Biology OneNote RED terms

what type of dominance?

Complete dominance (i.e. brown eyes) 

_________ = when more than 1 dominant allele exists for a given gene 

_______ = NEITHER of the 2 alleles present is dominant; a heterozygote expresses a phenotype that is intermediate between 2 homozygous phenotypes (i.e. a pink flower is the intermediate between white and red)

_________ = the proportion of individuals in a population carrying an allele that actually express the phenotype = probability that, given the genotype, the person expresses the phenotype

Expressivity = varying phenotypes despite identical genotypes If ________, then all individuals with a given genotype express the same phenotype If ________, then individuals with the same genotype can have diff phenotypes Considered largely on the individual level - if pts with the same mutation have different presentations

_______ = point mutations in 3rd position of codon (wobble position) 

_______ = a point mutation resulting in substitution of one aa for another in the protein  

_______ = coding for a premature STOP codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) 




________ = insertion or deletion mutations When nt's (1 or more) are ADDED OR DELETED to an mRNA sequence





________  When a segment is copied multiple times in the genome 



 

________ When segments from 2 diff chromosomes are exchanged

Genetic Drift = Changes in composition of gene pool due to chance (i.e. mutations, homozygosity)  

________ = extreme genetic drift; when the first organism that arrives in an area influences the environment to favor their own survival, at the exclusion of other species (i.e. microbiota that first get on babies) When small population of a species is in reproductive isolation (due to natural barriers, events, other ______ which drastically and suddenly reduce the size of population available for breeding) Because the breeding group is small, ______ may occur => increases homozygosity of both dominant and recessive genotypes

Monohybrid cross = only 1 trait is being studied Crossing 2 heterozygotes for a trait with complete dominance =  ______ ratio of genotypes, ______ ratio of phenotypes. 

Dihybrid cross = when you use a 4x4 Punnett square to account for 2 different genes: Dihybrid Crosses of 2 heterozygotes with complete dominance = _______ phenotypic ratio distribution.

Unless stated otherwise, assume that all sex-linked traits are _______

*Recombination frequency (θ) = the probability that 2 alleles are separated from each other during crossing over; approximately equal to the distance between the genes on the chromosome. Tightly linked genes have a recombination frequency of _______ Weakly linked genes have recombination frequencies of ______ % (that's the highest, as per independent assortment)

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium =  When gene pool is stable, gene freq aren't changing, and thus evolution is not occurring: 

The population is very large (no genetic drift) 

No mutations that affect the gene pool 

Mating is random (no sexual selection) 

There is no migration into or out of the population. 

The genes in the population are all equally successful at reproducing.

________ Loss of extremes; Keeps phenotypes in a specific range (i.e. fetus birth size for humans) 

 

_______  Adaptive pressure that pushes toward dominance of an initially extreme phenotype (i.e. when we give bacteria an antibiotic, and only the bacteria with resistance will survive) 

 

_______ 2 extreme phenotypes are selected over the norm (i.e. Darwin's finches; small and large beaks (polymorphisms) are selected over medium beaks due to the type of food availability)

Type of evolution:

_______ 2 species with common ancestor become less similar due to different evolutionary pressures 



_______ 2 species with common ancestor remain similar because similar environment, etc 



_______ 2 species with no recent common ancestor become more similar because of similar environment, etc (i.e. fish, dolphin)

Eukaryotic cells *distinct from prokaryotic cells because they have a nucleus enclosed in a membrane Nucleus Nuclear membrane = double membrane  Nuclear pores = allow for selective 2-way exchange of material Genes --> linear DNA --> wrapped around histones --> wound into chromosomes 

______  = site of rRNA transcription, processing, and assembly

Mitochondria facts:




Self-replication: Mitochondrial DNA = mDNA = double-stranded DNA Semi-autonomous: have some of their own genes that replicate independently of nucleus viabinary fission = cytoplasmic/extranuclear inheritance

*Cytoskeleton = Provides structure; highways for transporting materials (components below)
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_______ = polymerized actin 




Microtubules = hallow polymers of ______ 

Involved in mitosis (attaches to ______ and _______ to separate sister chromatids), cell transport  Primary pathways for motor proteins (kinesin, dynein) 

Cilia & flagella: Cilia move material along surface of cell; flagella move cell itself They share the same structure: 9+2 structure 9 pairs (doublets) of tubulin in outer ring 2 central microtubules  (only in eukaryotic cells; bacterial cells have different structure) 








Centrioles = microtubule-organizing centers Structure = 9 triplets around a hollow center Found in region called centrosome During mitosis, they migrate to opposite poles of the dividing cell; organize the mitotic spindle The microtubules can attach to chromosomes via kinetochores; pull the sister chromatids apart 





Intermediate filaments i.e. keratin, desmin, vimentin, and lamins Cell-cell adhesion; cytoskeleton integrity maintenance; anchors organelles *can withstand a lot of tension; makes cells rigid

Obligate aerobes - require O2 

Anaerobes - use fermentation 

______ anaerobes - can't survive in O2 environment (produces radicals) 

_______ anaerobes = can switch between 2 metabolic systems (anaerobic & aerobic) 

_______ anaerobes - can't use O2, not harmed by its presence

Gram ______ = absorbs crystal violet stain = purple  Has thick layer of peptidoglycan 

Gram ______ = absorbs counterstain but not crystal violet = pink Thin; has thin layer of peptidoglycan In addition to envelope (cell wall + cell membrane), also have outer membranes of phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides

________ Integration of foreign genetic material (i.e. lysed other bacteria) into host genome 



________ Sexual reproduction Genetic material is transferred from donor male (+) to recipient female (-) 



________ Requires a vector, a virus that carries genetic material from 1 bacteria to another Due to infection by Bacteriophages - viruses that infect bacteria - can accidentally carry some of the DNA from 1 host to another that it infects next 




________ Genetic elements that are capable of inserting and removing themselves from genome (Occur in both prokaryotes & eukaryotes)

______ sense RNA viruses = genome can be directly translated by host cell ribosomes 

______ sense RNA viruses = require synthesis of a complementary strand to be used for protein synthesis Requires that these viruses have an RNA replicase = enzyme catalyses synthesis of the RNA strand complementary to a given RNA template

Anaphase Mitosis = centromeres split so _______ separate (in humans, 46 on each side) to opposite poles by shortening of kinetochore fibers


Meiosis Anaphase I _______ separate

Meiosis anaphase II _______ separate

Male gamete production: spermatogenesis 

*_______ are the diploid stem cells 

*_______ forms after division (S stage of cell cycle) 

*after MeiosisI, _______ form (1n) 

*after Meoisis II, _______ form (1n) 

*maturation results in ________

______ cells = sustain sperm, stimulate spermatogenesis

 _______ cells = secrete testosterone, which is necessary for spermatogenesis (along with FSH)

At birth, female has all the ______ (diploid stem cell) that she will ever have  All the oogonia have undergone DNA replication (M phase of cell cycle) and are _______(2n), arrested at Prophase I After female starts menstruating, each month, one oocyte completes Meiosis I to become a _______ (+ polar body) Secondary oocyte is arrested at Metaphase II until fertilization, where it completes meiosis II 

then last is ovum

Ovaries: Granulosa cells = sustain oocytes Theca cells = produce androgens, which are converted to estrogen by granulosa.

Estrogen = result in development and maintenance of reproductive system, and female secondary sexual characteristics. Stimulate endometrium thickening each month in preparation for implantation (during _______ phase)

Corpus Luteum produces _______  which is involved in development and maintenance of the endometrium

*Follicular phase = selection of dominant follicle; FSH and LH rise, and estrogen rises as a result. It exerts some negative feedback on GnRH and the anterior pituitary. 

*LH surge = ovulation; estrogen exerts POSITIVE feedback (kisspeptin) and GnRH, LH, and FSH increase. LH causes ovulation of oocyte into abdominal cavity, where it is aided by cilia to enter the fallopian tube. 

*luteal phase = ruptured follicle forms corpus luteum, which secretes high levels of progesterone and estrogen. Progesterone and Estrogen exert negative feedback on GnRH, FSH, and LH, preventing the ovulation of more follicles.

Pregnancy: Zygote develops into a blastocyst; secretes hCG (similar to LH in its structure and receptor activation) => stimulates corpus luteum to continue secreting estrogen and progesterone during first trimester By second trimester, hCG declines; placenta develops and secretes progesterone and estrogen (which continue to exert negative feedback on hypothalamus (GnRH) 

Menopause: Ovaries become less sensitive to FSH and LH = ovarian atrophy Estrogen and progesterone levels drop; endometrium atrophies; menstruation stops FSH and LH rise in blood (because no negative feedback from progesterone/estrogen/inhibin)

_______ = ability of one group of cells to influence the fate of other nearby cells

_______ induces the ectodermal cells above it to form the neural plate



*_______ forms at the tip of each neural fold = "fourth germ layer" = sympathetic and parasympathetic PNS systems (sensory, autonomic, adrenal ganglia), melanocytes, Schwann cells, some of the bones and connective tissue of the face

*____ = CNS (brain and spinal cord)

*Note on Cell potency 

_______ during 32-cell morula stage Greatest differentiating potential; can create all cell types 

_______ during blastocyst stage Stem cell that has the potential to differentiate into any of the three germ layers 

_______ = progenitor cells Have gene activation potential to differentiate into discrete cell types i.e. a hematopoietic cell—and this cell type can differentiate itself into several types of blood cell types like lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, etc

Senescence and aging Senescence = biological aging 

Due to shortening of telomeres as cell undergoes many rounds of mitosis Telomeres = GC-rich (higher H-bond density) regions at ends of chromosomes; reduce loss of genetic info and helps prevent DNA unraveling  

They shorten with each successive replication cycle Some cells have _______ = reverse transcriptase that adds telomeres to ends of chromosomes i.e. in germ cells, fetal cells, tumor cells Aging = senescence + other factors, like environmental

______ (valve that connects R to L atrium, bypassing lungs) 

_______ (shunts blood from pulmonary artery to aorta, to skip lungs and go to systemic circulation) 

_______ (liver bypass - shunts blood from umbilical vein to vena cava)

Summation = when a postsyn neuron receives input from multiple presyn neurons 


______ summation = multiple signals integrated during a short time period (possibly from same presyn neuron?) 

______ summation = additive effects based on number and location of the incoming signals

_______ Produce myelin in  PNS

 ________ Produce myelin in CNS 



_______ Nourish neurons; form blood-brain barrier; homeostasis of ions; clear out synapses 



_______ Line brain ventricles; produce CSF 
 help form the barrier that holds in and produces CSF, cerebrospinal fluid. 

________ (from mesoderm - come from monocytes) Phagocytic cells of CNS; immune function; antigen presentation

*The period of time when the majority of voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated defines the _______, when no amount of depolarizing current can cause an action potential *Note: increased intensity of a stimulus doesn't result in increased potential difference during polarization; it just results in increased frequency of firing! (since channels inactivate at specific potentials) 

*Hyperpolarization during repolarization period makes the neuron refractory to further action potentials 

______ (requires greater than normal stimulation to cause AP, since the potential starts out more negative than its resting membrane value)

Action potential arrival at the nerve terminal causes voltage-gated ______ channels to open, triggering fusion of membrane-bound vesicles with cell membrane, releasing their nt contents

_______ collections of neurons in the PNS 

may contain multiple types of info (sensory or motor) 

contain cell bodies in ganglia 
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______ collections of neurons in the CNS that

contain only 1 type of info 

contain cell bodies in nuclei

Peptide hormone:

Gs = stimulates adenylyl cyclase to convert ____ to  ______

Amino-acid derivative hormones 

Derived from 1 or 2 aa

 i.e. catecholamines (EP, NE, DA)

and thyroid hormones (T3/T4) 

Catecholamine's mechanism of action is like peptide hormones where they bind to extracellular receptors; cause signal cascade; have fast, short effect 

Thyroid hormone mechanism of action is like steroid hormones - they bind to intracellular receptors; have slow, longer lasting effects

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system: 

Low flow and low blood pressure are detected

juxtaglomerular cells  (found in afferent arteriole) secrete renin 

Liver releases angiotensinogen 

Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I 

ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) in lungs cleaves Angio I to Angio II 

Angiotensin II stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone 

Aldosterone acts on kidney DCT and collecting ducts to increase Na+ reabsorption

Blood volume and cardiac output increase

_______ inhibits insulin and glucagon plus HCl secretion in stomach.

_______ is produced by the kindeys

the ______ Secretes Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to help regulate salt and water balance (promotes Na+ and thus water excretion in kidney) - works antagonistically with aldosterone

Squalene which is a precursor to cholesterol is a ______ terpene with ___ isoprenes and ___ carbons

Vitamin A is a _____ terpene with ____ isoprenes and ____ carbons

Thyroid gland: Calcitonin Made in _______ cells (C-cells) of thyroid gland Minor role in calcium homeostasis Calcitonin "tones down" calcium levels in the blood (acts antagonistically with parathyroid hormone, PTH) 

Actions: 

Decrease calcium resorption from bone (= Increase calcium storage in bone) 

Decreases calcium absorption from s.i. 

Increases calcium excretion from kidney (= decrease Ca2+ reabsorption in kidney)

Cortisol is long-term hormone; _______ is fast-response hormone to starvation state. ________ (same as first blank) stimulates gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, lipolysis and muscle breakdown. Cortisol mitigates ________ (same) effect by mildly promoting glycogenesis.

*Recall that ________ stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver. The _______ and _________ join to secrete bile, enzymes, and bicarb  into small intestine.

Pancreas:

Exocrine cells secrete: ______ and _____

Endocrine cells secrete: Secretin, CCK, Gastric inhibitory polypetide, insulin, and glucagon.


Pancreas has islets of Langerhans which consists of ______ cells (glucagon), ______ cells (insulin), and _______ cells (somatostatin)

Progression: Nares => _______ => pharynx => _______ => ________ => bronchi => bronchioles => ______

Inhalation-
Active process: Requires actively _______ the diaphragm muscle, and external intercostal muscles pull rib cage up 


Exhalation-
Passive process: simple _______ of the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm will cause exhalation of air from lungs You can also force more air out, more quickly, using _______ and ________

Regulation of breathing Ventilation is controlled by ventilation center in the medulla Chemoreceptors detect changes in CO2 Hypercarbia = too much CO2 in blood = acidosis of blood => when PCO2 rises, medulla increases respiratory rate to blow off the CO2 

Hypoventilation = increased CO2 in blood (so _____ blood pH)

Hyperventilation = increased CO2 removal from blood  (so _____ blood pH)

Total lung capacity (TLC) = 6-7L 

_______ = the volume left over after a complete exhale (the smallest volume of air that can be managed without collapsing the lungs) 

_______ = the difference between total lung capacity and residual volume 

_______ = the volume inhales or exhaled in a normal, unstrained breath 

________ = the volume of air that can be forcibly (somatically controlled) exhaled after a normal exhale 

________ = volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inhalation

In emphysema the alveolar walls are destroyed decreasing recoil in lung tissue. Which of the following changes may be seen in a patient with emphysema?

A- Increased residual volume
B- Decreased total lung capacity
C- Increased blood Oxygen Conc
D- Decreased blood CO2 Conc

ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE Deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary arteries arrive at lung capillaries (originating from R ventricle) Gas Diffusion follows Pressure differentials & Henry's law: O2 has higher partial pressure in the alveolar sac, and so diffused down gradient into capillaries, to bind to Hemoglobin for transport. CO2 has higher partial pressure in the capillaries, and so diffuse down gradient from capillaries to alveolar sac, for expiration. *there are no active transporters for CO2 or O2 in the alveoli!

Henry's Law: for a given T, the amount of gas diffused in a liquid (i.e. blood in the capillaries) is directly proportional to its partial pressure and its solubility in water 

This means that as a diver descends gas dissolves more easily into our body.
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Dilation of capillaries allows more blood thru the vessels = more thermal energy lost Constriction = less blood thru vessels = less thermal energy lost (more heat conserved)

CO2 + H20 <---> H2CO3 <--> HCO3- + H+

Normal pH range is 7.35-7.45 
Acidemia = When blood is too acidic (lower pH) (i.e. shifted to the Right) H+-sensing chemoreceptors next to brain barrier send signals to increase the respiratory rate Increased respiratory rate increases the rate of CO2 removal, which shifts the equation to the Left 

Alkalemia = blood is too basic (high pH) (i.e. shifted to the Left) Brain slows respiratory rate, to decrease the rate CO2 is exhaled (thus keeping more CO2 in the blood), which shifts the rxn to the Right to lower the pH i.e. metabolic acidosis = body compensates by increasing respiratory rate to breath off some of the CO2 i.e. anaerobic respiration generates lactic acid; methanol & formaldehyde produce organic acids; Type I Diabetes pts can produce ketoacids when insulin is very low 

Hyperventilation = makes your blood more basic (greater loss of CO2) 

Hypoventilation = makes your blood more acidic 

 *in pH control, the important thing to remember is that CO2 is always going to be produced, constantly, by the metabolism of your tissues. So, if breathing rate decreases, don't focus on the O2 that isn't getting to your tissues - focus first on the CO2 that isn't being exhaled, that is making your pH increasingly acidic!!

SA node --> AV node --> bundle of His (AV bundle) and branches --> Purkinje fibers SA node depolarization causes atria to contract simultaneously AV node connects atrial and ventricular depolarization; signal is delayed at AV node (to allow ventricles to fill completely before they contract) Signal travels down bundle of His and its branches (in the interventricular septum) to Purkinje fibers Cardiac smooth Muscle cells are connected by intercalated discs= many gap junctions, allows for coordinated ventricular contraction

_____ depolarization of atria in response to SA node triggering

_____ delay of AV node to allow ventricular filling

______ depolarization of ventricles, triggers main pumping contraction


______ beginning of ventricular re-polarization, should be flat

_____ Ventricular repolarization

_______ = ventricular contraction; closure of AV valves (to prevent backflow into atria), and semilunar valves open to allow blood to be pumped out of ventricles

______ = ventricular relaxation; semilunar valves are closed, while AV valves open to allow blood to fill ventricles (flowing from atria)

*P wave triggers Atrial depolarization = atrial systole 

*QRS triggers ventricular depolarization = ventricular systole 

*tarychardia = abnormally fast HR; less time for diastole (atrial and ventricular relaxation); doesn't allow time for blood to fully distend the ventricles, which happens when ventricles are relaxed. Thus, heart can't properly fill with blood, and stops pumping blood; systemic pressure drops.

Cardiac Output = total blood volume pumped by ventricle in a minute 



CO = HR x SV 

CO = cardiac output (L/min) 
SV = stroke volume (L/beat) 
HR = Heart rate (beats/min)

which is more elastic, thicker, and more muscular, veins or arteries?

which one has valves?

Platelets, also called thrombocytes, are membrane-bound cell fragments derived from the fragmentationof larger precursor cells called _______, which are derived from stem cells in the bone marrow. Platelets are important for the blood clotting

what pressure?

_______ Force/Area that blood exerts on vessel walls(due to heart contraction and vessel elasticity) Pushes fluid out of bloodstream and into interstitium 

______ pressure "sucking" pressure generated by conc gradient of solutes present in the blood vessel; they draw water from interstitium to blood Called "_____" because attributable to plasma proteins

Sympathetic effects: sympathetic postganglionic nerve fibers release norepinephrine acting on alpha receptors causes vasoconstriction. Increases heart contractile rate and force (increase HR, blood volume per beat) Decreased flow (vasoconstriction) to skin, digestive system, kidneys via increased vasoconstriction (increased sympathetic input)(b/c these organs aren't as active when in fight-or-flight) Increased flow (vasodilation by decreasing sympathetic activity to these arterioles) on skeletal muscle and brain. When cold, there's vasoconstriction (increased sympathetic input) of arterioles to the skin. 

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Parasympathetic effects: Plays only a minor role in regulation of the circulation Major circulatory effect is the control of heart rate by way of parasympathetic fibres carried to the heart in the vagus nerves. Principally, parasympathetic stimulation causes a marked decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropic effect) and a slight decrease in heart muscle contractility (negative inotropic effect Example: response to injury - vasodilation to the area (from decreasing sympathetic input to the area) allows greater blood flow and inflammation; brings in lymphocytes and macrophages, etc

Flow and velocity: Velocity of flow decreases as total cross-sectional area of tubs increases (i.e. flow is slowest in capillaries)

so is velocity higher in aorta or arterioles?

Why do we need lymphatic system to return protein to blood vessels?

______ can trigger salivation (controlled by parasympathetic system) 

*sympathetic system inhibits salivation - this is why, when you have stage fright or some other fight-or-flight situation, your mouth feels dry Enzymes in saliva = salivary amylase, salivary lipase

type of cell?

______  HCl and  Intrinsic factor(glycoprotein involved in Vit B12 absorption)





_______ Pepsinogen(a zymogen; cleaved and activated by acid in stomach)   






______ Mucous and bicarbonate (to protect the stomach lining from destruction by acidic environment)

Duodenum of small intestine Brush border enzymes: 
Peptidases, dipeptidases 

Disaccharidases (amylase, lactase, sucrase) 

*why to people with lactose intolerance have symptoms of bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea? Bacteria in the intestines hydrolyze the sugar, resulting in methane gas (bloating) their inability to digest lactose (a disaccharide) has an osmotic effect, pulling water into stool (diarrhea)

_______ = stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion; potentiates CCK's actions

_______ = stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion; stimulates gall bladder contraction (which contains the bile from the liver); potentiates secretin's actions

_______ - facilitate absorption - are a "holding dock" for free FA's and monoglycerides while they're being digested by lipase, and diffuse across the membrane.

Bile salts are hydrophobic, amphipathic, or hydrophillic?

small intestine parts:



_______ Digestion of nutrients (peptides to aa, sugar chains to monosaccharides, TAG's to FFA's via brush border enzymes as well as pancreatic secreted enzymes - trypsin (what type of amino acids it cleaves?______), chymotrypsin (what type of amino acid it cleaves? _____ ) for protein; pancreatic lipase for fat; pancreatic amylase for sugars 




_______ Absorption of monosaccharides, aa, FA have villi with microvilli on the epithelial cells 

________  Absorption

Produced in intestine.  

Transports dietary TAG's,cholesterol, and cholesterolesters from s.i. to tissue

Similar to chylomicrons, but produced in liver. Transports TAG's, FA's (including non-dietary FA's) from liver to other tissue.

_____ delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissue for biosynthesis; steroidogenesis; membranes; bile.

Part of Reverse Cholesterol Transport: synthesized in liver and intestines as protein-rich particles. It enter circulation to pick up excess cholesterol from blood vessels for excretion Transfers apolipoproteins to other lipoproteins; or cholesterol to steroidogenic tissue

cofactors vs coenzymes

*recall that _______ are organic, while ______ are metal ions

Starling forces: Hydrostatic pressure of glomerular capillaries are higher than hydrostatic pressure from the Bowman's capsule 

Osmolarity of the blood in glomerular capillaries is higher than in Bowman's space = this osmotic pressure opposes filtration  

However, the hydrostatic pressure (contributed by bp of the arterioles) is a lot higher than the osmotic pressure that opposes it

proximal convoluted tubule:

reabsorbs __ , __ , __, and ___

secretes ___ , ___ , __ and ___

loop of henle:

______ limb = only permeable to water; water flows out here 

______ limb = only permeable to salts; impermeable to water

_____: DCT and Collecting duct (pressure).

_____: Collecting duct (aquaporins/ osmolarity)

_______ Present on almost all cells Presents to cytotoxic T cells, which target that cell for destruction This is when you want to destroy self-cells that are infected 

_____ Present on only APC's (antigen-presenting cells) - macrophages, dendritic cells, B-Cells. Presents to helper T cells - attracts other immune cells to the area; activates antibody production

which muscle is striated and not striated?

skeletal:
cardiac:
smooth:

Type of nucleus, multinucleated, un-nucleated, 1/2 nuclei:

Cardiac:
Smooth:
Skeletal:

Slow twitch fibers = _______ fibers; (____ more or less myoglobin?) Longer lasting contraction; i.e. posture i.e. dark meat in thigh of chicken 

Fast-twitch fibers = _____ fibers; (_______ more or less myoglobin?) Faster contraction; fatigue quickly i.e. white breast meat of chicken

Actin or myosin


Thick filaments = _____

Thin filaments = _____

Muscle --> Myocyte ---> Myofibrils -- > sarcomere

______ = cell membrane of myocyte 

ACh receptors are here; binding of ACh causes depolarization of membrane, which spreads to the fibrils via T-tubules 

Sarcoplasm = modified cytoplasm of myocyte 

Sarcoplasmic reticulum = modified ER that contains high Ca2+ ions; surrounds _____ in a myocyte 

T-tubules = transverse; allows a depolarization to travel deep into the muscle to influence all the myofibrils

Slow-twitch red muscle (TYPE I) 

Has ______ mitochondria; performs _______ for ATP 

-----------------------------------

Fast-twitch white muscle (TYPE II) 

Has _______ mitochondria; performs ____ for ATP

_______ Muscle to bone 

  

______ Bone to bone 

 
Bone matrix:
Organic components: Collagen, glycoproteins, peptides 

Inorganic components: Calcium, phosphate, hydroxide (formhydroxyapatite)

________ ossification: 

Formation of long bone 

------------------------------------

_______ ossification: 

When mesenchymal tissue (undifferentiated, embryonic connective tissue) is transformed into bone - i.e. in skull

decrease in population due to event/ disaster/

decrease in population due to one new population maybe leaving and starting its own, first organisms in that area

______ refers to alterations in the composition of a gene pool due to migration of individuals between different populations.