ITIL Foundations 2011

  1. Which of the following examples is a source of best practice?

    A) ISO / IEC 20000
  2. Which is the CORRECT explanation of how a service facilitates an outcome?

    C) By enhancing the performance of associated tasks and reducing the effect of constraints
  3. What ITIL term is used for customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the service provider?

    A) External customers
  4. What should be defined for every process?

    A) The process owner, process policy and set of process activities
  5. All of the stages of the ITIL lifecycle have a role to play in ensuring the delivery of high quality IT services at optimum cost.

    Which of these has the BEST opportunity to prevent difficulties as early as possible and minimize the cost of any remedial work?

    D) Service design
  6. Which is NOT part of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

    B) Designing and developing capabilities for service management
  7. Which is an objective of service operation?

    D) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver services to the business and manage them at agreed levels
  8. Which is the BEST description of a business case?

    A) A decision support and planning tool that details the likely consequences of a business action
  9. Which of these statements about service asset and configuration management is CORRECT?

    1. A configuration item (CI) can be a component part of one or more other CIs
    2. How an organization groups components into configuration items will depend on the level of control they wish to exert
    3. A single configuration management database (CMDB) is the objective for an organization
    4. All CMDB audits should be conducted by external auditors using a CMDB standard

    D) 1 and 2
  10. Which BEST defines availability?

    C) The ability of a service, component or CI to perform its agreed function when required
  11. The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

    B) Service asset and configuration management
  12. 'A cause of one or more incidents’ is the ITIL definition of which of these terms?

    C) A problem
  13. Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

    A) CSI register
  14. Which is NOT a defined area of value?

    C) Business policies
  15. An Internal IT department would be considered which one of the ‘four Ps’ of service design?

    B) People
  16. Which do technology metrics measure?

    C) Components
  17. What is the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) approach:

    1. What is the vision?
    2. Where are we now?
    3. Where do we want to be?
    4. How do we get there?
    5. Did we get there?
    6. ?

    B) How do we keep the momentum going?
  18. Which do service metrics measure?

    A) The end-to-end service
  19. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

    B) SLA monitoring (SLAM) chart
  20. Where should a customer’s initial service targets be recorded before the service level agreement (SLA) is produced?

    B) In a list of service level requirements (SLR)
  21. The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

    A) Before the change is approved
  22. Which of the following lists shows change types defined in ITIL?

    B) Standard, emergency and normal
  23. Which is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

    B) To identify trends for use in problem management and other IT service management activities
  24. What should be documented in an incident model?

    1. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
    2. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) targets and reliability
    3. Details of agreed service continuity requirements
    4. Escalation procedures for who should be contacted and when

    B) 1 and 4
  25. Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

    A) Problem management
  26. With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

    B) Incident management
  27. Which process includes ‘facilitating good stewardship of service and customer assets’ as an objective?

    B) Financial management for IT services
  28. Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all live services and services that are about to be implemented?

    D) Service catalogue management
  29. Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

    A) Capacity management
  30. Which service design process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in all service designs?

    C) Design coordination
  31. Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

    C) Release and deployment management
  32. Which term describes the experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals?

    B) Knowledge
  33. What is the purpose of transition planning and support?

    D) Provide overall planning for service transitions and coordinate the resources they require
  34. Which would NOT involve event management?

    D) Recording service desk staff absence
  35. Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?

    D) Request fulfilment
  36. Which is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

    A) There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
  37. Which is an objective of application management?

    C) Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
  38. Which statement about a service owner is INCORRECT?

    A) Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
  39. Which rule should be followed when defining a RACI authority matrix?

    C) Only one person is accountable
  40. Which does NOT benefit from service automation?

    D) Wisdom
  41. Which is NOT a source of best practice?

    C) Technology
  42. Which three are the characteristics of ITIL guidance that help to make it successful?

    A) Vendor neutral, non-prescriptive and best practice
  43. What is the ITIL term for customers of an IT service provider who purchase services as agreed in a legal contract?

    B) External customers
  44. Which is NOT defined as part of every process?

    D) Functions
  45. In which areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

    1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
    2. Creating service application interfaces
    3. Specialized practices for IT recruitment
    4. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

    B) 1 and 4
  46. Which is an objective of service transition?

    D) To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
  47. Which lifecycle stage ensures that the impact of service outages is minimized on a day-to-day basis?

    B) Service operation
  48. Which is the BEST description of a service catalogue?

    A) The part of the service portfolio that is visible to customers
  49. Which of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

    C) Governance
  50. Which is an example of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

    A) A document that outlines agreements between service providers in the same organization
  51. A known error record has been created after completing diagnosis of a problem but before finding a workaround.  Is this a valid approach?

    C) Yes: a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
  52. Which is used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

    B) Change proposal
  53. Which person or group is responsible for agreeing service targets with the service provider?

    D) The customer
  54. Which of the following is TRUE regarding value?

    D) Value is defined by the customer
  55. Software and technology are examples of which of the four Ps?

    A) Products
  56. What is the MAIN reason for a service provider to understand the five aspects of service design?

    C) To ensure a holistic, results-driven approach
  57. Which is the CORRECT set of steps in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) approach?

    A) ‘What is the vision?’; ‘Where are we now?’; ‘Where do we want to be?’; ‘How do we get there?’; ‘Did we get there?’; ‘How do we keep the momentum going?’
  58. Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?

    B) Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics
  59. Which part of Financial Management for IT services deals with predicting and controlling income and expenditure within the organization?

    B) Budgeting
  60. What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

    B) Business relationship management
  61. Which of these recommendations are best practice for service level agreements?

    1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
    2. Ensure all the targets in an SLA are measurable.
    3. Ensure the SLA is signed by both customer and provider
    4. Include the service hours and cost of delivering the service

    A) 2 and 3
  62. Which is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

    D) An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service
  63. Which is NOT a responsibility of service catalogue management?

    C) Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
  64. Which is NOT an objective of supplier management?

    C) Maintaining the service knowledge management system
  65. Which process has the objective: “To ensure all service models conform to strategic, architectural, governance, and other corporate requirements”?

    D) Design coordination
  66. Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

    C) The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
  67. Who normally chairs a change advisory board (CAB)?

    B) Change manager
  68. What is the second phase in release and deployment management?

    D) Release build and test
  69. Which process has the objective: "to improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information is available throughout the lifecycle"?

    A) Knowledge management
  70. Which process helps to ensure that new or changed services are established in supported environments within the predicted cost, quality and time estimates?

    A) Transition planning and support
  71. Which should be done when closing an incident?

    1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
    2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome
    3. Record a known error record with the resolution
    4. Perform an incident review for lessons learned

    C) 1 and 2
  72. Which BEST describes hierarchic escalation?

    A) Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
  73. A significant, unresolved problem is likely to cause major business disruption. Where is this MOST LIKELY to be escalated to?

    A) IT service continuity management
  74. Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?

    B) Problem management
  75. Which is the BEST description of a service request?

    B) A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
  76. Which service desk organizational structure is NOT described in ‘Service Operation’?

    D) IT help desk
  77. Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

    A) IT operations management
  78. What is a process owner NOT responsible for?

    C) Developing IT plans that meet and continue to meet the IT requirements of the business
  79. What is the role of a person if they are categorized as "I" in a RACI matrix?

    B) They must be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
  80. Which of these can be introduced to provide; improved detection and monitoring, pattern recognition analysis and service optimization?

    B) Service automation
  81. What does SLAM chart stand for?
    Service Level Assessment Monitoring
  82. What does RACI stand for?
    • Responsible
    • Accountable
    • Consulted
    • Informed
  83. What does RAG chart stand for?
    • Red
    • Amber
    • Green
  84. What does BIA stand for?
    Business Impact Analysis
  85. What does CSI stand for?
    Continual Service Improvement
  86. What are the 5 stages of development in the Service Lifecycle?
    • Service Strategy
    • Service Design
    • Service Transition
    • Service Operation
    • Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
Card Set
ITIL Foundations 2011
ITIL Foundations 2011