CT board review

  1. An average range for activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is:



    A. 25-35 sec
  2. What is the corrent angleof insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for IV contrast?



    D. 15 degrees
  3. What flow rate is required for a total volume of 125 mL of contrast injected by an automatic injector in 50 seconds?



    C. 2.5 mL/sec
  4. The condition where a patient has a low O2 saturation of their blood is known as:



    A. hypoxemia
  5. Which of the following questions should be asked during the patient interview process prior to administering IV contrast?
    1. any prior allergic reactions to contrast media?
    2. presence of HIV or hep C?
    3. history of athsma?




    D. 1 and 3 only
  6. Which of the following can affect a patient's calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
    1. age
    2. sex
    3. race




    A. 1, 2, and 3
  7. Which of the following IV contrast agents provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?



    C. bolus technique
  8. A patient in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
    1. tachycardia
    2. rapid shallow breathing
    3. cyanosis




    D. 1, 2, and 3
  9. The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which?



    A. corticosteroid
  10. Which of the following is a non ionic contrast material?a. iodamide
    b. iothalmate
    c. iohexal
    d. diatrizoate
    c. iohexal
  11. What term is used to describe a patient that is having difficulty breathing?



    D. dyspnea
  12. Which of the following describes the situation in which it is assumed that an unconscious patient consents to treatment?



    B. implied consent
  13. Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?



    B. T wave
  14. During CT artrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the:



    A. joint space
  15. Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM)?



    B. iodixanol
  16. The anterior recess of the elbow is also known as the:



    C. antecubital space (AC)
  17. The potentially serious decline in renal function after the IV administration of contrast material is called:



    B. contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
  18. Advantagesof a saline flush immediately after the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include:
    1. reduction in required contrast agent dose
    2. reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
    3. reduction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature




    D. 1, 2, and 3
  19. Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac exam?



    D. sublingual nitroglycerine
  20. The normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult is: 



    C. 60-90 mm Hg
  21. Which of the following is a parenteral route of medical administration?



    B. intramuscular
  22. Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?



    B. enteric precautions
  23. Which of the following is considered ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?



    A. iothalmate meglumine
  24. A patient who is drowsy but can be aroused is said to be:



    C. lethargic
  25. Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include:
    1. prior life-threatening reaction to contrast
    2. multiple myeloma
    3. diabetes




    C. 1 only
  26. The acronym CTDI is used to describe:



    D. the radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan
  27. Contact shields made of ________ may be used to selectively protect radiosensitive organs during a CT aquisition.



    B. bismuth
  28. Which of the following factors has a direct effect on patient dose?



    C. mAs
  29. Which device is used to measure the patient dose from a CT scan?



    A. ionization chamber
  30. To meet current industy standards for required dose reduction measures, CT scanner must employ which of the following:
    1. automatic exposure control (AEC)
    2. adult & pediatric protocols
    3. digital imaging & communications in medicine (DICOM) radiation dose structured reporting (RDSR




    C. 1, 2, and 3
  31. When implementing a scan protocol for a CT of the abdomen w/o contrast on a pediatric patient (40lb/18kg) which technical factor should be primarily adjusted?



    B. tube milliamperage (mAs)
  32. Whole body risk based upon the radiosensitivity of exposed tissues may be estimated using the unit:



    A. effective dose
  33. The use of iterative reconstruction techniques for CT data processing results in:
    1. decreased noise on the reconstructed image
    2. decreased radiation dose to the patient
    3. decreased image reconstruction time




    C. 1 and 2 only
  34. Which if the following methods may be employed to reduce dose to the pediatric patient?
    1. recuse mA
    2. limit phases of acquisition
    3. increase pitch

    a. 1 and 2 only
    b. 2 and 3 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
    d 1, 2, and 3
  35. A decrease in the focus-to-detector distance of a multidetector CT (MDCT) system would result in:



    D. increased patient dose
  36. The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view to beam hardening is termed:



    C. CTDIW
  37. The radiation dose structured report (RDSR) must include which of the following details regarding a CT acquisition:
    1. tube current (mA)
    2. display field of view (DFOV)
    3. tube voltage (kVp)
    4. acquisition time (seconds)
    5. acquisition length (millimeters)




    D. 1, 3, 4, and 5
  38. The reduction in intensity of the CT x-ray beam as it passes through the patient tissue may generally be termed:



    C. attentuation
  39. Which of the following scenarios could result in an unnecessary increase in radiation dose to the patient?
    1. using an in-plane shielding w/ longitudinal and angular tube current modulation (ATCM)
    2. increasing the tube potential (kVp) without a compensatory decrease in the tube current (mA)
    3. increasing the technical parameters to provide a noise-free image




    D. 1, 2, and 3
  40. The dose length product (DLP) of a given CT acquisition may be calculated according to which of the following?
    1. MSAD X slice width (cm) X number of slices in scan volume
    2.  CTDIVOL  X scan length (cm)
    3. pitch X CTDIW   





    C. 1 and 2 only
  41. A modern CT system may employ complex collimation along the z-axis to reduce patient radiation exposure due to:



    C. overbeaming
  42. Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helical CT scan?



    A. mGy-cm (milligrays per cm)
  43. Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include:
    1. a precontrast CT of the brain
    2. a CT angiogram (CTA) of the brain & carotids
    3. 3. CT perfusion of the brain




    A. 1, 2, and 3
  44. Image Upload 1
    Number 1 corresponds to what?



    B. left pulmonary artery
  45. Image Upload 2
    Which # corresponds with the SVC?
    4
  46. The abnormal density located on the posterior portion of the left lung field has an avg attenuation value of +5.0 HU. This density most likely represents:



    A. pleural effusion
  47. Simple cysts of the kidney have an avg HU value of:



    B. 0 to +20 HU
  48. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approx:



    A. 25-35 sec
  49. Image Upload 3
    #2
    left internal carotid artery
  50. Image Upload 4
    #5
    right internal jugular vein
  51. Image Upload 5
    #1
    epiglottis
  52. the abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:



    B. L4
  53. The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disk is called the:



    D. vacuum phenomenon
  54. Which of the following studies is typically performed w/o contrast:



    D. CT of the brain to R/O subdural hematoma
  55. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell cancer of the bladder?
    a. early arterial
    b. corticomedullary
    c. nephrographic
    d. excretory
    d. excretory
  56. Image Upload 6
    #5



    C. stomach
  57. Image Upload 7
    name the patient's position
    right lateral decubitus
  58. Image Upload 8
    CT's of the abdomen are often performed in this position to demonstrate the relationship between the:



    C. duodenum and pancreatic head
  59. The still-viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:



    A. ischemic penumbra
  60. Complex fractures of the wrist are most commonly seen in which carpal bone?



    D. scaphoid
  61. A complete CT study of the orbits should include:



    C. thin 1-3mm axial and coronal images
  62. High resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is most commonly used for evaluation of the:



    B. lungs
  63. What flow rate should be selected for administration of IV contrast via an auto injector during a general CT of the abdomen?



    D. 1.0-3.0mL/sec
  64. Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:



    C. steatosis
Author
RadiationTherapy
ID
347218
Card Set
CT board review
Description
Mosby's exam review for computed tomography exam 1
Updated