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Alternates
Takeoff
weather conditions at departure airport are below CAT I minimums
Method 1
maximum time of 1 hour single-engine, still air, normal cruise speed; 330 NM max; method 1 is used
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Alternates
Method 1
lose engine at takeoff
1000 ft obstacle clearance, 1 point of landing; 330nm, SE LR cruise, 1 hour, still air
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Alternates
Method 2
Method 2; rule of 2
- 2 engines to cruise altitude
- lose 1 engine; 2000 ft obstacle clearance; 2 points of landing
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Alternates
Arrival
- 123 rule: 1 hour before/after scheduled arrival time
- domestic - 2000 ft ceiling; 3 sm visibility
- flag - greater of 2000 ft, or 1500 ft above IAP; greater of 3 sm visibility or .2sm visibilty more than lowest IAP
Marginal weather - ceiling within 100 ft, or visibility within 1/2 mile of the minimums of that airport. Need 2 alternates if arrival and 1st alternate meet this requirement
Method 2
Offline charter
International - greater than 6 hours flight time
Severe icing - 1 hour before/after forecasted
RNAV - if arrival only has RNAV approaches, need alternate with ground based nav approaches
Supplemental
3583
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Load Limits
1. Clean configuration
2. Slats and/or Flaps extended
- 1. -1.0g to +2.5g
- 2. 0.0g to +2.0g
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Diversion to normal width runway is recommended in case of:
- Rudder jam
- Rudder pedal jam
- Yaw damper fault
- No nose wheel steering
- Any wheel brake inoperative
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Landing Gear Speeds - Maximum
- retract (Vlo) - 220 kias
- extend (Vlo) - 250 kias
- extended (Vle) - 280/0.67 mach
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APU Altitudes - Maximum
1. APU start using normal electrics
2. One pack operation
3. For engine start
4. Two pack operation
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How do you derive DDA?
add 50ft to the published MDA
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Maximum differences between altitude indications
- Gnd check - ADR's 20ft / stby 300 / isis 100ft
- FL390 - ADR 1 & 2 - 130ft
- FL390 - ADR 1, 2, 3 - 195ft
- FL390 - ADR's & stby 445ft
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Whats a minimum oxygen pressure to trigger looking up if you have enough
1500 psi
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Fuel temperature min and max
-36°c and 55°c
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At what speeds should flaps/slats be extended
Vfe -10 kias
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100 hour FO restrictions
- RVR below 4000 ft (controlling)
- visibility below 3/4 mile
- wet, slippery, contaminated runway
- breaking action less than good
- crosswind greater than 15 kts
- windshear advisories or reports
- special airports
- any condition captain deems it prudent
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When do we need an ARTR
- crewmember change on supplemental
- add/remove mel/cdl
- adjustment to plan route time
- route change greater than 100 nm
- captains fuel over 2000 lbs
- reduction of fuel below brake release
- different alternate once flight is underway
- if capt and dispatch decide too
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What is considered a wet runway
- shiny
- less than 1/8" or 3mm
- layer of water
- covering 100% of runway
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What is considered a slippery runway
- more than a wet surface
- freezing rain
- wet runway with freezing temperature
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What is a contaminated runway
more than 25% of runway covered in standing water or slush >1/8" (3mm), or has accumulated snow or ice
less than 25% coverage prior to the midpoint
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How much does cabin seat cargo weigh
90 lbs
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How much does wheelchair in cabin weigh
carry-on
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Runway Limits
1. Max runway slope
2. Max runway altitude
3. Minimum runway width
2%
9200ft
100ft/30m
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Explain Takeoff Inhibiton
Warnings cautions are silenced until 1500ft or 2 mins after liftoff and 800ft AFE until 2 mins after touchdown
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Explain class 1 crew alerting
Level 3
Level 2
Level 1
- red, 3 chimes, affect me now
- amber, 1 chime, needs attention
- amber, no chime, redundant system
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On FCU, what does ---. symbolize?
item is managed, one click to see value
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On ND, what is not displayed in PLAN mode?
Wx radar, Terrain, TCAS
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Other than aircraft power, what conditions must be met to test CVR?
on the ground, parking brake set
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When does the CVR record?
the first 5 minutes after power-up, 1st engine start, during flight, until 5 minutes after 2nd engine shutdown
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Can you run APU with a Lo Oil Level indication?
Yes. You have 10 hours of use after first indication.
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During manual start, what does FADEC control?
start HP valve and igniton. Does not control EGT, will not shutdown start cycle for EGT exceedence.
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During engine start, what should you notice after fuel flow begins?
EGT and N2 rise after 15 seconds
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When does Auto Thrust engage?
when throttles brought back to CLB
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How is Autothrust normally disconnected?
Either button on thrust lever or levers brought back to idle
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What are the three idle modes?
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What is the electric system source priority?
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Are CBs monitored on the ECAM?
Yes. The green ones.
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What do the GEN1 pb do?
Ensures left and right #1 fuel pumps run after taking GEN1 out of system
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How much battery life is there during electrical emergency?
20 minutes
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What hydraulic system does the RAT pressurize?
Blue
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Describe Emergency Electrical Synopsis
- on battery power you have PFD1 and E/WD
- RAT deploys, takes about 8 seconds
- you then have PFD1, ND1, E/WD, and MCDU
- <100 knots, back on DC battery bus, you see PFD1 and E/WD
- 50 knots AC BUS sheds, no screens
- Ouflow valve (auto pressure controller #1 powered until touchdown. Below 100 knots, manual cabin pressure controller will function)
- APU fire detection and protection
- VHF-1
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What happens when engine FIRE pb pushed?
- silences CRC, arms the squibs
- closes hydraulic fire shut-off valve
- closes LP fuel valve, de-energizes FADEC
- de-activates the IDG
- closes bleed valve, closes pack flow control valve
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What does the DITCHING button do?
"keeps out the fishies"
- closes blower and extract valves
- closes pack inlet valves
- closes RAM air valve
- closes outflow valve
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Where does APU draw fuel from?
Left wing tank
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Explain inner-tank and center-tank fuel supply priority?
- center tank has priority (except take-off and landing)
- inner tank burns off 1100 lbs for IDG cooling fuel
- center tank burns down to 550 lbs, then continues for 5 minutes
- when inner tank burns down to 1650, outer tank transfers fuel to inner tanks
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How do NEO's get fuel from center tank?
jet pumps and motive flow feeds wing tanks
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What tank is supplying fuel if all 6 pumps are operating?
center
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What is min fuel for takeoff?
3300 lbs
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What are icing conditions?
10°c OAT on ground, 10°c TAT in flight and visible moisture
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When must engine anti-ice be on?
During descent, regardless of temperature
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When are probes and windows heated automatically?
after starting first engine
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When dos APU AVAIL light on?
- when apu is on-speed
- 95% and 2 seconds
- 99.5%
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How long do emergency batteries last?
15 minutes
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What are the ways the pax O2 masks drop?
- auto at 14,000 ft (sends message)
- manually (sends message)
- release tool
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If BMC#1 fails, what monitoring is lost?
BMC 2?
#1 pylon and APU leak detection
#2 pylon
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Where are cabin temperature sensors?
galley/lav extract ducting
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What equipment is required for flight in RVSM airspace?
1 of each
- FCU (altitude alerter)
- FWC (alt selection and op clb/des modes)
- Autopilot
- Transponder
2 of each
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When do we use pack flow LO?
320 - less than 141 pax
321 - less than 168 pax
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When do we use pack flow HI?
hot an humid conditions
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When does pack flow automatically go to HI?
single pack or APU
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What protections do you have under Normal Law?
- Bank - 67° (45°, 40°, 33°)
- Yaw - damping & turn coordination
- Pitch - 25°-30° up (flaps 0-3); 20°-25° up (flaps full); 15° down (all configs)
- AoA - Vmax, Vls, αPROT, αMAX
- Load - -1 to +2.5 clean, 0 to +2 dirty; αFLOOR on FMA and E/WD
- Speed - Vmo +6
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What protections do you have under Alternate Law?
- Bank - no protection
- Yaw - damping only
- Pitch - no protection
- AoA - Vls, Vsw
- Load - same as normal
- Speed - stability/varies?
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What protections do you have under direct law?
- Bank - no protection
- Yaw - mechanical rudder
- Pitch - no protection
- AoA - indicates Vls/Vsw
- Load - no protection
- Speed - aural overspeed
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What is bleed air used for?
WEHAW
- Wing anti-ice
- Engine start
- Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
- Air conditioning
- Water tank pressurization
- fuel inerting
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What is normal hydraulic pressure?
What is RAT hydraulic pressure?
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What steering angle does tiller provide?
What is towbar travel limits?
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What is maximum temperature to apply the parking brake?
500°c
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What does ELAC mean and what does it do?
PARAAA
Elevator Aileron Computer
- Pitch
- Abnormal attitudes
- Roll
- Aileron droop
- Autopilot acquisition
- Activates the protections
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What does SEC mean and what does it do?
PARSS
Spoiler Elevator Computer
- Pitch
- Abnormal attitudes
- Roll
- Speed brakes
- Spoilers
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Describe conditions to get Beta-Target
- Flaps 1, 2, 3
- one engine > 80% N1 and the difference between N1's exceeds 35%
- FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) controls the entire side slip indication
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What does αPROT provide?
BASAP
- Bank 45°
- A/P disconnect
- Speed brakes retract
- AoA instead of load
- Pitch up trim inhibit
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What are the requirements for a proper fuel slip?
Calculated amount is within 300 lbs of amount on fuel slip and within 500 lbs of release
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What is the order of emergency checklists?
- Memory items
- Oeb’s
- ECAM
- Qrh procedures
- Qrh abnormals
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What does ON BATT light signify?
- Self test at beginning of complete alignment
- When batteries are supply at least one IRS
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How long does it take IRS to do complete alignment?
10 minutes
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When does the RAT deploy?
When ac bus 1 and ac bus 2 lost above 100 knots (about 8 secs to deploy)
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When is PTU inhibited?
- During first engine start
- One on one off and nose steering pin engaged
- Cargo door operations
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When does PTU activate?
500 psi differential between yellow and green system.
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What is marginal weather?
Ceiling within 100 feet or vis within 1/2 mile of mins for destination airport and first alternate airport
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What does flashing align light signify?
- IR align fault
- No ppos after 10 minutes of align start
- Disagree of last known position with ppos of 1 degree or more
- Excessive motion during alignment
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When do we perform a complete alignment of IRS?
- First flight
- Crew change
- GPS not available and NAVAID poor
- GPS not available and flight more than 3 hours
- International and Alaska flights
- Class 2 airspace
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Max brake temps for takeoff
300c
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APU starter duty cycles
- 1 minute between start attempts
- 1 hour after 3 consecutive attempts
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Engine starter duty cycles
NEO
CEO
NX
- NEO 1 - 60 secs
- 2 - 60 secs
- 3 - 15 minutes
- CEO 1 - 20 seconds
- 2 - 20 seconds
- 3 - 20 seconds
- 4 - 15 minutes
- NX 1 - 35 seconds
- 2 - 35 seconds
- 3 - 15 minutes
a standard automatic start that includes up to three start attempts is considered one cycle for NEO & CEO, two start attempts for the NX
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Auto land requirements
- Aircraft/crew/airport capable
- not on runways less than 150 feet wide
- Braking action medium or better
- Capt is PF
- CONF 3 or CONF FULL (full recommended)
- Not below -1000 feet pressure altitude
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Runway Centerline Light Colors
> 3000 feet - white
3000 to 1000 feet - red/white alternating
<1000 feet - red
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Equipment needed for RNP-10
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What happens with gear handle turns
- 1. Hyd shutoff
- 2. Doors open
- 3. Gear unlock
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How long to press side priority for lockout
40 seconds
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What happens at alpha floor
- 1. Thrust goes to TOGA
- 2. See TOGA LOCK
- 3. disconnect auto thrust to get out of TOGA lock
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What happens when APU master turned on
- Opens door
- ECAM page
- Fuel pump on
- ECB test
- Inlet fuel valve opens
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Wingtip brakes are caused by what conditions?
- Runaway
- Over speed
- Asymmetry
- Uncommanded movement
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High speed protection
BASN
- Bank limit to 40 degrees
- Autopilot disconnect
- Seeks wings level
- Nose up movement
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What conditions to generate beta target?
- Flaps 1 2 3
- One engine > 80% N1
- N1’s difference exceed 35%
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What flight control functions does the FAC provide?
BeSWiFT RATTY
- Beta target
- Speed, speed, speed
- Windshear
- Flight envelope protections
- Tail:
- Rudder limiting
- Alternative law yaw
- Turn coordination
- Trim
- Yaw damping
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Brake temperature limitations requiring maintenance actions
difference between two brakes on same gear >150 degrees and; temp of either one of the brakes is => 600 degrees; or temp of either one of the brakes is <=60 degrees
difference between LH and RH brakes average temperature is => 200 degrees
a fuse plug has melted
one brake temp exceeds 900 degrees
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What are the briefing elements of a cabin emergency call?
1. T - Type of emergency
2. E - Evacuation required
3. S - Signals; "Brace", "Remain Seated", "Evacuate" (each 3 times)
4. T - Time to landing
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Why do we put 0.3 into RNP for GPS approach?
So it doesn't revert to RNP 1.0 on the missed
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What is the proper order to disengage/re-engage automation?
1. Flight Director
2. Auto thrust
3. Auto pilot
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What are the different ventilation modes?
1. Open - ground only
2. Closed - ground or flight
3. Intermediate - flight
4. Smoke - blower off, extract on, injects conditioned air to blow smoke overboard
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What are the formats for a reroute?
1. Place/Bearing/Distance
2. Place-Bearing/Place Bearing
3. Airway
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When do "Braking Action Advisories" go into effect?
when tower receives a braking action report of poor or nil
whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions
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What is needed for RNAV departure?
1. RNP 1
2. Retrievable by name from database
3. Must use FD or AP
4. RNAV flight guidance engage by 500' AAE
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Where are takeoff minimums located?
Vol 1 20.40
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When does red autoland light flash?
- At least one autopilot engaged
- RA <200 agl="" br="">Last autopilot disengages
- RA difference > 15 feet
- Loc loss/deviation 1/4 dot
- GS loss/deviation 1 dot
- Long flare
- Untimely flare
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