeds on after deicing.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  41. 41.) Q.6.2. Besides our normal de-ice and anti-ice procedures, ENG ANTI-ICE switch – ON, are there any other considerations regarding the engines?
    Yes, engine run-up procedures.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15 
  42. 42.) Q.6.3. How do we perform the run-up in an NG?
    Run-up to a minimum of 70% N1 for approximately 30second duration at intervals no greater than 30 minutes.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15 
  43. 43.) Q.6.4. Would the procedure change if you have extended ground operations in moderate icing conditions?
    Yes.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15
  44. 44.) Q.6.5. What is different in extended ground operations in moderate icing?
    Run-ups to a minimum of 70% N1 for approximately a one-second duration at intervals no greater than 10 minutes.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15 
  45. 45.) Q.6.6. How do run-up procedures differ for MAX?
    The N1 and run-up times are different.

    • Increase thrust to a minimum of 50% N1 then decrease to idle.
    • Repeat as necessary or at intervals no greater than 60 Min.

    Reference: MAX AOM, 15.1.12
  46. 46.) Q.6.7. On the NG aircraft, what is the function of the engine anti-ice system?
    Prevent ice formation on the engine cowl lip.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 3 
  47. 47.) Q.6.8. An amber COWL ANTI-ICE caution light indicates what condition on the NG?
    Excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl antiice valve to the cowl lip.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 3 
  48. 48.) Q.6.9. On the MAX aircraft, what is the function of the engine anti-ice system?
    Prevent ice formation on the engine cowl lip and engine core.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 3
  49. 49.) Q.6.10. The amber COWL ANTI-ICE caution light has identical meaning between the NG and MAX; however, the MAX has 2 additional caution lights on the Engine Anti-Ice Panel, what are they?
    ENG ANTI-ICE and COWL VALVE.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 3 
  50. 50.) Q.6.11. What do the ENG ANTI-ICE and COWL VALVE lights mean?
    ENG ANTI ICE indicates cowl thermal anti-ice has been inhibited due to a system failure or when an engine core anti-ice valve fails closed. COWL VALVE illuminated steady indicates cowl anti-ice valve disagrees with related ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch position.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 3
  51. 51.) Q.6.12. How can a Crew determine if an intersection takeoff can be used?
    An intersection takeoff may only be performed if the Flight Deck Crew determines that performance data is available and used for that intersection takeoff.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 9
  52. The Crew continues their journey in an -800. While taxiing, the Before Takeoff Checklist is run. During the recall, the Master Caution and AIR COND annunciator lights illuminate on the recall panel, and the ZONE TEMP light illuminates above the CONT CAB on the Air Conditioning Overhead panel. All lights extinguish when Master Caution Reset button is pressed.

    52.) Q.7.1. What does this indicate?
    Failure of the Flight Deck primary or standby temperature control.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  53. 53.) Q.7.2. What should the Crew do when they have a failure of a primary or standby temperature controller?
    Taxi to a holding spot, set the parking brake, and contact Dispatch to coordinate with Maintenance.

    Reference: FOM Chapters 19
  54. 54.) Q.7.3. Does the MAX system have any differences?
    Yes.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  55. 55.) Q.7.4. What is the primary difference in the MAX temperature control?
    The MAX aircraft have an IASC or Integrated Air Systems Controller.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  56. 56.) Q.7.5. With regards to the BLEED caution light, does the MAX give additional functionality/meaning to the alert compared to the NG?
    Yes. 

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2 
  57. 57.) Q.7.6. What are the additional functionality/meanings?
    An incorrect bleed air configuration after takeoff or goaround 45 seconds after flap retraction.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  58. 58.) Q.7.7. Are the PACK lights NG/MAX model specific?
    Yes.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2 
  59. 59.) Q.7.8. What are the differences?
    In the MAX, both lights illuminated indicate an incorrect PACK configuration after takeoff or go-around 45 seconds after flap retraction.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2 
  60. 60.) Q.7.9. When does the Captain perform the Thrust Lever Check?
    Immediately following pushing the ATTEND button, approaching the departure runway.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 8 
  61. 61.) Q.7.10. When does a route change NOT require accomplishing the Departure Plan Checklist?
    • When route change does not affect:
    • - runway,
    • - SID, or
    • - transition.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 8 
  62. 62.) Q.7.11. When shall the Before Takeoff Checklist be completed?
    Prior to crossing the Hold Short Line.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 8
  63. 63.) Q.7.12. When should the Precautionary Takeoff Profile be used?
    Anytime there is a possibility of windshear.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15 
  64. 64.) Q.7.13. To use the Precautionary Takeoff Profile, what must be selected within the PWB system; specifically, the ACARS TO CONDITIONS 1/2 page?
    WINDSHEAR prompt, changing default NO, to YES.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 15
  65. All issues have been addressed by maintenance, and the crew has just been cleared for takeoff. The Captain aligns the aircraft with the runway centerline, the PF spools the engines to 40% N1, and then advances the throttles while simultaneously selecting TO/GA.

    65.) Q.8.1. How does the MAX protect against unacceptable high asymmetric thrust conditions?
    Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation (TCMA). TCMA is an EEC function that provides protection against unacceptable high asymmetric thrust conditions while on the ground including an RTO or landing. If an unacceptable high asymmetric thrust condition is detected, the EEC automatically shuts off fuel to the affected engine.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7 
  66. 66.) Q.8.2. Though both the NG and MAX have the same Structural Limit Protection, what additional feature does the MAX EEC’s provide for overspeed?
    Electronic Overspeed System (EOS) If an uncontrollable N2 overspeed is detected the EEC shuts off fuel to the affected engine. The amber ENG FAIL alert illuminates when N2 falls below 50%.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  67. 67.) Q.8.3. Because the runway is considered a critical zone, what should pilots consider before entering the departure runway?
    • Do not perform flight deck tasks, except momentary items (lighting)
    • Monitor the movement of other aircraft and vehicles
    • Ensure the runway and any intersections are clear
    • Be vigilant for aircraft and vehicles crossing without clearance.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 9
  68. 68.) Q.8.4. What bank angle for an aircraft with split scimitar winglets will result in a lower ventral strake striking the ground?
    • Greater than 8.8 degrees.
    • To ensure sufficient ground clearance, do not use the slideslip (wing low) crosswind landing technique alone when crosswinds exceed 15 kt.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  69. 69.) Q.8.5. If PWB manual wind entries are required, what additional step is necessary before TAF, METAR, or SPECI wind information is entered?
    Manual entries of TAF, METAR, or SPECI wind information must be converted from true to magnetic before entry.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  70. 70.) Q.8.6. What is the maximum wind velocity for takeoff and landing?
    The maximum wind velocity for takeoff and landing is 50 kt steady and 70 kt peak gust. 

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  71. 71.) Q.8.7. On takeoff with LNAV armed, LNAV becomes active at ______ ft AGL.
    50

    Reference: AOM Chapter 4
  72. 72.) Q.8.8. After takeoff, when does the Captain turn off the taxi light?
    When flaps are up.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3/AOM Chapter 9 
  73. 73.) Q.8.9. What is the proper rotation rate for takeoff in degrees per second?
    • 2-3 degrees per second.
    • Rotation rates in excess of the recommended 2-3 degrees per second can cause a tail strike.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3/AOM Chapter 9
  74. 74.) Q.8.10. If an engine exceedance occurs past V1, when is the minimum altitude that the thrust lever may be retarded?
    400 ft. AGL

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3/AOM Chapter 9 
  75. 75.) Q.8.11. Should you follow flight directors for takeoff rotation rate?
    No.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 3/AOM Chapter 9 
  76. 76.) Q.8.12. For Southwest standard noise abatement takeoff, what speed should be held from flap retraction until 3,000 ft AAE (unless SIP, NOTAM, airspace requirements dictate a higher/lower altitude)?
    The ‘UP’ speed.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 9 
  77. 77.) Q.8.13. For a flaps 15 takeoff, upon reaching minimum cleanup altitude, what is the callout sequence?
    “Set speed, flaps 5, climb thrust.”

    Reference: AOM Chapter 9 
  78. 78.) Q.8.14. What altitude, flight deck workload permitting, is the minimum to delete a reduced climb (i.e. CLB-1, CLB-2)?
    • 5,000 ft AAE, as flight deck workload permits.
    • Occasionally, it may be necessary to use CLB sooner (e.g., ATC requests a “best rate” climb due to traffic).

    Reference: AOM Chapter 10/ FRM Chapter 11 
  79. 79.) Q.8.15. Why do we not delete the reduced climb settings at 5000 ft AAE in the MAX?
    • GE has determined that wear and tear on the hot section is reduced by running the engines cooler for a longer period of time.
    • The reduction is phased out gradually by 15,000ft.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 10/ FRM Chapter 11
  80. 80.) Q.8.16. What is the limitation if the window heat is inoperative?
    The window heat inoperative maximum speed is 250 kt below 10,000 ft.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  81. 81.) The Crew gets airborne and they level off at an intermediate altitude. (Lower than the altitude selected on the FLT ALT window of the pressurization controller.)

    Q.9.1. In an NG aircraft during climb you notice the number 2 oil quantity is below 16% with all other indications normal, what would you do?
    • Check once in level flight. Indicated oil quantity may decrease significantly during engine start, takeoff and climb out [gulping].
    • If this occurs, engine operation is not impacted and the correct oil quantity should be indicated during level flight.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7 
  82. 82.) Q.9.2. What Caution light would the crew get if they started a descent and what automatically happens?
    OFF SCHED DESCENT caution light illuminates and the controller programs the cabin to land at the takeoff field elevation without further Pilot inputs.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2 
  83. 83.) Q.9.3. Where in the AOM does it contain single engine performance charts and explanations?
    AOM Chapter 18 In-Flight Performance Data.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 18
  84. 84.) Q.9.4. Airborne, if the crew attempts to call dispatch on the SATCOM and the SATCOM LOG 2/2 page shows all three channels display FAIL, what is the appropriate crew action?
    Go to the AOM Chapter 5 SATCOM System Malfunctions where it will direct you to pull the SATCOM circuit breaker as installed.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 5 
  85. 85.) As the Crew awaits their climb to the planned cruising altitude, a discussion ensues regarding MAX differences. 

    Q.10.1. How many additional Crew Alerts are on the primary engine display in the MAX besides the common START VALVE OPEN, OIL FILTER BYPASS, and LOW OIL PRESSURE lights?
    2

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7 
  86. 86.) Q.10.2. What are the additional alerts and what do they mean?
    • THRUST
    • Steady - Indicating thrust is greater than, or less than what is commanded.

    • FUEL FLOW
    • Steady - Indicates engine fuel flow is abnormally high when compared to FMC expected fuel flow.

    • For Both Alerts
    • Blinking - The alert and entire block will blink for 10 seconds, and then the alert only will remain steady until the condition no longer exists.

    • Note: Blinking is inhibited: 
    • During takeoff from 80 kt to 400 ft RA, or 30 seconds after reaching 80 kt, whichever occurs first. 
    • During landing below 200 ft RA until 30 seconds after touchdown. 
    • During periods when blinking is inhibited, alerts illuminate steady.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  87. 87.) Q.10.3. Will the EEC’s ever automatically go from soft alternate to hard alternate mode?
    Yes

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  88. 88.) Q.10.4. Under what conditions will the EEC’s automatically switch from Soft to Hard Alternate Mode?
    When thrust levers are retarded to idle.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7 
  89. 89.) Q.10.5. Does the MAX have an additional idle speed besides Ground, Flight, and Approach idle?
    Yes, Icing Idle.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  90. 90.) Q.10.6. What is the difference between the NG and MAX APU panel besides the common OFF/ON/START switch and identical meaning LOW OIL PRESSURE, FAULT, and OVERSPEED lights?
    The MAX has no EGT gauge or MAINT light but has a new DOOR light.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 7
  91. 91.) Q.10.7. Does the MAX have an additional light on the Equipment Cooling Panel?
    Yes, EQUIP SMOKE.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  92. 92.) Q.10.8. Does the MAX have an additional MIC switch?
    Yes, on CA and FO outer glareshield there is a PTT switch.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 5
  93. 93.) After the brief discussion of some of the NG/MAX differences, the Crew turns their attention to switches that have an AUTO position and discuss the related system and the conditions that trigger the auto feature.

    Q.11.1. With the FASTEN BELTS switch in AUTO, what condition must be met for the plane to automatically illuminate the passenger FASTEN SEAT BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs?
    When flaps or gear are extended.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 1
  94. 94.) Q.11.2. When will the PROBE HEAT automatically turn on with the switch in AUTO?
    When either engine is running.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 3
  95. 95.) Q.11.3. Does the Recirculation Fan Switch in Auto work the same for the 700 as it does in the 800 and MAX?
    No

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  96. 96.) Q.11.4. How many recirculation fans are installed on the -700 and -800/MAX?
    The -700 has one and the -800/MAX has two.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  97. 97.) Q.11.5. What are the differences in recirculation fan operation regarding the AUTO position?
    In the -700, the recirculation fan operates with the switch in AUTO except with both packs on and one or both in HIGH.

    In the -800/MAX, each fan only operates with the respective switch in AUTO. In flight, the left fan operates if both packs are operating unless either Pack Switch is in HIGH. The right fan operates in flight if both packs are operating unless both Pack Switches are in HIGH. On the ground, the left fan operates unless both Pack Switches are in HIGH and the right fan operates as long as both packs are operating.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  98. 98.) Q.11.6. With the PACK Switches in AUTO, when will the rate change from normal flow to high flow in the air?
    When one pack is not operating and the flaps are up.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2 
  99. 99.) Q.11.7. During normal cruise flight with the ISOLATION VALVE switch in AUTO, in what position is the isolation valve?
    Closed

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  100. 100.) Q.11.8. With the Pressurization Mode Selector in AUTO, is pressurization still controlled automatically with a failure of the primary operational controller?
    Yes, the other automatic controller immediately takes over.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 2
  101. 101.) Q.11.9. What does the AUTO position of the Flight Deck Door Lock Selector allow?
    Unlocks Flight Deck Door after correct code is entered and expiration of timer.

    Reference: FRM Chapter 1
  102. 102.) Q.11.10. Do not exceed the ____G buffet altitude if greater than light turbulence, convective activity, or mountain wave activity is anticipated or encountered.
    1.5

    Reference: AOM Chapter 10
  103. 103.) Q.11.11. What is the maximum turbulent air penetration speeds above 15,000 MSL?
    280 kt/0.76 Mach.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  104. 104.) Q.11.12. What is crucial when flight into forecast turbulence is unavoidable?
    Timely notification to the Flight Attendants.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 15
  105. 105.) Q.11.13. If the Crew has an engine failure, but are able to restart it, can they proceed to their destination?
    • No, whenever an engine fails the Captain must land at the nearest suitable airport.
    • Subsequently restarting the engine does not relieve this requirement.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 5 
  106. 106.) Q.11.14. When must a Crew land at the nearest suitable airport?
    When directed by the QRH, Engine failure, engine fire, APU fire, wheel well fire, cabin smoke/fire that persists, one main AC power source remaining, one hydraulic system remaining, any other situation determined by the Flight Deck Crew to present a significant adverse effect on safety if the flight is continued.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 5
  107. 107.) The flight is getting close to TOD and the Crew starts accomplishing their respective tasks.

    Q.12.1. How many miles out from the top of descent should crews begin top of descent tasks?
    Approximately 50 nm

    Reference: AOM Chapter 10
  108. 108.) Q.12.2. When does the Pilot Flying call for the Descent Checklist?
    Prior to the top of descent.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 10
  109. 109.) An aircraft experienced an engine loss with the following information:

    B737-700, FL 330, Temp: TAT -20 C, 140,000 lbs at start of driftdown, Engine Anti-Ice ON, Wings OFF, ISA +10 C. 


    Q.13.1. What is your optimum driftdown speed and max level off altitude?
    232 KIAS, 24,700 ft. MSL

    Reference: AOM Chapter 18 
  110. 110.) Q.13.2. What is the Max Continuous Thrust % N1 the Crew would set on the operating engine to accomplish the driftdown?
    97.2 % N1.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 18
  111. 111.) Q.13.3. At 280 kt idle descent what is the average number of NM traveled for each 1,000’ of altitude loss?
    2.5 to 3 NM (depending on weight) per 1,000 ft of altitude loss.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 10
  112. 112.) Q.13.4. Can we leave the MASTER CAUTION light illuminated as a memory cue while performing any task (e.g. fuel balancing)? Why?
    No, this undesirable practice defeats the alerting function of the Master Caution system. Any new warning would not generate a caution event.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 4
  113. 113.) Q.13.5. What is the maximum holding airspeed and timing for turns when aircraft is above 6,000 and up to and including 14,000 ft?
    230 Kt and 1 minute

    Reference: FOM Chapter 10 
  114. 114.) Q.13.6. What are the maximum speeds and timing for holding when at or below 6000 ft.?
    200 Kts or flaps up maneuvering speed (whichever is faster) and 1 minute.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 10 
  115. 115.) Q.13.7. During an RNP approach with an RF leg on the final segment, what is the maximum allowable airspeed? Why?
    165 kts (Cat D) Flying above these programmed speeds may exceed the autopilot/flight director capabilities.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11 
  116. 116.) Q.13.8. Are there preferred automation modes to use while flying approaches? What would be the preferred modes to use while flying a LOC approach?
    Yes; LNAV and VNAV would be the preferred modes. Other modes may be used, as appropriate, based on RRM principles.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11 
  117. 117.) Q.13.9. What is the reason we set the MCP Alt to zeros on all instrument approaches except circle-to-land procedures?
    This ensures that ALT ACQ doesn't interrupt the VNAV PATH or vertical speed descent to the DA/DDA.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11 
  118. 118.) Q.13.10. When using the HGS on visual approaches, where do we want to place the 3 degree ref line and how do we adjust aircraft pitch?
    We adjust the descent rate to place the 3° reference line over the point of intended touchdown. Then, adjust aircraft pitch to place the flight path symbol over the intended touchdown point, resulting in an approximate 3° glidepath.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  119. 119.) Q.13.11. When is the Pilot Flying required to have their hands and feet on the aircraft controls?
    Prior to the final approach segment when the autopilot is engaged and Flaps are extended for maneuvering or approach.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11 
  120. 120.) Q.13.12. While on an approach using VNAV, flaps extended, what is the airspeed cursor set by and how can this be changed?
    In VNAV, the airspeed cursor is set automatically by the FMC unless SPD INTV is in use. SPD INTV may be required for airspeed management during the approach (in order to comply with an ATC-assigned speed).

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  121. 121.) Q.13.13. What Operational Requirements must be met regarding the Jeppesen approach page to conduct a CAT III approach?
    “CAT III” must be in the title and CAT III approaches are authorized only when using a tailored approach chart that is labeled “SOUTHWEST HGS ONLY.”

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  122. 122.) Q.13.14. What is required to get the HGS 4000 to auto capture for an AIII approach?
    The STBY mode key on the HCP must be pushed when AIII is displayed on the right side of the standby line.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  123. 123.) Q.13.15. Are we required to change the RNP value for an RNAV(GPS) approach?
    No, it’s always .30 NM and is not listed in the minima block.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  124. 124.) Q.13.16. What RNP value should we choose for an RNP approach?
    Use the largest RNP value that allows the successful completion of the approach given the reported visibility, ceiling and RNP Availability Forecast.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  125. 125.) Q.13.17. What is our policy on extending flaps for landing?
    Avoid selecting flaps at or near the speeds indicated on the Flaps Placard Limit Speed (IAS), extend and retract flap using the PFD flap maneuvering speed (on the recommended speed schedules).

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  126. 126.) Q.13.18. If flap maneuvering speeds are not displayed on the PFD’s, what reference speed is used to calculate flap maneuvering speeds?
    Vref 40.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 11
  127. 127.) Q.13.19. At what altitude must the plane be in the planned landing configuration?
    1,000 ft above TDZE.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 11
  128. 128.) Q.13.20. Who’s mandatory duty and responsibility is it to call a go-around/missed approach if a stabilized approach is not obtained?
    Pilot Monitoring (PM).

    * New answer:  Any Flight Crew Member.  *

    Reference: FOM Chapter 11
  129. 129.) Q.13.21. If only approach lighting system is visible what other lights must be in sight to descend below 100 ft above TDZE?
    Red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.

    Reference: FOM Chapter 11
  130. 130.) Q.13.22. At what point is a go-around no longer possible?
    Thrust reverser levers are raised.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 12
  131. 131.) Q.13.23. What information is displayed on the REMARKS page of the PWB LANDING DATA page 2/x?
    Any factors that affect landing performance

    Reference: FRM Chapter 3
  132. 132.) The Crew has received their PWB landing data and loaded it into the FMS. They then experience a Non-Normal condition.

    Q.14.1. What statement within the QRH procedures always requires the crew to re-request landing data ensuring the performance limiting Non-Normal checklist is selected within PWB?
    Compute non-normal PWB performance data.

    Reference: QRH Example
  133. 133.) Q.14.2. How are Non-Normal procedures listed in the PWB system compared to the QRH?
    Non-Normal conditions are grouped by system, appear in the same order as in the QRH, and are titled the same as in the QRH.

    Reference: AOM Chapters 12 and 17
  134. 134.) Q.14.3. How far from the threshold does the landing Aiming Point Marking (also known as ____ ft fixed distance marker) begin on a precision instrument runway?
    1,000 ft from runway threshold designated as one “heavy” bar on each side of the centerline.

    Reference: Jepp B737 International Manual
  135. 135.) Q.14.4. What color is a runway distance remaining sign?
    White number on black background.

    Reference: Jepp B737 International Manual
  136. 136.) Q.14.5. What does landing longer than 1,500 ft from the threshold invalidate?
    PWB Calculated Stopping Margin

    Reference: AOM Chapter 12
  137. 137.) Q.14.6. What reverse thrust setting must the crew use during landing rollout?
    Reverse thrust, if operable, must be used on all landings at a minimum of detent 2 unless a higher level is specified.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  138. 138.) Q.14.7. When can the Captain call for “Flaps up”?
    Any time after the flight deck clears the runway side stripe marking.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 13
  139. 139.) Q.14.8. What are the idle thrust cooldown time limit requirements for an NG and MAX aircraft?
    NG:   1 minute, (3 minutes recommended.)

    MAX: 3 minutes


    Reference: AOM Chapter 3
  140. 140.) Q.14.9. How many minutes prior to the arrival at the gate should the APU be started?
    1 minute

    Reference: AOM Chapter 13 
  141. 141.) Q.14.10. Can the Captain shut down engine #2 prior to the APU being on the electrical buses?
    Yes, a single electrical power source is operationally acceptable from engine shut down until selecting ground power.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 13 
  142. 142.) Q.14.11. What is the guidance regarding starting the APU after landing?
    Delay as long as practical and ensure the APU is started and on the busses prior to reaching the J-line.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 13 
  143. 143.) Q.14.12. How many APU start attempts are allowed?
    • -   3
    • - If the APU fails to start after the third attempt, call dispatch and maintenance. Do not attempt a fourth start.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3 
  144. 144.) Q.14.13. How much time is required between APU start attempts?
    Wait 90 seconds between APU start attempts.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3 
  145. 145.) Q.14.14. How long should the APU run before being used as a bleed air source?
    • 1 Minute
    • - The APU should be operated for one minute before being used as a bleed air source.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3 
  146. 146.) Q.14.15. How long do you need to wait after turning off the APU to turn the battery switch off?
    • For the NG, wait at least 2 minutes after the APU GEN OFF Bus light extinguishes prior to positioning the battery switch off,
    • 3 minutes for the MAX.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 3 
  147. 147.) Q.14.16. When may the Captain release the parking brake after shut down?
    When the Marshaller provides the “insert chocks” signal.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 13 
  148. 148.) Q.14.17. On a terminating flight when can you turn off air conditioning?
    Maintain passenger air conditioning until the last Passengers are deplaning.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 14
  149. 149.) Q.14.18. On a terminating flight does the Captain need to do a cabin check if the flight attendants say “all clear”?
    Yes, the Captain must perform a cabin check to ensure that the girt bars are stowed, no one is left in the lavatories, and the emergency exit lights are off.

    Reference: AOM Chapter 14
Author
BBB68
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349504
Card Set
2020 CQT Questions
Description
2020 CQT Questions
Updated