JAAOS article questions

  1. TKA in >80 vs <80 outcomes (2)
    • Similar functional outcomes at 2 years
    • >80 were using more walking aids
  2. Complications TKA/THA in age >80 (4)
    • 3.5x increased risk death
    • 2.7x increase of MI
    • Increase in risk of pneumonia
    • Increase risk transfusion
  3. Geriatric comanagement benefits (3) in pt >80 undergoing THA/TKA
    • Decreases complications
    • Decreases hospital stays
    • Decreases rehospitalization
  4. Primary blood supply of proximal humerus
    Posterior circumflex artery ( 64%)
  5. 2 radiographic measurements correlate with humeral head ischemia
    • Metaphyseal head extension <8mm
    • Medial hinge disruption >2mm

    However does not correlate with AVN
  6. Outcomes of ORIF vs HA comparison (2) of proximal humerus fractures
    • ORIF IN <65 y.o. better constant scores
    • ORIF more complications vs HA (AVN + cutout)
  7. 4 relative indications IM nail humerus
    • 2 part Surgical neck
    • Young age
    • Concomittant humeral shaft
    • Impending pathologic
  8. 2 requirements for a succesful hemiarthroplasty
    • Functioning rotator cuff
    • Anatomically healed tuberosities
  9. How to judge humeral head height based on anatomic landmarks
    Top humeral head 5.6 cm above from upper border of pec major
  10. 4 complications of RSA
    • Scapular notching
    • Glenoid loosening
    • INstability
    • Infection
  11. RSA vs ORIF for proximal humerus fractures
    • RSA less complications
    • ORIF better functional outcomes
  12. RSA vs ORIF for proximal humerus fractures
    • RSA less complications
    • ORIF better functional outcomes
  13. List anatomical risk factors for glenohumeral instability 4
    • Increased glenoid retroversion
    • Glenoid hypoplasia
    • Reverse hillsack
    • Increased humeral head retroversion
  14. Position of dislocation of posterior instability
    Flexion Adduction IR
  15. 4 static stabilizers of posterior instability shoulder
    • Posterior labrum: increases concavity compression
    • Posterior capsule: PIGHL most important in IR and flexion.
    • Posterior glenoid bone loss?humeral head
    • Rotator interval
  16. What is the concept of shoulder circle?
    If shoulder dislocates posterior à the rotator interval should be disrupted anteriorly à needs plication when stabilizing posterior
  17. What are the four etiologies for posterior shoulder instability
    • Acute trauma
    • Repetitive microtrauma
    • Insidiuos onset: generalized ligamentous laxity
    • Voluntary
  18. What are the physical exam signs associaed ith posterior instability 5
    • Jerk
    • Kim
    • Posterior stress
    • Load and shift
    • Sulcus
  19. What are 3 the soft tissue MRI findings? of posterior instability
    • POsterior bankart
    • Enlargement of posterior capsule
    • Kim lesion: incomplete avulsion of the posterior labrum
  20. 2 indications for surgery in posterior shoulder instability
    • Failed conservative
    • instability from an acute traumatic etiology and identifiable soft-tissue and/or osseous pathology.
  21. 2 Options for >20% glenoid loss in posterior instability
    • Ilac crest or distal tibial allograft
    • no difference in results
  22. Posterior instability outcome: suture anchor vs no suture anchor
    Suture anchor > greater return to play
  23. Posterior instability shoulder post surgery:
    Overall return to sport
    Overall return to same level
    • 90%
    • 64%
  24. Distal humerus # in elderly:
    Union
    COmplications
    Timing
    • 3%
    • 30%: same to younger
    • Improved if <3 days: decrease hospital discharge + minimize complications
  25. Indicatios of ulnar nerve transposition in distal humerus ORIF 2
    • If pre op symptoms: better recovery
    • If nerve damaged pre op
  26. 2 indications for TEA in distal humerus #
    • Unable to ORIF with good stabilit
    • Presence of pre existence of arthritis, no union, malunion
  27. 5contraindications of TEA
    • Young high demand: weight restriction 10lb
    • Cognitive impairement
    • Neuro injury
    • Presence infection
    • Poor soft issue
  28. List the complications with TEA? (5)
    • Osteolysis
    • Loosening
    • Failure
    • Infection
    • Fracture
  29. Can you excise the condyles in TEA?
    • yes, Canadian study:
    • does not compromise elbow strength or motion and can decrease surgical time and complexity, as well as eliminate pain secondary to condylar nonunion
  30. Type of elbow most used?
    • Semi- constraint
    • Sloppy hindge ofloads cement bone interface
    • Non constrainted- requires perfect soft tissue balenceing but preserves bone stalk
  31. Comparing TEA to ORIF:
    Surgical time
    daSH score
    MEPS
    • TEA beter time
    • TEA better score at 6 months
    • TEA better at all point
  32. List the advantages of volar plating in elderly 4 vs dorsal for DRF
    • Improved radiological outcomes
    • Low complications
    • Improved function
    • Better clinical results vs CRPP and ex fix
    • Lower risk displacement and tendon irritation
  33. List 4 graft options in DRF in elderly
    • Iliac crest auto graft
    • allograft
    • hydroxyapatite
    • calcium biphosphate
  34. Has formal physio improved outcomes over home progam for DR #?
    NO
  35. Definition of pelvic discontinuity: definition
    separation of the ilium superiorly from the ischiopubic segment inferiorly
  36. 3 risk factors pelvic discontinuity
    • Female
    • Rheumatoid
    • Radiation therapy
  37. Options for pelvic discontinuity
    • Hemisphereic cup with posterior column plating: setting of acute fracture
    • Highly porous coated acetabular components: need 50% host bone contact to cup
    • Cup cage
    • Distraction method
    • Custom triflange
  38. Q) What is the definition of HO?
    HO is the formation of trabecular bone in soft tissues where bone does not usually occur.
  39. How early can pain X-rays or Bone scan detect HO?
    X-rays => 4wks // Bone scan can show inc. uptake before 4wks
  40. What are the lab values in HO?
    Normal Ca & PO4 levels throughout Dx process

    Alk Phos inc. in early HO & plateau’s at 4wks
  41. How do you classify HO in hip?
    Brooker

    1) Island of bone within the soft tissues about the hip

    2) Bone spurs from pelvis or prox femur with > 1cm between bone opposing surfaces

    3) Similar to Class 2 but < 1cm between ends of bone spurs

    • 4) Ankyloses of the hip
  42. 2 surgical factors that increase risk HO
    • Iliofemoral > kocher langenbech > ilioinguinal
    • Complex exposure:
    • -double exposure
    • -trochanteric osteotomy
  43. Soft tissue factors that decrease risk of HO
    Debridement of necrotic muscle tissue
  44. Clinical/systemic factors that increase risk HO 7
    • a) Male
    • b) TBI or thoraco-abdominal trauma
    • c) Sciatic nerve injury
    • d) femoral head injury/ intra-articular debris
    • e) Delay to Sx
    • f) Ipsilateral femur #
    • g) Prolonged mechanical ventilation
  45. Early vs late THA for acetabular # risk of HO
    Higher with early
  46. What is the best Treatment/prophylaxis option for HO in Acetabular #?
    XRT 600-800cGy within 72hrs post-op: better if given within 72 hrs

    • Better than pre op XRT
    • Better than NSAIS's
  47. What is the role of NSAIDs in HO prophylaxis of Acetab #?
    **Literature indicates that NSAIDs are ineffective for HO prophylaxis after Acetab Sx**
  48. What is the surgical Rx for HO in Acetab #? (4)
    - Traditionally, resection delayed until mass was “Mature” but could be active in bone scan up to 2yrs.

    - The recommendation is to resect the HO if symptomatic (causing neurodeficit or significant ROM limitations).

    - Anticipate significant blood loss, prepare nerve stimulators & doppler to aid in difficult locations. XRT or 2wk course of indomethacin post-op.
  49. Risk of HO and timing of acetabular #
    Increased if delayed acetabular fixation
  50. Describe the boarders of the ulnar tunnel (guyons canal) (3)
    begins at the proximal edge of the volar carpal ligament

    extends to the fibrous arch of the hypothenar muscles.

    borders are not constant but most notably the pisiform and the hamate
  51. Describe the zones of the ulnar canal and their significances (3)
    • Zone 1:
    • -3 cm in length - volar carpal ligament palmary and the transverse carpal ligament dorsally
    • -proximal to bifurcation of the ulnar nerve into its motor and sensory branches
    • -both paresthesia and intrinsic muscle deficit.


    Zone 2

    • -After the ulnar nerve bifurcates
    • -deep motor branch goes dorsal and radial around the hamate as it dives deep to the fibrous arch of the hypothenar muscles
    • -deficits in motor function only


    • Zone 3
    • - superficial sensory branch of the ulnar nerve as it courses palmar to the fascia of the hypothenar muscles.
  52. Common causes of zone 3 ulnar nerve compression (2)?
    • ulnar artery thrombosis
    • ulnar artery aneurysm
  53. What are the common causes of zone 1 ulnar nerve compression (4)
    • - Ganglion cysts
    • - hook of hamate fractures
    • - traumatic adhesions
    • - anomalous muscles
  54. Causes of ulnar nerve Zone 2 compression (3)
    • ganglion cysts  - 90% of cause in zone1 and 2
    • fractures
    • thickened pisohamate ligament.
  55. Descibe the common exam findings of ulnar neuropathy (8)
    • Tinel test
    • sensory threshold testing,
    • interossei wasting,
    • inability to cross fingers
    • unable to abduct little finger ( Wartenberg sign)
    • Ulnar claw deformity
    • -secondary to lumbrical paralysis of the little and ring fingers
    • -extensor tendons place MCPs in hyperextension
    • -long flexors place the PIP and DIP in flexed position.

    Froment sign:Attempted pinch between the thumb and the index finger may lead to compensatory thumb IP flexion

    Jeanne sign: hyperextension of the thumb MCP > paralysis of the adductor pollicis muscle.
  56. What is the ddx of ulnar neuropathy and how can it be determined (4)
    • ulnar tunnel
    • cubital tunnel
    • thoracic outlet
    • cervical radiculopathy syndromes

    Determine using EMG!!
  57. 2 main focus of surgical management of ulnar neuropathy
    removal of mass effect lesionsdecompression of all 3 zones

    • antebrachial fascia,
    • volar carpal ligament,
    • hypothenar fibrous arch (overlying the deep motor branch)
  58. What is the most common cause of compression of ulnar nerve syndrome
    Ganglion cysts
  59. What are the boundaries of the radial tunnel (5)
    5 cm long and begins as the radial nerve courses past the radiocapitellar joint.

    Roof:  brachioradialis muscle

    Medially: biceps tendon and the brachialis

    Lateral: ECRB and ECRL + brachioradialis muscle.

    Distally ends at the fibrous arch of the proximal edge of the supinator muscle (arcade of Frohse)
  60. What is the Hx funding of radial tunnel syndrome
    proximal, lateral forearm or elbow pain that often worsens with rotational movements of the forearm
  61. Physical exam findings of radial tunnel syndrome (3)
    lateral forearm pressure over the supinator muscle, with the wrist in full supination should reproduce pain: Pronation of the wrist during this maneuver moves the radial nerve away from the thumb-directed pressure, should relieve the pain.

    Pain with resisted, active extension of the wrist or the long finger.

    Slight weakness of the extensors secondary to pain rather than motor nerve dysfunction.
  62. Treatment of radial tunel syndrome: areas of decompression (3)
    • Arcade of froshe
    • Leading edge of proximal ECRB
    • Compressive fascia of distal supinator
  63. Pronator syndrome defintiion:
    compressive neuropathy of the median nerve at the level of the elbow
  64. List 8 site of compression for pronator syndrome:
    • supracondylar process
    • residual osseous structure on distal humerus present in 1% of population
    • ligament of Struthers
    • travels from tip of supracondylar process to medial epicondyle
    • not to be confused with arcade of Struthers which is a site of ulnar compression neuropathy in cubital tunnel syndrome
    • bicipital aponeurosis (a.k.a. lacertus fibrosus)
    • between ulnar and humeral heads of pronator teres
    • FDS aponeurotic arch
  65. AIN syndrome defnition
    compressive neuropathy of the AIN that results in motor or sensory deficits
  66. Physical exam findings AIN syndrome (2)
    motor deficits only

    no cutaneous sensory changes
  67. List 7 sites of sites of entrapment for AIN
    tendinous edge of deep head of pronator teres

    FDS arcade

    edge of lacertus fibrosus

    accessory head of FPL (Gantzer's muscle)

    accessory muscle from FDS to FDP

    abberant muscles (FCRB, palmaris profundus)

    thrombosed ulnar radial or ulnar artery
  68. Difference between AIN and pronator syndrom 2
    • AIN syndrome: inflammatory
    • Pronator syndrome mechanical

    AIN syndrom motor deficits only
  69. Most common site of AIN compression
    tendinous edge of deep head of pronator teres
  70. Distinguish carpal tunnel from more proximal compression of AIN
    Palmar paresthesia may help surgeons distinguish carpal tunnel compression from compression at more proximal locations
  71. Physical exam finding in AIN compression if:
    Pronator syndrome
    Lacertus fibrosus
    Pronator teres
    FDS
    Carpal tunnel
    Pronator syndrome: presence of sensory deficits rules out an isolated AIN lesion but supports a diagnosis of pronator syndrome

    Lacertus fibrosus: resisted elbow flexion with the forearm in a supinated position.

    pronator teres : resisted forearm pronation.

    FDS arch : resisted finger flexion --  PIP of long fingure.

    Carpal tunnel:  Tinel sign and a positive scratch collapse test may be observed in patients with proximal median neuropathy.
  72. Mannerfelt syndrome:
    attritional rupture of the FPL secondary to a carpal osteophyte
  73. What is the function of TFCC? (2)
    1) Stabilizes DRUJ

    2) Cushion for force distribution btw carpus & ulna
  74. Q) What are the structures forming TFCC? (5)
    • 1) Articular disc
    • 2) Volar & Dorsal DRU ligaments
    • 3) Ulnocarpal ligaments
    • 4) ECU sheath
    • 5) Meniscus homolog
  75. When is the DRU ligaments tight/lax?
    A) Lax in neutral rotation & tight in Max. pro & supination
  76. DDx of Ulnar sided wrist pain? (4 broad categories)
    • 1) Traumatic
    • 2) Inflammatory
    • 3) Congenital
    • 4) Degenerative
  77. Ddx ulnar sided wrist pain JAAOS table
    Image Upload 2
  78. What are the provocative test to further assess Ulnar sided wrist pathology? (7)
    • Ulnocarpal stress test
    • PT grind test
    • Kleinman shuck
    • Shear test
    • Derby relocation
    • Ulnar fovea
    • Piano key
  79. Describe ulnocarpal stress test
    For ulnar sided wrist pain


    wrist Max Uln deviation, forearm Neut, elbow 90deg then axial load on wrist while sup/pron => Pain is +ve
  80. Describe PT grind test
    For ulnar sided wrist pain


    Simply grind the pisiform on the triquetrum
  81. Describe Kleinman Shuck test
    For ulnar sided wrist pain

    Also simple, hold triquetrum & pisiform on one hand btw thumb & index while the other hand holds the lunate & move both hands in opposite directions.
  82. Shear test
    For ulnar sided wrist pain

    Same as Shuck test but stabilize radiolunate instead of only lunate
  83. Describe ulnar fovea sign
    to assess UT ligament or foveal disruption => Pain replicated by pressing on interval btw ulnar styloid & FCU tendon btw the volar surface of ulnar head & pisiform.
  84. Describe piano key test
    for ulnar sided wrist pain

    evaluates DRUJ inj => Pronate the forearm, ulna is dorsally prominent relative to radius => if minimal restraint to volar displacement of the ulna relative to radius => +ve test for instability. Recheck with forearm in Supination.
  85. What radiological images required to assess Ulnar sided wrist pain? (5)
    1) Standard X-rays => Perfect AP, Lat & oblique views (30 pro & 30 deg sup)

    2) CT => To assess for nonunion, subtle joint subluxation

    3) CT arthrogram => high sens & specificity for lig inj 4) Dynamic CT => Ideal for assessing DRUJ translation

    MRI has largely replaced MR arthrogram for wrist pathology => due to high false +ve, pain related to inj, chemical synovitis 2ry to contrast. If suspecting non benigh tumor => MRI + gado.
  86. Best radiological exam to order for ulnar sided pain
    MR arthorgram
  87. Benchmark for Dx of TFCC pathology
    Wrist arthroscopy
  88. Risk of rerupture achilles Op vs non Op (2)
    6x higher non op with older rehab protocols

    Comparable Op vs non op with early functional rehab
  89. Describe a functional rehab protocol for acute achilles tendon rupture
    • 0-2 wks: Initial immobilization + NWB
    • 2-4 wks: CAM (control ankle motion) + 2 cm heel lift + Protected weight bearing + ROM to neutral
    • 4-6 wks: WBAT
    • 6-8 wks: remove heel lift + Dorsiflexion stretching + Propioception
    • 8-12 wks: Wean off boot
  90. 3 benefits of allowing early weight bearing for non op achilles tendon
    • Reduces ankle stiffness
    • Better health related QOL
    • Faster return to work

    *No effect on rerupture rates
  91. 2 benefits of surgery vs functional rehab for acute achilles tendon tear
    • Lower time to return to work
    • Higher plantar flexion strength
  92. List 4 complications of non operative management of achilles tendon tear
    • Rerupture
    • Ulcers: foot
    • Heel pain
    • DVT/PE
  93. Name 1 absolute indication for surgical repair of achilles tendon tear
    Avulsion from calc
  94. Rate of wound complications from achilles tendon repair
    7-8%
  95. 3 risk factors for wound complications after achilles tendon repair
    • Female
    • Smoking
    • Steroids
  96. Weight bearing after achilles tendon repair 3 benefits
    • NO increase complications
    • Improved QOL at 6 weeks
    • Decreased activity limitations at 6 weeks
  97. Evidence behind PRP and stem cells
    No studies show superior vs control group
  98. Ideal test for assesment of druj instability
    Dynamic CT in pro/sup
  99. Ulnar sided wrist pain use mr arthrogram if looking for
    • TFCC tear
    • Ligamentous injury
  100. At risk population for HIV 3
    • IV drug users
    • Person who exchanges sex for drugs or money
    • Person who have had >3 partners since last HIV test
  101. Rate of HIV transmission from needlestick
    0.3%
  102. Risk of transmission HIV from needlestick related to 6 factors
    • Deep injury
    • Visible blood on device
    • Needle that had been placed on artery or vein
    • Terminal HIV illness
    • Large gauge needle (<18)
    • Emergency procedure
  103. HIV in THA - 3 things different from normal population
    • Major complications increased
    • Perioperative wound infection
    • Increased length of stay
  104. HIV - molecule that is upregulated and effect on bone healing
    Chronically elevated TNF-A > interferes with bone metabolism
  105. HIV pre op work up
    • CXR if hx of PCP incfection: Risk spontaneaous pneumo
    • Regular blood including liver
    • CD4 counts + viral load
  106. 2 lab values that increase risk periop complications
    • Viral load >10 000-30 000
    • CD4 count <200
  107. HIV increased post op complications 3
    • DVT
    • Being admitted to ICU for mechanical ventilation
    • Spontaneous pneumo
  108. No differenc in outcome in (3)
    • THA
    • Spinal fusion
    • ORIF fracture
  109. What type of reaction results in hypersensitivity to orthopedic implants
    Type IV: delayed type > T cell mediated
  110. 7 risk factors for cutaneous metal hypersensitivity
    • Female
    • Piercings
    • History hand eczema
    • Metal allergy in first degree relative
    • History of smoking
    • Post well functioning arthroplasty
    • Post failed arthroplasty → even higher than well functioning arthro
  111. Most common metal allergen in population
    Nickel (14%)
  112. What does ALVAL stand for
    Aseptic lymphocytic vaculitis-associated lesions
  113. MoM implant ion level that warrant additional imaging
    5ppb: also may need joint aspiratons
  114. Treatment for low,moderate, high risk patients with MoM implant
    Low: Well fixed, good track record + no symptoms = annual follow up

    Moderate: Well fixed/positioned + some symptoms or recalled implant = follow up 3-6 months. Revise if progressing symptoms,imaging abnormalities or elevated ion levels

    High risk: severe symptomatic, high ion levels (>10 ppb), malpositioned components = revision
  115. 3 options for treatment of morel-lavallee
    Observation

    Percutaneous drainage: Some studies show high rate of reoccurence - esp if drainiage > 50cc initally 

    Open debridement and irrigation
  116. Adjuvant treatment for morel-lavallee (4) to limit additional soft tissue injury
    • Serial aspiration
    • Compression bandage
    • Liposuction
    • Sclerosing agents
  117. Describe an accepted technique for debridement of a morel lavalle lesion
    • 2  2 cm incisions at proximal and distal end of the lesion
    • Simultaneous cavity access through these portals
    • Brushed and pulsed irrigation
    • Debride necrotic tissue
    • Placement of percutaneous drain
    • Drain removed after 2 weeks or when drain <30 cc per 24 hrs
  118. Factors that affect recurrence of morel lavalle
    Fluid aspirate >50 cc if done percutaneously
  119. 2 scelrotherapy agents used to treat chronic morel lavalle lesions
    • Talcum powder
    • Doxycycline
  120. Definition Patellar tendinopathy
    a clinical condition characterized by activity-related pain in the distal pole of the patella or in the proximal patellar tendon
  121. Patellar tendonipathy is common in which sports?



    D)
  122. List risk factors for patellar tendonapathy (6):
    • 1-     high body mass index
    • 2-     a large abdominal circumference
    • 3-     limb-length discrepancy
    • 4-     flatfoot arch
    • 5-     weak quadriceps
    • 6-     low flexibility in quads and hamstrings
  123. Q3: Where is the most common location of patellar tendonapathy?
    Answer: Tendinosis typically is in the posterior portion of the proximal end of the patellar tendon adjacent to the inferior patellar pole.
  124. Does patellar tendinopathy have inflammatory cells?
    NO, progressive degeneration of the tendinous tissue, an inability of the tissue to repair itself, and the absence of inflammatory cells.
  125. Names findings of patellar tendinopathy on physical exam:(2)
    • 1-     Decline squat test: pain at distal pole patella at 30degress of flexion of knee on single leg squat
    • 2-      Pain on palpation of distal pole pf patella
  126. Q7: Give a DDx for patellar tendinopathy:(5)
    • Patellofemoral pain syndrome
    • Fat pad syndrome
    • Meniscal tears
    • Cartilage lesions
    • Referred pain
  127. Q8: Name non surgical treatments of patellar tendinopathy:
    1-     Eccentric exercises – good data only one with good data

    2-     Extracorporeal Shock Wave Therapy – still experimental

    3-     Steroid injection – Not recommended

    4-     PRP – non consistent evidence in lit

    5-     Cell based therapy – experimental

    6-     Hyaluronic Acid – no evidence

    7-     Sclerosing Agents – experimental
  128. Surgical treatment things to know for patellar tendinopathy
    Arthroscopic and Open - The goals of these techniques are tenotomy of the patellar tendon, excision of abnormal tissue, and induction of the repair process through stimulation of the inferior pole of the patella by drilling and marginal resection.

    Similar results in Open and arthroscopic technique: faster return to sports in arthroscopic treatment
  129. What is the 1 year mortality for elderly patients w/ acetabular #?
    -       8.1%-25%
  130. How do the fracture patterns in acetabulum  differ to young patents?  (7)
    • -       more likely anterior column
    • -       fall onto posterior lateral hip à drives into ant column/ quad plate à protusio with intact posterior columno   medial dome impaction --> poor outcomes-       

    • If post column:-      
    • More comminuted-       
    • More marginal impaction-       
    • Posterior wall, hip dislocation and medial dome impaction-       
    • Poor outcomes with surgery
  131. What effects does co-management (ortho/geri) of hip fractures have (6)
    -       reduced the LOS

    -       readmission rates

    -       time to surgery

    -       complication

    • -       mortality rates
    • -       hospital-acquired complications and improved outcomes in geri trauma
  132. Describe a non op protocol for elderly acetabular #
    -       Therapy guided toe touch weight bearing for 6 weeks

    -       Radiographs at 2,6,12

    -       Often asymptomatic by 4-8 weeks
  133. What is role of percutaneous screw fixation in acetabular # in the elderly (4 things)
    -       Column fractures with good bone coordiors

    -       Excellent knowledge of technique and anatomy required

    -       Conversion to THA similar to open fixation – ave 2.4 y

    -       EBL much lower
  134. What sign is associated with inadequate reduction dn early loss of reduction + early joint space narrowing
    Gull sign

    superomedial dome impaction
  135. What is the overall conversion rates to THA following ORIF of acetabular # in all comers
    -       10-37%

    -       studies show signficnat patient hip score improvment for post traumatic OA from Acetabular fracture to THA
  136. What type of Acetabular component for older pt with acetabular #
    -       uncememted superior survival to cememtned
  137. What are the negative predictors of hip survival after ORIF of acetabular#?
    • -       age 40 years
    • -       nonanatomic reduction
    • -       hip dislocation
    • -       acetabular roof or posterior wall involvement
    • -       acetabular articular impaction
    • -       femoral head involvement-       initial displacement more  than 20 mm
  138. When considering acute THA for acetabular # what is the goal of acetabular ORIF? (2)
    • -       Reconstruction of stable columns
    • -       Enough stability to accept press fit component
  139. What factor can affect the Harris hip score for acute THA following acetabular ORIF
    Need for dual approach do worse
  140. How can you increase early mobility in acute THA following acetabular # (4)
    • -       cement the stem
    • -       place press fit cup into a position that affords max stability
    • -       cement in liner into optimal anteversion
    • -       patients ambulating within 7 days on average
  141. What are outcomes of elderly with ORIF+ THA vs ORIF only? (systematic review) (6)
    • -       ORIF and THA resulted in slightly less surgical time
    • -       increased blood loss
    • -       rate of coversion of ORIF to THA was 22% at 2 years
    • -       mortaility same
    • -       HARRIs hip scoresà higher in the ORIF
    • -       SF-36 better in THA
  142. What are the risk factors for developing lumbar spine stenosis (LSS)? (4)
    • Male
    • Caucasian
    • Obesity
    • Older
    • age
  143. What is the most common site for lumbar spine stenosis?
    L4-5
  144. What are the 2 types of congenital LSS?
    Achondroplastic and idiopathic
  145. What are the criteria of the spinal canal in congenital LSS? (5)
    • Most commonly affects L3-L5
    • Decrease in Canal/VB ratio
    • Decrease in AP canal diameter to AP VB diameter ratio
    • Decrease in the transverse canal diameter to transverse VB diameter ratioShort pedicle
  146. What causes central canal spine stenosis 2 anatomic structures
    • Disk-osteophyte complex
    • Ligamentum flavum hypertrophy
  147. What causes lateral recess stenosis?
    Facet hypertrophy associated with osteophytes
  148. What causes Foraminal stenosis?
    • Loss of disk height leading to collapse in the foramen
    • Osteophytes
    • Disk protrusion
    • Angulation (scoliosis)
  149. What causes extraforaminal stenosis?
    Far lateral disk herniation
  150. Radiographic classification of LSS based on cross sectional area
    • Moderate < 100 mm2
    • Severe < 75 mm2
  151. Q) What is a worse prognostic factor in brachial plexus injuries?
    A) Preganglionic nerve injuries (higher risk w/ subclavian Vs. axillary art. Inj) have limited healing potential, while postganglionic has greater nerve regenerative capability.
  152. Q) What is the most common mechanism of injury in scapulothoracic dissociation?
    A) Motorcycle accidents 44% followed by MVC 35% ((Distraction injury))
  153. Q) What is the sequence of soft tissue injuries in scapulothoracic dissociation?
    A) Musculoskeletal & vascular structures are 1st injured while Brachial plexus is injured last.
  154. Q) What is the risk of limb-threatening ischemia in scapulothoracic dissociation?
    DDx of ischemic limb (3)
    • A) 10%. Important to R/O other causes of absent pulses =>
    • 1) Hypovolemic shock
    • 2) Peripheral vasoconstriction
    • 3) Ipsilateral extremity injury.
  155. Q) What are things to look at on physical exam when assessing Scapulothoracis dissociation? 3
    • Asymmetric shoulderss
    • NV exam
    • Horner syndrome for pre ganglionic injury
  156. Q) What is the initial radiological diagnostic modality to assess ST dissociation? And what  are the findings? (3)
    Non rotated CXR

    • Distraction clavicle #
    • Scapular index: distance between spinous process and medial border of scapula (+ve 1.29)

    Distance btw spinous process and medial border of scapula (>1cm uninjured side)
  157. Q) What is the role of Electrodiagnostic Testing (EMG & NCV) in ST dissociation? in scapulothoracic dissociation
    Need to performed 3-4 weeks post injury

    Can help locate lesion
  158. Q) When is surgically managing a Scapulothoracic dissociation pt indication from Ortho standpoint?
    Stabilization after vascular repair to stabilize or progressive neurologic deficit.

        Otherwise, once pt. general condition stabilized
  159. Q) What is the role of vascular repair in ST dissociation? (2)
    ST injuries without active arterial hemorrhage or limb threatening ischemia could be managed with observation alone.

    - If vascular repair is ever needed then UE fasciotomies + stabilization of clavicle, SC or AC fixation should be considered.
  160. Q) What is the treatment plan for brachial plexus injury in ST dissociation
    - Historically, complete preganglionic injury was managed with immediate above-elbow amputation +/- shoulder arthrodesis.

    - Recently, increased interest in nerve transfer or neurotization in pts whom avulsion of nerve from the muscle.
  161. Q) What are the main goals of nerve reconstruction in ST dissociation
    A) Restore elbow function, shoulder stability, hand grip & sensation.
  162. Q) What is the recommended timeline for surgical intervention for Neurological inj in ST dissociation
    A) - No later than 6 months if no neuro recovery - Shorter time to Sx may have improved functional outcomes.
  163. Q) What is the mortality rate in ST dissociation?
    10% (Maybe even more since pt. die without knowing if they have it)

    - Of pts who survive evaluation & Dx => 52% have flail extremity & 21% early above elbow amputation.
  164. Q) What is Total wrist arthrodesis?
    Fusion of the carpus to the radius. Eliminates wrist Flex/Ext & Uln/Rad deviation but preserves forearm rotation.
  165. Q) Outcome of plating vs other techniques? wrist fusion
    Fusion rate is significantly higher (98% Vs. 82%) in plating & complication rates significantly lower (51% Vs. 79%)
  166. Q) What are the indications of wrist fusion?
    • Rheumatoid Arthritis (Significant decrease in numbers with DMARDs)
    • Post -traumatic arthritis
    • Osteoarthritis
    • SNAC & SLAC
    • End stage Keinbock Dx
    • Spastic wrist contracture
    • Distal radius non-union/malunion
    • Pseudoarthrosis of prev. Arthrodesis
    • Failed PRC
    • Failed SL reconstruction
    • Preiser osteonecrosis
    • Silicone synovitis
    • Failed wrist arthroplasty
  167. Q) What are the complications of wrist arthrodesis? (6)
    overall 29%

    • Nonunion 4.4%
    • Ulnocarpal impaction
    • Carpal tunnel syndrome
    • Extensor tenosynovitis
    • Deep infection
    • Implant-related problems (Persistent pain, prominent HW, # around implants)
  168. Q) Which has better outcome ((Wrist Arthroplasty Or Fusion))?
    • In pts with Rheumatoid Arthritis
    • All pts were highly satisfied in both techniques BUT Fusion provided more reliable pain relief, lower rate of complications, less frequent need for revision than Arthroplasty.

    Both procedures were extremely cost effective.



    • In pts with post-traumatic Arthritis
    • Both groups had similar DASH scores & comparable complication rates. However, Arthroplasty group had a significant better mean Patient-Rated Wrist Evaluation (PRWE) score.
  169. Q) When would wrist Fusion be indicated over Arthroplasty? 5
    • < 50yrs
    • Manual laborers
    • Hx of infection
    • Use of Walking aids
    • Lack of active wrist motion
  170. Q) How is the functional outcome of bilateral wrist arthrodesis?
    Recent literature demonstrates high satisfaction rate  in long term F/U.

    ((Historically, surgeons recommended preservation of motion in one wrist when other is fused))
  171. Q) What are the contraindications to Total wrist arthrodesis? 2
    • Active infection
    • Lack of adequate soft tissue envelope

    ((Poor bone stock in RA is not a contraindication anymore with the use of Locking plates))
  172. Q) What are the recommended surgical techniques in wrist fusion? 2
    Precontoured stainless-steel locking plates (Majority of cases)

    Steinmann rods (2 to control rotation) => for pt. Who require MCP arthroplasty & if forearm dissection can’t be performed
  173. Q) What is the recommended wrist fusion position?
    1) 10-15 degrees of extension + Slight ulnar deviation ((Shown to have significantly better grip strength))

      2)  Neutral position ((Thought to have better pro/supination + balanced flex/extensor forces))
  174. Q1) List three Facet cyst contents:
    • Mucoid
    • Serous
    • Hemorrhagic
  175. Where do lumbar facet cyst come from
    Key point: Facet cysts arise from the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine.
  176. Q3) What are the most common location of facet cysts?
    • L4-L5 (68%),
    • L3-L4 (14%), and
    • L5-S1 (12%)
  177. Q4) How often are facet cysts associated with spondylolythesis?
    33% to 92% of LFCs were associated with spondylolisthesis
  178. Q5) List treatment modalities for facet cysts: 3
    • NSAID's/supportive
    • Percucaneous drainage: 80% success...CT guided is better than U/S guided
    • Surgical decompression: 80% success
  179. Q6) what is the recurrence rate of facet cysts after surgical excisison?
    1.8%
  180. Q7) What are common complications of facet cyst surgical treatment?
    • CSF leak (adherent to dura)
    • Spondylolisthesis
    • DVT
    • Death
  181. Q8) What are the disadvantage of instrumentation versus decompression alone? (4)
    • Wound infection
    • Increased LOS
    • Increased blood loss
    • Increased CSF leak
  182. Treatment algorithm for lumbar facet cyst
    Image Upload 4
  183. What is the most sensitive test for lumbar facet cyst
    MRI GADO
  184. What type of facet cyst have high recurrence 2
    • Mucoid
    • Hemorragic
  185. List the Etiologies of pedicatric acute compartment syndrome
    • Trauma
    • Surgical positioning
    • Overexertion
    • Infection
    • Vascular insult
    • Snake or insect bites
  186. What age people at risk for compartment and why
    adolescent boys at particular risk due to rapid growing muscle in inelastic fascia
  187. How long until tissue damage after ischemia from ACS
    • Begins 4hrs
    • Permanent 8hrs
  188. Type of fracture that has highest rate compartment syndrome
    >40% in tibias

    11% of all tibia fractures
  189. 2 risk factors for compartment syndrome in tibia in peds
    • >14 yo
    • Tibial tubercle avulsion
  190. 3 factors that give you higher risk of compartment syndrome in pediatric tibia fracture
    • Patient >50 kg
    • Comminuted #
    • Neuro deficit prior to tx
  191. Risk factors for peds ACS in forearm injuries 5
    • open fracture
    •      longer surgical times
    •      IM nailing
    •      Neurologic injury
    •      Displaced supracondylar and displaced forearm: 33% chance of ACS
  192. How is Vascular PACS different to traumatic (4)
    • Often don’t present with pain (50%)
    •      60% have vascular changes on exam
    •      36% have motor deficit·      poorer outcomes due to more rapid onset of ischemia
  193. What surgery can risk ACS development (2)
    • High tibial osteotomites à advocate prophylactic anterior compartment fasciotomy
    •      Prolonged dorsal lithotomy position
  194. List the increasing 3 As for PACS
    • anxiety
    • agitation      
    • analgesic requirement
  195. What is the pressure tolerance in children
    seem to tolerate >30mmhg with no problem as long as pressure not within 30mmHG of MAP
  196. Initial management of at risk limb consists of? (4)
    • Maintain normotension
    • remove circumferential dressings
    • limb at heart height·    supplemental oxygen
  197. Should you extensively debride muscle in PACS?
    Some evidence that children have more ability of spontaneous muscle recovery after myonecrosis
  198. How does wound management differ to adults
    Adults – wound that can not be closed at initial surgery likely needs skin graft


         Kids à unlikely to need skin graft (12-21% of cases)
  199. 2 situations with poor outcome in PACS
    • UE worse than LE
    • Not associated with fracture
  200. Q1: Form of inheritance of marfans (4)



    D)
  201. Q2: What’s the gene mutation in Marfan Syndrome?
    A: Fibrillin-1 (FBN1) gene
  202. Q3: How do marfans patients usually present?
    A: Skeletal findings are usually the first manifestation.
  203. Q3: What is the most common cause of death in marfan syndrome patients?
    A: Aortic root dissection
  204. Q4: What are the systemic manifestations of Marfan Syndrome?
    Image Upload 6
  205. Q6: What are the cardiovascular manifestations in Marfan Syndrome?
    • Aortic dissection
    • MV prolapse
    • Pulmonary artery enlargement
    • Left ventricular enlargement
  206. Cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan Syndrome are usually managed with?
    A: Beta blockers
  207. Q8:Where is the lens dislocated in Marfan Syndrome?
    A: Superolateral
  208. Q9: What are the musckeloskeletal manifestations of Marfan Syndrome? 7
    • Pectus carinatum or excavatum
    • Abnormally long fingers (arachnodactyly)
    • Wrist sign (contralateral thumb overlaps the entire nail of the little finger when grasping the opposite wrist)
    • Thumb sign (when the entire distal phalanx of the clenched thumb protrudes beyond the ulnar border of the hand)
    • Scoliosis
    • Acetabular protrusio
    • Pes planus
  209. Q10: How is scoliosis managed in patients with Marfan Syndrome?
    Bracing, however less effective than in AIS. Usually in skeletally immature patients with 15-25 degrees curves

    Surgery should be considered for curves > 45 degrees
  210. Q11: Marfan syndrome patients with scoliosis are at higher risk of during surgery? (3)
    • Dural tears
    • Hardware failure
    • More revision procedures due to implant failure or fractures
  211. What are the anatomical differences in the spine in Marfan Syndrome patients? (3)
    • Narrow pedicles
    • Wide transverse process
    • Vertebral scalloping
  212. What is Dural ectasia and where is it most commonly found in Marfan Syndrome?
    Definition: enlargement of the dural sac

    Location: most common in the lumbosacral spine

    Note: it is a highly specific finding of MFS and is present in more than ⅔ of patients with MFS
  213. Q15: Pregnancy in patients with marfan syndrome:
    • Higher risk of aortic dissection because of hormonal and hemodynamic changes
    • Avoid hypertension throughout pregnancy
    • Beta blockers
  214. What is the TMT joint complex composed of (3)
    • TMT joint
    • Intermetararsal joint
    • Proximal intermetatarsal joint
  215. Describe the coronal plane anatomy of the TMT joint
    3 cuneiforms + corresponding metatarsals have trapezoidal shape

    MIddle cuneiform and 2nd metatarsal act as a keytone > inherent stability
  216. How to find 2nd MT on lateral xray
    Most recessed
  217. What are the 4 main ligaments that stabilize the TMT complex
    • Transverse intermetatarsal ligaments: secure bases of second to fifth MT
    • Dorsal interosseous ligament: secure medial cuneiform to 2nd MT
    • Plantar oblique ligament: insert onto bases of second and third MT
    • Lisfranc ligament
  218. In the TMT complex which ligaments are stronger
    Plantar: that's why there is often dorsal subluxation
  219. Name the 2 dynamic stabilizers of the TMT Joint
    • Tib ant
    • Peroneus longus
  220. Name structure that often blocks reduction of space btw medial and middle cuneiform
    Tib ant
  221. Explain the concept of 3 columns of the TMT complex and its components
    • Medial column: Medial cuneiform and 1st metatarsal
    • Middle columb: Middle and lateral cuneiform + 2nd and 3rd MT
    • Lateral column: 4th + 5th MT + cuboid
  222. In the TMT complex which column is most mobile
    • Lateral: shock absorber. Keep mobility when fixing injuries
    • Middle is least mobile
  223. 2 types of mechanisms for TMT joint complex injuries
    • Direct: crush injury to dorsal aspect of foot
    • Indirect: Axial and rotational force applied to plantar flexed/fixed foot
  224. 1 physical exam findinding highly associated with lisfranc injury
    Echymosis plantar arch
  225. X-ray findings of lisfranc injury (5)
    • On AP: Medial border of 2nd MT with medial border of middle cuneiform
    • On Oblique: Medial border of 4th MT with medial border of cuboid
    • On Lateral: No dorsal subluxation of MT
    • Fleck sign: avulsion # off base 2nd MT
    • Widening >2mm btw 1st MT/Cuneiform and 2nd MT
  226. Best x ray to order if suspecting lisfranc + alternative
    • AP weight bearing of both feet on one cassette
    • Pronation abduction stress xray
  227. Disruption of what ligament on MRI was indicative of TMT joint instability intraop
    Plantar oblique
  228. Describe classification of TMT injuries (based on 3 parameters) on x ray
    • Joint congruity
    • Location of involvement
    • Direction of instability
  229. Describe indications for non op management for TMT complex injuries
    • Normal weight bearing x rays
    • If high suspicion need to do EUA to rule out instability
  230. Describe fixation principle for Medial and lateral columns in complex TMT injuries
    • Medial: rigid fixation
    • Lateral: Flexible temporary fixation
  231. Describe general principles of fixation for TMT complex injuries (what to fix first)
    • Start from proximal to distal
    • Continue from medial to lateral
  232. Describe surgical approach for 3 column TMT complex injury (include mention of structures in danger)
    2 INCISIONS

    • Dorsal-medial:
    • Btw 1st and 2nd rays
    • Dorsalis pedis and Deep peroneal nerve identified and mobilized lateral
    • Interval BTW EHL and EHB
    • Visualize 1st TMT and medial aspect of 2nd TMT
    • Protect branches of SPN in proximal part of incision


    Dorsal Lateral

    • Centered over 4th MT
    • Visualize lateral 2nd MT + 3rd/4th TMT
    • Common extensor tendons mobilized medially
    • Muscle belly of EDB split in line with its fibers
  233. Describe trick for better placement of retrograde lag screw from MT to tarsal bones in the foot
    Burr a hole in dorsal cortex of MT to allow screw to countersink
  234. Complex TMT complex injuries: what to look to for in the cuboid
    • Impaction of cuboid
    • Leads to shortening of lateral column > need to restore
  235. Post operative protocol after TMT injury ORIF
    • NWB x 8 weeks
    • Supportive shoe wear at 3 months with arch support
  236. Lisfranc injuries ORIF compare 3 fixation techniques
    • Transarticular screw: very stable but violate joint
    • Dorsal bridging plate: equivalent biomechanical to screw
    • Tight rope: Cadaveric study show equivalent stability to screw

    COmparable rates of complications and no difference in functional outcomes in small studies
  237. Lisfranc injuries evidence behind ORIF vs Arthrodesis for ligamentous patterns (4 advantages
    Arthrodesis group had

    • Improved functional outcome
    • Higher return to pre injury levels
    • Lower revision
    • Less pain

    • THIS IS THE QUOTED PAPER THATS SAYS ARTHRODESIS IS BETTER
  238. Q) Explain the pathophysiology of muscle contractures
    Reduced mobility = loss of muscle mass and length (decreased sarcomeres) = loss of elasticity in connective tissue = loss of ROM
  239. Q) When are joint contractures considered irreversible and reversible based on animal models?
    irreversible: 4 weeks

    reversible: within 2 weeks if re-mobilise and muscles activated
  240. Q) Name NON SURGICAL methods to treat joint contractures: (6)
    • Passive Stretching: lit conflicting results
    • Continuous Passive motion: no evidence in lit
    • Splinting: recommend static progressive splinting
    • Serial casting: TBI can be effective otherwise questionable
    • Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation: Bad results
    • Botox: good short-term results in lit … l
  241. What is the Strain Theory of Perren
    Plating constructs must have mechanical characteristics that are neither too stiff nor too flexible to promote callus formation and avoid non union, malunion and implant failure
  242. List the disadvantages of rigid compression plating popular in 70s-80s (2)
    • Excessive soft tissue dissection à reduces biology
    • Prolonged healing and porotic bone creation
  243. List the 3 types of metals in fracture implants
    316L stainless steel

    •  Pure Titanium
    • Titanium alloy
  244. Define Stiffness
    Described as the Younges modulus of elasticity

    Ability to resist deformation (strain) under certain stress


    It is the slope of the Stress/strain curve
  245. Define Fatigue strength
    Also known as endurance strength

    Ability of material to resist failure during cyclic loading at stresses under the ultimate tensile strength
  246. What metal has the highest elastic modulus (stiffest)
    Stainless steel
  247. What metal has the best fatigue strength
    Titanium: Can undergo repetitive high cycling at low stress as seen in ambulation
  248. So what is main difference between steel and titanium? (2)
    Steel can resist high stress but few cycles of it

    Titanium can resist more cycles of low stress
  249. How is stiffness related to the geometry of the implant
    Rectangular implant – exponential of thickness

    Nail – exponential to radius
  250. What are the weakest areas of plates – stress risers? (3)
    Reliefs – to preserve periosteal blood flow

    Screw wholes

    Sharp corners
  251. What level of strain will promote primary bone healing
    <2%
  252. What level of strain (micromotion) will heal with callus
    2-10%

    If more will lead to fibrous tissue
  253. What happens if construct is to stiff?
    Not enough micro-motion and no callus

    Eventual fatigue failure of implant
  254. Why do you get more callus at far cortex in locked plates?
    Bending of plate concentrates at fracture like a lever

    creates more motion at far cortex than near cortex
  255. 2 advantages of hybrid screw fixation in a plate
    Regular screw brings plate closer to the bone: better torsional strenght

    Use of non locked screw at the end reduces stress at end of plate
  256. List the variables that can change stiffness of construct (6)
    Plate material

    Plate thickness

    Locking vs non locking

    Screw density

     Plate length

    Working length
  257. How long of a plate should be used?: simple #
    Comminuted #
    Simple: 7-8 times lenght

    Comminuted: 2-3 lenght
  258. What screw density should be used to maintain appropriate strain
    should not exceed 40-50% of available holes
  259. What is the working length
    Distance between two closest screws or screw clusters to the fracture
  260. What is a general rule for working length in #
    At least 2 wholes should be left open on either side of fracture unless zone of commination is substantial
  261. List the risk factures for distal femur non union (from 2 separate studies) (6)
    Obesity

    Open fracture

    infection

    Stainless steel plates

    Short plate length

    smoking
  262. What plates have shown to have highest rate of healing in distal femur
    Titanium locking plates (LISS)
  263. Q2) What’s the sensitivity of the ADT and why?
    • 50% when performed under GA
    • Due to the posterior horn of the medial meniscus acting as a secondary stabilizer
  264. Pivot shift: why does the tibia reduce
    Pull of the IT band as it passess posterior to the axis of the knee
  265. Q7) True or False: a medial knee injury (i.e. MCL) can affect the reliability of the pivot shift test
    True
  266. Q9) What’s the most sensitive ACL test and what’s the most specific test in awake and anesthetized patients? (Meta-analysis)
    The Lachman test was the most sensitive in both awake (81%) and anesthetized (91%) patients

    All tests have similar specificity in awake patients, the pivot shift test is the most specific (98%) in anesthetized patients
  267. Q10) How often is the ACL injured in patients with grade III MCL tear?
    In one study, they found that in grade III MCL tears, the ACL was disrupted in 78% of the times
  268. Q11) What is the primary restraint to valgus stress when the knee is at 0 degrees flexion and 30 degrees flexion?
    At 0 degrees, the posterior oblique ligament and posteromedial corner complex

    At 30 degrees, the superficial MCL
  269. Q13) Which part of the MCL and LCL usually fail when injured?
    MCL: the femoral side


    LCL: the fibular side
  270. Q14) What is injured if the knee opensm up in varus at 0 degrees flexion and 30 degrees flexion?
    At 0 degrees: LCL, PLC, and or associated cruciates

    At 30 degrees: LCL only
  271. Q15) List 4 tests for the PLC?
    Dial test

    Posterolateral rotatory drawer

    External rotation recurvatum

    Standing apprehension test (Patient stands with both knees slightly flexed and internally rotates the torso away from the leg, if any feeling of instability or apprehension → +ve)
  272. Q16) describe the external rotation recurvatum test and what does it indicate?
    It tests the PLC

    The examiner pulls on both big toes and hyperextension is then measured using a goniometer or heel to table distance is measured.
  273. Q18) Describe the dial test, and what does it test at 30 and 90 degrees of flexion?
    With the patient prone, both knees are flexed first to 30 , then to 90, with external rotation applied to the tibias at each position with the feet fully dorsiflexed

    10 degrees difference At 30 degrees: PLC

    10 degrees difference At 90 degrees: PLC + PCL
  274. Q19) How often are PCL injuries associated with other ligamentous injuries in the knee?
    97%
  275. Q20) List 3 tests for the PCL and describe them?
    Posterior sag sign: Supine, hips flexed 45 degrees, knees flexed 90 degrees. Loss of the normal anterior tibial step-off compared to the normal side

    Posterior drawer test: in the same position the examiner pushes the proximal tibia posteriorly with the foot in neutral rotation to check for translation

    Quadriceps active test: same position as in the PDT, patient is asked to contract their quads. If the tibia reduces then it’s positive
  276. Q) What is the Sports hip triad?
    1) Intra-articular hip injuries (FAI & labral tears)

       2) Adductor & rectus abdominis muscles strain

       3) Osteitis pubis/Athletic pubalgia
  277. Q) What are the 4 broad categories of Athletic hip injuries?
    • Adductor strains
    • Osteitis pubis
    • Athletic pubalgia
    • FAI
  278. Q) What does the Adductor complex include (5)? And which muscle is most frequently the source of pathology in athletes?
    A) - Adductor longus, magnus, brevis, gracilis, obturator externus & pectineus.

    B) Adductor longus: 2 weeks off playing
  279. What position exacerbates adductor pathology
    A)  -    Groin pain or medial thigh pain => exacerbated w/ resisted adduction & passive stretching.
  280. Q) What is Osteitis Pubis?
    A painful overuse stress inj. of the pubic symphysis that can cause lower abdominal pain or groin pain 2ry to excessive strain & motion of the joint.
  281. Q) What causes Osteitis Pubis?
    Injury to any of the muscles originating from pubic symphysis (Rectus abdominis “Elevates” Vs. Adductors “Depress”) => alters symphyseal biomechanics which could lead to cartilage degeneration.
  282. Q) How to differentiate Osteitis pubis from Athletic pubalgia?
    A) Spring test: pain with pressure on pubic ram >>pubic rami #
  283. Q) What are the classic radiological findings in chronic osteitis pubis? (3)
    • Cystic change
    • sclerosis
    • pubic symphisis widening
  284. Q) What is Athletic pubalgia (Also called sports hernia/core muscle inj)?
    Unilateral or bil. Lower abdo pain that can radiate to perineum & prox adductors from repetitive pivoting & cutting (
  285. Q) What are the clinical findings in Athletic pubalgia?
    Pain with resisted sit ups
  286. Q) What is the effect of cortisone inj. On Adductor strains?( in elite athletes)
    Studies showed that in elite athletes with chronic Adductor strains w/out MRI findings of enthesopathy => Injections caused pain relief up to 1yr. Less improvement with MRI findings
  287. Q) What are the surgical options to manage Athletic Pubalgia? (3)
    ) 1) Open repair with or without mesh reinforcement

        2) Laparoscopic repair with mesh

        3) Broad pelvic floor repair with possible adductor release/repair & neurectomy
  288. Normal teardrop angle

    What is it used for
    70 degree: increased is worse

    Assesment of volar rim displacement n DR #
  289. Q) How to evaluate radiocarpal alignment in the sagittal plane?
    A) By extending a line from the volar cortex of the intact radial shaft towards the carpus => should bisect the central axis of the capitate head
  290. Q) What are the radiological goals of DRF surgical fixation? (5)
    • Radial shortening < 5mm
    • Radial inclination > 15 deg
    • Radiocarpal intra-articular step-off < 2mm
    • Sigmoid notch incongruity < 2mm
    • Tilt between 15 deg dorsal & 20 deg volar
  291. Q) When is fragment specific fixation used in DR #
    When unstable fracture fragments are too small of distal for adequate fixation w/ locking plates.
  292. Q) What are the indications of Ex-Fix in DRF? (3)
    1) Highly comminuted fractures when volar locking plate or fragment specific implant is not feasible.

       2) Open fractures with moderate contamination

       3) Medically unstable pts who cannot undergo a lengthy procedure
  293. Risk factor for DR CRPS after surgery
    Excessive distraction from Ex fix or bridge plate
  294. Q) How do untreated & non-united ulnar styloid fractures with absence of DRUJ instability affect patients’ clinical outcome?
    A) No effect on clinical outcome
  295. Q) What position should the forearm be post op in cases of DRUJ instability?
    A) Supination 60 deg for 6wks (Munster cast) => Followed by removable orthosis & starting ROM exercises.
  296. Q) For how long should the Ex-fix or distraction bridge plate be kept?
    Ex-Fix should not be kept more than 6-8wks then transitioned to cast or orthosis.

    Bridge plate can be kept for 3-4 months till fracture healing
  297. What is the average wear rate of high x-linked poly
    0.024mm/year
  298. How to assess poly wear on hip x ray
    Hip AP: Distance from superior aspect of cup to superior aspect of head compared to distance from inferior aspect of cup to inferior part of head
  299. Definition of a well fixed acetabular component
    No radiolucent lines measuring > 1mm in any 2 zones on AP

    Canadian study by beaule
  300. Most sensitive way to measure Poly wear
    RSA
  301. What to use if exchanging head and find trunnion corrosion
    Ceramic with sleeve adaptor
  302. Revision THA for liner exchange..what structure do you release to improve exposure of acetabulum
    Glut max insertion into femur: repair at the end
  303. Wear rates of High x linked poly...compare thin (<7mm) to thick (>7mm) poly thickness
    No difference
  304. Main disadvantage of large femoral head
    Increase the forces at the trunnion and are thought to contribute to corrosion
  305. Size of cement mantle if planning to cement a liner into an existing cup
    2mm
  306. When cementing a poly into a cup...how can you increase the poly/cement interface
    ROughen up the backside of the poly (from a study) and the cup with a burr
  307. 3 risk factors for failed revision using liner exchange only
    • Acetabular malposition  ( outside 35-55 degree zone)
    • Conventional poly
    • Femoral head <28
  308. Q1) List factors that are associated with better outcome in TKA revision for aseptic loosening: 3
    • Male
    • Low charlson comorbidity score
    • Higher pre op function
  309. Q2) Name the classification of Bone loss of TKA and its categorie and treatment
    Type 1

    • Minor and contained cancellous bony defects
    • Metal augments

    Type 2

    • 2A: One femoral condyle or plateau
    • 2B: Both femoral condyle or plateau
    • both treated with metal augments or structural allograft

    Type 3

    • Deficient metaphyseal segment, comprises major portion of the condyle
    • Metal augments, cones, sleeves, oncology procedure
  310. Revision TKA what to use:Femoral defect <10mm
    Femoral defect >10mm
    • Cement + screw
    • Cone, sleeve or augments
  311. Q5) What is the indication to PS TKA for revision?
    intact collateral ligaments without varus-valgus instability because the host soft tissue provides coronal stability
  312. Q6) Unlinked constrained designs provide a taller and thicker polyethylene intercondylar post, which limits rotation, medial-lateral translation, and varus-valgus angulation. They experience what type of higher stress?
    Torsional stress at fixation interface
  313. Q8) What steps should be followed by Revision TKA - order?
    • Rebuild tibia platform
    • Reestablish flexion gap
    • Reconstituting extension gap
  314. length of tibial stem in revision TKA that decreases the rate of loosening
    30 mm
  315. What decreases loosening rates in revision TKA, a tibial or femoral stem
    Femoral stem
  316. Q4) List some factors that may predispose patients to relapse of their clubfoot?
    Clubfoot with arthrogryposis

    Drop toe sign: big toe is plantarflexed in resting position with no active dorsiflexion
  317. Q4) What position is the foot positioned in the foot abduction orthotics? for clubfoot
    70 degrees for the affected side and 40 degrees for the unaffected side

    The shoes are positioned at shoulder width
  318. Q6) When is the best time to discontinue the denis brown bars (or any other FAO)? for clubfoot
    Most centers recommend somewhere between 3-5 years of age. Never before 3 years
  319. Q8) What is the first sign of relapse noticed by the parent? And how does it present? for clubfoot
    Less dorsiflexion of the affected foot

    Dynamic supination
  320. Q11) When can a tibialis anterior tendon transfer be done? for recurrent clubfoot
    In patients who experience a relapse at age >= 2.5 year. Full tendon transfer and not split
  321. Q12) How can you manage a “bean shaped” foot?
    A combined cuboid-cuneiform osteotomy (opening wedge for the cuneiform, and a closing wedge for the cuboid)

    Usually done at the age of 4-9 years (mainly to have an ossified medial cuneiform)
  322. Q13) What’s the rate of PMR after the Ponseti method has been implemented?
    <5% require any release surgery after being treated with the posetti method
  323. In recurrent clubfoot what is the indication for achilles tendon lenghtening
    Unable to achieve 15 degrees of dorsiflexion
  324. How much does blood flow to fetus change when in hypovolemic shock
    o   Reduces 10-20% which risk hypoxic injury/death
  325. Is leukocytosis reliable in pregnancy?
    o   No – can increase to 18000cells/ul
  326. Describe physiologic changes in pregnancy
    Image Upload 8
  327. When is transient osteoporosis the worst in pregnancy?
    o   Third trimester



    o   80% of calcium required for fetal development is taken from mothers calcium deposits



    o   Resolves within few weeks after delivery
  328. List the considerations in early evaluation of oregnant woman
    o   Treat like regular ATLS

    o   Mother life over fetal life at all times

    o   Maternal/fetal blood mixingo   Prevention of aortocaval compression (past 20 weeks)
  329. What is fetal-maternal hemorrhage?
    o   Development of RH D antibodies by mother to RH+ blood of fetus

    o   Test mother for RH D

    o   If negative give RhD immunogloblulin to mother after trauma within 72 hrs
  330. Describe supine hypotension syndrome
    o   aortocaval compression from fetus

    o   Leads to decreased venous return and cardiac output

    o   Sympt: Dizziness, pallor, tachy, sweating, hypotension
  331. What position should pregnant patient be placed in during evaluation
    • o   15-30 deg incline
    • o   Angle to left
  332. What are the indications for prolonged cardiotocographic fetal monitoring
    • Uterine tenderness
    • Abdominal pain
    • Vaginal bleeding
    • Sustained contractions
    • Ruptured membranes
    • Abnormal heart rate
    • Serum fibrinogen  < 200
  333. What are the guildlines for radiation during pregnancy
    o   Cumulative radiation should not exceed 5rad during preg
  334. When is the effect of radiation worse to a fetus
    3-15 weeks: teratogenic
  335. Risk of DVT in pregnancy 3
    5x regular patinet

    if bmi >25 OR 62
  336. common ortho antibiotics contraindicated in pregnant women
    Genta/tobramycin
  337. What are the main anesthetic concerns during 1st trimester (2)
    • o   Fetus at largest risk
    • o   GA is considered safe but try for local / regional if possible
  338. Are local anesthetics safe? during pregnancy
    yes at all standard doses
  339. what is the best trimester to operate on during pregnancy
    second trimester
  340. best anticoagulation for pregnancy
    • LMWH
    • + compression stockings
  341. What are the indications in pelvic fixation in pregnancy
    diasthasis >4cm
  342. 4 indications for cesarean delivery in pregnancy
    Fetal HR <100

    • Prolonged decelerations
    • Recurrent late decelerations
    • Fetus older than 26 weeks
  343. How long can the fetus grow with a supra-acetabular ex fix
    34 weeks
  344. what type of fracture gives a high rate of abruption and bad outcomes
    Pelvic fractures
  345. Q) What are the nerves & their branches that supply the wrist joints? 5
    1) Ulnar => Dorsal sensory branch of the ulnar nerve (DSBUN) => Supplies Ulnar side of the wrist + 2nd-5th CMC joints

    2) Median => AIN, Palmar cutaneous branch, thenar motor branch => Supplies carpal joints

    3) Radial => PIN & radial sensory branch

    4) Lat. ant brachial cut => 1st CMC joint & radial side of the wrist   5) Med. ant brachial cuy
  346. Q) What are the indications of wrist denervation?
    Chronic wrist pain > 6 months refractory to non-surgical management

    Must be skeletally mature (No upper age limit)
  347. Q) List the absolute contraindications to wrist denervation. (3)
    • Active infection
    • cognitive impairment
    • Poor patient compliance
  348. What approaches are used for wrist denervation & which nerves involved for each approach?
    Dorsal approach (Btw 4-5th compartments) => PIN, AIN, Superficial rad nerve & DSBUN

    Volar approach (Henry)
  349. Q3) Do NSAIDs increase the risk of nonunion post spinal fusion?
    Retrospective study looked at ketorolac post spinal fusionHigher nonunion with ketorolac

    Meta-analysis of 5 retrospective studies:Higher nonunion with high dose ketorolac (>120mg/dL)But no detrimental effects of short-term use of NSAIDs at normal doses

    NSAIDs have a dose dependent effect on spinal fusion
  350. Q3) Does the use of NSAIDs post-operatively decrease the use of opioids?
    Yes!
  351. What is the benefit of multimodal analgesia 3
    • Improve pain control
    • Reduce opioid consumption
    • Facilitate rehab
  352. Q4) Should we be using NSAIDs in spinal fusion? Which type should be used?
    Yes (level 1 evidence)COX-2 inhibitors or short term, low dose nonselective COX inhibitorsDoes not affect spinal fusion rates
  353. Q5) What’s the MOA of neuromodulatory agents (Gabapentin, Pregabalin)?
    They reduce neoronal excitability via inhibition of the alfa2-delta subunit of the Ca-gated channels on presynaptic axons
  354. Q6) Do neuromodulatory agents help in post-operative pain management? 3 benefits
    • Reduction opioid use
    • Lower PCA use
    • Improved functional outcomes up to 3 months
  355. Q7) is the use of an intraoperative epidural steroid injection beneficial after a lumbar discectomy surgery? outcomes 5
    • Yes (Level 1)
    • Reduced LOS
    • Reduce post-operative pain and opioid use
    • No difference in leg or back pain after 2 years
    • Similar revision rate
  356. Q8) Is an intrathecal single dose opioid injection useful in spine surgery? 2 benefits and one disadvantage
    • Good post op pain control
    • 41% less PCA use
    • Increased foley insertions
  357. What test for herniations L1-L4
    Femoral nerve stretch
  358. Is the a role of oral corticosteroids in acute management of LDH (lumbar disc herniation)
    Recent RCT showed no benefit over placebo
  359. When to consider Sx for lumbar disc herniation in athletes
    After 6 week course of non Sx management fails
  360. What is the biggest risk factor for DDD
    Genetics
  361. Does athletic competition contribute to DDD?
    Yes - elite athletes  does add risk
  362. What is the patholgensis of DDD
    Loss of disk hydration → disk space narrowing → tears → eventual anklysosis + facet degeneration
  363. What are modic changes?
    Changes in end plates that correlate with positively to presence of LBP

    Image Upload 10
  364. What is indication for Sx for DDD in athletes
    failed non op at least 6 months!

    Contrast to disc herniation → 6 weeks
  365. Should provocative diskography be used?
    No - can lead to quicker degeneration
  366. What are negative predictive factors of successful Sx of DDD (4)
    • Narcotic abuse
    • Smoking
    • Workers comp
    • Number of of fusion levels
  367. What is the healing rate of an acute spondylolysis
    90%
  368. Is bracing effective for spondylodysis
    not harmful but no difference in outcome
  369. 5 strategies to minimize blood loss and prevent allogenic transfusion in adolescent spine surgery
    • Preoperative
    • Preoperative hgb level to 50 higher than your transfusion threshold
    • Iron, erythropoetin, autologous predonation

    • Anesthetic
    • Controlled hypotension
    • Epidural blockade
    • acute normovolemic hemodilution

    • Pharmacologic
    • Antifibrinolytic agents: TXA
    • Desmopressin: not great evidence

    • Surgical
    • Hemostatic products
    • Cell saver

    • Post op
    • Physiologic transfusion triggers
  370. What are the risk factors for transfusion is adolescent spine surgery (6)
    • Surgical tine
    • >6 levels fused
    • Neuromuscular scoli
    • CObb angle >50
    • Use of ponte osteotomies
    • Low body weight
  371. Q) What pre-operative blood test can help predict transfusion need?
    A) A, preoperative fibrinogen level may predict increased blood loss and transfusion needs in AIS
  372. Q) Name risk factors for post-op infection in neuromuscular patients having scoliosis surgery (2)
    • Low albumin levels: <35g/L
    • Total lymphocyte count (<1500)
  373. Q) What is the main blood loss in AIS surgery from (MCQ)





    C)  – main blood loss from decortication which is venous … therefore lowering BP during case from anesthesia is not as effective as in other ortho cases
  374. Q) Name physiological transfusion triggers 4
    • Tachycardia
    • Hypotension
    • Urine output <0.5
    • Acidosis
  375. 3 indications for operative management of chronic anterior pelvic instability
    • > 5mm vertical displacement on flamingo view
    • > 10 mm diastasis on AP
    • Acute symphysis rupture after birth
  376. Operative mgmt of chronic anterior pelvic instability (2)
    • Symphyseal arthrodesis: use bone graft from iliac crest
    • Look for symptoms of posterior instability
  377. How to do stress x rays of pubic symphysis
    • Single leg standing view or flamingo view
    • Normal vertical displacement is < 5mm
  378. Normal distance btw pubic symphysis
    4.4 mm
  379. Normal amount of motion at pubic symphysis
    • <2mm translation
    • <3 degrees rotation
  380. Strongest ligament in pubic symphysis
    Arcuate ligament: located inferiorly
  381. Q2) What’s the percentage of patients who are not satisfied after TKA?
    20%
  382. Q5) What’s Condylar liftoff and what does it signify?
    The difference between medial and lateral condylar heights in relation to the tibial baseplateIt measured coronal stability
  383. Q7) When placing the tibial tray, Where do you set the rotation of the tray?
    Medial ⅓ of the tubercle
  384. Q12) How does elevating the joint line affect patellofemoral biomechanics?
    Every 1cm of joint elevation increases PF joint contact force by 60%
  385. What is quadriceps avoidance gait?
    patient bears weight with a knee locked in extension because of either a weakened extensor mechanism or pain.
  386. List the functions of the meniscus (5)
    • load bearing
    • shock absorption
    • joint stability and congruity
    • joint lubrication
    • Proprioception
  387. Q) What is the main challenge in oncologic resection in pediatrics when compared to adults?
    LLD: bc of physis
  388. Q) How to manage LLD post tumor resection?
    -  < 2cm => No intervention

     - 2-5 cm => Contralateral hemiepiphysiodesis

     - > 5cm => extendible prosthesis or 2ry limb lengthening
  389. Q)  What are the benefits of a vascularized autograft Vs. Allograft?
    • Less risk infection
    • Higher union
    • Less fracture
  390. Q) What are the recon options for Intra-articular resection?
    • Endoprosthesis
    • Osteoarticullar allograft
  391. Q) What are the advantages of compressive osseointegration implants? 2
    1) Decrease periprosthetic osteolysis

    2) Preserve bone stock as less bone needs to be cut & reamed
  392. Q) What are implant options to address potential LLD post tumor resection? 2
    • Invasive expandable implants
    • Non-invasive expandable implants
  393. Q) What is the percentage of peds MSK tumor pt. Requiring amputation?
    10%
  394. Q) What are the advantages of rotationplasty over the other options?
    1) Less energy expenditure (When compared to AKA)

    2) Avoids phantom pain

    3) Decreases the need for further Sx for LLD, revision of loosening or #.
  395. Q) What are the prerequisites of a rotationplasty & what structures need to be preserved intra-op? 2
    • Functional ankle joint
    • Functioning sciatic and its branches
  396. Q) What did a cross-sectional, multicenter study comparing short term (1-5yrs) functional ability & physical activity comparing different limb salvage & ablative Sx show?
    A) No functional difference on the basis of treatment type
  397. Q) How is the QOL of a rotationplasty pt when compared to the general population?
    A) Long term QOL after 17yrs were nearly the same
  398. What are the anatomical differences in between medial and lateral menisci
    Lateral → more circular and mobile, medial → more firmly attached to the capsule and medial collateral ligament and is subject to greater forces ( increased tear rate)
  399. Describe the apltey test
    • ProneFlex knee to 90
    • Use 2 foot high table and place your knee on posterior theight
    • Grind knee in ext rotation ((for medial) and int rotation ( for lateral)  in:

    • Compression → miniscus pain
    • Distraction → rotational ligament pain Neutral
  400. What is the clark test?
    • Active patala grind test
    • Hold patella with webspace of thumb finger and ask to contract quads
  401. What does patellar apprehension test tell us about patients?
    Specific for patellar instability → + is strongly indicative of symptomatic instability
  402. Describe the Wilson test for OCD
    supine with the knee flexed to 90 and the tibia rotated internally. >>knee extended >>pain

    + test: patient reports pain as the tibial spine abuts the OCD lesion on the medial femoral condyle at approximately 30 short of full extension.
  403. Q) what is the goal of ankle distraction arthroplasty?
    A) optimize the body’s regenerative capacity and the function of the diseased joint. An external fixator is used to mechanically unload the ankle to relieve pain, preserve ROM, and potentially delay or even partially reverse the effects of arthritis.
  404. A displacement of 1mm of the talus in the mortise accounts for how much joint contact area loss?



    C)
  405. Q) what is the minimum ROM of the ankle to consider distraction arthroplasty?
    20 degrees
  406. Q) Name factors associated with cartilage repair in distraction arthroplasty: 4
    - decrease in joint reactive forces (shear)

    - an increase in protoeglycan synthesis

    - recruitment of mesenchymal stems cells

    - optimization of the mechanical environment
  407. Q) What is the average time to see benefits for joint distraction arthroplasty for patient
    A) Can take up to 12-24 months
  408. Q) List relative contraindications for ankle distraction arthroplasty: 6
    - complex regional pain syndrome

    - inflammatory arthritides

    - previous infection

    - neuropathic joint

    - older patients with low demand

    - flat top talus
  409. What is second impact syndrome in the context of concussion
    Closely timed repeat injury that can result in brain swelling and even death
  410. What is Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy
    Neurodegerative disease associated with head trauma Diagnosed post mortum on histology Deposition of tau protein
  411. What are the indications to transfer an athlete to emergency departments after sideline evaluation
    • GCS <15
    • Deteriorating mental status
    • Progressive worsening neuro signs
    • Potential spine injury
  412. What co-morbilities have been associated with prolonged recovery in concussion (7)
    • Prior concussions
    • Loss of consciousness during injury
    • Female
    • ADHD
    • Depression
    • Migranes
  413. Describe the treatment plan for a concussion
    • acute : physical and cognitive rest
    • Return to activity after patient is asymptomatic
    • Procedure through a graduated stepwise return
    • Must be symptom free for 24hr period before any advance in steps
    • Min time 1 week
    • If symptoms occur - go back to step where no symptoms
  414. Describe return to play protocol for concussion 6
    • No activity
    • Light aerobic exercise
    • Sport specific exercise
    • Non-contact training drills
    • Full contact practice
    • Return to play
  415. Q1) Do Bisphosphonates have any effect on vertebral morphology in OI?
    • Yes when started earlier in life
    • Have positive effect on morphology of vertebrae
  416. 3 benefits of bisphosphonates in spine OI
    • Better cortical bone
    • Improves pull out strenght
    • Decrease scoliosis progression in type 3
  417. Scoliosis and PFT function if: <40 degrees
    > 60 degrees
    • VC 78%
    • VC 41%
  418. Incidence of craniocervical junction anomalies in OI
    37%: basilar invagination or impression

    Stringest predictor is predictor of OI
  419. Q9) List some intraoperative considerations in patients with OI? (5)
    • Fractures while positioning and transferring the patient
    • Airway difficulties due to large head, large tongue and short neck
    • Poor pulmonary function due to chest wall deformities
    • The use of succinylcholine should be avoided because fasciculations can cause fractures
    • Blood loss: blood should be available, controlled hypotension, and TXA
  420. Rate of infection in post TKA that required a return to the OR to manage wound complications (For example hematoma)
    6-10%
  421. Definition of persistent wound drainage post TKA
    Continuous drainage >72hrs post op: Allows for early intervention
  422. 5 medical conditions that can be optimized prior to TKA to improve wound healing
    • DM: 5X risk infection
    • RA: 2-3X risk infection
    • Smoking: stop 6-8 weeks before TKA (2X rate)
    • Obesity: 6X risk of infection
    • Malnutrition
  423. Describe the 3 stages of wound healing
    • Inflammation phase: Time of incision to 4-6 days post op >>Fibrin clot serves to attract cells and concentrate cytokines and growth factors
    • Proliferative phase: day 4-14. Epitheliazation, angiogenesis and granulation tissue formation.
    • Maturation phase: Day 8 to 1 year, collagen synthesis and organization
  424. What is the percentage of wound strength at 1 week, 3 weeks, 3 months
    • 3% at 1 week
    • 30% at 3 weeks
    • 80% at 3 months
    • Wound strength never back to normal because of les organized tissue
  425. 3 lab values that are associated with increased risk of wound complications
    • Albumin <3.5 g/dL
    • Lymphocyte count <1500cells/mm3
    • Transferrin < 200mg/dl
  426. Blood supply to the anterior skin flat arises from?
    Deep perforators from the medial side of knee
  427. Blood supply to patella (5)
    From patellar anastamoses of the following vessels

    • Supreme geniculate artery
    • Medial superior geniculate
    • Lateral superior geniculate
    • Anterior tibial recurrent
    • Branch from profunda femoris
  428. Which incision to use in a TKA if there are multiple old incisions
    The most lateral since the blood supply is medial
  429. Limit of skin bridge between new and old incision
    Ideal > 7cm
  430. In a TKA how do you determine that the skin incision should be lengthened
    If the apices have a U-shape instead of a V-shape
  431. Q) What is C. difficile?
    A) Gram-positive anaerobic bacillus that is ubiquitous in the environment, particularly in healthcare institutions.
  432. What is the strongest risk factors from c diff on ortho
    Deteriorated physical status & use of more than 1 Abx were the strongest risk factors

    Rate of C diff infection is 8 times greater in orthopaedic trauma than in elective arthroplasty.
  433. Risk factors for c diff 12
    • Age >65
    • Comorbidities
    • History of GI surgery
    • Antibiotic exposure
    • Medications
    • Tube feeding

    • ORTHO
    • Surgery >24 hrs after admission
    • Revision
    • Increased LOS
  434. Q) When is it recommended to test hospitalized pts for C. diff?
    A) 3 or more loose stools in 24hrs with no other explanation
  435. Best test for C diff
    Toxigenic culture

    The one that is currently done is toxin immunoassay
  436. How to treat c diff
    MIld: Oral FLagyl TID x 14 days

    Moderate: Oral vanco QiD x 14 days

    Severe: Oral vanco  + IV flagyl

    Recurrent: Oral vanco in tapered regimen
  437. 3 antibiotics that predispose the most to c diff
    • Clinda
    • Fluoroquinilone
    • Vanco
  438. DDx of pediatric foot mass 8
    In order of most common

    • Ganglion cyst
    • Fibromatosis
    • Exostosis
    • GCT tendon sheath
    • Lipoma
    • NOF
    • Schwannoma
    • Enchondroma
  439. list 5 malignant foot massess in peds
    • Synovial sarcoma
    • Liposarcoma
    • Fibrosarcoma
    • Osteosarcoma
    • Rhabdomyosarcoma
  440. 5 tumor features of foot mass that warrant investigation
    • Rapid growth
    • Fam hx
    • SIze >5cm
    • Deep fascial layer
    • incresed vascularity
  441. Q9) What are the most common soft tissue tumours in children?
    Hemangioma
  442. Q11) What is the most common neurogenic tumor of the peripheral nerves in pediatrics?
    NF
  443. Q12) What is a target sign and which tumour gets it?
    NF
  444. Q13) What are the 2 types of osteochondroma?
    • Pedunculated 
    • sessile
  445. Q14) Indication to excise osteochondromas in a growing child?
    • When the lesion causes pain, deformity,or growth disturbance
    • Increases in size out of proportion to the child’s growth
  446. Q15) What is Trevor’s disease?
    Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica (exostosis)

    Tarsal bones > distal femur > proximal tibia  

    Involve ½ of the epiphysis (medial)
  447. Q16) What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the foot in pediatrics?
    Synovial sarcoma
  448. Q17) what is the most common bony sarcoma in the foot in pediatrics?
    Osteosarcoma
  449. Proposed benefits of cryotherapy (3)
    Control local edema: promote local vasoconstriction (study in ankle trauma shown 74% effective)

    Decrease pain: systematic review shows it improves pain in soft tissue trauma and short term pain reduction with acute back pain

    Decrease muscular spasm
  450. What is the use of contrast baths and is there evidence behind it
    Tested in inflammatory conditions like CTS and RA: No difference is size of hand
  451. Evidence behind whole body cryotherapy
    2 studies show decrease in  delayed onset soreness
  452. Is it a good idea to cool a pitcher’s arm right before putting him back on
    No: study showed decrease performance and accuracy after acute cryotherapy
  453. What is the proposed mechanism of action of thermotherapy
    Reduces muscle guarding because it increases muscle laxity and decreases viscosity of connective tissues
  454. What has thermotherapy been shown to improve
    Increased ROM when combined with stretching vs stretching alone
  455. Acute low back pain: use hot or cold pack
    RCT showed no difference btw hot and cold when pt also took NSAID
  456. Mechanism of action of therapeutic ultrasonography
    Raises soft tissue temperatures by transforming waves to mechanical energy in the soft tissues
  457. Advantage of ultrasonography over heat packs
    Depth of penetration: depends on frequency used
  458. Name 3 proposed benefits of therapeutic US
    • Increases pain threshold
    • Reduces edema
    • Reduces inflammatory infiltrates and exudates
  459. 3 types of electrical stimulation used for rehab
    • Electrical stimulation of tissue
    • Electrical stimulation of muscle
    • Electrical stimlation of nerves
  460. Theory behind TENS stimulator
    Gate control theory: Increased activity of nociceptors in response to afferent input causes presynaptic inhibition. This diminishes sensation of pain
  461. Mechanism of action of TENS
    • Delivery of pulsed current
    • Activate descending inhibitory pathway to reduce hyperalgesia
  462. WHat is IFC and how does it work
    • Interferential current
    • Same principle as TENS but current comes from different angle so its effect is maximized in the deeper tissues
  463. What has IFC been shown to help with
    Post operative pain and swelling in the context of meniscectomy, ACL recon and chondroplasty
  464. What is iontophoresis
    Uses electrical current to deliver chemical or a drug to biologic tissue
  465. Give a clinical application of iontophoresis
    Delivery of dexamethasone onto tissue or lidocaine

    SHown effective in athletes treated for lateral epicondylitis but only in the short term
  466. What is the most common affected finger in FDS rupture (jersey finger)?
    Ring finger
  467. What is the overall management of FDS rupture and what should be considered for athlete?
    • All surgical
    • Long rehab: 4 months
  468. Which type is most urgent (jersey finger)
    • Type 1: retracted to the hand
    • Leads to contraction
  469. What is quadriga effect?
    Decreased excursion to terminal flexion of the repaired digit limits excursion in the other digits

    Occus if >1-1.5cm
  470. Biomechanically what gives less gapping at repair site for tendon-bone repair in FDS rupture?
    2 Suture achors placed at 45 deg distal to proximal with locking stich in tendon
  471. WHat is the Crimp Grip position?
    MPJ extension, PIP flexsion and DIP extension
  472. WHat pully commonly injured in the hand?
    • A2 and A4 in climbers
    • Only A4 in pitchers
  473. What is the management of pulley rupture in hand?
    If no bow stringing can manage non op

    Grade 4 → Op: bowstringing and multiple pulley ruptures
  474. What is the combo that gives most pain? for ECU intability
    wrist flexion, ulnar deviation, and supination against resistance
  475. What is the primary stabilizer of the ECU?
    ECU subsheath
  476. What is the non op protocol? for ECU instability
    Short arm or long arm splint in wrist extension and pronation x 2-4 weeks
  477. What is done surgically? for ECU tendon instability
    Direct repair of subsheeth  vs reconstruction with extensor retinaculum

    No need for groove deepening
  478. What are the stablizaers to radial force on thumb?
    UCL (primary) → 2 components: proper and accessory

    Dorsal capsule

    Volar plate

    Osseous congruity
  479. WHat is a stener lesion
    Retraction  of ligament resting proximally and superficially to the adductor aponeurosis
  480. How do you examine UCL thumb injury
    • Valgus stess at 0 → aUCL
    • Valgus stress at 30 deg → pUCL
    • Laxity of > 35 deg oir 15 deg more than other side in both 0 and 30 of flexion = complete rupture (Grade 3)
  481. Indications for Surgery? in UCL thumb
    • Any Grade 3 in high level athlete
    • Grade 3 with ligament displaced >3mm in anyone
    • Stener leison
    • Bony avulsions → often rotated and lead to chronic instability
  482. What nerve is at risk durring approach? for UCL thumb
    Superfical branch of radial nerve
  483. What muscle is split to get to UCL thumb?
    Adductor aponeurosis
  484. Q) Name 6 different method to models orthopedic problems:
    • Static rigid body
    • Dynamic msk
    • Inverse dynamic
    • Forward dynamic
    • Finite element
    • Hybrid
  485. Q) Name model methods that use a single vector to represent orthopedic forces involved:
    • Static rigid body
    • Dynamic MSK
    • Inverse dynamic
  486. Q) What is the most widely used technique to model orthopedic problems?
    Finite element model
  487. Q) Which orthopedic modeling technique requires tracking system to estimate motion (motion analysis lab)?
    A) - Inverse Dynamic
  488. Q) Researchers use forward models to investigate?



    C)
  489. Q) What is the WHO classification of obesity?
    class I: 30.0 to 34.9 kg/m2

    class II: 35.0 to 39.9 kg/m2

    class III: 40.0 kg/m2
  490. Q) BMI affects?



    A)
  491. Q) Name the preoperative consideration of Obese patients requiring TKA:
    A) - Comorbidities: many require attention, ex. DM



    - Nutrition: most obese patients are malnourished (albumin ,3.5 g/dL, transferrin < 200 mg/dL and total lymphocyte count <1,500/mm3)



    - Weight loss (no study showed significant (loosing 5% of body weight) weight loss prior to - surgery affects outcomes)



    - Bariatric surgery prior to TKA (good literature results to decrease complications and re-operation)
  492. Q) Name intraoperative consideration for TKA in obese patients:
    - Exposure – advocate standard medial parapatellar approach

    - Alignment – low threshold for navigation

    - Blood loss – no obvious evidence of increase in blood in obese patients

    - Fixation – No literature proof of loosening but suggest stemmed implants



    - Anesthesia concerns – ventilation, spinals, blocks etc.
  493. Q) Do patients loose weight after TKA
    A) Fattys are always fat … I m jigged
Author
egusnowski
ID
345812
Card Set
JAAOS article questions
Description
Jaaos article questions
Updated