UTI Microbiology

  1. S. saprophyticus is well know to cause _____
    UTI
  2. Which specie of staphylococcus is coagulase +
    S. aureus only
  3. True/false: staphylococcus grow in high salt environment
    True
  4. Which staphylococcus is novobiocin resistant?
    S saprophyticus
  5. True/false: S aureus is mannitol negative
    False; it is mannitol positive
  6. Which of the Staphylococcus species is mannito negative?
    • S epidermidis
    • S saprophyticus
  7. Which of the Staphylococcus specie is coagulase negative?
    • S epidermidis
    • S saprophyticus
  8. True/false: S aureus is beta hemolytic and S epidermidis and S saprophyticus is alpha hemolytic
    False; S aureus IS beta hemolytic, but the other two is GAMMA (no hemolysis).
  9. Which staphylococcus species have gold (or white) colonies
    S aureus
  10. S saprophyticus is coagulase ____, mannitol fermentation ____, and Novobiocin _____
    • Negative
    • Negative
    • Resistant
  11. S epidermidis is coagulase ___, mannitol fermentation ____, and novobiocin ___/
    • Negative
    • Negative
    • Sensitive
  12. True/false: S saprophyticus is a major healthcare-associated opportunist
    False; S epidermidis is a major healthcare-associated opportunist, not saprophyticus
  13. True/false: S aureus is more virulent than coagulase negative staphylococci
    True
  14. True/false: S epidermidis is urease +
    True
  15. S epidermidis, like saprophyticus, _____ (forms, does not form) loose slime layer
    Forms
  16. What is S epirdermidis’ oxygen metabolism?
    Facultative anaerobe
  17. True/false: S saprophyticus is urease + like S epidermidis
    True
  18. True/false: S saprophyticus is nitrate reductase + like E coli
    False; S saprophyticus is nitrate reductase NEGATIVE, unlike E coli
  19. On a novobiocin disc, which would you expect to see growth: S epidermidis or S saprophyticus?
    S saprophyticus
  20. True/false: mannitol salt agar is both selective and differential
    True
  21. What are virulence factors for CoNS?
    • Slime layer
    • Adhesins
    • Biofilms
  22. True/false: Candida albicans is a dimorphic/polymorphic fungus and a major opportunist
    True
  23. True/false: Candida albicans is part of our normal microbiota
    True
  24. True/false: catheters are a risk factor for Candida albicans infections
    True
  25. True/false: Like most other fungi, Candida albicans morphological changes depend only on temperature
    False; transition affected by pH, cell density, growth factors, serum concentration, CO2 concentration, nutrients, temperature
  26. Candida albicans is mostly _____ in vivo
    Budding yeast
  27. True/false: Candida albicans is germ tube test negative while Candida glabrata is germ tube test positive
    False; albicans is positive and glabrata is negative
  28. Candida is catalase ____.
    Positive
  29. Candida is ____ form in 20 degrees, and forms ______ around 37 degrees
    • Yeast form with Pseudohyphae
    • Germ tube
  30. Candida glabrata _____ (is/is not) part of the normal microbiota, and it is _______ (morphology)
    Is, not-dimorphic yeast
  31. True/false: C glabrata can form biofilms like C albicans
    True
  32. True/false: C glabrata is intrinsically resistant to azoles like C albicans
    False; C glabrata is intrinsically resistant to azoles, but C albicans are NOT, this is how you differentiate between them
  33. True/false: Schistosomiasis are trematodes that have separate sexes
    True
  34. Sexual reproduction of helminths occur when they are in which host?
    Definitive host
  35. True/false: Schistosoma is hermaphroditic and has 2 intermediate hosts like rest of trematodes
    False; unlike most other trematodes, Schistosoma has separate sexes and only 1 intermediate host
  36. What is the intermediate host of Schistosoma?
    Snails
  37. What is the definitive host of Schistosoma?
    Human
  38. Schistosoma haematobium is commonly found in ______, and it is a ______ type fluke whose egg transmission is via egg shedding in the _____.
    • Africa
    • Urogenital
    • Urine
  39. The other two species of Schistosoma (mansoni and japonicum) are _______ type fluke with egg transmission via shedding in ______
    • Intestinal
    • Feces
  40. Where is the site of mating/egg deposition for S haematobium?
    venous plexus lower urinary tract
  41. True/false: freshwater snail is the intermediate host of S haematobium, and it is where sexual reproduction occurs
    False; intermediate host is where asexual reproduction occurs
  42. True/false: adult forms of trematodes do increase in numbers in definitive host
    False; they do not increase in numbers
  43. S haematobium’s eggs are ________ carcinogens and is a leading cause of ______ cancer in endemic areas
    • Class I
    • Bladder
  44. Larval form of schistosome is released from which organism?
    Freshwater snails
  45. What is the name of the larval form of schistosome?
    Cercaria
  46. True/false: adult worms burrow into the skin of the definitive host- humans and migrate to the bloodstream
    False; cercaria (larval form) goes into human and later mature into adult worms
  47. Eggs produced by female worm are _______.
    Released into the environment
  48. What is the second larval from of schistosome called? And what does it do?
    • Miracidia
    • Infect the snail
  49. What is the transmission form of schistosome?
    Cercaria
  50. What is the infective stage of schistosome?
    cercaria
  51. What is the diagnostic stage of schistosome?
    Eggs
  52. How does schistosome cause fibrosis, calcifications or scarring of the bladder/ureters?
    Egg shed by adult worms get lodged there
  53. True/false: chronic granulomatous cystitis can lead to squamous cell carcinoma?
    True
  54. What is S. mansoni spine morphology? S japnicum?
    • Large lateral spine
    • Small spine
  55. Which organism is the most common cause of urethritis, cystitis, and pyelonephritis?
    E coli
  56. Cystitis is _____ urinary tract infection whereas pyelonephritis is _____ UTI
    • Lower
    • Upper
  57. True/false: Enterobacteriaceae are Gram negative cocci
    False; they are gram negative RODS
  58. Are Enterobacteriaceae oxidase positive or negative?
    negative
  59. Which Enterobacteriaceae are lactose fermenters?
    • Klebsiella
    • Escherichia coli
    • Enterobacter
  60. Which Enterobacteriaceae are lactose nonfermenters?
    • Proteus
    • Serratia
    • Shigella
    • Salmonella
    • Yersinia
  61. What is the oxygen metabolism of Enterobacteriaceae?
    facultative anaerobes
  62. True/false: Enterobacteriaceae are facultative anaerobes
    True
  63. True/false: all Enterobacteriaceae are nitrite positive
    True, they can all reduce nitrates to nitrites
  64. What is the acronym for lactose fermenters of enterobacteriacea?
    KEE (Klebsiella, Escherichia, Enterobacter)
  65. True/False: Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive
    False; they are oxidase negative
  66. Ture/false: all Enterobacteriaceae ferment glucose
    True
  67. How can you tell pseudomonas from Enterobacteriaceae?
    pseudomonas Is aerobic, cannot ferment anything
  68. Enterobacteriaceae can be typed based on which 3 structural antigens?
    • O (LPS)
    • H (flagellar)
    • K (capsular)
  69. Which Enterobacteriaceae are urease negative?
    • E. coli
    • Enterobacter
    • (urEase nEgative)
  70. Which of the Enterobacteriaceae is non-motile?
    Klebsiella
  71. True/false: most Enterobacteriaceae except for Klebsiella is motile
    True
  72. True/False: E coli ferments lactose rapidly
    True
  73. What can E coli cause?
    • Diarrhea
    • UTI
    • Neonatal meningitis
    • Gram-negative bacteremia
    • (DUNG)
  74. What are virulence factors for E coli?
    • Motile
    • pili
    • Adhesins
    • LPS
    • Hemolysin
    • Siderophore aerobactin
  75. What type of adhesins do UPEC (Uropathogenic E coli) have?
    • Type 1 pili (cause cystitis)
    • P pili (cause pyelonephritis)
  76. E coli with P pili have strong risk factor for which condition?
    Pyelonephritis
  77. True/false: Klebsiella have capsule and adhesins
    True
  78. True/false: Klebsiella are motile
    False; they are non motile
  79. Which Enterobacteriaceae has super long flagella (hyperflagellated)?
    Proteus
  80. Which Enterobacteriaceae “swarms”
    Proteus
  81. Urease can cause ________ of urine
    Alkalization
  82. What makes up struvite stones?
    White blood cells + ammonium magnesium phosphate + bacteria + proteinaceous matrix
  83. True/false: Any urease positive organism will form struvite stones
    True
  84. Urease would ______ urine pH
    Increase
  85. Is MacConkey agar selective, differential or both?
    • Both
    • Selects for Gram negative bacteria
    • Differentiate (color change) with lactose fermenters
  86. MacConkey agar allows for ______ bacteria growth? Inhibits _____ bacteria
    • Gram negative
    • Gram positive
  87. MacConkey agar turns _____ with _______.
    • Pink
    • Lactose fermenters
  88. Is eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar selective, differential or both?
    • Both
    • Select for Gr –
    • Turns black with green sheen with vigorous lactose fermenting
  89. True/false: both EMB And MacConkey agars select for non-fastidious Gr negative bacteria
    True
  90. Ture/false: both EMB and MacConkey are both selective and differential
    True
  91. Urease test, when positive would turn _____
    Pink
  92. True/false: most CAUTIs are asymptomatic and spontaneously resolve when catheter removed
    True
  93. True/false: CAUTIs are Gr negatives only
    False; Gr- and Gr + and even Candida are agents that can cause CAUTIs
  94. What are the leading agents for CAUTIs
    • Gr negative: E coli, pseudomonas, klebsiella, Enterobacter, Acinetobacter
    • Gr positive: Enterococcus, staphylococcus
    • Candida albicans
Author
lykthrnn
ID
346221
Card Set
UTI Microbiology
Description
Renal Midterm- Microbiology
Updated