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  1. All DON personnel that handle or physically interact with ammunition and explosives must be qualified according to what publication?
    OPNAVINST 8020.14 / MCO P8020.11
  2. Who initiates, monitors and maintains the ordnance certification program?
    The CO or the OIC
  3. The Commanding Officer designates in writing, what person as the ordnance certification board chairman?
    • Ship: The DH
    • Squadron: Maintenance O
  4. What is the minimum rank of an ordnance certification board member (without a waiver)?
    E-6
  5. To conduct a post load inspection, an Ordnanceman must be qualified and certified at what minimum level?
    QA
  6. What is the minimum level of certification you must be to work without supervision?
    Individual
  7. Newly assigned personnel are never permitted to work alone (unsupervised) until they have met what criteria?
    Are either certified at the level of Individual or Team Leader
  8. Qualification/certification board members must be appointed in writing by what individual?
    CO/OIC
  9. Ordnance used for classroom training should be which of the following types - expended, certified inert, expired or live?
    Certified inert
  10. Military personnel must meet the standards of NAVMED P117 every five years until they reach what age?
    50
  11. According to OPM standards, civilian personnel over age 60 should have medical exams at what specific interval?
    Every year /annually
  12. What condition code is used for suspended in stock?
    Condition Code J - Ammunition that requires investigation, technical evaluation or analysis as a prerequisite to true condition determination and classification.
  13. What cert level do you need to build bombs with out supervision?
    ***
  14. Ammo Transaction Reports (ATRs) pertaining to the movement, reclassification, or expenditure of complete rounds, missiles or torpedoes are transmitted under what classification?
    Confidential
  15. ATRs from ships and outside the continental United Stated (OCONUS) activities are transmitted under what classification?
    Unclassified
  16. ATRs pertaining to the movement, reclassification, or expenditures of mines, mine components or Destructors are transmitted under what classification?
    Confidential
  17. ATRs submitted by submarine are transmitted under what classification?
    Confidential
  18. ATRs pertaining to a complete on-load/off-load or revealing complete onboard capabilities of major weapons systems are transmitted under what classification?
    Confidential
  19. ATRs having ordnance information pertaining to ships and OCONUS activities are transmitted as what security classification?
    UNCLASSIFIED – DATA REPORTING TOTAL OR OPERATIONALLY READY QUANTITIES WOULD BE CONFIDENTIAL
  20. What system is used to automate information regarding Navy conventional ammunition inventory management and control?
    Ordnance Information System (OIS)
  21. ATRs update which of the following systems - AWARS, AWIS, ACES, ROLMS, CAIMS?
    New) OIS-Wholesale (Old) CAIMS
  22. What system serves as the single point of reference within the Navy for the worldwide status and visibility for conventional ammunition data and is the only inventory reporting system used by the CNO?
    Ordnance Information System (OIS)
  23. For in-depth information on the ROLMS/OIS Retail system, you should refer to what publication?
    NAVSUP P-724
  24. To report ATRs, what software system should you use?
    New) OIS-Retail (Old) ROLMS
  25. ATRs are forwarded by what means?
    By routine message
  26. What is the definition of a NALC?
    A four digit code assigned by NOLSC
  27. What is the Conventional Ammunition Integrated Management Systems (CAIMS) also known as OIS Wholesale?
    A management tool for all echelons of the Navy that relate assets (ordnance) to requirements and inventory managers for item decision-making purposes
  28. What CAIMS/OIS subsystem is used to account for ammunition by the serial or lot number?
    Serial lot item tracking (SLIT)
  29. What command maintains the CAIMS ammunition stock status files?
    (New) Naval Operational Logistics Support Command (NOLSC) (Old) Ships Parts Control Center (SPCC)
  30. Deployed ships submit Ammunition Transaction Reports (ATRs) to whom?
    (New) Naval Operational Logistics Support Command (NOLSC) (Old) Ships Parts Control Center (SPCC)
  31. Of the following - overseas base, station weapons, aircraft squadron or shipboard weapons department - which is not a CAIMS reporting activity for conventional ordnance?
    Aircraft squadron
  32. Ammo Transaction Reports (ATRs) should be submitted on what minimum basis?
    Daily - within 24 hours of an ammunition transaction - transfer, receipt, expenditure, or reclassification
  33. After an ammunition transaction occurs, you should submit an ATR within what maximum number of hours?
    48
  34. ATRs are submitted through the chain of command, via Naval message to whom?
    NOLSC
  35. Who issues instructions that provide detailed guidance for requisition and turn-in of ammunition within their jurisdiction?
    Each Fleet Commander issues instructions (COMPACFLT/COMLANTFLT)
  36. How many digits are in a Naval Ammunition Logistics Code (NALC)?
    Four digits
  37. What is the purpose of a NALC?
    It identifies Navy unique items of ordnance
  38. What determines the routing system a ship must use when ordering ammunition?
    The ships geographic location and mission
  39. Who gives final authorization of changes to shipfill allowance requests?
    Chief of Naval Operations
  40. What ammunition allowance is used for the ship’s permanently installed armament?
    Shipfill allowance
  41. Define cargo load allowance?
    The allowance of ammunition carried by AE, AOE, AO, and AOR class ships issued to fleet units in support of their assigned mission
  42. Define mission load allowance?
    The allowance of ammunition carried by CV(N), LHD, and LHA class ships in support of their assigned mission (Bombs, air launched missiles, torpedoes, and 20MM etc.) exclusive of the ship’s own armament.
  43. Define shipfill allowance?
    The allowance of ammunition for the ship’s permanently installed armament (20MM for CIWS, RIM-7 for the Ship’s Point Defense System)
  44. Identify the cog in 2E 1425-00-940-1347-EO75?
    2E
  45. Identify the Federal Supply Code (FSC) in 2E 1425-00-940-1347?
    1425
  46. Identify the check sum digit in E487/9?
    9
  47. An NSN has what total number of digits?
    13
  48. What makes up a National Stock Number (NSN)?
    A four digit Federal Supply Code (FSC) and nine digit National Item Identification Number (NIIN)
  49. What items make up the Department of Defense Ammunition Code (DODAC)?
    The four digit FSC and the four digit NALC
  50. What type of ammunition does the cog 8E represent?
    Air launched missile material
  51. What type of ammunition does the cog 2E represent?
    Conventional air ordnance
  52. What is MILSTRIP requisitioning based upon?
    The DD Form 1348
  53. Of the following which cannot be done with a MILSTRIP message - requisition, modification, cancellation or follow up?
    You cannot modify a MILSTRIP message
  54. What does serial/lot item tracking (SLIT) provide?
    Complete tracking of certain ammunition items from manufacture to expenditure by their unique serial or lot number
  55. What document is used for turn-in of ammunition?
    DD Form 1348-1
  56. What form should a squadron use to turn in bomb type ammunition to a NAS Weapons Department?
    DD Form 1348-1
  57. What maximum number of NALCs can you list on a DD 1348-1?
    One - But multiple lot numbers under the same NALC may listed
  58. What does the FOSAMS system consist of?
    The FOSAMS system consists of a computer keyboard, video display terminal, disk drive and a printer
  59. What does the OPSCAN system consist of?
    The OPSCAN system consists of an OPSCAN label, portable data scanner, and a bar code label printer
  60. Ships are required to maintain 100 percent shipfill allowance with only what exception?
    Shipfill allowance can be reduced to 90 percent for training purposes
  61. What authority approves ammunition allowance lists?
    CNO
  62. A quantity of ammunitions assembled from uniform components under similar conditions is defined by what term?
    Lot
  63. What determines the serviceability of a weapon?
    The date of manufacture
  64. What term is used for the date weapon components require intermediate or depot level maintenance or testing?
    Maintenance Due Date (MDD)
  65. The missile serial number is located where on the missile?
    Leading component
  66. Where is the missile serial number located on the AGM-84 Harpoon missile?
    Warhead section
  67. What condition code is used for suspended in stock?
    Condition Code J - Ammunition that requires investigation, technical evaluation or analysis as a prerequisite to true condition determination and classification.
  68. Military explosives are divided into what general classifications?
    High and low explosives
  69. Define brisance?
    The speed at which an explosive develops its maximum pressure
  70. Define hygroscopicity?
    The tendency of a material to absorb moisture
  71. Define stability?
    Explosives ability to remain unaffected by storage conditions
  72. Define booster?
    The intermediate charge that builds up the initiating shock to obtain full detonation of the burster charge
  73. The rate of detonation of is also known as what?
    The explosives burning speed
  74. What type of explosive is contained in a weapon with a yellow band around it?
    High explosives
  75. It is not feasible to use high explosives as a propellant for what reason?
    The rate of detonation cannot be controlled
  76. The United Nations has organized hazardous materials into different classes. From these classes, the DOD used what total number?
    Three (3)L
  77. What is used to assist in the identification of ammunition as to its use or explosive hazard?
    Color codes (e.g., Yellow/Brown)
  78. Of the following features – letter designations, mark and mod, color codes, and construction and shape, which is used to assist in the identification of ammunition as to its use or explosive hazard?
    Color codes
  79. What is the most sensitive component of the explosive train?
    Primer
  80. The booster in a high explosive train serves what purpose?
    It detonates the main charge
  81. Non-service ammunition is used for what purpose?
    Training personnel
  82. Of the following types of ammunition – dummy drill, service, practice, and captive carry, which contains explosive material and is intended for operational training?
    Practice
  83. Of the following types of ammunition - drill, service, captive carry, and practice, which contains explosive material used and is intended for combat use?
    Service
  84. Ammunition used to develop assembly and handling proficiency of loading crews is known as what type of ammunition?
    Dummy/drill inert
  85. What are the types of non-service ammunition?
    Practice/training, dummy drill/inert, and exercise/recoverable
  86. You have installed the nose fuze in a bomb, what is the order of the explosive train you have just completed?
    Primer, detonator, booster, and main charge
  87. Describe the basic high explosive firing train order?
    Firing pin, primer, detonator and booster
  88. Though no longer used as a propellant or projectile bursting charge, black powder is still used where?
    In ammunition and ammunition components
  89. Due to their similar deterioration characteristics, rocket motors can be stowed in the same magazine with what other type of explosive?
    Ballistite
  90. What explosive is almost exclusively used as the propellant for gun and rocket ammunition?
    Smokeless powder (Cordite N and Ballastite)
  91. Of the following items - H-6, PBXN-110, trytenol, and tetryl, which is considered an insensitive munition?
    PBXN-110
  92. Of guncotton, ballastite, tetryl, and cordite N, which is not a form of smokeless powder?
    Tetryl
  93. Define restricted burning?
    Where burning is restricted to the desired surface or surfaces
  94. Cordite N is used in what type of ammunition?
    Aircraft gun ammunition
  95. M50 series 20MM incendiary ammunition is stored in what type of magazine?
    In a fixed ammunition magazine
  96. What explosives will not burn under normal conditions, but will detonate when ignited?
    Initiating explosives
  97. What is the most powerful and brisant high explosive?
    RDX (Also known as cyclonite or hexogen)
  98. What explosive, because of its insensitivity to shock, is used as bursting charge for armor piercing projectiles?
    Ammonium picrate (Explosive D)
  99. What are the types of bomb ammunition?
    Bombs, mines, torpedo warheads, depth charges
  100. Define tetrytol?
    Tetrytol is a cast mixture of tetryl and TNT
  101. What explosive may secrete an oily brown liquid known as exudate?
    TNT
  102. What explosive is used in underwater weapons and missile warheads?
    HBX-1 and HBX-3
  103. What filler is currently used in general purpose bombs?
    H-6
  104. What is the standard bursting charge for general purpose bombs?
    H-6 (BLU series GP bombs use PBXN-109)
  105. What is the standard explosive filler in BLU series GP bombs?
    PBXN-109
  106. What explosive is used in the booster of an M904 series fuze?
    Tetyrl
  107. What explosive is never used aboard ships?
    Minol 2
  108. What symbol is used for plastic white phosphorus?
    PWP in light red
  109. When installed in the aircraft which of the following CADs - ejector rack cartridge, ejection seat cartridge, cable cutter for helicopter hoists, and lap belt actuator, which does NOT require log book entry?
    Ejector rack cartridge
  110. The typical impulse cartridge has what firing train?
    Primer, booster, and main charge
  111. Define the service life of a CAD?
    The specified period of time in which a CAD is allowed to be used. To determine service life expiration, both the shelf life and installed life must be computed
  112. How is the installed life of a CAD computed?
    Installed life begins the day the hermetic seal is broken the container. Look up the shelf life CAD and installed life of the CAD in the NA 11-100-1.1 then compare them, the one that expires first determines the installed life of the CAD.
  113. Immediately upon opening a hermetically sealed container of personnel escape device cartridges, you should take which of the following actions?
    Stencil each cartridge with the service life expiration date
  114. Of the following signal cartridges – CCU-44/B, MK-4, MK-23, and CXU-3, which is primarily used for day time missions with practice bombs?
    CXU-3
  115. What is to be done after you break the hermetic seal on a container containing cads?
    Mark the outside of the can and the CADs inside with the open date in indelible ink.
  116. CAD service life extensions are approved by what command?
    If less than 30 days, only Commanding Officer approval is needed, but if longer than 30 days approval will be granted by NAVWEPCEN Indian Head, MD, and NAVAIRSYSCOM
  117. Before issue, CADs are marked by an AO for what reason?
    To ensure that over age CADs are not used
  118. At what time is the service life expiration date – month and year- stenciled on a CAD?
    When its hermetically sealed container is opened
  119. What is an AO’s responsibility as far CADs used on personal escape devices?
    Properly stowing, handling, and issuing
  120. What CAD is used to actuate a refueling hose guillotine during an in-flight emergency, operates the release ejector mechanism or eject stores from an aircraft?
    MK-1 Mod 3
  121. What is the CCU-44/B impulse cartridge used for?
    Releases and ejects stores from an aircraft in flight
  122. The CCU-44/B is a replacement for what CAD?
    MK-2 Mod 1 and MK-125 Mod 0
  123. What impulse cartridges are used as an expelling charge in the AN/ALE-29A Dispenser?
    MK-131, CCU-41, CCU-63, and CCU-136
  124. Installation of the MK-131 cartridges must be done in what location?
    Designated RF-free area
  125. In the AN/ALE-37A, what total number of MK-131 impulse cartridges is installed in the dispenser set?
    240
  126. The gases from which of the following impulse cartridges – CCU-44/B, CCU-45/B, MK-19, and MK-4, eject the flare from the SUU-25F/A dispenser?
    CCU-44/B
  127. How many and what type cads does SUU-25 expend?
    Eight (8) CCU-44/B
  128. The CCU-45/B is used for what?
    Release and ejects stores
  129. The CCU-45/B is a replacement for what CADs?
    MK-9 and MK-124
  130. What CAD is used to actuate a helicopter cable cutter to cut a cable in an emergency?
    MK-97 Mod 0
  131. What impulse cartridge actuates the cable cutting device for helicopter tow reels?
    MK-23
  132. What CAD replaced the MK-9 and MK-124 CADs?
    CCU-45/B
  133. What CAD is used with the SUU-25 dispenser?
    CCU-44/B
  134. What CAD is used for emergency release of stores on the BRU-11 bomb rack?
    MK-19
  135. What CAD is used to launch MK-46 decoy flares from the ALE-29 system?
    (New) CCU-136 (Old) MK-131 or CCU-63 (Decoy flares only)
  136. The MK-19 CAD used for what purpose?
    Emergency jettison/release of stores loaded on aircraft during flight
  137. What cartridge should you install in the MK-89 Mod 0 bomb spotting charge adapter?
    CXU-3A/B
  138. The MK-25 MLM is ejected from a sonobuoy launcher by what impulse cartridge?
    JAU-22
  139. Of the following devices - electric squib, flexible linear shaped charge, impulse cartridge or ejection seat cartridge, which is classified as a detonating explosive?
    Flexible linear shaped charge
  140. Of the following - shaped charge assembly, CO2 cartridge, initiator, and actuator which one is classified for inflation?
    CO2 cartridge
  141. For launching the AIM-7 Sparrow, what impulse cartridge is used with the LAU-116 missile launcher?
    (New) CCU-45 (Old) MK-9 and MK-124
  142. On the BRU-14 bomb rack, what cartridge actuates the secondary release system?
    MK-17
  143. On the BRU-14 what CAD actuates the secondary/auxillary unlock?
    M55
  144. What CAD is used to operate and eject stores from the BRU-65 bomb rack?
    CCU-107
  145. What CAD is used to eject stores from the BRU-41 IMER?
    CCU-107
  146. What CAD is used to eject stores from the BRU-42 ITER?
    CCU-107
  147. What CAD is used to eject stores from the BRU-32?
    CCU-45
  148. What CAD is used for emergency release of stores on the BRU-32?
    MK-19
  149. What CAD is used in the LAU-93 missile launcher ejector assemblies?
    MK-107
  150. What is the loading factor (explosive content) of MK-80 series general purpose bombs?
    %45
  151. The approximate loading factor of general purpose bombs is what percent?
    45
  152. What explosive is the standard bursting charge for GP bombs?
    H-6
  153. What is the standard explosive filler in BLU series GP bombs?
    PBXN-109
  154. A MK-82 thermally protected bomb body states “thermally protected” on it, what else is used to show that the bomb is thermally protected?
    Two yellow bands around the nose
  155. What markings identify a Non-Thermally Protected High Explosive General Purpose (NTP HE GP) bomb?
    A single yellow band around the nose
  156. What markings identify a TP HE Bomb?
    Two yellow bands around the nose
  157. BLU Series bombs can be identified by what markings?
    Three yellow bands around the nose
  158. What is the approximate amount of PBXN-109 explosive filler in the 500 lb class BLU-126/B bomb body?
    27 lbs
  159. What special purpose bomb body is designated as a Low Collateral Damage Bomb (LOCO)?
    The BLU-126/B
  160. What is the weight class and explosive filler of the BLU-126/B Low Collateral (LOCO) Damage bomb?
    500 lbs/PBXN-109
  161. The BLU-126/B Low Collateral Damage special purpose bomb body can only be used with what type of kit?
    GBU (JDAM GBU-38V(4) or LGB GBU-51/GBU-52)
  162. What markings identify the BLU-126/B Low Collateral Damage special purpose bomb body?
    Three yellow stripes on the nose and an extra yellow band around the aft end of the bomb body
  163. What is the approximate amount of PBXN-109 explosive filler in the 2,000 lb class BLU-109A/B bomb body?
    525
  164. What 2,000 lb class bomb body has been designated as a Hard Target Penetrator (HTP)?
    BLU-109A/B
  165. What 2,000 lb class bomb body has been designated as an Advanced Unitary Penetrator (AUP)?
    BLU-116A/B
  166. What is the approximate amount of PBXN-109 explosive filler in the 2,000 lb class BLU-116/B bomb body?
    Minimum of 115 lbs
  167. What is the difference between the BLU-117A/B and BLU-117C/B?
    BLU-117A/B contains PBXN-109 explosive filler BLU-117C/B contains AFX-795 MK-3 Mod 0 MS 3314
  168. What bomb suspension lugs should be used with a MK-84 bomb?
    MK-3 Mod 0
  169. What suspension lug is compatible with 500 and 1,000 lb class MK-80 and BLU series bomb bodies?
    MS 3314
  170. The fuze charging receptacle on the MK-84 Mod 7 NTP GP bomb has been moved so it can be electrically fuzed and used with what bomb rack/aircraft combination?
    BRU-32 with F/A-18 and F-14
  171. What modification of the MK-84 TP GP bomb can be used with the F/A-18?
    Mod 6 (Fuze charging well has been moved aft 3.5 inches for use with the BRU-32 on the F/A18)
  172. What is the difference between the MXU-735/B and MXU-735A/B?
    Color (The /B is olive drab and A/B is tactical gray)
  173. When used with MK-80 series bombs, what is the purpose of the MXU-735 solid nose plug?
    To provide better penetration of hardened targets
  174. Can the MXU-735 be used with Paveway II Laser Guided Bombs?
    Yes
  175. The BSU-85/B fin is used with (a) what weapon and (b) is designed for what type of delivery?
    (a) MK-83/BLU-110 (b) Retarded
  176. Adapter boosters are normally used with what type of bomb?
    High Explosive (HE)
  177. When a GP bomb is being configured with a mechanical fuze, what is required?
    Adapter booster
  178. What procedure is to be followed if during an underway replenishment a pallet of bombs is immersed in saltwater?
    Wipe down immediately and if time permits wash down with fresh water and then stow
  179. What amount of thermal coating may be missing - in one area and cumulative - from the BLU-109A/B bomb body?
    20 square inches in one area or 40 square inches total
  180. What amount of thermal coating may be missing - in one area and cumulative- from the BLU-110/111 bomb body?
    15 square inches in one area or 56 square inches total
  181. What type of ammunition is considered most hazardous because of its tendency when detonated, to set off all explosive materials near it?
    Bomb ammunition
  182. The decals on the fin of a GP bomb are used for what purpose?
    To identify the fuzing configuration (MK-344 and MK-376 fuzes had stickers that were packaged with them and were attached to the fin during assembly)
  183. An electric fuze is installed in a MK-80 series bomb at what point in the assembly process?
    Before the tail fin is installed
  184. You should install the electrical tail fuzes in MK-80 series bombs at what point in during assembly and at what location?
    Before the bomb leaves the assembly area, below decks
  185. So that a bomb can be released in either an armed or safe configuration, what device is used to retain or release the swivel loop of a fuze arming wire?
    Arming solenoid (The ZRF on the BRU-32 serves the same purpose)
  186. Of the MK-1, MK-3, MK-5, and MK-8 arming wires, which is made of brass?
    MK-1
  187. Which arming wire is not made of brass?
    MK-3 stainless steel
  188. What arming wire should be used with electric fuzes?
    MK-3
  189. What permits a method of indirect rigging of GP bombs so that no arming wires will remain hanging from the bomb rack after the weapon releases?
    The use of MAU-166 and MAU-182 Ring and Swivel Assemblies
  190. What is the difference between the MAU-166 and MAU-182 ring and swivel assemblies?
    Breaking strength (220 lbs for the MAU-166 and 100-150 lbs for the MAU-182)
  191. The decals on the fin of a GP bomb provide you with what information?
    They identify the fuzing combination
  192. What mod of the MK-15 Snakeye fin does not have a guide tube as an integral part of the fin?
    MK-15 Mod 1
  193. The MK-15 Mods 3 & 4 fin is attached to the bomb by what?
    Eight set screws
  194. What Mod(s) of the MK-15 Snakeye fin uses eight set screws for attachment to a MK-80 series bomb?
    MK-15 Mod 3 and MK-15 Mod 4
  195. As a member of the fuzing crew you are directed to remove the set screw from the M904 mechanical nose fuze, what type of fin and mode of delivery should be used?
    Snakeye/retarded mode
  196. Snakeye fin assemblies are used to provide aircraft with which of the following delivery capabilities?
    High speed and low altitude
  197. The MAU-93/B provides a low drag configuration for what general purpose bomb?
    MK-82 Mods (Can also be attached to the BLU-111 and BDU-45 which were also distracters on the exam, MK-82 Mods is the first bomb body listed in the pub)
  198. The MAU-91B/B fin assembly is attached to what bomb?
    MK-83/BLU-110
  199. What bomb body uses the BSU-85 air inflatable retardable fin?
    MK-83/BLU-110
  200. What is the shelf life of the BSU-85?
    20 years
  201. The MAU-91A/B and B/B are retarded tail fins used with what bomb body?
    MK-83
  202. What adapter is used to attach the MAU-91 fin to the MK-83 bomb body?
    ADU-320/B
  203. The conical fin is used for what mode of delivery?
    Unretarded - low drag
  204. What publication is used for receiving, unpackaging, inspecting, maintenance, disassembly, testing and troubleshooting, assembly, packaging, shipping, storage and maintenance of components of Laser Guided Bombs?
    NA 01-15MGD-1
  205. What are the sections of a Laser Guided Bomb?
    Computer Control Group (CCG), bomb body, and Air Foil Group (AFG)
  206. What publication is used to assemble LASER guided bombs?
    NA 11-140-10
  207. A laser guided bomb uses electric tail fuzing only because of which of the following units - controller, destructor, fin assembly, and computer control group?
    Computer Control Group (CCG)
  208. Fin extenders are attached to what assembly on the laser guided bomb?
    Computer Control Group/Forward Adapter Assembly (MAU-169 OR MAU-209)
  209. Where do the wing extenders go on a GBU/LGB?
    Air Foil Group (MXU-650, MXU-667, MXU-651)
  210. What is the color of the MXU-650?
    Gray (As per the pub, but they are fleet issued in olive drab and gray)
  211. Laser guided bombs use what type(s) of tail fuzes?
    Electrical only
  212. Why is only an electrical tail fuze used in a Laser Guided Bomb?
    The Computer Control Group (CCG) mounts on the nose of the bomb body, precluding the use of a nose fuze
  213. What Air Foil Group AFG is used to stabilize the 500 lb Paveway II weapon?
    MXU-650
  214. What Air Foil Group is used to stabilize the 1,000 lb Paveway II weapon?
    MXU-667
  215. What Air Foil Group is used to stabilize the 2,000 lb Paveway II weapon?
    MXU-651
  216. The Laser Guided Training Round (LGTR) simulates what weapon?
    GBU-16 (The correct answer for the exam, but LGTRs simulate the GBU-10/12/16 and the LGTR II simulates the GBU-24)
  217. What the weight of the BDU-59 LGTR?
    89 lbs
  218. What cartridge(s) is/are installed in the LGTR to indicate the impact point?
    CXU-3 or MK-4
  219. A spring-operated ejector assembly provides what amount of force to separate the LGTR from the ejector unit once the hooks are opened?
    300 lbs
  220. What version of the GBU-12 is dual mode utilizing both laser and GPS guidance?
    GBU-12F/B
  221. What single mode laser guided bomb uses the BLU-126/B (LOCO) bomb body?
    GBU-51/B
  222. The GBU-52/B laser guided bomb uses what bomb body and CCG to obtain dual mode laser/GPS guidance?
    BLU-126/B (LOCO) bomb body and WGU-53/B CCG
  223. What is the weight of the GBU-16 Laser Guided Bomb?
    1,100 lbs (1,000 lb class)
  224. GBU-38 JDAM uses what bomb body and guidance kit?
    MK-82/BLU-111/BLU-126 with KMU-572
  225. To assemble a GBU-32 you would use what bomb body and guidance kit?
    MK-83/BLU-110 with KMU-559
  226. What bomb body and guidance kit is used to assemble the GBU-31(V)2?
    MK-84/BLU-117 with KMU-556
  227. What bomb body and guidance kit is used to assemble the GBU-31(V)4?
    BLU-109 with KMU-558
  228. What 2,000 lb class bomb body is used to assemble GBU-24 series bombs?
    BLU-109/BLU-116
  229. What 2,000 lb class bomb body is used to assemble the GBU-24E/B?
    BLU-116A/B
  230. What air foil group is used with the GBU-24?
    BSU-84
  231. The BSU-84B/B wing assembly incorporates a small cant for what purpose?
    Reduce rotation of GBU-24 series dual mode bombs to allow the GPS to operate
  232. What Guidance Control Unit does the GBU-24 incorporate?
    WGU-39
  233. The Walleye guided weapon uses what type(s) of suspension?
    14 or 30 inch
  234. What are the three basic series of walleye weapons?
    Walleye I small scale, Walleye II large scale, Walleye Extended Range Data Link (ERDL)
  235. What is the weight class of the Walleye I series weapons?
    1,000 lbs
  236. What is the weight of the Walleye II?
    2,000 lbs
  237. After launch what guides the Walleye weapon to its target?
    The pilot
  238. Where is the video recorder located in the MK-4 Mod 1 Walleye training weapon?
    Warhead section
  239. What type of propulsion system, if any, does the Walleye guided weapon contain?
    None
  240. The MK-77 Mod 4 Fire Bomb contains how many gallons of fuel gel mixture?
    75 gallons
  241. What is the weight of the MK-77 Mod 4 Fire Bomb?
    Approximately 500 lbs
  242. The MK-77 fire bomb has two filler holes that are how many degrees down from the top of the container?
    31 degrees
  243. What is the suspension of the MK-77 Fire Bomb?
    14 in
  244. What is the primary fuzing system used on the MK-77 fire bomb?
    MK-273 Mod 0 Igniter with a M918 fuze or the MK-13 Initiator
  245. What is the alternate fuzing system used on the MK-77 firebomb?
    AN-M173A1 fuze and the AN-M23A1 Igniter
  246. The FMU-83 fuze is used with what weapon?
    CBU-55A/B Fuel-Air Explosive (FAE) bomb cluster
  247. MK-77 Fire Bomb cases are filled to within 1 1/2 inches of the bottom of the filler holes, with the filler at the 12 O’ Clock position for what reason?
    Gives a minimum of 3 percent airspace in the bomb to prevent rupture because of expansion of the fuel gel mixture
  248. What is the total weight of the BLU-73 FAE bomb?
    132 lbs
  249. How many BLU-73s are contained in a FAE bomb?
    3
  250. The BLU-73 FAE bomb contains what type of fuze?
    FMU-95/B
Author
coop4rilla
ID
348965
Card Set
1-250
Description
AO ISH
Updated

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