Biology OneNote RED terms

  1. what type of dominance?

    Complete dominance (i.e. brown eyes) 

    _________ = when more than 1 dominant allele exists for a given gene 

    _______ = NEITHER of the 2 alleles present is dominant; a heterozygote expresses a phenotype that is intermediate between 2 homozygous phenotypes (i.e. a pink flower is the intermediate between white and red)
    Codominance

    Incomplete dominance
  2. _________ = the proportion of individuals in a population carrying an allele that actually express the phenotype = probability that, given the genotype, the person expresses the phenotype
    Penetrance
  3. Expressivity = varying phenotypes despite identical genotypes If ________, then all individuals with a given genotype express the same phenotype If ________, then individuals with the same genotype can have diff phenotypes Considered largely on the individual level - if pts with the same mutation have different presentations
    constant

    variable
  4. _______ = point mutations in 3rd position of codon (wobble position) 

    _______ = a point mutation resulting in substitution of one aa for another in the protein  

    _______ = coding for a premature STOP codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) 




    ________ = insertion or deletion mutations When nt's (1 or more) are ADDED OR DELETED to an mRNA sequence





    ________  When a segment is copied multiple times in the genome 



     

    ________ When segments from 2 diff chromosomes are exchanged
    Silent/degenerate

    Missense


    Nonsense

    Frameshift mutations

    Duplication mutations 


    Translocation mutations
  5. Genetic Drift = Changes in composition of gene pool due to chance (i.e. mutations, homozygosity)  

    ________ = extreme genetic drift; when the first organism that arrives in an area influences the environment to favor their own survival, at the exclusion of other species (i.e. microbiota that first get on babies) When small population of a species is in reproductive isolation (due to natural barriers, events, other ______ which drastically and suddenly reduce the size of population available for breeding) Because the breeding group is small, ______ may occur => increases homozygosity of both dominant and recessive genotypes
    Founder effect

    bottlenecks

    inbreeding
  6. Monohybrid cross = only 1 trait is being studied Crossing 2 heterozygotes for a trait with complete dominance =  ______ ratio of genotypes, ______ ratio of phenotypes. 

    Dihybrid cross = when you use a 4x4 Punnett square to account for 2 different genes: Dihybrid Crosses of 2 heterozygotes with complete dominance = _______ phenotypic ratio distribution.
    1:2:1

    3:1

    9:3:3:1
  7. Unless stated otherwise, assume that all sex-linked traits are _______
    X-linked recessive
  8. *Recombination frequency (θ) = the probability that 2 alleles are separated from each other during crossing over; approximately equal to the distance between the genes on the chromosome. Tightly linked genes have a recombination frequency of _______ Weakly linked genes have recombination frequencies of ______ % (that's the highest, as per independent assortment)
    0

    50%
  9. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium =  When gene pool is stable, gene freq aren't changing, and thus evolution is not occurring: 

    The population is very large (no genetic drift) 

    No mutations that affect the gene pool 

    Mating is random (no sexual selection) 

    There is no migration into or out of the population. 

    The genes in the population are all equally successful at reproducing.
  10. ________ Loss of extremes; Keeps phenotypes in a specific range (i.e. fetus birth size for humans) 

     

    _______  Adaptive pressure that pushes toward dominance of an initially extreme phenotype (i.e. when we give bacteria an antibiotic, and only the bacteria with resistance will survive) 

     

    _______ 2 extreme phenotypes are selected over the norm (i.e. Darwin's finches; small and large beaks (polymorphisms) are selected over medium beaks due to the type of food availability)
    Stabilizing Selection 

    Directional Selection

    Disruptive Selection
  11. Type of evolution:

    _______ 2 species with common ancestor become less similar due to different evolutionary pressures 



    _______ 2 species with common ancestor remain similar because similar environment, etc 



    _______ 2 species with no recent common ancestor become more similar because of similar environment, etc (i.e. fish, dolphin)
    Divergent 

    Parallel 

    Convergent
  12. Eukaryotic cells *distinct from prokaryotic cells because they have a nucleus enclosed in a membrane Nucleus Nuclear membrane = double membrane  Nuclear pores = allow for selective 2-way exchange of material Genes --> linear DNA --> wrapped around histones --> wound into chromosomes 

    ______  = site of rRNA transcription, processing, and assembly
    Nucleolus
  13. Mitochondria facts:




    Self-replication: Mitochondrial DNA = mDNA = double-stranded DNA Semi-autonomous: have some of their own genes that replicate independently of nucleus viabinary fission = cytoplasmic/extranuclear inheritance
  14. *Cytoskeleton = Provides structure; highways for transporting materials (components below)
    ---------------------------------

    _______ = polymerized actin 




    Microtubules = hallow polymers of ______ 

    Involved in mitosis (attaches to ______ and _______ to separate sister chromatids), cell transport  Primary pathways for motor proteins (kinesin, dynein) 

    Cilia & flagella: Cilia move material along surface of cell; flagella move cell itself They share the same structure: 9+2 structure 9 pairs (doublets) of tubulin in outer ring 2 central microtubules  (only in eukaryotic cells; bacterial cells have different structure) 








    Centrioles = microtubule-organizing centers Structure = 9 triplets around a hollow center Found in region called centrosome During mitosis, they migrate to opposite poles of the dividing cell; organize the mitotic spindle The microtubules can attach to chromosomes via kinetochores; pull the sister chromatids apart 





    Intermediate filaments i.e. keratin, desmin, vimentin, and lamins Cell-cell adhesion; cytoskeleton integrity maintenance; anchors organelles *can withstand a lot of tension; makes cells rigid
    Microfilaments

    tubulin

    kinetochores

    centromeres
  15. Obligate aerobes - require O2 

    Anaerobes - use fermentation 

    ______ anaerobes - can't survive in O2 environment (produces radicals) 

    _______ anaerobes = can switch between 2 metabolic systems (anaerobic & aerobic) 

    _______ anaerobes - can't use O2, not harmed by its presence
    Obligate


    Facultative

    Aerotolerant
  16. Gram ______ = absorbs crystal violet stain = purple  Has thick layer of peptidoglycan 

    Gram ______ = absorbs counterstain but not crystal violet = pink Thin; has thin layer of peptidoglycan In addition to envelope (cell wall + cell membrane), also have outer membranes of phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides
    positive

    negative
  17. ________ Integration of foreign genetic material (i.e. lysed other bacteria) into host genome 



    ________ Sexual reproduction Genetic material is transferred from donor male (+) to recipient female (-) 



    ________ Requires a vector, a virus that carries genetic material from 1 bacteria to another Due to infection by Bacteriophages - viruses that infect bacteria - can accidentally carry some of the DNA from 1 host to another that it infects next 




    ________ Genetic elements that are capable of inserting and removing themselves from genome (Occur in both prokaryotes & eukaryotes)
    Transformation

    Conjugation

    Transduction

    Transposons
  18. ______ sense RNA viruses = genome can be directly translated by host cell ribosomes 

    ______ sense RNA viruses = require synthesis of a complementary strand to be used for protein synthesis Requires that these viruses have an RNA replicase = enzyme catalyses synthesis of the RNA strand complementary to a given RNA template
    Positive

    Negative
  19. Anaphase Mitosis = centromeres split so _______ separate (in humans, 46 on each side) to opposite poles by shortening of kinetochore fibers


    Meiosis Anaphase I _______ separate

    Meiosis anaphase II _______ separate
    sister chromatids

    homologous chromosomes 

    sister chromatids
  20. Male gamete production: spermatogenesis 

    *_______ are the diploid stem cells 

    *_______ forms after division (S stage of cell cycle) 

    *after MeiosisI, _______ form (1n) 

    *after Meoisis II, _______ form (1n) 

    *maturation results in ________
    spermatogonium

    primary spermatocyte

    secondary spermatocytes

    spermatids

    spermatozoa
  21. ______ cells = sustain sperm, stimulate spermatogenesis

     _______ cells = secrete testosterone, which is necessary for spermatogenesis (along with FSH)
    Sertoli

    Leydig
  22. At birth, female has all the ______ (diploid stem cell) that she will ever have  All the oogonia have undergone DNA replication (M phase of cell cycle) and are _______(2n), arrested at Prophase I After female starts menstruating, each month, one oocyte completes Meiosis I to become a _______ (+ polar body) Secondary oocyte is arrested at Metaphase II until fertilization, where it completes meiosis II 

    then last is ovum
    oogonia

    primary oocytes

    secondary oocyte
  23. Ovaries: Granulosa cells = sustain oocytes Theca cells = produce androgens, which are converted to estrogen by granulosa.

    Estrogen = result in development and maintenance of reproductive system, and female secondary sexual characteristics. Stimulate endometrium thickening each month in preparation for implantation (during _______ phase)
    luteal
  24. Corpus Luteum produces _______  which is involved in development and maintenance of the endometrium
    Progesterone
  25. *Follicular phase = selection of dominant follicle; FSH and LH rise, and estrogen rises as a result. It exerts some negative feedback on GnRH and the anterior pituitary. 

    *LH surge = ovulation; estrogen exerts POSITIVE feedback (kisspeptin) and GnRH, LH, and FSH increase. LH causes ovulation of oocyte into abdominal cavity, where it is aided by cilia to enter the fallopian tube. 

    *luteal phase = ruptured follicle forms corpus luteum, which secretes high levels of progesterone and estrogen. Progesterone and Estrogen exert negative feedback on GnRH, FSH, and LH, preventing the ovulation of more follicles.
  26. Pregnancy: Zygote develops into a blastocyst; secretes hCG (similar to LH in its structure and receptor activation) => stimulates corpus luteum to continue secreting estrogen and progesterone during first trimester By second trimester, hCG declines; placenta develops and secretes progesterone and estrogen (which continue to exert negative feedback on hypothalamus (GnRH) 

    Menopause: Ovaries become less sensitive to FSH and LH = ovarian atrophy Estrogen and progesterone levels drop; endometrium atrophies; menstruation stops FSH and LH rise in blood (because no negative feedback from progesterone/estrogen/inhibin)
  27. _______ = ability of one group of cells to influence the fate of other nearby cells
    Induction
  28. _______ induces the ectodermal cells above it to form the neural plate



    *_______ forms at the tip of each neural fold = "fourth germ layer" = sympathetic and parasympathetic PNS systems (sensory, autonomic, adrenal ganglia), melanocytes, Schwann cells, some of the bones and connective tissue of the face

    *____ = CNS (brain and spinal cord)
    Notochord

    Neural crest

    Neural Tube
  29. *Note on Cell potency 

    _______ during 32-cell morula stage Greatest differentiating potential; can create all cell types 

    _______ during blastocyst stage Stem cell that has the potential to differentiate into any of the three germ layers 

    _______ = progenitor cells Have gene activation potential to differentiate into discrete cell types i.e. a hematopoietic cell—and this cell type can differentiate itself into several types of blood cell types like lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, etc
    Totipotent


    Pluripotent


    Multipotent
  30. Senescence and aging Senescence = biological aging 

    Due to shortening of telomeres as cell undergoes many rounds of mitosis Telomeres = GC-rich (higher H-bond density) regions at ends of chromosomes; reduce loss of genetic info and helps prevent DNA unraveling  

    They shorten with each successive replication cycle Some cells have _______ = reverse transcriptase that adds telomeres to ends of chromosomes i.e. in germ cells, fetal cells, tumor cells Aging = senescence + other factors, like environmental
    telomerase
  31. ______ (valve that connects R to L atrium, bypassing lungs) 

    _______ (shunts blood from pulmonary artery to aorta, to skip lungs and go to systemic circulation) 

    _______ (liver bypass - shunts blood from umbilical vein to vena cava)
    Foramen ovale

    Ductus arteriosis

    Ductus venosus
  32. Summation = when a postsyn neuron receives input from multiple presyn neurons 


    ______ summation = multiple signals integrated during a short time period (possibly from same presyn neuron?) 

    ______ summation = additive effects based on number and location of the incoming signals
    Temporal

    Spatial
  33. _______ Produce myelin in  PNS

     ________ Produce myelin in CNS 



    _______ Nourish neurons; form blood-brain barrier; homeostasis of ions; clear out synapses 



    _______ Line brain ventricles; produce CSF 
     help form the barrier that holds in and produces CSF, cerebrospinal fluid. 

    ________ (from mesoderm - come from monocytes) Phagocytic cells of CNS; immune function; antigen presentation
    Schwann cells (ectoderm)

    Oligodendrocytes (ectoderm)

    Astrocytes (from ectoderm) 

    Ependymal cells 

    Microglia
  34. *The period of time when the majority of voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated defines the _______, when no amount of depolarizing current can cause an action potential *Note: increased intensity of a stimulus doesn't result in increased potential difference during polarization; it just results in increased frequency of firing! (since channels inactivate at specific potentials) 

    *Hyperpolarization during repolarization period makes the neuron refractory to further action potentials 

    ______ (requires greater than normal stimulation to cause AP, since the potential starts out more negative than its resting membrane value)
    ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD


    Relative refractory period
  35. Action potential arrival at the nerve terminal causes voltage-gated ______ channels to open, triggering fusion of membrane-bound vesicles with cell membrane, releasing their nt contents
    Ca2+
  36. _______ collections of neurons in the PNS 

    may contain multiple types of info (sensory or motor) 

    contain cell bodies in ganglia 
    ------------------------------

    ______ collections of neurons in the CNS that

    contain only 1 type of info 

    contain cell bodies in nuclei
    nerves

    Tracts
  37. Peptide hormone:

    Gs = stimulates adenylyl cyclase to convert ____ to  ______
    ATP to cAMP
  38. Amino-acid derivative hormones 

    Derived from 1 or 2 aa

     i.e. catecholamines (EP, NE, DA)

    and thyroid hormones (T3/T4) 

    Catecholamine's mechanism of action is like peptide hormones where they bind to extracellular receptors; cause signal cascade; have fast, short effect 

    Thyroid hormone mechanism of action is like steroid hormones - they bind to intracellular receptors; have slow, longer lasting effects
  39. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system: 

    Low flow and low blood pressure are detected

    juxtaglomerular cells  (found in afferent arteriole) secrete renin 

    Liver releases angiotensinogen 

    Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I 

    ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) in lungs cleaves Angio I to Angio II 

    Angiotensin II stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone 

    Aldosterone acts on kidney DCT and collecting ducts to increase Na+ reabsorption

    Blood volume and cardiac output increase
  40. _______ inhibits insulin and glucagon plus HCl secretion in stomach.
    somatostatin
  41. _______ is produced by the kindeys

    the ______ Secretes Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to help regulate salt and water balance (promotes Na+ and thus water excretion in kidney) - works antagonistically with aldosterone
    EPO (erythropoietin) 

    heart
  42. Squalene which is a precursor to cholesterol is a ______ terpene with ___ isoprenes and ___ carbons

    Vitamin A is a _____ terpene with ____ isoprenes and ____ carbons
    triterpene with 6 isoprenes and 30C

    diterpene with 4 isoprenes and 20C
  43. Thyroid gland: Calcitonin Made in _______ cells (C-cells) of thyroid gland Minor role in calcium homeostasis Calcitonin "tones down" calcium levels in the blood (acts antagonistically with parathyroid hormone, PTH) 

    Actions: 

    Decrease calcium resorption from bone (= Increase calcium storage in bone) 

    Decreases calcium absorption from s.i. 

    Increases calcium excretion from kidney (= decrease Ca2+ reabsorption in kidney)
    parafollicular
  44. Cortisol is long-term hormone; _______ is fast-response hormone to starvation state. ________ (same as first blank) stimulates gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, lipolysis and muscle breakdown. Cortisol mitigates ________ (same) effect by mildly promoting glycogenesis.
    Epinephrine
  45. *Recall that ________ stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver. The _______ and _________ join to secrete bile, enzymes, and bicarb  into small intestine.
    gallbadder

    pancreatic duct

    common bile duct
  46. Pancreas:

    Exocrine cells secrete: ______ and _____

    Endocrine cells secrete: Secretin, CCK, Gastric inhibitory polypetide, insulin, and glucagon.


    Pancreas has islets of Langerhans which consists of ______ cells (glucagon), ______ cells (insulin), and _______ cells (somatostatin)
    enzymes

    bicarbonate

    alpha

    beta

    delta
  47. Progression: Nares => _______ => pharynx => _______ => ________ => bronchi => bronchioles => ______
    nasal cavity

    larynx (voice box)

    trachea

    alveoli
  48. Inhalation-
    Active process: Requires actively _______ the diaphragm muscle, and external intercostal muscles pull rib cage up 


    Exhalation-
    Passive process: simple _______ of the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm will cause exhalation of air from lungs You can also force more air out, more quickly, using _______ and ________
    contracting

    relaxation

    internal intercostals

    abdominals
  49. Regulation of breathing Ventilation is controlled by ventilation center in the medulla Chemoreceptors detect changes in CO2 Hypercarbia = too much CO2 in blood = acidosis of blood => when PCO2 rises, medulla increases respiratory rate to blow off the CO2 

    Hypoventilation = increased CO2 in blood (so _____ blood pH)

    Hyperventilation = increased CO2 removal from blood  (so _____ blood pH)
    decrease - more acidic

    increase - more basic
  50. Total lung capacity (TLC) = 6-7L 

    _______ = the volume left over after a complete exhale (the smallest volume of air that can be managed without collapsing the lungs) 

    _______ = the difference between total lung capacity and residual volume 

    _______ = the volume inhales or exhaled in a normal, unstrained breath 

    ________ = the volume of air that can be forcibly (somatically controlled) exhaled after a normal exhale 

    ________ = volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inhalation
    Residual volume

    Vital capacity (VC)

    Tidal volume (TV)

    Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)


    Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)




    *VC = IRV + TV + ERV 

    *VC = TLC - RV
  51. In emphysema the alveolar walls are destroyed decreasing recoil in lung tissue. Which of the following changes may be seen in a patient with emphysema?

    A- Increased residual volume
    B- Decreased total lung capacity
    C- Increased blood Oxygen Conc
    D- Decreased blood CO2 Conc
    Answer is A: The elastic properties of the lung are important during exhalation; passive recoil helps decrease lung volume. With decreased recoil, the patient will have difficulty exhaling completely, which increases the residual volume left in lungs after total exhalation.  B is wrong because the total lung capacity will increase (there's less recoil opposing inhalation)
  52. ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE Deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary arteries arrive at lung capillaries (originating from R ventricle) Gas Diffusion follows Pressure differentials & Henry's law: O2 has higher partial pressure in the alveolar sac, and so diffused down gradient into capillaries, to bind to Hemoglobin for transport. CO2 has higher partial pressure in the capillaries, and so diffuse down gradient from capillaries to alveolar sac, for expiration. *there are no active transporters for CO2 or O2 in the alveoli!
  53. Henry's Law: for a given T, the amount of gas diffused in a liquid (i.e. blood in the capillaries) is directly proportional to its partial pressure and its solubility in water 

    This means that as a diver descends gas dissolves more easily into our body.
    ---------------------------------------

    Dilation of capillaries allows more blood thru the vessels = more thermal energy lost Constriction = less blood thru vessels = less thermal energy lost (more heat conserved)
  54. CO2 + H20 <---> H2CO3 <--> HCO3- + H+

    Normal pH range is 7.35-7.45 
    Acidemia = When blood is too acidic (lower pH) (i.e. shifted to the Right) H+-sensing chemoreceptors next to brain barrier send signals to increase the respiratory rate Increased respiratory rate increases the rate of CO2 removal, which shifts the equation to the Left 

    Alkalemia = blood is too basic (high pH) (i.e. shifted to the Left) Brain slows respiratory rate, to decrease the rate CO2 is exhaled (thus keeping more CO2 in the blood), which shifts the rxn to the Right to lower the pH i.e. metabolic acidosis = body compensates by increasing respiratory rate to breath off some of the CO2 i.e. anaerobic respiration generates lactic acid; methanol & formaldehyde produce organic acids; Type I Diabetes pts can produce ketoacids when insulin is very low 

    Hyperventilation = makes your blood more basic (greater loss of CO2) 

    Hypoventilation = makes your blood more acidic 

     *in pH control, the important thing to remember is that CO2 is always going to be produced, constantly, by the metabolism of your tissues. So, if breathing rate decreases, don't focus on the O2 that isn't getting to your tissues - focus first on the CO2 that isn't being exhaled, that is making your pH increasingly acidic!!
  55. SA node --> AV node --> bundle of His (AV bundle) and branches --> Purkinje fibers SA node depolarization causes atria to contract simultaneously AV node connects atrial and ventricular depolarization; signal is delayed at AV node (to allow ventricles to fill completely before they contract) Signal travels down bundle of His and its branches (in the interventricular septum) to Purkinje fibers Cardiac smooth Muscle cells are connected by intercalated discs= many gap junctions, allows for coordinated ventricular contraction
  56. _____ depolarization of atria in response to SA node triggering

    _____ delay of AV node to allow ventricular filling

    ______ depolarization of ventricles, triggers main pumping contraction


    ______ beginning of ventricular re-polarization, should be flat

    _____ Ventricular repolarization
    P-Wave


    PR interval

    QRS complex

    ST segment


    T-wave
  57. _______ = ventricular contraction; closure of AV valves (to prevent backflow into atria), and semilunar valves open to allow blood to be pumped out of ventricles
    Systole
  58. ______ = ventricular relaxation; semilunar valves are closed, while AV valves open to allow blood to fill ventricles (flowing from atria)
    Diastole
  59. *P wave triggers Atrial depolarization = atrial systole 

    *QRS triggers ventricular depolarization = ventricular systole 

    *tarychardia = abnormally fast HR; less time for diastole (atrial and ventricular relaxation); doesn't allow time for blood to fully distend the ventricles, which happens when ventricles are relaxed. Thus, heart can't properly fill with blood, and stops pumping blood; systemic pressure drops.
  60. Cardiac Output = total blood volume pumped by ventricle in a minute 



    CO = HR x SV 

    CO = cardiac output (L/min) 
    SV = stroke volume (L/beat) 
    HR = Heart rate (beats/min)
  61. which is more elastic, thicker, and more muscular, veins or arteries?

    which one has valves?
    arteries

    veins - arteries don't have valves
  62. Platelets, also called thrombocytes, are membrane-bound cell fragments derived from the fragmentationof larger precursor cells called _______, which are derived from stem cells in the bone marrow. Platelets are important for the blood clotting
    megakaryocytes
  63. what pressure?

    _______ Force/Area that blood exerts on vessel walls(due to heart contraction and vessel elasticity) Pushes fluid out of bloodstream and into interstitium 

    ______ pressure "sucking" pressure generated by conc gradient of solutes present in the blood vessel; they draw water from interstitium to blood Called "_____" because attributable to plasma proteins
    Hydrostatic pressure 

    Osmotic (oncotic)

    oncotic pressure
  64. Sympathetic effects: sympathetic postganglionic nerve fibers release norepinephrine acting on alpha receptors causes vasoconstriction. Increases heart contractile rate and force (increase HR, blood volume per beat) Decreased flow (vasoconstriction) to skin, digestive system, kidneys via increased vasoconstriction (increased sympathetic input)(b/c these organs aren't as active when in fight-or-flight) Increased flow (vasodilation by decreasing sympathetic activity to these arterioles) on skeletal muscle and brain. When cold, there's vasoconstriction (increased sympathetic input) of arterioles to the skin. 

    --------------------------------

    Parasympathetic effects: Plays only a minor role in regulation of the circulation Major circulatory effect is the control of heart rate by way of parasympathetic fibres carried to the heart in the vagus nerves. Principally, parasympathetic stimulation causes a marked decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropic effect) and a slight decrease in heart muscle contractility (negative inotropic effect Example: response to injury - vasodilation to the area (from decreasing sympathetic input to the area) allows greater blood flow and inflammation; brings in lymphocytes and macrophages, etc
  65. Flow and velocity: Velocity of flow decreases as total cross-sectional area of tubs increases (i.e. flow is slowest in capillaries)

    so is velocity higher in aorta or arterioles?
    aorta
  66. Why do we need lymphatic system to return protein to blood vessels?
    Because proteins leak out of bloodstream due to pressure and conc gradients. They cannot be readily absorbed, because blood pressure and protein conc are both higher in the blood vessels than in interstitial space.
  67. ______ can trigger salivation (controlled by parasympathetic system) 

    *sympathetic system inhibits salivation - this is why, when you have stage fright or some other fight-or-flight situation, your mouth feels dry Enzymes in saliva = salivary amylase, salivary lipase
    Cephalic phase
  68. type of cell?

    ______  HCl and  Intrinsic factor(glycoprotein involved in Vit B12 absorption)





    _______ Pepsinogen(a zymogen; cleaved and activated by acid in stomach)   






    ______ Mucous and bicarbonate (to protect the stomach lining from destruction by acidic environment)
    Gastrin ---- >Parietal cell 

    Chief cell 

    Goblet cells
  69. Duodenum of small intestine Brush border enzymes: 
    Peptidases, dipeptidases 

    Disaccharidases (amylase, lactase, sucrase) 

    *why to people with lactose intolerance have symptoms of bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea? Bacteria in the intestines hydrolyze the sugar, resulting in methane gas (bloating) their inability to digest lactose (a disaccharide) has an osmotic effect, pulling water into stool (diarrhea)
  70. _______ = stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion; potentiates CCK's actions
    Secretin
  71. _______ = stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion; stimulates gall bladder contraction (which contains the bile from the liver); potentiates secretin's actions
    CCK
  72. _______ - facilitate absorption - are a "holding dock" for free FA's and monoglycerides while they're being digested by lipase, and diffuse across the membrane.

    Bile salts are hydrophobic, amphipathic, or hydrophillic?
    Micelles

    amphipathic
  73. small intestine parts:



    _______ Digestion of nutrients (peptides to aa, sugar chains to monosaccharides, TAG's to FFA's via brush border enzymes as well as pancreatic secreted enzymes - trypsin (what type of amino acids it cleaves?______), chymotrypsin (what type of amino acid it cleaves? _____ ) for protein; pancreatic lipase for fat; pancreatic amylase for sugars 




    _______ Absorption of monosaccharides, aa, FA have villi with microvilli on the epithelial cells 

    ________  Absorption
    Duodenum

    Lys, Arg

    aromatic

    Jejunum

    Ileum
  74. Produced in intestine.  

    Transports dietary TAG's,cholesterol, and cholesterolesters from s.i. to tissue
    Chylomicron (made by intestine)
  75. Similar to chylomicrons, but produced in liver. Transports TAG's, FA's (including non-dietary FA's) from liver to other tissue.
    VLDL  (made by liver)
  76. _____ delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissue for biosynthesis; steroidogenesis; membranes; bile.
    LDL 

    "bad" cholesterol 

    majority of cholesterol is in LDL;
  77. Part of Reverse Cholesterol Transport: synthesized in liver and intestines as protein-rich particles. It enter circulation to pick up excess cholesterol from blood vessels for excretion Transfers apolipoproteins to other lipoproteins; or cholesterol to steroidogenic tissue
    HDL  "good" cholesterol b/c picks up excess from blood vessels for excretion
  78. cofactors vs coenzymes

    *recall that _______ are organic, while ______ are metal ions
    coenzymes

    cofactors
  79. Starling forces: Hydrostatic pressure of glomerular capillaries are higher than hydrostatic pressure from the Bowman's capsule 

    Osmolarity of the blood in glomerular capillaries is higher than in Bowman's space = this osmotic pressure opposes filtration  

    However, the hydrostatic pressure (contributed by bp of the arterioles) is a lot higher than the osmotic pressure that opposes it
  80. proximal convoluted tubule:

    reabsorbs __ , __ , __, and ___

    secretes ___ , ___ , __ and ___
    reabsorbs: AA, Glucose, Salts, vitamins

    secretes: H+ , K+, NH3 ammonia , Urea
  81. loop of henle:

    ______ limb = only permeable to water; water flows out here 

    ______ limb = only permeable to salts; impermeable to water
    Descending

    Ascending
  82. _____: DCT and Collecting duct (pressure).

    _____: Collecting duct (aquaporins/ osmolarity)
    Aldosterone

    ADH
  83. _______ Present on almost all cells Presents to cytotoxic T cells, which target that cell for destruction This is when you want to destroy self-cells that are infected 

    _____ Present on only APC's (antigen-presenting cells) - macrophages, dendritic cells, B-Cells. Presents to helper T cells - attracts other immune cells to the area; activates antibody production
    MHC I

    MHC II
  84. which muscle is striated and not striated?

    skeletal:
    cardiac:
    smooth:

    Type of nucleus, multinucleated, un-nucleated, 1/2 nuclei:

    Cardiac:
    Smooth:
    Skeletal:
    • skeletal: striated
    • cardiac: striated
    • smooth: non-striated 


    • Cardiac: 1/2 Nuclei
    • Smooth: un-nucleated
    • Skeletal: multinucleated
  85. Slow twitch fibers = _______ fibers; (____ more or less myoglobin?) Longer lasting contraction; i.e. posture i.e. dark meat in thigh of chicken 

    Fast-twitch fibers = _____ fibers; (_______ more or less myoglobin?) Faster contraction; fatigue quickly i.e. white breast meat of chicken
    red

    more myoglobin - slow twitch

    white

    less myglobin - fast twitch
  86. Actin or myosin


    Thick filaments = _____

    Thin filaments = _____
    myosin - thick

    actin - thin
  87. Muscle --> Myocyte ---> Myofibrils -- > sarcomere

    ______ = cell membrane of myocyte 

    ACh receptors are here; binding of ACh causes depolarization of membrane, which spreads to the fibrils via T-tubules 

    Sarcoplasm = modified cytoplasm of myocyte 

    Sarcoplasmic reticulum = modified ER that contains high Ca2+ ions; surrounds _____ in a myocyte 

    T-tubules = transverse; allows a depolarization to travel deep into the muscle to influence all the myofibrils
    Sarcolemma

    myofibrils
  88. Slow-twitch red muscle (TYPE I) 

    Has ______ mitochondria; performs _______ for ATP 

    -----------------------------------

    Fast-twitch white muscle (TYPE II) 

    Has _______ mitochondria; performs ____ for ATP
    more

    oxphos

    less

    glycolysis
  89. _______ Muscle to bone 

      

    ______ Bone to bone 

     
    Bone matrix:
    Organic components: Collagen, glycoproteins, peptides 

    Inorganic components: Calcium, phosphate, hydroxide (formhydroxyapatite)
    Tendons 

    Ligaments
  90. ________ ossification: 

    Formation of long bone 

    ------------------------------------

    _______ ossification: 

    When mesenchymal tissue (undifferentiated, embryonic connective tissue) is transformed into bone - i.e. in skull
    Endochondrial

    Intramembranous
  91. decrease in population due to event/ disaster/
    bottle neck
  92. decrease in population due to one new population maybe leaving and starting its own, first organisms in that area
    founder effect
  93. ______ refers to alterations in the composition of a gene pool due to migration of individuals between different populations.
    Gene flow
Author
JAM41MAN
ID
345643
Card Set
Biology OneNote RED terms
Description
hitesh showed me
Updated