what type of dominance?
Complete dominance (i.e. brown eyes)
_________ = when more than 1 dominant allele exists for a given gene
_______ = NEITHER of the 2 alleles present is dominant; a heterozygote expresses a phenotype that is intermediate between 2 homozygous phenotypes (i.e. a pink flower is the intermediate between white and red)
_________ = the proportion of individuals in a population carrying an allele that actually express the phenotype = probability that, given the genotype, the person expresses the phenotype
Expressivity = varying phenotypes despite identical genotypes If ________, then all individuals with a given genotype express the same phenotype If ________, then individuals with the same genotype can have diff phenotypes Considered largely on the individual level - if pts with the same mutation have different presentations
_______ = point mutations in 3rd position of codon (wobble position)
_______ = a point mutation resulting in substitution of one aa for another in the protein
_______ = coding for a premature STOP codon (UAA, UAG, UGA)
________ = insertion or deletion mutations When nt's (1 or more) are ADDED OR DELETED to an mRNA sequence
________ When a segment is copied multiple times in the genome
________ When segments from 2 diff chromosomes are exchanged
Genetic Drift = Changes in composition of gene pool due to chance (i.e. mutations, homozygosity)
________ = extreme genetic drift; when the first organism that arrives in an area influences the environment to favor their own survival, at the exclusion of other species (i.e. microbiota that first get on babies) When small population of a species is in reproductive isolation (due to natural barriers, events, other ______ which drastically and suddenly reduce the size of population available for breeding) Because the breeding group is small, ______ may occur => increases homozygosity of both dominant and recessive genotypes
Monohybrid cross = only 1 trait is being studied Crossing 2 heterozygotes for a trait with complete dominance = ______ ratio of genotypes, ______ ratio of phenotypes.
Dihybrid cross = when you use a 4x4 Punnett square to account for 2 different genes: Dihybrid Crosses of 2 heterozygotes with complete dominance = _______ phenotypic ratio distribution.
Unless stated otherwise, assume that all sex-linked traits are _______
*Recombination frequency (θ) = the probability that 2 alleles are separated from each other during crossing over; approximately equal to the distance between the genes on the chromosome. Tightly linked genes have a recombination frequency of _______ Weakly linked genes have recombination frequencies of ______ % (that's the highest, as per independent assortment)
Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium = When gene pool is stable, gene freq aren't changing, and thus evolution is not occurring:
The population is very large (no genetic drift)
No mutations that affect the gene pool
Mating is random (no sexual selection)
There is no migration into or out of the population.
The genes in the population are all equally successful at reproducing.
________ Loss of extremes; Keeps phenotypes in a specific range (i.e. fetus birth size for humans)
_______ Adaptive pressure that pushes toward dominance of an initially extreme phenotype (i.e. when we give bacteria an antibiotic, and only the bacteria with resistance will survive)
_______ 2 extreme phenotypes are selected over the norm (i.e. Darwin's finches; small and large beaks (polymorphisms) are selected over medium beaks due to the type of food availability)
Type of evolution:
_______ 2 species with common ancestor become less similar due to different evolutionary pressures
_______ 2 species with common ancestor remain similar because similar environment, etc
_______ 2 species with no recent common ancestor become more similar because of similar environment, etc (i.e. fish, dolphin)
Eukaryotic cells *distinct from prokaryotic cells because they have a nucleus enclosed in a membrane Nucleus Nuclear membrane = double membrane Nuclear pores = allow for selective 2-way exchange of material Genes --> linear DNA --> wrapped around histones --> wound into chromosomes
______ = site of rRNA transcription, processing, and assembly
Self-replication: Mitochondrial DNA = mDNA = double-stranded DNA Semi-autonomous: have some of their own genes that replicate independently of nucleus viabinary fission = cytoplasmic/extranuclear inheritance
*Cytoskeleton = Provides structure; highways for transporting materials (components below)
_______ = polymerized actin
Microtubules = hallow polymers of ______
Involved in mitosis (attaches to ______ and _______ to separate sister chromatids), cell transport Primary pathways for motor proteins (kinesin, dynein)
Cilia & flagella: Cilia move material along surface of cell; flagella move cell itself They share the same structure: 9+2 structure 9 pairs (doublets) of tubulin in outer ring 2 central microtubules (only in eukaryotic cells; bacterial cells have different structure)
Centrioles = microtubule-organizing centers Structure = 9 triplets around a hollow center Found in region called centrosome During mitosis, they migrate to opposite poles of the dividing cell; organize the mitotic spindle The microtubules can attach to chromosomes via kinetochores; pull the sister chromatids apart
Intermediate filaments i.e. keratin, desmin, vimentin, and lamins Cell-cell adhesion; cytoskeleton integrity maintenance; anchors organelles *can withstand a lot of tension; makes cells rigid
Obligate aerobes - require O2
Anaerobes - use fermentation
______ anaerobes - can't survive in O2 environment (produces radicals)
_______ anaerobes = can switch between 2 metabolic systems (anaerobic & aerobic)
_______ anaerobes - can't use O2, not harmed by its presence
Gram ______ = absorbs crystal violet stain = purple Has thick layer of peptidoglycan
Gram ______ = absorbs counterstain but not crystal violet = pink Thin; has thin layer of peptidoglycan In addition to envelope (cell wall + cell membrane), also have outer membranes of phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides
________ Integration of foreign genetic material (i.e. lysed other bacteria) into host genome
________ Sexual reproduction Genetic material is transferred from donor male (+) to recipient female (-)
________ Requires a vector, a virus that carries genetic material from 1 bacteria to another Due to infection by Bacteriophages - viruses that infect bacteria - can accidentally carry some of the DNA from 1 host to another that it infects next
________ Genetic elements that are capable of inserting and removing themselves from genome (Occur in both prokaryotes & eukaryotes)
______ sense RNA viruses = genome can be directly translated by host cell ribosomes
______ sense RNA viruses = require synthesis of a complementary strand to be used for protein synthesis Requires that these viruses have an RNA replicase = enzyme catalyses synthesis of the RNA strand complementary to a given RNA template
Anaphase Mitosis = centromeres split so _______ separate (in humans, 46 on each side) to opposite poles by shortening of kinetochore fibers
Meiosis Anaphase I _______ separate
Meiosis anaphase II _______ separate
Male gamete production: spermatogenesis
*_______ are the diploid stem cells
*_______ forms after division (S stage of cell cycle)
*after MeiosisI, _______ form (1n)
*after Meoisis II, _______ form (1n)
*maturation results in ________
______ cells = sustain sperm, stimulate spermatogenesis
_______ cells = secrete testosterone, which is necessary for spermatogenesis (along with FSH)
At birth, female has all the ______ (diploid stem cell) that she will ever have All the oogonia have undergone DNA replication (M phase of cell cycle) and are _______(2n), arrested at Prophase I After female starts menstruating, each month, one oocyte completes Meiosis I to become a _______ (+ polar body) Secondary oocyte is arrested at Metaphase II until fertilization, where it completes meiosis II
then last is ovum
Ovaries: Granulosa cells = sustain oocytes Theca cells = produce androgens, which are converted to estrogen by granulosa.
Estrogen = result in development and maintenance of reproductive system, and female secondary sexual characteristics. Stimulate endometrium thickening each month in preparation for implantation (during _______ phase)
Corpus Luteum produces _______ which is involved in development and maintenance of the endometrium
*Follicular phase = selection of dominant follicle; FSH and LH rise, and estrogen rises as a result. It exerts some negative feedback on GnRH and the anterior pituitary.
*LH surge = ovulation; estrogen exerts POSITIVE feedback (kisspeptin) and GnRH, LH, and FSH increase. LH causes ovulation of oocyte into abdominal cavity, where it is aided by cilia to enter the fallopian tube.
*luteal phase = ruptured follicle forms corpus luteum, which secretes high levels of progesterone and estrogen. Progesterone and Estrogen exert negative feedback on GnRH, FSH, and LH, preventing the ovulation of more follicles.
Pregnancy: Zygote develops into a blastocyst; secretes hCG (similar to LH in its structure and receptor activation) => stimulates corpus luteum to continue secreting estrogen and progesterone during first trimester By second trimester, hCG declines; placenta develops and secretes progesterone and estrogen (which continue to exert negative feedback on hypothalamus (GnRH)
Menopause: Ovaries become less sensitive to FSH and LH = ovarian atrophy Estrogen and progesterone levels drop; endometrium atrophies; menstruation stops FSH and LH rise in blood (because no negative feedback from progesterone/estrogen/inhibin)
_______ = ability of one group of cells to influence the fate of other nearby cells
_______ induces the ectodermal cells above it to form the neural plate
*_______ forms at the tip of each neural fold = "fourth germ layer" = sympathetic and parasympathetic PNS systems (sensory, autonomic, adrenal ganglia), melanocytes, Schwann cells, some of the bones and connective tissue of the face
*____ = CNS (brain and spinal cord)
*Note on Cell potency
_______ during 32-cell morula stage Greatest differentiating potential; can create all cell types
_______ during blastocyst stage Stem cell that has the potential to differentiate into any of the three germ layers
_______ = progenitor cells Have gene activation potential to differentiate into discrete cell types i.e. a hematopoietic cell—and this cell type can differentiate itself into several types of blood cell types like lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, etc
Senescence and aging Senescence = biological aging
Due to shortening of telomeres as cell undergoes many rounds of mitosis Telomeres = GC-rich (higher H-bond density) regions at ends of chromosomes; reduce loss of genetic info and helps prevent DNA unraveling
They shorten with each successive replication cycle Some cells have _______ = reverse transcriptase that adds telomeres to ends of chromosomes i.e. in germ cells, fetal cells, tumor cells Aging = senescence + other factors, like environmental
______ (valve that connects R to L atrium, bypassing lungs)
_______ (shunts blood from pulmonary artery to aorta, to skip lungs and go to systemic circulation)
_______ (liver bypass - shunts blood from umbilical vein to vena cava)
Summation = when a postsyn neuron receives input from multiple presyn neurons
______ summation = multiple signals integrated during a short time period (possibly from same presyn neuron?)
______ summation = additive effects based on number and location of the incoming signals
_______ Produce myelin in PNS
________ Produce myelin in CNS
_______ Nourish neurons; form blood-brain barrier; homeostasis of ions; clear out synapses
_______ Line brain ventricles; produce CSF
help form the barrier that holds in and produces CSF, cerebrospinal fluid.
________ (from mesoderm - come from monocytes) Phagocytic cells of CNS; immune function; antigen presentation
Schwann cells (ectoderm)
Astrocytes (from ectoderm)
*The period of time when the majority of voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated defines the _______, when no amount of depolarizing current can cause an action potential *Note: increased intensity of a stimulus doesn't result in increased potential difference during polarization; it just results in increased frequency of firing! (since channels inactivate at specific potentials)
*Hyperpolarization during repolarization period makes the neuron refractory to further action potentials
______ (requires greater than normal stimulation to cause AP, since the potential starts out more negative than its resting membrane value)
ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD
Relative refractory period
Action potential arrival at the nerve terminal causes voltage-gated ______ channels to open, triggering fusion of membrane-bound vesicles with cell membrane, releasing their nt contents
_______ collections of neurons in the PNS
may contain multiple types of info (sensory or motor)
contain cell bodies in ganglia
______ collections of neurons in the CNS that
contain only 1 type of info
contain cell bodies in nuclei
Gs = stimulates adenylyl cyclase to convert ____ to ______
ATP to cAMP
Amino-acid derivative hormones
Derived from 1 or 2 aa
i.e. catecholamines (EP, NE, DA)
and thyroid hormones (T3/T4)
Catecholamine's mechanism of action is like peptide hormones where they bind to extracellular receptors; cause signal cascade; have fast, short effect
Thyroid hormone mechanism of action is like steroid hormones - they bind to intracellular receptors; have slow, longer lasting effects
Low flow and low blood pressure are detected
juxtaglomerular cells (found in afferent arteriole) secrete renin
Liver releases angiotensinogen
Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I
ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) in lungs cleaves Angio I to Angio II
Angiotensin II stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone
Aldosterone acts on kidney DCT and collecting ducts to increase Na+ reabsorption
Blood volume and cardiac output increase
_______ inhibits insulin and glucagon plus HCl secretion in stomach.
_______ is produced by the kindeys
the ______ Secretes Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to help regulate salt and water balance (promotes Na+ and thus water excretion in kidney) - works antagonistically with aldosterone
Squalene which is a precursor to cholesterol is a ______ terpene with ___ isoprenes and ___ carbons
Vitamin A is a _____ terpene with ____ isoprenes and ____ carbons
triterpene with 6 isoprenes and 30C
diterpene with 4 isoprenes and 20C
Thyroid gland: Calcitonin Made in _______ cells (C-cells) of thyroid gland Minor role in calcium homeostasis Calcitonin "tones down" calcium levels in the blood (acts antagonistically with parathyroid hormone, PTH)
Decrease calcium resorption from bone (= Increase calcium storage in bone)
Decreases calcium absorption from s.i.
Increases calcium excretion from kidney (= decrease Ca2+ reabsorption in kidney)
Cortisol is long-term hormone; _______ is fast-response hormone to starvation state. ________ (same as first blank) stimulates gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, lipolysis and muscle breakdown. Cortisol mitigates ________ (same) effect by mildly promoting glycogenesis.
*Recall that ________ stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver. The _______ and _________ join to secrete bile, enzymes, and bicarb into small intestine.
common bile duct
Exocrine cells secrete: ______ and _____
Endocrine cells secrete: Secretin, CCK, Gastric inhibitory polypetide, insulin, and glucagon.
Pancreas has islets of Langerhans which consists of ______ cells (glucagon), ______ cells (insulin), and _______ cells (somatostatin)
Progression: Nares => _______ => pharynx => _______ => ________ => bronchi => bronchioles => ______
larynx (voice box)
Active process: Requires actively _______ the diaphragm muscle, and external intercostal muscles pull rib cage up
Passive process: simple _______ of the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm will cause exhalation of air from lungs You can also force more air out, more quickly, using _______ and ________
Regulation of breathing Ventilation is controlled by ventilation center in the medulla Chemoreceptors detect changes in CO2 Hypercarbia = too much CO2 in blood = acidosis of blood => when PCO2 rises, medulla increases respiratory rate to blow off the CO2
Hypoventilation = increased CO2 in blood (so _____ blood pH)
Hyperventilation = increased CO2 removal from blood (so _____ blood pH)
decrease - more acidic
increase - more basic
Total lung capacity (TLC) = 6-7L
_______ = the volume left over after a complete exhale (the smallest volume of air that can be managed without collapsing the lungs)
_______ = the difference between total lung capacity and residual volume
_______ = the volume inhales or exhaled in a normal, unstrained breath
________ = the volume of air that can be forcibly (somatically controlled) exhaled after a normal exhale
________ = volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inhalation
Vital capacity (VC)
Tidal volume (TV)
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
*VC = IRV + TV + ERV
*VC = TLC - RV
In emphysema the alveolar walls are destroyed decreasing recoil in lung tissue. Which of the following changes may be seen in a patient with emphysema?
A- Increased residual volume
B- Decreased total lung capacity
C- Increased blood Oxygen Conc
D- Decreased blood CO2 Conc
Answer is A: The elastic properties of the lung are important during exhalation; passive recoil helps decrease lung volume. With decreased recoil, the patient will have difficulty exhaling completely, which increases the residual volume left in lungs after total exhalation. B is wrong because the total lung capacity will increase (there's less recoil opposing inhalation)
ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE Deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary arteries arrive at lung capillaries (originating from R ventricle) Gas Diffusion follows Pressure differentials & Henry's law: O2 has higher partial pressure in the alveolar sac, and so diffused down gradient into capillaries, to bind to Hemoglobin for transport. CO2 has higher partial pressure in the capillaries, and so diffuse down gradient from capillaries to alveolar sac, for expiration. *there are no active transporters for CO2 or O2 in the alveoli!
Henry's Law: for a given T, the amount of gas diffused in a liquid (i.e. blood in the capillaries) is directly proportional to its partial pressure and its solubility in water
This means that as a diver descends gas dissolves more easily into our body.
Dilation of capillaries allows more blood thru the vessels = more thermal energy lost Constriction = less blood thru vessels = less thermal energy lost (more heat conserved)
CO2 + H20 <---> H2CO3 <--> HCO3- + H+
Normal pH range is 7.35-7.45
Acidemia = When blood is too acidic (lower pH) (i.e. shifted to the Right) H+-sensing chemoreceptors next to brain barrier send signals to increase the respiratory rate Increased respiratory rate increases the rate of CO2 removal, which shifts the equation to the Left
Alkalemia = blood is too basic (high pH) (i.e. shifted to the Left) Brain slows respiratory rate, to decrease the rate CO2 is exhaled (thus keeping more CO2 in the blood), which shifts the rxn to the Right to lower the pH i.e. metabolic acidosis = body compensates by increasing respiratory rate to breath off some of the CO2 i.e. anaerobic respiration generates lactic acid; methanol & formaldehyde produce organic acids; Type I Diabetes pts can produce ketoacids when insulin is very low
Hyperventilation = makes your blood more basic (greater loss of CO2)
Hypoventilation = makes your blood more acidic
*in pH control, the important thing to remember is that CO2 is always going to be produced, constantly, by the metabolism of your tissues. So, if breathing rate decreases, don't focus on the O2 that isn't getting to your tissues - focus first on the CO2 that isn't being exhaled, that is making your pH increasingly acidic!!
SA node --> AV node --> bundle of His (AV bundle) and branches --> Purkinje fibers SA node depolarization causes atria to contract simultaneously AV node connects atrial and ventricular depolarization; signal is delayed at AV node (to allow ventricles to fill completely before they contract) Signal travels down bundle of His and its branches (in the interventricular septum) to Purkinje fibers Cardiac smooth Muscle cells are connected by intercalated discs= many gap junctions, allows for coordinated ventricular contraction
_____ depolarization of atria in response to SA node triggering
_____ delay of AV node to allow ventricular filling
______ depolarization of ventricles, triggers main pumping contraction
______ beginning of ventricular re-polarization, should be flat
_____ Ventricular repolarization
_______ = ventricular contraction; closure of AV valves (to prevent backflow into atria), and semilunar valves open to allow blood to be pumped out of ventricles
______ = ventricular relaxation; semilunar valves are closed, while AV valves open to allow blood to fill ventricles (flowing from atria)
*P wave triggers Atrial depolarization = atrial systole
*QRS triggers ventricular depolarization = ventricular systole
*tarychardia = abnormally fast HR; less time for diastole (atrial and ventricular relaxation); doesn't allow time for blood to fully distend the ventricles, which happens when ventricles are relaxed. Thus, heart can't properly fill with blood, and stops pumping blood; systemic pressure drops.
Cardiac Output = total blood volume pumped by ventricle in a minute
CO = HR x SV
CO = cardiac output (L/min)
SV = stroke volume (L/beat)
HR = Heart rate (beats/min)
which is more elastic, thicker, and more muscular, veins or arteries?
which one has valves?
veins - arteries don't have valves
Platelets, also called thrombocytes, are membrane-bound cell fragments derived from the fragmentationof larger precursor cells called _______, which are derived from stem cells in the bone marrow. Platelets are important for the blood clotting
_______ Force/Area that blood exerts on vessel walls(due to heart contraction and vessel elasticity) Pushes fluid out of bloodstream and into interstitium
______ pressure "sucking" pressure generated by conc gradient of solutes present in the blood vessel; they draw water from interstitium to blood Called "_____" because attributable to plasma proteins
Sympathetic effects: sympathetic postganglionic nerve fibers release norepinephrine acting on alpha receptors causes vasoconstriction. Increases heart contractile rate and force (increase HR, blood volume per beat) Decreased flow (vasoconstriction) to skin, digestive system, kidneys via increased vasoconstriction (increased sympathetic input)(b/c these organs aren't as active when in fight-or-flight) Increased flow (vasodilation by decreasing sympathetic activity to these arterioles) on skeletal muscle and brain. When cold, there's vasoconstriction (increased sympathetic input) of arterioles to the skin.
Parasympathetic effects: Plays only a minor role in regulation of the circulation Major circulatory effect is the control of heart rate by way of parasympathetic fibres carried to the heart in the vagus nerves. Principally, parasympathetic stimulation causes a marked decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropic effect) and a slight decrease in heart muscle contractility (negative inotropic effect Example: response to injury - vasodilation to the area (from decreasing sympathetic input to the area) allows greater blood flow and inflammation; brings in lymphocytes and macrophages, etc
Flow and velocity: Velocity of flow decreases as total cross-sectional area of tubs increases (i.e. flow is slowest in capillaries)
so is velocity higher in aorta or arterioles?
Why do we need lymphatic system to return protein to blood vessels?
Because proteins leak out of bloodstream due to pressure and conc gradients. They cannot be readily absorbed, because blood pressure and protein conc are both higher in the blood vessels than in interstitial space.
______ can trigger salivation (controlled by parasympathetic system)
*sympathetic system inhibits salivation - this is why, when you have stage fright or some other fight-or-flight situation, your mouth feels dry Enzymes in saliva = salivary amylase, salivary lipase
type of cell?
______ HCl and Intrinsic factor(glycoprotein involved in Vit B12 absorption)
_______ Pepsinogen(a zymogen; cleaved and activated by acid in stomach)
______ Mucous and bicarbonate (to protect the stomach lining from destruction by acidic environment)
Gastrin ---- >Parietal cell
Duodenum of small intestine Brush border enzymes:
Disaccharidases (amylase, lactase, sucrase)
*why to people with lactose intolerance have symptoms of bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea? Bacteria in the intestines hydrolyze the sugar, resulting in methane gas (bloating) their inability to digest lactose (a disaccharide) has an osmotic effect, pulling water into stool (diarrhea)
_______ = stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion; potentiates CCK's actions
_______ = stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion; stimulates gall bladder contraction (which contains the bile from the liver); potentiates secretin's actions
_______ - facilitate absorption - are a "holding dock" for free FA's and monoglycerides while they're being digested by lipase, and diffuse across the membrane.
Bile salts are hydrophobic, amphipathic, or hydrophillic?
small intestine parts:
_______ Digestion of nutrients (peptides to aa, sugar chains to monosaccharides, TAG's to FFA's via brush border enzymes as well as pancreatic secreted enzymes - trypsin (what type of amino acids it cleaves?______), chymotrypsin (what type of amino acid it cleaves? _____ ) for protein; pancreatic lipase for fat; pancreatic amylase for sugars
_______ Absorption of monosaccharides, aa, FA have villi with microvilli on the epithelial cells
Produced in intestine.
Transports dietary TAG's,cholesterol, and cholesterolesters from s.i. to tissue
Chylomicron (made by intestine)
Similar to chylomicrons, but produced in liver. Transports TAG's, FA's (including non-dietary FA's) from liver to other tissue.
VLDL (made by liver)
_____ delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissue for biosynthesis; steroidogenesis; membranes; bile.
majority of cholesterol is in LDL;
Part of Reverse Cholesterol Transport: synthesized in liver and intestines as protein-rich particles. It enter circulation to pick up excess cholesterol from blood vessels for excretion Transfers apolipoproteins to other lipoproteins; or cholesterol to steroidogenic tissue
HDL "good" cholesterol b/c picks up excess from blood vessels for excretion
cofactors vs coenzymes
*recall that _______ are organic, while ______ are metal ions
Starling forces: Hydrostatic pressure of glomerular capillaries are higher than hydrostatic pressure from the Bowman's capsule
Osmolarity of the blood in glomerular capillaries is higher than in Bowman's space = this osmotic pressure opposes filtration
However, the hydrostatic pressure (contributed by bp of the arterioles) is a lot higher than the osmotic pressure that opposes it
proximal convoluted tubule:
reabsorbs __ , __ , __, and ___
secretes ___ , ___ , __ and ___
reabsorbs: AA, Glucose, Salts, vitamins
secretes: H+ , K+, NH3 ammonia , Urea
loop of henle:
______ limb = only permeable to water; water flows out here
______ limb = only permeable to salts; impermeable to water
_____: DCT and Collecting duct (pressure).
_____: Collecting duct (aquaporins/ osmolarity)
_______ Present on almost all cells Presents to cytotoxic T cells, which target that cell for destruction This is when you want to destroy self-cells that are infected
_____ Present on only APC's (antigen-presenting cells) - macrophages, dendritic cells, B-Cells. Presents to helper T cells - attracts other immune cells to the area; activates antibody production
which muscle is striated and not striated?
Type of nucleus, multinucleated, un-nucleated, 1/2 nuclei:
- skeletal: striated
- cardiac: striated
- smooth: non-striated
- Cardiac: 1/2 Nuclei
- Smooth: un-nucleated
- Skeletal: multinucleated
Slow twitch fibers = _______ fibers; (____ more or less myoglobin?) Longer lasting contraction; i.e. posture i.e. dark meat in thigh of chicken
Fast-twitch fibers = _____ fibers; (_______ more or less myoglobin?) Faster contraction; fatigue quickly i.e. white breast meat of chicken
more myoglobin - slow twitch
less myglobin - fast twitch
Actin or myosin
Thick filaments = _____
Thin filaments = _____
myosin - thick
actin - thin
Muscle --> Myocyte ---> Myofibrils -- > sarcomere
______ = cell membrane of myocyte
ACh receptors are here; binding of ACh causes depolarization of membrane, which spreads to the fibrils via T-tubules
Sarcoplasm = modified cytoplasm of myocyte
Sarcoplasmic reticulum = modified ER that contains high Ca2+ ions; surrounds _____ in a myocyte
T-tubules = transverse; allows a depolarization to travel deep into the muscle to influence all the myofibrils
Slow-twitch red muscle (TYPE I)
Has ______ mitochondria; performs _______ for ATP
Fast-twitch white muscle (TYPE II)
Has _______ mitochondria; performs ____ for ATP
_______ Muscle to bone
______ Bone to bone
Organic components: Collagen, glycoproteins, peptides
Inorganic components: Calcium, phosphate, hydroxide (formhydroxyapatite)
Formation of long bone
When mesenchymal tissue (undifferentiated, embryonic connective tissue) is transformed into bone - i.e. in skull
decrease in population due to event/ disaster/
decrease in population due to one new population maybe leaving and starting its own, first organisms in that area
______ refers to alterations in the composition of a gene pool due to migration of individuals between different populations.